Arihant Science Term 2 Question Bank Class 10th

CBSE Term II 7
2022
9 1 9
Complete Case Short/Long 3 Practice
Theory Covering Based Answer type Papers with
NCERT ‹questions Questions Explanations
CBSE Term II
2022
Contents
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CHAPTER 01
Carbon and its Compounds 1-17
CHAPTER 02
Periodic Classification of Elements 18-33
CHAPTER 03
How do Organisms Reproduce? 34-53
CHAPTER 04
Heredity and Evolution 54-69
CHAPTER 05
Electricity 70-90
CHAPTER 06
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 91-107
CHAPTER 07
Our Environment 108-124
Practice Papers (1-3) 125-136

CBSE Term II
2022
Syllabus
CBSE Term II Class XII
One Paper Max Marks: 40

No. Units Marks
I. Chemical Substances-Nature and Behaviour: Chapter 4 and 5 10
II. World of Living: Chapter 8 and 9 13
IV. Effects of Current: Chapter 12 and 13 12
V. Natural Resources: Chapter 15 05
THEME MATERIALS
UNIT - I Chemical Substances - Nature and Behaviour
Chapter–4 Carbon and its Compounds
Carbon compounds: Covalent bonding in carbon compounds. Versatile nature of
carbon.Homologous series.
Chapter–5 Periodic Classification of Elements
Periodic Classification of Elements: Need for classification, early attempts at
classification of elements (Dobereiner’s Triads, Newland’s Law of Octaves, Mendeleev’s
Periodic Table), Modern periodic table, gradation in properties, valency, atomic number,
metallic and non-metallic properties.
THEME THE WORLD OF THE LIVING

UNIT - II World of Living
Chapter–8 How do Organisms Reproduce?
Reproduction: Reproduction in animals and plants (asexual and sexual) reproductive
health-need and methods of family planning. Safe sex vs HIV/AIDS.Child bearing and
women’s health.
Chapter–9 Heredity and Evolution
Heredity: Heredity; Mendel’s contribution- Laws for inheritance of traits: Sex
determination: brief introduction;
CBSE Term II
2022
THEME NATURAL PHENOMENA

UNIT - IV Effects of Current
Chapter–12 Electricity
Ohm’s law; Resistance, Resistivity, Factors on which the resistance of a conductor
depends. Series combination of resistors, parallel combination of resistors and its
applications in daily life. Heating effect of electric current and its applications in daily
life. Electric power, Interrelation between P, V, I and R.
Chapter–13 Magnetic Effects of Current
Magnetic Effects of Current: Magnetic field, field lines, field due to a current carrying
conductor, field due to current carrying coil or solenoid; Force on current carrying
conductor, Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, Electric Motor, Electromagnetic induction.
Induced potential difference, Induced current. Fleming’s Right Hand Rule.
THEME NATURAL RESOURCES

UNIT - IV Natural Resources
Chapter–15 Our Environment
Our Environment: Eco-system, Environmental problems, Ozone depletion, waste
production and their solutions. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.
CBSE Circular
Acad - 51/2021, 05 July 2021
Exam Scheme Term I & II
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CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION
(An Autonomous Organisation under the Ministryof Education, Govt. of India)
@CbseClass10th
Books
Hkkjr CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

@CbseClass10th
Books
To cover this
situation, we
have given
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Subjective
Questions in
each Chapter.
Hkkjr CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

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CHAP TER 01
Carbon and It's

Compounds
In this Chapter...
 Covalent Bonding in Carbon  Hydrocarbons
Compounds  Isomerism
 Allotropes of Carbon  Functional Groups
 Organic Compounds  Homologous Series
Carbon is the third most important element after oxygen and ◆

It could lose 4 electrons and form C4+cation. But a large
hydrogen, for the existence of life on the Earth. The Earth amount of energy is required to remove 4 electrons
crust has only 0.02% carbon which is present in the form of leaving behind a carbon cation with 6 protons in its
minerals (like carbonates, hydrogen-carbonates, coal, nucleus holding on just two electrons together, which is
petroleum, etc.) and the atmosphere has 0.03% of carbon not possible.
dioxide. In order to overcome this problem, carbon shares its
Fuels (like wood, kerosene, coal, LPG, CNG, petrol, etc.) valence electrons with other atoms of carbon or with atoms of
clothing material (like cotton, nylon, polyester, etc.), paper, other elements.
rubber, plastics, leather, drugs and dyes are all made up of
carbon. These shared electrons belong to the outermost shells of
both atoms and in this way, both atoms attain the nearest
Covalent Bonding in Carbon Compounds noble gas configuration. This type of bonding is called
covalent bonding.
The bonds which are formed by the sharing of an electron pair
Compounds having covalent bonds are called covalent
between the atoms (either same or different atoms) are known
compounds, these are generally poor conductor of
as covalent bonds.
electricity.
Atomic number of carbon (C) is 6.
So, its electronic configuration K L . Examples of Covalent Bonding
=2,4
Some example depicting of covalent bonding are as follows
Thus, there are 4 electrons in its outermost shell and its octet
can be completed by the following two ways 1. Formation of Methane (CH4 )
4− In the formation of a methane molecule, one carbon atom
◆
It could gain 4 electrons and form C anion. But for a
nucleus having 6 protons, it would be difficult to hold on 10 shares its 4 electrons with four hydrogen atoms (one electron
electrons, i.e. 4 extra electrons. of each hydrogen atom). It shows carbon is tetravalent
02 CBSE Term II Science X
because it possesses 4 valence electrons and hydrogen is ◆

Fullerenes are recently discovered allotropic forms of
monovalent because it has only 1 valence electron. carbon which were prepared for the first time by HW
Before Shared After Kroto, Smalley and Robert Curt by the action of laser beam
combination Electrons combination on the vapours of graphite.
H H H Versatile Nature of Carbon
H C H H C H or H—C—H Main factors that are responsible for the formation of large
number of carbon compounds are
H H H
(i) Catenation The property of self linking of elements mainly
Methane (CH4 ) molecule C-atoms through covalent bonds to form long, straight or
branched chains and rings of different sizes is called
2. Formation of Water Molecule (H2O) catenation. Carbon shows maximum catenation in the
Atomic number of O = 8 periodic table due to its small size and strong C  C bond.
KL
Electronic configuration = 2, 6 (ii) Tetravalency of carbon The valency of carbon is four, i.e.
it is capable of bonding or pairing with four other carbon
Atomic number of H = 1
K atoms or with the atoms of some other monovalent
Electronic configuration = elements like hydrogen, halogen (chlorine, bromine), etc.
1
To attain the stable electronic configuration of the nearest (iii) Tendency to form multiple bonds Carbon has a strong
noble gas, hydrogen needs 1 electron and oxygen needs tendency to form multiple bonds due to it’s small size. It
2 electrons. So, two hydrogen atoms share an electron pair shares more than one electron pair with its own atoms or
with the oxygen atom such that hydrogen acquires a duplet with the atoms of elements like oxygen, nitrogen,
configuration and oxygen an octet, resulting in the sulphur, etc.
formation of two single covalent bonds. Organic Compounds
Before After
combination combination Shared electrons The compounds of carbon except its oxides, carbonates and
hydrogen carbonate salts, are known as organic compounds.
H O H H O H or H — O — H In 1828, German chemist Friedrich Wohler accidently
prepared urea from ammonium cyanate when he was trying to
Water (H 2 O) molecule prepare ammonium cyanate by heating ammonium sulphate
and potassium cyanate. Thus, synthesis of urea discarded the
Properties of Covalent Compounds vital force theory.
The compounds containing covalent bonds are called
covalent compounds. They have following properties i.e.
Hydrocarbons
◆
Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points Organic compounds made up of carbon and hydrogen are
due to small intermolecular forces of attraction between the called hydrocarbons. These are of two types, i.e.
atoms.
1. Aliphatic Saturated Hydrocarbons
◆
Covalent compounds are generally poor conductors of
electricity. This is because the electrons are shared Saturated aliphatic hydrocarbons are called alkane or paraffin.
between atoms and no charged particles are formed in these All the carbon atoms in these are bonded through single bonds.
compounds. The general formula of these compounds is CnH2n+ 2 and suffix
“-ane” is used in their nomenclature.
◆
Covalent compounds are generally volatile in nature.
e.g. CH4 (methane), C2H6 (ethane), etc.
Allotropes of Carbon
2. Aliphatic Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
Allotropy is the property by virtue of which an element exists Those compounds in which at least one double or triple bond
in more than one form and each form has different physical is present between two carbon atoms are called unsaturated
properties but identical chemical properties. These different hdyrocarbons.
forms are called allotropes. Carbon exists in different
allotropic forms; some of them are diamond, graphite and Aliphatic unsaturated hydrocarbons are of two types
fullerene. (i) Alkene Those hydrocarbons which have at least one
◆
Diamond is a colourless transparent substance and very carbon-carbon double bond are called alkenes or olefins.
hard whereas graphite is an opaque substance which have The general formula of these compounds is CnH2n ,
smooth surface and slippery to touch. e.g. C2H4 (ethene).
CBSE Term II Science X 03
(ii) Alkyne Those hydrocarbons which must have at least To satisfy it, a double bond is used between the two carbon
one carbon-carbon triple bond are called alkynes. The atoms.
general common formula of these compounds is H H
CnH2n− 2 , e.g. C2H2 (ethyne). C ==C [Step III]
H H
Structure of Saturated and Unsaturated
Now, all the four valencies of carbon are satisfied.
Compounds
Electron dot structure of ethene
Steps to draw the structure of carbon compound are
Step I. First connect all the carbon atoms together with a H H
single bond. C C
Step II. After that use the hydrogen atoms to satisfy the
remaining valencies of carbon (as carbon forms 4 H H
bonds due to its 4 valency).
Step III. If number of available H-atoms are less than what is 3. Structure of Ethyne (C2H2 )
required, satisfy the remaining valency by using Link the two carbon atoms by single bond.
double or triple bond. C—C [Step I]
1. Structure of Propane (C3H8 ) Link the two hydrogen atoms with unsatisfied valencies of
Same rules are followed here as in case of ethane. Here, the carbon.
three carbon atoms are linked together with a single bond. HC C  H [Step II]
C— C— C [Step I] But in this case even after linking the available hydrogen
atoms with carbon atoms, still two valencies of each carbon is
To satisfy the remaining valencies of carbon atoms, hydrogen
atoms are linked with them. unsatisfy. To satisfy it, a triple bond is used between the two
H H H carbon atoms.
   HC C  H [Step III]
H— C— C— C—H [Step II] In ethyne, the two carbon atoms share three pairs of
  
