Aakash Rank Booster Test Series For NEET-2020

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04/06/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020


MM : 720 Test - 9 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Answer Key
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (2) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (2) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (3) 146. (1)
3. (2) 39. (4) 75. (4) 111. (2) 147. (3)
4. (2) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (1) 148. (3)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (3) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (4) 78. (3) 114. (4) 150. (2)
7. (2) 43. (4) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (1) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (4) 45. (4) 81. (3) 117. (4) 153. (1)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (1)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (2) 156. (3)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (1) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (3) 50. (3) 86. (3) 122. (4) 158. (2)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (2) 123. (1) 159. (1)
16. (2) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (3)
17. (2) 53. (4) 89. (3) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (1) 54. (1) 90. (3) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (4) 91. (2) 127. (4) 163. (2)
20. (1) 56. (1) 92. (4) 128. (1) 164. (1)
21. (1) 57. (1) 93. (3) 129. (1) 165. (4)
22. (4) 58. (4) 94. (3) 130. (4) 166. (1)
23. (3) 59. (4) 95. (1) 131. (4) 167. (4)
24. (4) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (1) 133. (1) 169. (1)
26. (2) 62. (3) 98. (2) 134. (2) 170. (3)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (4) 135. (2) 171. (2)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (4) 173. (2)
30. (4) 66. (3) 102. (1) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (2) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (3) 68. (3) 104. (4) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (2) 105. (1) 141. (1) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (4) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (2) 107. (3) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (2) 72. (3) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (3)

(1)
Test-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

04/06/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020


MM : 720 Test - 9 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

1. Answer (3) 5. Answer (1)

m m T cos37° = 40
ρ
= =
v 4 d
3 T sin37° = TH
π 
3  2 3
On solving TH = 40 tan 37° = 40 × = 30 N
4
d ρ dm 3d (d )
= + 6. Answer (2)
ρ m d
1
⇒ maximum % error = 2 + 3 × 3 = 11% U mg (h + x ) +
∆= mv 2
2
2. Answer (2)
1
[U] = [ML2T–2], [B] = [x] = [L] = (0.005 × 10 × 10) + × (0.005 × 100)
2
[ML2 T –2 ][L] = 0.5 + 0.25 = 0.75 J
=[A] = [ML5/2T −2 ]
[L1/2 ] 7. Answer (2)
hence [AB] = [ML7/2T–2] m1x1 + m2 x2
X cm =
3. Answer (2) m1 + m2
dx 16σ × 1 + 12σ × 5
v=
α x⇒ =
α x =
dt 16σ + 12σ
x dx t 19
⇒ ∫0 =
∫0 αdt =
x 7
Xcm = 2.7 m from O
α2 2
x= t 8. Answer (1)
4
Iremain = Iwhole – Iremoved
x ∝ t2
4. Answer (2) 1 1  R2 2
 2R  
I = (9M )R 2 −  M   + M   
2 2  3   3  
u = 5 m/s and tanθ = 2
I = 4 MR2
2
gx 9. Answer (4)
y x tan θ −
∴= (1 + tan2 θ)
2u 2
Gm 2 2MV 2 1 2GM
Fg = FC ⇒ [2 2 + 1] = ⇒V = (2 2 + 1)
= 2x – 5x2 R 2 R 2 R

(2)
Aakash Rank Booster Tes t Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