electrons among themselves to form a carbon-carbon triple
H H H
bond.
2 carbon atoms are bonded to 3 hydrogen atoms and 1 carbon
Each carbon atom shares one electron with each hydrogen
atom is bonded to 2 hydrogen atoms.
atom to form two carbon-hydrogen single bonds.
Electron dot structure of propane
Electron dot structure of ethyne
H H H
H C C H
H C C C H
H H H Structure of Cyclic Compounds

In some compounds, carbon atoms are arranged in the form
2. Structure of Ethene (C2H4 ) of ring. e.g. cyclohexane (C 6H12 ) and benzene (C 6 H 6 ).
Link the two carbon atoms by single bond. H
C— C [Step I] HH
C C
Link the four hydrogen atoms with carbon atom to satisfy the H H H—C C—H
unsatisfied valencies of carbon.
H C C H
H H H H H—C C—H
\ / C C
H H
/ C— C \
[Step II] C
C
H H H H H
But in this case, even after linking the available hydrogen C6H12 C6H6
atoms with carbon atoms, still one valency of each carbon (Cyclohexane) (Benzene)
remains unsatisfy.
Isomerism Names and Formulae of Functional Group
Organic compounds with same molecular formula but Name of functional group Formula of functional group
different chemical and physical properties are called Alcohol — OH
isomers. This phenomenon is called isomerism. Aldehyde O
The difference in properties of these compounds is due to 
the difference in their structures. These compounds have — CHO or  C H
identical molecular formula but different structures. Hence, Ketone O
they are called structural isomers and phenomenon is 
called structural isomerism. C 
Carboxylic acid O
e.g. Two structural isomers are possible for butane (C4H10 ).
H 
H H  C O H
H H H H
C H Thus, — OH in methyl alcohol (CH3OH) and —COOH
H C C C C H H C C
C H (carboxylic acid) in formic acid (HCOOH) are present as
H H H H H H functional groups.
H H
Straight chain structure Branched chain structure Homologous Series
A series of similarly constituted compounds in which the
Functional Groups members present have the same functional group and similar
chemical properties and any two successive members in a
Groups which combine with a carbon chain and decide its
particular series differ in their molecular formula by a
chemical properties are called functional groups.
 CH2 — unit, is called a homologous series.
e.g. — OH in R—OH will decide the chemical properties
e.g. CH4 , C2 H 6 , C 3H 8 , C4H10 are the members of alkane
of this compound, thus it is a functional group.
family.
Chapter
Practice
PART 1 8. Which of the following elements does not show
tetravalency?
Objective Questions (a) Ge (b) Si (c) C (d) O
9.......... is the first synthesised organic compound.
◆ Multiple Choice Questions (a) Alcohol (b) Urea
(c) Vinegar (d) Benzene
1. Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of
(a) only carbon monoxide (NCERT Exemplar) 10. Pentane has the molecular formula C5 H12 . It has
(b) carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide (NCERT Exemplar)
(c) only carbon dioxide (a) 5 covalent bonds (b) 12 covalent bonds
(d) coal (c) 16 covalent bonds (d) 17 covalent bonds
2. Which of the following will contain covalent double 11. Match the following :
bond between its atoms? Column I Column II
(a) H2 (b) O 2
(c) NaCl (d) Cl2 A. C3H8 (i) Cyclic compound
3. Which of the following is the correct representation B. C6H6 (ii) Alkyne

of electron dot structure of nitrogen? (NCERT Exemplar) C. C2H2 (iii) Alkene
•• •• • •
(a) ••N •• N•• (b) •• N•••• N
•• D. C4H8 (iv) Alkane
•
••• • • • •• •
(c) • N ••N • (d) • N ••
•• N• Codes
A B C D
4. Carbon can use four hydrogen atoms to form (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
methane (CH 4 ), because (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(a) valency of carbon is four (c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) valency of hydrogen is one (d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) carbon gets noble gas configuration by making four
12. Structural formula of ethyne is (NCERT Exemplar)
covalent bonds with hydrogen (a) HC  C 
H (b) H3C C  C H
5. A molecule of ammonia (NH3 ) has (NCERT Exemplar) H H H H
\ / \ /
(a) only single bonds (c) / C ==C \ (d) H C C H
/ \
(b) only double bonds H H H H
(c) only triple bonds
13. Which among the following are unsaturated
(d) two double bonds and one single bond
hydrocarbons?
6. The structure of S 8 molecule is ........shaped. (i) CH3  CH2  CH3 (ii) CH3  CH == CH CH3
(a) ring (b) crown CH3
(c) circle (d) rectangle 
7. Which of the following is not the use of graphite? (iii) CH3  C CH3 (iv) CH3  C == CH2
(a) It is used as lubricant  
(b) It is used in manufacturing of lead-pencils CH3 CH3
(c) It is used in manufacturing of artificial diamond (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (NCERT Exemplar)
(d) It is used for making insulated plates (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
14. Structural formula of benzene is (NCERT Exemplar) 18. Assertion Graphite is slippery to touch.
H H Reason The various layers of carbon atoms in
graphite are held together by weak van der Waals’
C C forces.
H H
H—C C—H C C
H H 19. Assertion Carbon shows maximum catenation
(a) H (b) H H property in the periodic table.
C C—H C C
H H H Reason Carbon has small size and thus, forms
C C
strong C C bond.
H H
H 20. Assertion Following are the members of a
H H
homologous series:
C C CH3OH, CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH
H
H—C C—H H—C C
Reason A series of compounds with same
(c) (d)
H
H functional group but differing by  CH2  unit is
H—C C—H H—C C called a homologous series. (CBSE 2020)
H
C C ◆
Case Based MCQs
H H 21. Read the following and answer the questions from
15. Which of the following are correct structural isomers of (i) to (v) given below
butane? The bonds which are formed by the sharing of an
H H H H H H H electron pair between the atoms (either same or
      
different atoms) are known as covalent bonds.
(i) HCCCCH (ii) HCCCH
 As neutral atom carbon has electronic configuration
    H C
H H H H K L. To gain inert gas configuration carbon can
H H 2 4
either donate 4 valence electrons (helium gas
H H H
H H configuration) or gain 4 electrons (neon gas
     configuration), but it cannot do so. To acquire inert
(iii) HC CCH (iv) H  C 
C H gas configuration carbon can only share its 4 valence
   | | electrons with other atoms forming covalent bonds.
H HCH H HCC H The concept of covalent bonds was given by
 | |
Langmuir and Lewis to explain bonding in non-ionic
H H H
compounds. The covalent bonds are of three types. If
(NCERT Exemplar) each atom contributes one electron, the covalent
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv) bond formed is called a single covalent bond and is
represented by a single line (—) and if each atom
◆ Assertion-Reasoning MCQs contributes two electrons, the covalent bond formed
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each of these questions is called a double bond and is represented by a double
contains two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). line (==) and if each atom contributes three electrons,
Each of these questions also has four alternative choices, the covalent bond formed is called a triple bond and is
any one of which is the correct answer. You have to select represented by a triple line ( ).
one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. The electrons in a covalent bond are simultaneously
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. attracted by the two atomic nuclei. A covalent bond
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct forms when the difference between the
explanation of A. electronegativities of two atoms is too small for an
(c) A is true, but R is false. electron transfer to occur to form ions.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
(i) Which of the following do not contain a triple
16. Assertion Covalent compounds are poor conductor of bond?
electricity. I. SO2 II. N2 III. HCl IV. NH3
Reason The electrons are shared between atoms and no (a) I and II
charged particles are present. (b) I, III and IV
17. Assertion Diamond does not conduct electricity. (c) III and IV
Reason Diamond has high refractive index. (d) I and IV
(ii) Which of the following contains a double bond? Which statements about substance X are correct?
(a) O2 (b) N2 I. It is a covalent compound.
(c) CH4 (d) H2O II. It has a giant molecular structure.
III. It has the same structure as graphite.
(iii) Chlorine forms a diatomic molecule, Cl 2. The
IV. It has the same structure as diamond.
electron dot structure for this molecule is
(a) I and III (b) II and III
(c) II and IV (d) I, II and IV
(a) Cl Cl (b) Cl Cl (ii) Which of the following is correct about the structure
of diamond?
(a) Carbon atoms are held together by single covalent
bonds
(b) Electrons move freely through the structure
(c) Cl Cl (d) Cl Cl
(c) Layers of atoms slide easily over each other
(d) Carbon atoms conduct electricity in the molten state
(iv) What is the covalency of nitrogen? (iii) Which three allotropes of carbon, do the given figures
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 represents?
(v) The shared pair of electrons is said to constitute a
……… bond between two hydrogen atoms.
(a) single (b) double
(c) triple (d) ionic
22. Read the following and answer the questions from
(i) to (v) given below
Allotropy is the property by virtue of which an (I) (II) (III)
element exists in more than one form and these
different forms of an element are called allotropes. I II III
(a) Diamond Graphite Buckminster fullerene
Allotropes have similar chemical properties but they
differ in their physical properties. Carbon exists in (b) Graphite Buckminster Diamond
crystalline and amorphous forms. fullerene
(c) Diamond Buckminster Graphite
In crystalline form, it occur as diamond, graphite and fullerene
fullerenes. Diamond is a colourless, transparent
substance having extraordinary brilliance. It is the (d) Graphite Diamond Buckminster fullerene
hardest natural substance known. It is used for cutting (iv) Identify the incorrect statement(s).
marble, granite and glass. Graphite is a greyish-black I. Diamond is the hardest substance known while
opaque substance. It is lighter than diamond, i.e., it graphite is smooth and slippery.
has lower density. It has sheet like structure having
II. Diamond is made up of billions of carbon atoms.
hexagonal layers.
Each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon
One layer slides over the other layer which makes it atoms in a tetrahedral manner to form a giant
soft to touch. It is the reason that graphite is used as a lattice. All carbon atoms are bonded by strong
lubricant. The amorphous form of carbon is also covalent bonds.
known as micro-crystalline form which consists of III. Graphite is a poor conductor of electricity unlike
coal, lampblack and charcoal. other non-metals.
(i) Substance X is a moderate conductor of electricity. IV. Graphite has a giant covalent structure that is
Substance X has the structure shown below : made up of layers of carbon atoms. In each layer,
each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon
atoms to form hexagonal rings of carbon atoms.
(a) I and III (b) Only III
(c) II and IV (d) I, II and IV
(v) Which of the following is an example of amorphous
form of carbon ?
(a) Wood (b) Oil
(c) Chalk (d) Coke
PART 2 15. Write the molecular formula of the following