10. Answer (1) 16. Answer (2)

W = T × 4πR 2 ( n1/3 − 1) = 2πTD 2 CV mix =


n1Cv1 + n2Cv 2
n1 + n2
11. Answer (2)
Heat lost = Heat gained 5R 3R
=
CV1 = ,C
2 V2 2
ml + mc (T1 – T2) = (m1 + m2) (T2 – T1) C
n1 = 2 mol ; n2 = 10 mol
m × 540 + m × 1 (100 – 90) = 1200 × 81
5R 3R
550 m = 1200 × 81 2× + 10 ×
Cv mix = 2 2
m = 176 g ≈ 0.176 kg 12
m ≈ 0.18 kg 5R + 15R
= = 1.66R
12
12. Answer (1)
17. Answer (2)
∆V = γ V ∆T
t
4 y = 4 cos2   sin(1000t )
∆V = 3 α V ∆T = 3 × 23 × 10 −6
× π × (0.1)3 × 100  2
3
y = 2 [1 + cos t] sin 1000 t
= 28.9 × 10–6 m3 = 28.9 cc y = 2 sin 1000 t + 2 cos t sin 1000 t
13. Answer (2) = 2 sin 1000 t + sin (1001) t + sin (999) t
H = H1 + H2 Therefore it carries 3 SHM’s
KA(θ) KA(90 – θ) KA(90 – θ) 18. Answer (1)
= + 2v
L L L ∆x = ( π − 2)r = nλ = n
f
θ = 180 – 2θ
2v
∴f = n =
θ = 60°C r ( π − 2)
14. Answer (3) 19. Answer (2)
∆WAB = 1 × R (2T – T) = RT The total charge upto distance ‘r’
2p dq = 4πr 2. dr. ρ
1 × R 2T ln
∆WBC =
p 5 r 
=4πr 2 .dr .ρ0  − 
4 R 
= 2 RT ln2
r
5 2 r3 
∆WCD = 1 × R (T – 2T) q= ∫ dq= 4 πρ0∫
 r dr − dr 
0 4 R 
= – RT
5 r 3 r 4 
∆WDA = – RT ln2 q= 4πρ0  − 
 4 3 4R 
∴ ∆W = ∆WAB + ∆WBC + ∆WCD + ∆WDA
15. Answer (3) Kq 1 1  5 r 3 r 4  ρ0 r  5 r 
∴=
E = 4 πρ0 − =  −
1 T r 2 4πε0 r 2  4 3 4R  4ε0  3 R 
= 1− L
5 TH
20. Answer (1)
1 (T − 50)
= 1− L 8
3 TH Ceq= µF
3
TL 4 5 8
= = ,TH TL q = CeqV = × 6 = 16 µC
TH 5 4 3
8
T − 50
Vx − VA = =2 volt
1 4
= 1− L
3 5 8
T Vx − VB = =4 volt
4 L 2
TL = 300 K VA – VB = 2 volt

(3)
Test-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

21. Answer (1) 26. Answer (2)


E = E1 + E2 = 6 V 1 1 1 1 R
=+ + ⇒ Fm = =∞
Req = 6 Ω F Fl Fm Fl 2
6 1 2 R(µ − 1) R
=
i = 1A = = ∴ Feq =
6 F Fl R 2(µ − 1)
1 2R R
Current through 6 Ω = A Now R= 2=
F =
3 eq
2(µ − 1) (µ − 1)
22. Answer (4)
27. Answer (1)
Let R0 be the initial resistance of both conductor
Intensity of light transmitted from last polaroid.
R1 = R0 [1 + α1θ] ; R2 = R0 [1 + α2θ] I0 I
=I cos2 θ sin
= 2
θ 0 sin2 2θ
In Series, Rs = R1 + R2 = 2R0 2 8
Rs [1 + α3θ] = R0 [1 + α1θ] + R0 [1 + α2θ] 28. Answer (2)

Rs = R0 + R0 = 2R0 h 6.6 × 10−34


=
λ = = 2.8 × 10−34 m
2 R0 [1 + α3θ] = 2R0 + R0 θ [α1 + α2] mv 120 × 10 –3 × 20
29. Answer (1)
α + α2
α3 = 1
2 Y = A. B
23. Answer (3)
= A+B
Susceptibility of ferromagnetic material is much
greater than 1 =A+B
24. Answer (4) 30. Answer (4)
µ 0I µ I  2 n(n – 1) 4(4 − 1)
B= 4 × [sin α + sin β]= 4 × 0   2sin 45° =N = = 6
4πd 4π  L  2 2
31. Answer (2)
µ I8 2
= 0 I A moving conductor is equallent to a battery of
4π L
emf = Bv (motion emf)
Flux with smaller loop
µ0 8 2 2
φ= l I
4π L
φ l2
M= ⇒M ∝
I L
25. Answer (1)
Equivalent circuit
q = q0 cos ωt
I = I2 + I1
dq applying Kirchoff’s law
l= = −ωq0 sin ωt
dt
I1 R + IR – Bv = 0 …(1)
1 q2
 Li 2 = I2 R + IR – Bv = 0 …(2)
2 2C
1 Adding (1) and (2)
ω=
LC 2IR + IR = 2Bv
π 2vB
tan ωt = 1, ωt = =
4 3R
π vB
t= LC ∴ I1 = I2 =
4 3R

(4)
Aakash Rank Booster Tes t Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