compounds and draw their electron dot structures
Subjective Questions (i) Ethane (ii) Ethene (iii) Ethyne
16. What is meant by isomers? Draw the structures of two
◆ Short Answer Type Questions isomers of butane, C4 H10 . Explain, why we cannot
have isomers of first three members of alkane series?
1. What do you mean by covalent bonding?
17. Draw the possible isomers of the compound with
2. Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the molecular formula C3H6 O and also give their
bond formation in CH 3Cl . (NCERT) electron dot structures. (NCERT Exemplar)
3. What would be the electron dot structure of carbon 18. What is meant by functional group in carbon
dioxide which has molecular formula CO 2 ? (NCERT) compounds? Write in tabular form the structural
4. (i) Explain the formation of calcium chloride with the formula and the functional group present in the
help of electron dot structure. following compounds:
(Atomic numbers of Ca = 20; Cl =17) (i) Ethanol (ii) Ethanoic acid
(ii) Why do ionic compounds not conduct electricity in 19. Describe the applications of homologous series.
solid state but conduct electricity in molten and
aqueous state? 20. Why is homologous series of carbon compounds so
called? Write the chemical formula of two
5. Carbon a group (14) element in the periodic
table, is known to form compounds with many consecutive members of any homologous series and
elements. Write an example of a compound formed state the part of these compounds that determines
with their (i) physical and (ii) chemical properties.
(i) chlorine (group 17 of periodic table) 21. Write the next higher order homologous of CH2O,
(ii) oxygen (group 16 of periodic table)(NCERT Exemplar) C2H2 and C2H5 COOH.
6. Why covalent compounds are volatile in nature with ◆ Long Answer Type Questions
low boiling and low melting point?
7. State the valency of each carbon atom in 22. State the reason why carbon can neither form C 4+
(i) an alkane and (ii) an alkyne cations nor C 4− anions, but forms covalent
compound. Also state reasons to explain why
8. Covalent compounds are generally poor conductors covalent compounds
of electricity. Why? (CBSE 2020)
(i) Are bad conductors of electricity?
9. Diamond is a poor conductor of electricity while (ii) Have low melting and boiling point?
graphite is a good conductor. Assign reason.
23. Explain the formation of oxygen (O2 ) molecule and
10. Why diamond has high melting point? sulphur (S8 ) molecule.
11. What are the main factors that enables carbon to 24. What are covalent compounds? Why are they
form large number of compounds? different from ionic compounds? List their three
12. Select saturated hydrocarbons from the following: characteristics properties.
C3H6 ; C5H10 ; C4 H10 ; C2H4 ; C6H14 25. Why organic compounds are called as hydrocarbons?
Write the general formula for homologous series of
13. What will be the formula and electron dot structure alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the
of cyclopentane? (NCERT)
structure of the first member of each series.
14. Answer the following 26. Identify the functional group present in the
(i) Carbon is a versatile element. Give reason. following compounds
(ii) Explain the structural difference between saturated HO H H H
and unsaturated hydrocarbons with two examples     
each. (i) HC C 
O
H (ii) HC  C C H
(iii) What is a functional group? Write examples of four    
different functional groups. H H OH H
H H H any reference to space, the phenomenon is called

   structural isomerism. In other words, structural
(iii) HC CHO (iv) HC C Br isomers are compounds that have the same molecular
   formula but different structural formulas, i.e. they are
H H H
different in the order in which different atoms are
H H OH linked or they have different connectivities depending
   upon the order they are put together. In these
(v) HCCCCH compounds, carbon atoms can be linked together in the
   form of straight chains, branched chains or even rings.
H H H
(i) Name any set of compound that have same molecular
◆ Case Based Questions formula but different structural formula.
(ii) Which property of carbon leads to formation of
27. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) branched chains?
to (v) given below (iii) How many isomers of pentane are possible?
Compounds which contain only carbon and (iv) Name two compounds that contains six carbon atoms
hydrogen are called hydrocarbon. Among these, the and have cyclic structure.
compounds containing all single covalent bonds are (v) What is the minimum number of carbon atoms
called saturated hydrocarbons while the compounds required to form an isomer?
containing atleast one double or triple bond are
29. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to
called unsaturated hydrocarbons.
(v) given below
Saturated hydrocarbons after combustion give a
Hydrocarbons are the simplest organic compounds and
clean flame while unsaturated hydrocarbons given a
are regarded as parent organic compounds. All other
yellow sooty flame. Unsaturated hydrocarbons are compounds are considered to be derived from them by
more reactive than saturated hydrocarbons. the replacement of one or more hydrogen atoms by
Unsaturated hydrocarbons add hydrogen in the other atoms or group of atoms.
presence of catalysts such as palladium or nickel to
give saturated hydrocarbons. Functional groups is an atom or group of atoms which
makes a carbon compound (or organic compound)
Study the table related to three hydrocarbons reactive and decide it’s properties. A series of organic
A, B, C and answer the questions that follows compounds having same functional group with similar
or almost identical chemical characteristics in which
Organic compound Molecular formula
all the members can be represented by the same
A C3H8 general formula and two consecutive members of series
B C5H10 differ by CH2 group in their molecular formula is
called a homologous series.
C C4H6
H H H H
(i) What is the name of compound B?    
(ii) Write two differences between saturated and HC  C C H, H C Br, H C C ,
H
O
unsaturated hydrocarbons.    
(iii) In unsaturated compounds, what is the minimum H H H H
(P) (Q) (R)
number of carbon atoms and why?
(iv) Among compounds A, B and C, which of the
H H
following is saturated hydrocarbon?   H\ /H
(v) Compound C belongs to which category of H C  C  H, HC  C H, / C ==C \
hydrocarbon and what is it’s general formula ?   ( T) H
(U)
H
H H
28. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) (S)
to (v) given below (i)
Which compounds belongs to same homologous series?
Organic compounds with same molecular formula (ii)What is the functional group of compound R ?
but different chemical and physical properties are (iii)Compound T belongs to which homologous series ?
called isomers. This phenomenon is called isomerism. (iv) Among the P,S,T and U compounds which belongs to
alkane series?
When the isomerism is due to difference in the
(v) With respect to Q,R,S and U compounds which one is
arrangement of atoms within the molecule, without an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions 10. (c) The structural formula of pentane C5H12 is
1. (c) Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of carbon H H H H H
dioxide gas (CO2 ) in air (only 0.03%). Carbon also occurs in     
the earth’s crust in the form of minerals like carbonates. It also H C  C  C  C  C H
occurs in the form of fossil fuels, organic compounds, wood,     
cotton and wool, etc. H H H H H
2. (b) Oxygen atom has six (6) valence electrons. Thus, to It contains 16 covalent bonds.
complete its octet, it forms double bond with another oxygen 11. (a) C3H8 is an alkane because it resembles with the general
atom to get O2 molecule as formula of alkane, i.e. CnH2n+ 2 . C6H6 is benzene which is a
cyclic ring having double bonds in alternate carbon atoms
C2H2 resembles with the general formula of alkyne and
O O or O==O
C4H8 is an alkene because number of H-atoms are double of
that of carbon atoms.
Shared electrons
12. (a) ‘Eth’ represents2 carbon atoms and ‘yne’ shows presence
(covalent bond
of a triple bond. Thus, ethyne has the structural formula as
formation)
HC  CH. It is also known as acetylene.
3. (d) Electronic configuration of N (atomic number 7) is K L . 13. (c) Unsaturated hydrocarbons have double or triple bond in
25 their structure. Both (ii) and (iv) have double carbon-carbon
Therefore, it needs three more electrons to complete its bonds in their structures.
octet. Each nitrogen atom shares three electrons to form a 14. (c) Benzene molecule contains alternate single and double
molecule of N2 as bonds. Its formula is C6H6 .
In structure (a), double bonds are not at alternate positions.
N N In structure (b), the formula is C6H12 and in structure (d),
the formula is C6H8 .
15. (a) Structure (i) is n-butane.
4. (c) Carbon has4 electron in its valence shell, while hydrogen Structure (iii) is iso-butane.
has one electron in its valence shell.
Since, molecular formula is same, only structures are
To complete their octet and duplet respectively, they form different. So, (i) and (iii) are isomers while structure (ii) and
covalent bonds. Carbon utilises its 4 valence electron and (iv) have molecular formula C4H8 .
forms 4 covalent bonds with 4 hydrogen atoms, using one
16. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
valence electron with each hydrogen atom.
5. (a)A molecule of ammonia (NH ) has only single bonds and Covalent compounds consist of molecules and not ions
3 which can transfer charge.
these are covalent bonds.
17. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
Lone pair of A.
Diamond is not good conductor of electricity because of the
H × N × H or H—N—H
| absence of free electrons.
× H
H 18. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
A graphite crystal consists of various layers of carbon atoms
6. (b)8 covalent bonds are formed in S molecule. in which each carbon atom is joined to three other atoms by
S S S strong covalent bonds. The various layers of carbon atoms in
S S graphite are held together by weak van der Waals’ forces
S making it slippery to touch.
S 19. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
S
Crown shaped (S 8) molecule Catenation is the bonding of atoms of the same element into
a series, called as chain.
7. (d) Graphite can not be used for making insulated plates, as Catenation occurs more readily with carbon, which forms
it is a good conductor of electricity. strong covalent bond with other C-atoms to form long chains
8. (d) C, Si and Ge belongs to group 14 and their valency is 4. and structures.
But oxygen has electronic configuration 2, 6. So, its valency 20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
is 2. Hence, it does not show tetravalency. The alchohols have general formula of CnH2n + 1OH. So, the
9. (b) Friedrich Wohler accidently prepared urea from alcohols have the series of formula from the different
ammonium cyanate and the synthesis of urea discarded the compounds with different between the succeeding and
vital force theory. preceding molecules being a — CH2 — unit.
21. (i) (b) The structures of the following given compounds are: (II) is the structure of diamond and (III) is the structure
I. SO2 II. N2 of Buckminster fullerene as their structure resembles
with geodesic domes.
O == S == O N  N
(iv) (b) In graphite, only three valence electrons are used
III. HCl IV. NH3 for bond formation and hence fourth electron is free to
••
HCl H N H move which makes it a good conductor of electricity.
 (v) (d) Coke is an example of amorphous form of carbon
H which is obtained as a residue in destructive distillation
 I, III and IV do not contain a triple bond. Hence, of coal.
option (b) is correct. Subjective Questions
(ii) (a) O2 contains a double bond between it’s atoms.
1. Carbon shares it’s valence electrons with other atoms of
The structures of the given compounds are : carbon or with atoms of other elements in order to complete
(a) O 2 O == O it’s octet. These shared electrons belong to the outermost
(b) N2  N  N shells of both atoms and in this way, both atoms attain the
H nearest noble gas configuration. This type of bonding is
 called covalent bonding.
(c) CH4  HC H 2. The bonds that are formed by sharing electrons are known
 as covalent bond. In covalent bonding, both atoms share the
H valence electrons, i.e. the shared electrons belong to the
valence shells of both the atoms. CH3Cl is called
O chloromethane, which contains 1 carbon atom, 3 hydrogen
(d) H2O 
atoms and 1 chlorine atom.
H H
KL
(iii) (c) In chlorine molecule, both chlorine atoms Electronic configuration of carbon, 6 = 2 , 4
contribute one electron and thus share single electron K
pair to form single covalent bond. As electrons are Electronic configuration of hydrogen, 1 = 1
shared by both atoms, they acquire inert gas KLM
configuration of argon atom in valence shell. Electronic configuration of chlorine,17= 2 , 8 , 7
Carbon atom has four outermost electrons, each hydrogen
Sharing of atom has one electron and chlorine has seven outermost
Cl Cl electrons Cl Cl or Cl Cl or Cl — Cl
electrons. Carbon shares its four outermost electrons with
3 hydrogen atoms and 1 chlorine atom to form CH3Cl as
One shared electron pair
follows
(iv) (c) The number of electrons shared between two atoms
to complete their octet is known as the covalency of H H
that atom. Therefore, the covalency of nitrogen is
three because it needs three electrons to complete it’s 3H + C + Cl H C Cl or H—C—Cl
octet.
H
(v) (a) The shared pair of electrons constitute a single bond H
between the two H-atoms, which is represented by a
single line between two H-atoms. 3. Atomic number of C = 6
Electronic configuration= K , L
2 4
H ×
× H or H—H Atomic number of O = 8
Electronic configuration= K , L
Single bond showing H2 molecule 2 6
To attain the stable electronic configuration, carbon needs
22. (i) (c) Each atom is covalently bonded to four other atoms,
which in turn, are bonded to four more atoms. Thus, X 4 electrons, while oxygen needs2 electrons. So, in CO2 , each
is a giant molecule and has a structure similar to that of oxygen atom share two electrons from carbon. Thus, oxygen
diamond. Substance X is not a compound as it consists and carbon both complete their octet.
of only one type of atoms. Before After
(ii) (a) In the structure of diamond, carbon atoms are held combination combination Shared electrons
together by single covalent bonds as this is a rigid
three-dimensional network structure because each O C O O C O
carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms.
(iii) (d) (I) is the structure of graphite crystal which or O ==C ==O
consists of layers of carbon atoms or sheets of carbon
Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) molecule
atoms.
4. (i) The formation of calcium chloride with the help of 6. Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points
electron dot structure. due to small intermolecular forces of attraction between the
Element Atomic Electronic atoms.
number configuration 7. (i) Valency of each carbon atom in an alkane is four.
Calcium (Ca) 20 2, 8, 8, 2 (ii) Valency of each carbon atom in an alkyne is four.
Chlorine (Cl) 17 2, 8, 7 8. Covalent compounds are poor conductors of electricity
because covalent bonds are formed by sharing of electrons
Cl –
between atoms.
2+
Ca + Ca Cl So, they don’t have a free electron that is required for
2
electricity transfer (electricity is the flow of free electrons).
Cl
Thus, they are bad conductors.
Ca 2+ +2Cl − → CaCl 2 9. In the structure of diamond, all the four valence electrons of
Two valence electrons of calcium attack the valency of carbon are involved in the formation of covalent bonds.
two chlorine to attain the noble gas configuration. Thus, no free electrons are available.
(ii) Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in solid state Whereas, in the structure of graphite, three electrons in the
but conduct electricity in molten and aqueous state valence shell of carbon are involved in covalent bond
because in solid state, there is no free ion to move and formation and the fourth electron is free to move.
pass electricity. Whereas in the molten and aqueous Therefore, graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
state, there is free ions to move and pass electricity. 10. Diamond has a giant structure that consists of carbon atoms
K L in which each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon
5. (i) Electronic configuration of carbon, C(6) is 2 , 4. atoms forming a rigid three-dimensional network structure,
K L M which is responsible for it’s hardness.
Electronic configuration of chlorine, Cl(17) is 2 , 8, 7 . So, a lot of energy is required to break the network
of strong covalent bonds. That’s why it has high melting
To attain the electronic configuration of the nearest noble
point.
gas, carbon needs 4 electron and chlorine needs 1 electron.
11. The main factors that enables carbon to form large number
So, with chlorine, carbon forms carbon tetrachloride.
Electron dot structure and structural formula of CCl4 is as of compounds are
follows (i) Catenation The tendency of carbon to form chains of
identical atoms is known as catenation. Carbon forms
Cl Cl long chains by combining with other carbon atoms
through covalent bonds.
—
Cl C Cl or Cl —C — Cl (ii) Tetravalency It has 4 valence electrons, so it can form

4 covalent bonds with four different atoms, or two
—
Cl double bonds or a single and a triple bond with other

Cl atoms. This tendency helps carbon to form a large
number of compounds.
Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4 )
K L (iii) Tetravalency Carbon forms strong bonds with most of
(ii) Electronic configuration of oxygen, O(8) is 2 , 6. other elements like H, O, N, S, Cl etc., due to it’s
small size which helps it to attract more number of
With oxygen, carbon forms carbon dioxide. To attain the
electrons.
electronic configuration of the nearest noble gas, carbon
needs 4 electrons and oxygen needs 2 electrons. 12. The hydrocarbons in which all the carbon atoms are
connected by only single bonds are called saturated
Therefore, in CO2 , each oxygen atom shares 2 electrons
with carbon. Electronic configuration of carbon (6) is hydrocarbons or alkanes or paraffins. The general formula of
these compounds is C H .
n 2n+ 2
K L. where, n = number of carbon atoms in one molecule of a
2,4 hydrocarbon.
The electron dot structure and structural formula of CO2 Amongst, the given compounds, only C4H10 and C6H14
is as follows: belongs to the formula of CnH2n+ 2 .Therefore, C4H10 and
C6H14 are saturated hydrocarbons.
or O 13. General formula of cycloalkane = CnH2n
O C O C O
In cyclopentane, n = 5
 Formula of cyclopentane, C5H5  2 = C5H10
Carbon dioxide (CO 2 )
Electron dot structure of cyclopentane