32. Answer (3) 36. Answer (2)


1 q2 1 /τ 2 q02 −2t / τ The efficiency of cycle is
=
U = (q0 e − t= ) e
2C 2C 2C T2
(where τ = CR) η = 1−
T1
U = Ui e −2t / τ For adiabatic process
1 TV γ −1 = constant
Ui = Ui e −2t1 / τ
2
7
1 For diatomic γ =
= e −2t1 / τ 5
2
T1V1γ −1 = T2V2γ −1
τ
t1 = ln 2
2 γ −1
V 
t T1 = T2  2 
−  V1 
Now q = q0 e τ

t
T1 = T2 (32)7/5–1
1 − 2
q0 = q0 e τ = T2 × 4
4
 1 3
t2 = τ ln4 = 2 τ ln2 η=  1 − = = 0.75
 4 4
t1 1
= 37. Answer (1)
t2 4
4 × 103 = 1020 × hf
33. Answer (2)
t = 0, inductor behaves like an infinite resistance, 4 × 103
=f = 6.03 × 1016 Hz
V 1020 × 6.023 × 10 −34
So at t = 0, i = and at t = ∞, inductor
R2 The obtained frequency lies in band of x-rays.
behaves like a conducting wire
38. Answer (1)
V V ( R1 + R2 )
= i = 5, 1, 2
Req R1R2
39. Answer (4)
34. Answer (2)
A
3α A−12
2(1β° ) Y2 A−12 The given circuit is under resonance as XL = XC
→ z − 6Y1
z X  →z − 8
 Hence power dissipated in the circuit is
In final product
V2
No. of protons, P = z – 8 =
P = 242 W
R
No. of neutrons, n = A – 12 – z + 8
40. Answer (3)
=A–z–4
IE= IC + IB
n A−z−4
=
P z−8 I
α=C
35. Answer (4) IE
1 1 1 41. Answer (3)
+ =
v u f µ 2 − µ1
ω=
1 1 1 (µ − 1)
− =
−2u u f
ω=
( µ 2 − µ1) A
−1 − 2 1
= (µ − 1)A
2u f
−3 1 ωd = θ
=
2 × 30 f ω′d′= θ′
f = 20 cm ωd + ω′d′ = 0

(5)
Test-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

42. Answer (4) where a is along the inclined plane


S= t3 +5 ∴ Vertical component of acceleration is g sin2θ
ds ∴ relative vertical acceleration of A with respect
Speed,=
v = 3t 2 to B is
dt
g
dv g[sin260° – sin2 30°]= = 4.9 m/s2 in vertical
And rate of change of speed
= = 6t 2
dt
direction
∴ tangential acceleration at 44. Answer (3)
t = 2 s , at = 6 × 2 = 12 m/s2 Kmax = hf – W
at t = 2 s, v = 3(2)2 = 12 m/s 1 2
mv= hf − W is a quadratic in v, hence is a
∴ centripetal acceleration = 2
v 2 144 W
= a= = = 7.2 m/s2 parabola, open towards f-axis v = 0 when f =
c
R 20 h
45. Answer (4)
∴ Net acceleration = at2 + ac2 ≈ 14 m/s2 2
 2π 
43. Answer (4)  2 
ω 0.04 
T =µv 2 = 0.04
µ 2 = =6.25 N
mg sinθ = ma k  2π 
 
a = g sinθ 0.50 

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (2) 53. Answer (4)
No. of sulphur atoms = 0.2 × 2 × NA = 0.4 NA In open vessel n1T1 = n2T2
47. Answer (4) n1 × 300 = n2 × 700
Z2 7
Kinetic energy = 13.6 eV n1 = n2
3
n2
n1 − n2 4
32 9 ∴ =
13.6 × 2 = 13.6 × eV n1 7
2 4
= 30.6 eV 54. Answer (1)
48. Answer (4) Surface tension is a property of substance which
depends on nature of liquid not on its amount.
Isoelectronic species having highest negative
55. Answer (4)
charge is largest in size
∆H =
x
49. Answer (1) PH3 (g) 
1 1
→ P(g) + 3H(g)
SF6 (octahedral Geometry) having total twelve P2H4(g) → 2P(g) + 4H(g), ∆Hrxn = ∆H(P-P) +
90° bond angles 4∆H(P-H)
50. Answer (3) ∆Hrxn = ∆H(P – P) + 4∆H (P – H)
 Charge  x1 4x
Higher the   ratio higher is hydration = x2 + 4 × = x2 + 1
 Radius  3 3
enthalpy. 56. Answer (1)
51. Answer (3) W = – Pext (V2 – V1)
O22− has 10 bonding and 8 antibonding = – 0.2 atm (20 – 10) L = – 0.2 × 10 L – atm
electrons. = – 2 L atm
52. Answer (3) 57. Answer (1)
Correct order of van der Waal gas constant ‘b’ is 102
2O3
Equivalent mass of Al= = 17
CO2 > N2 > O2 > H2 > He 6