The structures of possible isomers of butane (C4H10 ) are
H H
× × H H H H H H H HHH
H       
× C × C
HCCCCH H CCC H
×C C×
H or H
H
C C
H
H       
H
HHH H H  H
H
C ×H C C n- butane H C H
H× C H (I) 
× × H
H H H
H H
Iso-butane
14. (i) Carbon is a versatile element because of its properties. (II)
It shows the property of catenation due to which it The first three members of alkane series are:
forms a large number of compounds. Carbon is (i) CH4 (methane)
tetravalent. Due to this, it forms covalent compounds (ii) C 2H6 (ethane)
only. (iii) C 3H8 (propane)
(ii) Saturated hydrocarbons contain carbon-carbon single In the above members of alkane series, it is not possible to
bonds. e.g. Methane (CH4 ), ethane (C2H6 ). have different arrangements of carbon atoms, because
Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain atleast one branching is not possible from either first or last carbon.
carbon-carbon double or triple bond. e.g. Propene Thus, we cannot have isomers of first three members of
(C3H6 ), butyne (C4H6 ). alkane series.
(iii) Functional group is an atom or group of atoms joined in 17. There are four isomers possible for the molecular formula
a specific manner which is responsible for the C3H6O. These are as follows:
characteristics chemical properties of the organic H HH H
compounds.  •• •• •• ••
(i) CH CH CHO or CH CH — C → H • C • C • C • • O •
• • • •• •
Examples are alcohols ( OH) , aldehyde group 3 2 3 2
 ••••
(  CHO), carboxylic group ( COOH) , ketone (CO) O H H
etc. H H
•• ••
15. (i) Molecular formula of ethane is C 2H6. Its electron dot
structure is (ii) CH3  C  CH3 → H •• C •• C • •C • H
•
H • •• H
H H O •O
••
H C C H
H H
•• ••••
H H (iii) CH  CH == CH  OH → H • C • C • • C • O • H
3 • • •• • •
•• •• ••
H H
(ii) Molecular formula of ethene is C 2H4. Its electron dot
structure is H
••••
(iv) CH == CH CH OH → H • C • • C • C • O • H
2 2 • •• • • •
H H •• ••••• •
H H H
C C 18. An atom or a group of atoms present in a molecule which
largely determines it’s chemical properties is called functional
group.
H H
Compound Structural formula Functional group
(iii) Molecular formula of ethyne is C 2H2. Its electron dot (i) Ethanol H H OH
(C 2H5OH)   ( Alcoholic )
structure is
HC C OH
 
H C C H HH
(ii) Ethanoic acid H O O
(CH3COOH)   
H  C  C O
H C OH
16. Isomers are those molecules which have same molecular
 (Carboxylic acid)
formula but different structural formula, i.e. show different
H
properties.
19. Application of homologous series are as follows shell. So, it requires 2 electrons to complete it’s octet for
All members of homologous series shows similar chemical
◆ attaining noble gas configuration. Hence, it shares two
properties and generally prepared through one common electrons with another atom of oxygen to make a molecule of
method, e.g. all alkenes are prepared by dehydration of oxygen.
corresponding alcohols. By doing so, both the atoms of oxygen get 8 electrons in their
outermost shell. Thus, a double bond is formed between two
The physical properties of the members change gradually,
◆
oxygen atoms which consists of four electrons.

i.e. show gradation in properties as the number of carbon Before After
atom per molecule increased. combination combination
20. A homologous series is the family of organic compounds Shared electrons
having the same functional group, similar chemical
properties but the successive (adjacent) members of the O + O O O or O  O
series are differ by a CH2 unit or 14 mass units.
Consecutive members of the homologous series of alcohols Oxygen atoms Oxygen molecule
are
CH3OH 
They differ by  CH unit. Formation of Sulphur Molecule (S8 )
C H OH2
2 5  The atomic number of sulphur is 16 and electronic
The physical properties are determined by alkyl group/ configuration is 2, 8, 6. It also has 6 electrons in it’s outermost
hydrocarbon part/part other than the functional group. shell and requires 2 electrons to complete it’s octet state.
The chemical properties are determined by functional So, each sulphur atom shares two electrons, 1 with each
group such as  OH group. adjoining sulphur atom by single covalent bonds and thus,
21. Add —CH2 group to each compound to obtain next complete it’s octet.
homologous. Before After
combination combination
Compounds Homologue compounds
CH2 O C2H4O, C3H6O, C4H8O... + S + S
S
C H C H , C H , C H ... S +
2 2 3 4 4 6 5 8 + S
C2H5COOH C3H7COOH, C4H9COOH, +
S
C5H11COOH... + S
22. Atomic number of carbon is six. This means that it has four S + +
S
electrons in its outermost shell and it needs four more
electrons to attain noble gas electronic configuration. It
8 covalent bonds are formed
does not form C 4+ cation, as the removal of four valence
electrons will require a huge amount of energy. S S S
S S
The cation formed will have six protons and two electrons. S
This makes it highly unstable. Carbon is unable to form
C 4 −anion as its nucleus with six protons will not be able to S S
hold ten electrons due to its small size. Thus, carbon Crown shaped (S 8) molecule
achieves noble gas electronic configuration by sharing its Eight sulphur atoms form a puckered ring or crown structure
four electrons either with same or different other atoms, to form an eight atom molecule.
i.e. it forms covalent compounds.
24. Covalent compounds are those compounds which are formed
(i) Covalent compounds does not have free ions, due to by sharing of valence electrons between the atoms. e.g.
this they are bad conductors of electricity in solid, Hydrogen molecule is formed by mutual sharing of electrons
molten or aqueous state. between two hydrogen atoms.
(ii) Covalent compounds are formed by covalent bonds and They are different from ionic compounds as ionic compounds
it has been found that the intermolecular force of are formed by the complete transfer of electrons from one
attraction in covalent compounds are weak. atom to another, e.g. NaCl is formed when one valence
Thus, low amount of energy is required to break these electron of sodiu m gets completely transferred to outer shell
force of attraction. Hence, their melting and boiling of chlorine atom. The characteristic properties of covalent
points are quite low. compounds are
23. Formation of Oxygen Molecule (O 2 ) (i) They are generally insoluble or less soluble in water but
The atomic number of oxygen is 8 and electronic soluble in organic solvents.
configuration is 2, 6, i.e. has 6 electrons in it’s outermost (ii) They have low melting and boiling points.
(iii) They do not conduct electricity as they do not contain HHOH

ions.    
(iv) They are volatile in nature. (v) H C  C C C H
  
25. Organic compounds are called as hydrocarbons because H H H O
they are made up of only the elements-carbon (C) and 
hydrogen (H).
This compound contains C functional group
General formula for the homologous series of alkanes is
which belongs to ketone.
CnH2n + 2 which are classified as saturated hydrocarbons or
alkanes. First member of the alkane family is “methane”. 27. (i) Compound B has molecular formula as C5H10 and
H contains five number of carbon atoms, i.e. n = 5.
 It resembles with the general formula of alkene which
HCH is CnH2n.
 So, the name of this compound is pent + ene = pentene.
H When five number of carbon atoms are present, it is
General formula for the homologous series of alkenes is named as “pent”.
CnH2n. which are classified in the category of unsaturated
hydrocarbons. They are known as alkenes or olefins. First (ii) Saturated Unsaturated hydrocarbons
hydrocarbons
member of the alkene family is “ethene”.
H\ /H These hydrocarbons
C ==C\ These hydrocarbons contains at
H/ H are linked by only least one double or triple bond
single covalent along with single bonds.
General formula for the homologous series of alkynes is
bond. They are divided into two
CnH2n − 2 and they are also in the category of unsaturated
hydrocarbons. First member of the alkyne family is “ethyne”. categories
H C  CH → Alkenes or Olefins
→ Alkynes.
26. The functional group present in the following compounds are General formula of General formula of alkene is
HO these compounds is
CnH2n and general formula of
CnH2n + 2 .
  alkyne is CnH2n − 2 .
(i) H CC OH
 (iii) The minimum number of carbon atoms present in an
H O
unsaturated compound is two because formation of

double or triple bonds is possible only between two
This compound contains C OH functional group
carbon atoms.
which is the formula of carboxylic acid.
(iv) The molecular formula of compound A is C3H8 , i.e.
H H H contains three number of carbon atoms and resembles
(ii)    with the general formula of alkanes which is CnH2n + 2 .
H C C  CH
So, A is saturated hydrocarbon.
  
H OH H While the molecular formula of compounds B and C is
In this compound, OH functional group is present C5H10 and C4H6 which resembles with the general
which is the formula of alcohol. formula of alkene and alkyne. So, B and C are
unsaturated hydrocarbon.
H
 (v) The molecular formula of compound C is C4H6 which
(iii) H C CHO resembles with alkyne because there is four number of
 carbon atoms and 6H-atoms, i.e. number of H-atoms
H are only increased by 2. So, the general formula of
alkyne is CnH2n−2 .
This compound contains  CHO functional group
which belongs to the formula of aldehyde. 28. (i) Butane and iso-butane are the compounds that
H H have same molecular formula but different structural
  formula.
(iv) H CCBr CH3CH2CH2CH3 CH3 CHCH3
  Butane 
HH CH3
This compound contains halo (bromo) functional group Iso - butane
as Br.
(ii) Due to catenation property of carbon, it forms long, (v) Minimum four carbon atoms are required to show
straight or branched chains and rings of different sizes. isomerism because branching is not possible with
(iii) Pentane (C5H12 ) has three structural isomers: carbon-1, 2 and 3.
CH CH  CH CH  C
H i.e. C—C—C C—C (3 -carbon atoms)
3 2
n-pentane
2 2 3 |
C
CH CH CH 
C
H 144424443
3 2 3 Same

CH3 C—C—C—C C—C—C (4 -carbon atoms)
Iso -pentane |
C
CH3 1444442444443
 Isomers
CH3 C CH3 29. (i) P and T are the compounds that belongs to same
 homologous series. Both these compounds are alkynes
CH3 and differ by CH2 unit in their molecular formula.
Neo -pentane
(ii) The functional group of compounds (R) is OH which
(iv) Cyclohexane (C 6H14 ) and benzene (C 6H6 ) are two is the formula of alcohol.
compounds that contain six carbon atoms and have
(iii) (T) is an alkyne having general formula of CnH2n − 2 .
cyclic structure.
H H
H H H
 
H C H H C H (iv) Compound (S), i.e. HCCH belongs to an alkane
C C C C  
H H H H
H H
C C C C series having general formula of CnH2n + 2 .
H H H H
C H C H
(v) Compound (U), i.e. C== C is unsaturated
H H H H H
C6H12 hydrocarbon becuase it contain double bond, i.e.
C6 H 6
(Cyclohexane)
(Benzene)
belongs to alkene.
Chapter Test 8. Assertion n-butane and iso-butane are examples of
structural isomers.
Reason Isomerism is possible only with
hydrocarbons having 4 or more carbon atoms.
Multiple Choice Questions
Short Answer Type Questions
1. Which of the following is not a property of carbon?
9. What are the two properties of carbon which lead
(a) Carbon compounds are good conductor of heat and to the huge number of carbon compounds.
electricity
(b) Carbon compounds are poor conductor of heat and electricity 10. What is covalent bond? What type of bond exists in
(c) Most of the carbon compounds are covalent compounds (i) CCl4 (ii) CaCl2
(d) Boiling and melting point of carbon compounds are relatively 11. “Carbon tetrachloride is not a good conductor of
lower than those of ionic compounds electricity.” Give reason to justify this statement.
2. Which of the following is purest form of carbon? 12. Give answers to the following statements.
(a) Charcoal (b) Coal (c) Diamond (d) Graphite (i) An allotrope of carbon which has a
3. Buckminster fullerene is an allotropic form of two dimensional layered structure consisting
(a) phosphorus (b) sulphur (c) carbon (d) tin of fused benzene rings.
4. Which of the following is not a straight chain hydrocarbon? (ii) An allotrope of carbon which looks like a
soccer ball.
(a) H3C CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 C H 2
 (iii) An allotrope of carbon which contains both
CH3 single and double bonds.
(b) H 3CCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 13. Diamond and graphite show different physical
CH3 properties although they are made up of carbon.
 Name this relationship between diamond
(c) H 2 CH2C H 2C CH 2 and graphite. Give the basis of this relationship also.

CH3 14. How diamond can be prepared artificially?
H3C \ 15. Catenation is the ability of an atom to form bonds
(d) / CH CH 2 CH 2
CH3
H3C with other atoms of the same element. It is exhibited
by both carbon and silicon. Compare the ability of
5. Which of the following is not the property of homologous
catenation of the two elements. Give reasons.
series?
(a) They differ by CH 2 units
16. A compound has the formula H 2Y
(b) They differ by − 14 units by mass (Y=non-metal). State the following :
(c) They all contain double bond (i) The outer electronic configuration of Y.
(d) They can be represented by a general formula (ii) The valency of Y.
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs (iii) The bonding present in H 2Y.
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-8) Each of these questions contains Long Answer Type Questions
two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Each of 17. (i) What are covalent bonds ?
these questions also has four alternative choices, any one (ii) How many covalent bonds are present in
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of ethane with molecular formula C2H6?
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. (iii) Write the formula and draw electron dot
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. structure of carbon tetrachloride.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iv) In electron dot structure, the valence shell
(c) A is true, but R is false.
electrons are represented by crosses or dots.
(a) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. Write
6. Assertion Carbon has a tendency to form multiple bonds. its electronic configuration.
Reason Carbon has small size. (b) Draw the electron dot structure of chlorine
7. Assertion The only element that can form large number molecule.
of compounds is carbon. 18. Write the structural formulae of all the isomers of
Reason Carbon is tetravalent in nature and shows the an alkane with six C-atoms (C6H14 ) .
property of catenation. 19. State five characteristics of a homologous series.
Answers
Multiple Choice Questions For Detailed Solutions
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) Scan the code
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b)
CHAP TER 02
Periodic Classification
of Elements
In this Chapter...
 Earlier Attempts at the Classification of Elements
 Mendeleev’s Periodic Table
 Modern Periodic Table
All substances are made up of elements. At present, there are elements in the same slot and also put some unlike elements
118 elements known, out of which 98 are naturally occurring. under the same column which have very different properties
In order to study the properties of all these elements than other elements.
separately, scientists felt the necessity to group elements
having similar characteristics together.
Mendeleev’s Periodic Table
According to this, the physical and chemical properties of the
Earlier Attempts at the elements are periodic function of their atomic masses, i.e. on
Classification of Elements arranging the elements in increasing order of their atomic
masses, the similar properties were repeated after regular
Several attempts have been made to classify the elements
according to their properties. Later, many classifications were intervals.
tried. Some important of them are discussed below He took the formulae of the hydrides and oxides formed by
an element as one of the basic properties of an element for its
Dobereiner’s Triads classification. e.g. Hydride of carbon, CH4 as RH4 and its
He arranged three elements with similar properties into oxides, CO2 as RO2 .
groups which are known as triads and showed that when He then arranged 63 elements in the increasing order of
three elements in a triad were arranged in order of increasing their atomic masses and found that there was a periodic
atomic masses, the atomic mass of middle element was recurrence of elements with similar physical and chemical
roughly the average of atomic masses of other two elements. properties. He observed that elements with similar properties
He could identify only three triads from the elements known fall in the same vertical column. These vertical column are
at that time which are called groups and horizontal rows of elements are called
Li, Na, K; Ca, Sr, Ba; Cl, Br, I periods.
Newland’s Law of Octaves Features of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table

Newland arranged the known elements in order of increasing ◆
It consists of 8 vertical columns, called groups and 6 horizontal
atomic masses and found that every eighth element had rows, called periods.
properties similar to that of the first. This law was applicable ◆
In every period, elements are arranged in increasing order of
only upto calcium and he assumed that there were only 56 their atomic masses.
elements. To fit elements into his table, he adjusted two
◆
He left gaps for the elements not discovered at that time and ◆
One of the strengths of Mendeleev’s periodic table was that,
named such elements by prefixing a Sanskrit numeral when noble gases like helium, neon were discovered, they
Eka (one), divi (two) to the name of the preceding similar could be placed in a new group without disturbing the existing
element in the same group. e.g. Eka-boron, Eka-aluminium, order.
which after their discovery were named as scandium, gallium.
◆
He also predicted the atomic masses and properties of several Limitations of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table
elements that were not known at that time. ◆
Elements with dissimilar properties were kept in same
group.
Properties of Eka-aluminium and Gallium
◆ Position of hydrogen was not fixed in periodic table.
Property Eka-aluminium Gallium
◆ Elements with similar properties were kept in different
Atomic mass 68 69.7
groups.
Formula of oxide E2O3 Ga 2O3 ◆
Heavier elements were kept before the lighter elements.
Formula of chloride ECl3 GaCl3 ◆
Position of isotopes and isobars could not be explained.
Mendeleev’s Periodic Table (Published in a German journal in 1872)

In the formula of oxides and hydrides at the top of the columns, the letter ‘R’ is used to represent any of the elements in the
group.
Group → I II III IV V VI VII VIII
Oxide R2 O RO R2O3 RO2 R2O5 RO3 R2O7 RO4
Hydride RH RH2 RH3 RH4 RH3 RH2 RH
Periods  A B A B A B A B A B A B A B Transition series

1 H
1.008
2 Li Be B C N O F
6.939 9.012 10.81 12.011 14.007 15.999 18.998
3 Na Mg Al Si P S Cl
22.99 24.31 29.98 28.09 30.974 32.06 35.453
4 First series K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni
39.102 40.08 44.96 47.90 50.94 50.20 54.94 55.85 58.93 58.71
Second series Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br
63.54 65.37 69.72 72.59 74.92 78.96 79.909
5 First series Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd
85.47 87.62 88.91 91.22 92.91 95.94 99 101.07 102.91 106.4
Second series Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I
107.87 112.40 114.82 118.69 121.75 127.60 126.90
6 First series Cs Ba La Hf Ta W Os Ir Pt
132.90 137.34 138.91 178.49 180.95 183.85 190.2 192.2 195.09
Second series Au Hg Tl Pb Bi
196.97 200.59 204.37 207.19 208.98
Modern Periodic Table When the elements were arranged in the increasing order of
In 1913, Henry Moseley showed that the atomic number of their atomic number, the obtained table is called modern
an element is a more fundamental property. On the basis of periodic table.
this, he modified Mendeleev’s periodic law as “physical and In this periodic table, hydrogen is kept at the top left corner
chemical properties of the elements are a periodic function of because of its unique characteristics. The position of cobalt
their atomic number”. This is called modern periodic law. and nickel is also justified.
20
Modern Periodic Table
The zig-zag line
113 114 115 116 117 118

Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
Francium Rutherfordium Dubnium Seaborgium Bohrium Hassium Meitnerium Darmstadtium Roentgenium Copernicium Nihonium Flerovium Moscovium Livermorium Tennessine Oganesson
(223) (267) (268) (271) (272) (277) (276) (281) (280) (285) (286) (289) (290) (291) (294) (294)
f -block or inner-transition elements
CBSE Term II Science X

Lanthanoids
Leutetium
Actinoids
Einsteinium Fermium Lawrencium
Features of Modern Periodic Table electron, it acquires a stable configuration, hence its valency
is also 1.
This table has 18 vertical columns, known as groups and
7 horizontal rows, known as periods. Trends in Modern Periodic Table
A few important features of the elements present in groups
(i) Valency In a period, it increases with respect to
and periods are as follows
hydrogen from 1 to 4 after that it decreases. On the other
◆
The groups are not divided into sub-groups. hand with respect to oxygen, valency increases from 1
◆
The elements present in a group have the same number of to 7. In a group, valency remains same as outer
valence electrons and valency. electronic configuration is same.
◆
The number of shells increases as we go down the group. (ii) Atomic size Atomic size decreases on moving from left
◆
The elements present in a group have identical chemical to right in a period due to increase in nuclear charge.
properties and their physical properties like density, melting It increases down the group as new shells are being
point vary gradually. added.
◆
Elements of a period have the same number of shells but they (iii) Metallic and non-metallic properties Effective nuclear
do not contain the same number of valence electrons. So, their charge acting on the valence shell electrons increases
chemical properties are also different. across a period and decreases down the group.
◆
The number of valence shell electrons increases by one unit as Therefore, metallic character decreases across a period
the atomic number increases by one unit on moving from left and increases down a group. Non-metallic character,
to right in a period. however increases across a period and decreases down a
◆
In this table, elements of group 13, 14, 15, 16 and 17 are called group.
normal elements which includes metals, non-metals and Metals like Na, Mg are present on left side of periodic
metalloids and elements of group 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and table, whereas non-metals like S, Cl are present on right
12 are called transition elements. side of periodic table.
◆
In this periodic table, elements from atomic number 58 to 71 There are some metals which exhibits both the
called as lanthanides and elements from 91 to 103 called as properties of metal and non-metals. These are called
actinoids are kept out of the table. metalloids like Po, Te, Sb, etc.
Position of Elements in the Modern (iv) Electronegativity The electronegativity of the elements
increases along a period, since the non-metallic
Periodic Table character increases. Similarly, it decreases down the
For this, first of all write electronic configuration of the given group, since the non-metallic character decreases.
element. Number of shells present in the electronic (v) Nature of oxides On moving from left to right in a
configuration shows the period number of that element. period, due to increase in non-metallic character,
Number of valence electrons present in the electronic basic nature of oxides decreases while acidic nature
configuration show the group number of the element. increases.
e.g. Electronic configuration of the element with atomic Na 2O MgO , Al 2O3 , SiO2 , P2O5 SO2 , Cl 2O7
number 19 is 2, 8, 8, 1, since it has four shells, thus it is 144244 3 Amphoteric Weakly 14243 Strongly
Strongly basic acidic Acidic acidic
element of fourth period. Due to presence of one electron in
the last shell, its group number is 1. After donating one On going down the group, the order is reversed.
Chapter
Practice
PART 1 9. Which of the following statements is not a correct
statement about the trends when going from left to
Objective Questions right across the periods of periodic table? (NCERT)
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature
(b) The number of valence electrons increases
◆ Multiple Choice Questions (c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily
(d) The oxides become more acidic
1. Dobereiner could identify how many triads from the
elements known at that time ? 10. Match the following columns :
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four Column I Column II
2. Upto which element, the law of octaves was found to (Elements) (Groups)
be applicable? (NCERT Exemplar) A. Be (i) Group 17
(a) Oxygen (b) Calcium (c) Cobalt (d) Potassium B. F (ii) Group 15
3. What type of oxide would Eka-aluminium form? C. P (iii) Group 2
(NCERT Exemplar) D. Ar (iv) Group 18
(a) EO3 (b) E 3O2 (c) E 2O3 (d) EO Codes
4. Which one of the following elements exhibit maximum A B C D A BC D
number of valence electrons? (NCERT Exemplar) (a) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(a) Na (b) Al (c) Si (d) P
5. Choose the correct statement. 11. Which metal is among the first ten elements in
modern periodic table?
(a) Valency and valence electrons are always equal
(a) Lithium (Li) (b) Boron (B)
(b) Valency is determined by using the number of valence
(c) Carbon (C) (d) Potassium (K)
electrons
(c) Valence electrons are always equal to 8-valency 12. An element X is forming an acidic oxide. Its position
(d) Valency is always equal to 8-valence electrons in modern periodic table will be (CBSE 2020)
(a) group 1 and period 3 (b) group 2 and period 3
6. Elements with code letters Q and R occupy the
positions shown in the outline of the periodic table. (c) group 13 and period 3 (d) group 16 and period 3
13. An oxide of a metal shows no action with blue-litmus
R but turns red-litmus to blue in its aqueous solution.
Q
The possible formula of the metal oxide can be
(a) MgO (b) CO2 (c) SO2 (d) H2O
What is the formula of the compound formed 14. The position of four elements A, B, C and D in the
between them? modern periodic table are shown below. The
(a) QR2 (b) Q2R (c) Q2R3 (d) Q3R2 element which is most likely to form a basic oxide is
7. Which of the following statements is incorrect for
atomic size ?
(a) Atomic size of B > Be (b) Atomic size of Be > B B C
(c) Atomic size of N > O (d) Atomic size of C > N D
8. Which of the following gives the correct increasing A

order of the atomic radii of O, F and N?
(NCERT Exemplar)
(a) O, F, N (b) N, F, O (c) O, N, F (d) F, O, N (a) B (b) C (c) A (d) D
15. Consider the part of periodic table given below: Modern periodic law states that ‘‘the physical and
chemical properties of all the elements are the
Group/Period 1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18 periodic function of their atomic radius.
I a j The atomic radii of group 1 and group 2 elements
II b e g h k are given in the table.
III c f i l Group 1 Atomic radii (nm) Group 2 Atomic radii (nm)
IV d Li 0.152 Be 0.112
The most electropositive element is Na 0.186 Mg 0.160
(a) c (b) d (c) l (d) k k 0.231 Ca 0.197
◆ Assertion-Reasoning MCQs Rb 0.244 Sr 0.215
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each of these questions Cs 0.262 Ba 0.217