(6)
Aakash Rank Booster Tes t Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

58. Answer (4) 71. Answer (2)


Higher is the value of positive SRP most easier Conversion of proteins into amino acids is done
will be the reduction by using pepsin enzyme
59. Answer (4)
72. Answer (3)
NaAl(CO3 )2  Na  Al3  2CO32–
During calcination process hydrated compounds
s s 2s are converted into oxides.
60. Answer (4) 73. Answer (2)
On moving down the group, ionic nature of
NO2 (Brown gas, acidic nature)
hydride increase.
61. Answer (2) 74. Answer (3)
Alkali metal carbonates are thermally stable In Brown ring test complex formed is
62. Answer (3) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+
Morphine is narcotic 75. Answer (4)
63. Answer (1) At elevated temperature, S2 is the dominating
Chloroprene (2-chloro-1,3-butadiene) is form of sulphur which is paramagnetic in nature.
monomer of Neoprene 76. Answer (4)
64. Answer (4)
Both Cu2+ and Ti3+ ions have one unpaired
Starch is a polymer of α-D–(+)glucose electron, So will have equal magnetic moment.
65. Answer (4)
77. Answer (3)
Maximum prescribed concentration of Zn in
drinking water is 5 ppm V2O4 when dissolves in acids gives VO2+.
66. Answer (3) 78. Answer (3)
Total isomers = 12 G.I Np3+ : [Rn]5f4
(SCN + NO2) = 3, (SCN + ONO) = 3, (NCS +
79. Answer (3)
NO2) = 3 (NCS + ONO) = 3
67. Answer (3) Electron withdrawing groups destabilize the
carbocation.
Unit cell of ZnS has 4 molecules of ZnS
 0.97  80. Answer (2)
Hence  N molecules will be in
 97 A  1.4 × meq of acid
% nitrogen =
 0.97 × NA  weight of organic compound
  unit cells
97 × 4 
1.4 × 50 × 0.2
= 2.5 × 10–3 NA = = 56%
0.25
68. Answer (3)
81. Answer (3)
in
RLVP
= ⇒ 2i +=
3 4i
in + N The species which form most stable carbocation
reacts fastest by SN1 mechanism.
2i + 3 = 4i ⇒ 2i = 3
82. Answer (3)
i = 1.5
69. Answer (2)
Weak electrolytes have low value of conductivity
than strong electrolyte.
With increase in concentration conductivity
increases
70. Answer (2)
A = A0 – kt
As 40 = 100 – k × 30 ⇒ 60 = k × 30 83. Answer (4)
k = 2 unit Ring of highest electron density gives fastest rate
20 = 100 – k × t ⇒ 80 = k × t, t = 40 min of EAS.

(7)
Test-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

84. Answer (3) 89. Answer (3)


Racemisation occurs when compound is optically
active.
85. Answer (1)
Ether does not react with sodium.
86. Answer (3)
Compounds having

groups respond to
haloform test
87. Answer (2)
2° alcohols give blue colour in Victor Meyer’s
test.
88. Answer (3) 90. Answer (3)
β-keto acids decarboxylate most easily on Serotonin is used as tranquilizer.
heating.

BOTANY

91. Answer (2) 101. Answer (2)


Rudolf Virchow told that omnis cellula-e cellula. Sexual reproduction is absent in the members of
92. Answer (4) Deuteromycetes.

Non-secretory proteins are synthesised by free 102. Answer (1)


ribosomes. The causal agent of bovine spongiform
encephalopathy is prion.
93. Answer (3)
103. Answer (2)
Chromosomal fibres shorten during anaphase.
104. Answer (4)
94. Answer (3)
In Argemone placentation is parietal.
In metaphase I, double metaphasic plates are
formed. 105. Answer (1)
95. Answer (1) representation is shown in the floral
Number of meiotic divisions required formula of the members of family Liliaceae.
120 106. Answer (4)
= 120 + = 150
4 Tracheids are found in all categories of vascular
96. Answer (2) plants.

Worker bees are sterile. 107. Answer (3)

97. Answer (1) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous in monocot


stem.
Genus of potato and brinjal is Solanum.
108. Answer (2)
98. Answer (2)
At initial stages, cambium is not present in dicot
In museums, larger animals are also preserved in roots.
various ways.
109. Answer (3)
99. Answer (4)
Motile stage are absent in Rhodophyceae. Some
Plants are autotrophs whereas fungi are members of Phaeophyceae show isogamous
heterotrophs. type of sexual reproduction.
100. Answer (3) 110. Answer (3)
Red sea causing organism is a cyanobacteria. In Dryopteris, strobili are not formed.

(8)
Aakash Rank Booster Tes t Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

111. Answer (2) 123. Answer (1)


Water molecules move from its higher water 124. Answer (3)
potential to its lower water potential. Tapetum is the innermost layer of anther wall and
112. Answer (1) its cells are generally polyploid.
Most common and rapid method of water 125. Answer (3)
absorption in plants is passive absorption. Embryo sac is female gametophyte and is
113. Answer (1) haploid.

The liquid oozes out is dilute solution of organic 126. Answer (2)
and inorganic substances. After fertilisation, antipodal cells degenerate.
114. Answer (4) 127. Answer (4)
Fe, Cu B, Zn and Cl are micronutrients. The disorder like colour blindness show criss-
cross inheritance but if mother is carrier then son
115. Answer (4) will be affected.
Nitrobacter converts NO2− into NO3− . 128. Answer (1)
116. Answer (3) Grasshoppers show (XX-XO) type of sex
determination.
Cladophora is a green algae and the aerobic
bacteria belongs to the kingdom Monera. 129. Answer (1)
There are the evidences to suggest that essential
117. Answer (4)
life evolved around RNA.
Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs mostly in
130. Answer (4)
stroma lamellae membrane and in this process,
only ATP is released. There is no tRNA for stop codons.
118. Answer (2) 131. Answer (4)

C4 plants show faster process of carbon fixation. Mushrooms are also considered as SCP.
132. Answer (3)
119. Answer (3)
Statins are obtained from the yeast-Monascus
Protein is used in protoplasmic respiration. purpureus
Facultative anaerobe can respire even in
presence of oxygen. 133. Answer (1)
120. Answer (2) The rate of formation of new organic matter by
consumers is called secondary productivity.
For the continuity of the Krebs cycle, the
availability of oxaloacetic acid is required. 134. Answer (2)
In Amazonian rainforest, number of species of
121. Answer (3)
mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and fishes
RQ for fats is less than 1. are 427, 1300, 378, 427 and 3000 respectively.
122. Answer (4) 135. Answer (2)
Ethylene increases the number of female flowers Ecosanitation is sustainable system for handling
in certain plants. human excreta using dry composting toilets.

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (4) 138. Answer (3)
Glucagon is a hormone. Enzymes act as a The C-peptide is not present in the mature insulin
catalyst for metabolic reactions. and is removed during maturation of pro-insulin
into insulin
137. Answer (4)
139. Answer (3)
Diarrhoea – Increased liquidity of faecal
Lippes loop is an inert IUD. Copper loaded IUDs
discharge, reduction in
and hormone releasing IUDs are medicated IUDs
absorption of food.
140. Answer (2)
Constipation – Faeces are retained within the
colon. Colostrum is rich in IgA.

(9)
Test-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

141. Answer (1) 151. Answer (3)


Inbreeding increases homozygosity. Inbreeding The separated DNA fragments are visualised
is necessary to evolve a pureline in any animal after staining them with a compound known as
ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV
142. Answer (3) radiation. Chilled ethanol is used to precipitate
DNA.
152. Answer (1)
Hugo de Vries talked about saltation (Single step
large mutation) to explain mechanism of
evolution.
153. Answer (1)
TLC = VC + RV
It averages 5800 mL in a healthy adult human.
154. Answer (2)
Pigments Carotenoids,
143. Answer (2) Anthocyanins, etc.
p = 0.6 Alkaloids Morphine, Codeine, etc.
∴ q = 0.4 (  p + q = 1) Terpenoides Monoterpenes, Diterpenes
etc.
q2 = frequency of homozygous recessive
individuals = (0.4)2 = 0.16 = 16% Essential oils Lemon grass oil, etc.
144. Answer (3) Toxins Abrin, Ricin
Malpighian tubules help in excretion. Pheretima Lectins Concanavalin A
is an annelid. Excretory organ in Balanoglossus
is proboscis gland. Drugs Vinblastin, curcumin, etc.
145. Answer (3) Polymeric Rubber, gums, cellulose
Genital warts is caused by Human Papilloma substances
Virus (HPV). 155. Answer (1)
146. Answer (1) Cellulase – Plant cell wall
Vasopressin (ADH) conserves water in the body, Chitinase – Fungal cell wall
in the absence of which excess loss of water will 156. Answer (3)
occur. Nucleases degrade nucleic acid i.e., DNA and
147. Answer (3) RNA.
Ionising radiations like X-rays are used in 157. Answer (4)
Radiography and CT. ADH (anti-diuretic hormone) acts mainly at the
kidney and stimulates resorption of water and
148. Answer (3) electrolytes by the distal tubules thereby reducing
Lungs remove CO2 (200 mL/min). Sweat loss of water through urine (diuresis). PTH
produced by the sweat glands is a watery fluid increases the Ca2+ levels in the blood.
containing NaCl, small amounts of urea, lactic 158. Answer (2)
acid, etc.
LNG-20 : Hormonal IUD
149. Answer (4) Multiload 375 : Copper loaded IUD
Myasthenia gravis – auto immune disorder 159. Answer (1)
Muscular dystrophy – genetic disorder The flower tops, leaves and the resin of cannabis
plant are used in various combinations to
Arthritis – inflammation of joints produce manrijuana, hashish, charas and ganja.
150. Answer (2) 160. Answer (3)
The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is In disruptive selection, two peripheral (extreme)
water vascular system. character values are favoured.

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Aakash Rank Booster Tes t Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

161. Answer (3) Corpora quadrigemina are part of midbrain. Two


Normal cells show a property called contact cerebral hemispheres are connected by corpus
inhibition by virtue of which contact with other callosum.
cells inhibits their growth. Cancer cells do not 173. Answer (2)
exhibit this property.
Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and
162. Answer (2) heparin
Prosthetic groups are organic compounds and 174. Answer (4)
are distinguished from other cofactors in that they
Neurotransmitters may be inhibitory or excitatory.
are tightly bound to the apoenzyme (protein
Tertiary structure of enzyme exhibits an active
portion).
site for binding of substrate. Enzymes in animal
163. Answer (2) body are also called biocatalysts since they
Ribs – 24 (12 pairs) catalyse various metabolic reactions in biological
environment.
164. Answer (1)
175. Answer (2)
QRS complex-depolarisation of the ventricles.
In front of the lens, the aperture surrounded by
T wave – repolarisation of the ventricles. the iris is called the pupil. The diameter of the
165. Answer (4) pupil is regulated by the muscle fibres of iris.
Proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac and 176. Answer (2)
Cry II Ab control cotton bollworms. Homologous organs exhibit divergent evolution.
166. Answer (1) Analogous organs are similar in function but
different in their anatomy.
Microvilli give these cells brush border
appearance. Fallopian tubes and bronchioles are 177. Answer (2)
lined by ciliated epithelium. Alveoli are lined by Chronic inflammation of lymph vessels of lower
squamous epithelium. limbs is seen in filariasis.
167. Answer (4) 178. Answer (2)
A median flexible lobe, acting as tongue Anthrax is an infection caused by Bacillus
(hypopharynx), lies within the cavity enclosed by anthracis. Silicosis is an occupational respiratory
mouthparts. disorder. One of the major causes of
168. Answer (3) Emphysema is smoking. Hypoxia is a clinical
term for lack of proper oxygen supply to the
Neanderthal man – 1400 cc tissues.
169. Answer (1) 179. Answer (2)
Widal test – for typhoid Heart is usually three chambered in reptiles, but
VDRL test– for syphilis four- chambered in crocodiles.
170. Answer (3) 180. Answer (3)
The Leydig cells or interstitial cells, present in the Physiological functions are regulated by
intertubular spaces secrete a group of hormones hormones. On the basis of their chemical nature,
called androgens, mainly testosterone. hormones can be divided into groups :
171. Answer (2) (i) Peptide, polypeptide, protein hormones
(e.g., insulin, glucagon, pituitary hormones,
Eustachian connects the middle ear cavity with hypothalamic hormones, etc.)
the pharynx.
(ii) Steroids (e.g., cortisol, testosterone,
172. Answer (4) estradiol and progesterone)
The hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum and (iii) Iodothyronines (thyroid hormones)
medulla. Three major regions make up the brain
stem : mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata. (iv) Amino-acid derivatives (e.g., epinephrine).

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Edition: 2020-21

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