contains two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Fr 0.270 Ra 0.220
Each of these questions also has four alternative choices,
any one of which is the correct answer. You have to select (i) Who discovered modern periodic table?
one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. (a) Henry Moseley
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation (b) Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner
of A. (c) John Newlands
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (d) Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev
explanation of A. (ii) Along the period 3, which atom can loose electron
(c) A is true, but R is false. easily?
(d) A is false, but R is true. (a) Li (b) Na (c) Be (d) Mg
16. Assertion Be, Mg and Ca can be classified as (iii) Which metal has the highest metallic character in
Dobereiner’s triads. group 1?
Reason Atomic mass of Mg is approximately the (a) Li (b) Na (c) K (d) Rb
average of the sum of atomic masses of Be and Ca. (iv) Which of the following properties increases down
the group?
17. Assertion Sodium is an element of group 1 of the
(a) Electronegativity
modern periodic table.
(b) Electropositive nature of element
Reason All the elements of group 1 of the modern (c) Non-metallic character
periodic table contain two electrons in their (d) Acidic oxide character
outermost shell.
(v) Which atom is most electronegative along the
18. Assertion Noble gases are also called inert gases. period 4?
Reason Noble gases have a complete octet. (a) K (b) Rb (c) Sr (d) Ca
19. Assertion Atomic size increases on going down the 22. Read the following and answer the questions from
group in the modern periodic table. (i) to (v) given below
Reason New shells are being added as we go down The noble gases make up a class of chemical
the group in the modern periodic table. elements with similar properties under standard
20. Assertion Electronegativity of flourine is greater than conditions, they are all odourless, colourless,
that of oxygen. monoatomic gases with very low chemical reactivity.
These gases are also called as inert gases or
Reason The electronegativity of the elements increases aerogens. The properties of the noble gases can be
along a period since the metallic character increases. well explained by modern theories of atomic
◆ Case Based MCQs structure. Their outer shell of valence electrons is
considered to be full, giving them little tendency to
21. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) participate in chemical reactions.
to (v) given below
The linkage formed from one electrostatic attraction
The modern periodic table is based on the increasing between oppositely charged ions in a chemical
order of atomic radius. The atomic size increases compound is called ionic or electrocovalent bond.
down the group. This is because new shell are being Such a bond forms when the valence electrons of
added as we go down the group. The atomic radius one atom are transferred permanently to another
decreases in moving from left to right along a period. atom.
The table given below refers to the elements of the 6. What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in
periodic table with atomic number from 3 to 18. creating his periodic table? (NCERT)
These elements are shown by letters.
7. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, the elements were
(Not by the usual symbols of the elements). arranged in the increasing order of their atomic
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 masses. However, cobalt with atomic mass of
A B C D E F G H 58.93 amu was placed before nickel having an
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
atomic mass of 58.71 amu. Give reason for the same.
(NCERT Exemplar)
I J K L M N O P
8. Write the formulae of chlorides of Eka-silicon
(i) Which of the following are noble gases ? and Eka-aluminium, the elements predicted by
(a) H and P (b) G and O Mendeleev.
(c) D and L (d) A and I 9. Write two main characteristics of Mendeleev’s
(ii) Which are halogens ? periodic table and write name of elements of second
(a) H and L (b) C and M period.
(c) G and O (d) E and P
10. How it can be proved that the basic structure of the
(iii) Which of the following elements have valency 4 ?
‘modern periodic table’ is based on the electronic
(a) F and N (b) C and K
configuration of atoms of different elements?
(c) D and L (d) H and P (CBSE 2019)
(iv) Which of the following can form ionic bond?
(a) B and H (b) J and P 11. ‘Hydrogen occupies a unique position in modern
periodic table’. Justify the statement. (NCERT Exemplar)
(c) E and P (d) A and G
(v) Which of the following elements have 2 valence 12. (i) List any two distinguishing features between
electrons? Mendeleev’s periodic table and the modern
(a) D and L (b) B and J (c) A and I (d) C and K periodic table.
(ii) With the help of an example, explain
Dobereiner’s Triads.
PART 2 (iii) State modern periodic law. (CBSE 2020)
13. Write the formula of the product formed when the
Subjective Questions element A (atomic number 19) combines with the
element B (atomic number 17). Draw its electronic
◆ Short Answer Type Questions dot structure. What is the nature of the bond
formed? (NCERT Exemplar)
1. What were the limitations of Dobereiner’s
classification? (NCERT) 14. Compare the radii of two species X and Y. Give
reasons for your answer.
2. Can the following groups of elements be classified as
Dobereiner’s triad? (a) X has 12 protons and 12 electrons, (b) Y has 12
protons and 10 electrons (NCERT Exemplar)
(i) Na, Si, Cl (ii) Be, Mg, Ca
Atomic mass of Be-9; Na-23; Mg-24; Si-28; Cl-35; Ca-40 15. Arrangethefollowingelementsinincreasingorder of
their atomic radii.
Justify your answer in each case. (CBSE 2019)
(i) Li, Be, F and N (ii) Cl, At, Br and I
3. Did Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of (NCERT Exemplar)
Newlands’ octaves? Compare and find out. (NCERT)
16. An element X of group 15 exists as diatomic
4. Elements have been arranged in the following molecule and combines with hydrogen at 773 K in
sequence on the basis of their increasing atomic presence of the catalyst to form a compound,
masses. F, Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S, Cl, Ar, K. ammonia which has a characteristic pungent smell.
(i) Pick two sets of elements which have similar (i) Identify the element X. How many valence
properties. electrons does it have?
(ii) The given sequence represents which law of (ii) Draw the electron dot structure of the diatomic
classification of elements? molecule of X. What type of bond is formed in it?
5. What were the limitations of Newlands’ law of (iii) Draw the electron dot structure for ammonia and
octaves? (NCERT) what type of bond is formed in it?
17. A salt when dissolved in water dissociates Answer the following question in relation to the
into cations and anions as follows: above group of elements.
+ H2 O
(i) Which element has the most metallic character?
AB “ A + + B−
(ii) Which element would be expected to have the
– H2 O
highest electronegativity?
If both the ions consist same number of electrons
(iii) Will the elements in the group to the right of this
and the molecular weight of salt is 74.5, then identify
boron group be more metallic or less metallic in
the position of A and B in the periodic table.
character? Justify your answer.
18. Three elements A, B and C have 3, 4 and 2 electrons
respectively in their outermost shell. Give the group ◆ Long Answer Type Questions
number to which they belong in the modern periodic
table. Also, give their valencies. (NCERT Exemplar)
24. Use Mendeleev’s periodic table to predict the
formulae for the oxides of the following elements.
19. Based on the group valency of elements, write the K, C, Al, Si and Ba. (NCERT)
molecular formula of the following compounds
giving justification for each. 25. Compare and constrast the arrangement of element in
Mendeleev’s periodic table and the modern periodic
(i) Oxide of first group elements
table. (NCERT)
(ii) Halide of the elements of group thirteen
(iii) Compound formed when an element A of group 26. An element is placed in 2nd group and 3rd period of
2 combines with an element, B of group seventeen. the periodic table, burns in presence of oxygen to
(CBSE 2019) form a basic oxide. (NCERT Exemplar)
20. From the elements Li, K, Mg, C, Al, S identify the (i) Identify the element.
(i) elements belonging to the same group. (CBSE 2020) (ii) Write the electronic configuration.
(ii) element which has the tendency to lose two electrons. (iii) Write a balanced equation when it burns in the
(iii) element which prefers sharing of electrons to presence of air.
complete its octet. (iv) Write a balanced equation when this oxide is
(iv) most metallic element. dissolved in water.
(v) element that forms acidic oxide. (v) Draw the electron dot structure for the formation of
(vi) element that belongs to group 13. this oxide.
21. The following table shows the position of five 27. Which elements has
elements A, B, C, D and E in the modern periodic (i) two shells, both of which are completely filled with
table. electrons?
Group → 1 2 3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 (ii) the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2?
Period  (iii) a total of three shells, with four electrons in its
2 A B C valence shell?
3 D E (iv) a total of two shells, with three electrons in its
valence shell?
Answer the following giving reasons:
(i) Which element is a metal with valency two? (v) twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its
first shell? (NCERT)
(ii) Which element is least reactive?
(iii) Out of D and E which element has a smaller atomic 28. An element X (atomic number = 17 ) reacts with an
radius? (CBSE Sample Paper) element Y (atomic number = 20) to form a divalent
halide.
22. (i) What term can be used for the elements separating
metal from non-metals and why? (i) Where in the periodic table are elements X and Y
placed?
(ii) Give the names of the metalloids in the periodic
table along with their atomic number. (ii) Classify X and Y as metal(s), non-metal(s) or
(iii) In which groups of the periodic table are they metalloid(s).
located? (iii) What will be the nature of oxide of element Y?
23. A group of elements in the periodic table are given Identify the nature of bonding in the compound
below (boron is the first member of the group and formed.
thallium is the last). (iv) Draw the electron dot structure of the divalent
Boron, aluminium, gallium, indium, thallium halide. (NCERT Exemplar)
29. (i) Using the part of the periodic table given below the atomic number of the element belonging to
answer the questions that follows: same group and present in fifth period ?
(ii) Name the elements present in the first period of the
Groups → 1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
modern periodic table.
Periods  (iii) Atoms of different elements with same number of
1 H He
shells are placed in the same period. Explain.
(iv) What is the electronic configuration of the element
2 Li Be B C N O F Ne
present in third period and belongs to group 15 ?
3 Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar (v) How many elements are present in mdoern periodic
4 K Ca table ?
31. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
(a) Na has physical and chemical properties similar to
to (v) given below
which element(s).
(b) Write the electronic configuration of N and P. Valency is the combining capacity of an atom of an
Which one of these will be more electronegative element to acquire noble gas configuration. If
and why? depends upon the number of valence electrons
(c) State a chemical property common to fluorine and present in outermost shell of its atom. For the
chlorine. elements of group 1, 2, 13 and 14 valency = numbers
(ii) The neutral atom of an element E consists 12 of valency electrons(s), whereas for the elements of
electrons in its atoms. group 15 onwards valency = 8 − valence electrons.
(a) In which period and group is E placed? The concept of valency is simple and rationalise the
(b) Name the element E. atomic composition of a large number of compounds.
(c) How many electrons it needs to lose or gain to Yet, in many chemistry courses, it is sidelined in
achieve noble gas configuration ?
favour of electronic theories of bonding, which are
(d) What will be the nature of oxide (acidic/basic) of E?
more difficult. When the theory of valency was
Justify your answer.
devised, chemists thought that all compounds were
(e) Write the formulae of chloride of E.
molecular. We now known that many are
◆ Case Based Questions non-molecular, i.e. they comprise a large number of
atoms bound together in a continuous framework.
30. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) The theory can however be adapted to include
to (v) given below non-molecular compounds.
Modern periodic law states that the physical and The atomic number and valence of element A, B, C,
chemical properties of the elements are periodic D and E are given in below table.
function of their atomic radius. When these elements
were arranged in the increasing order of their atomic Elements Atomic number Number of valence electron
number, the obtained table is called modern periodic A 3 1
table.
B 9 7
Numerous forms of the periodic table have been
C 17 7
devised form time to time. A new version, which is
most convinient and widely used is the modern D 20 2
periodic table. This table consist of 18 vertical E 36 0
columns called groups and 7 horizontal rows,
known as periods. The first period consists of two (i) What is the valency of element B ?
elements. (ii) If element C reacts with an element D, which type
The subsequent period consist of 8, 8, 18, 18 and 32 of compound they will form.
elements respectively. The seventh period is (iii) What is the name of element E ?
incomplete and like the sixth period would have (iv) Element A belongs to which period in the modern
maximum of 32 electrons. periodic table ?
(i) An element belongs to group 17. It is present in (v) Among A, C, D and E, which element belongs to
third period and its atomic number is 17. What is group 17 ?
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions 11. (a) Lithium is the metal among the first ten elements as
1. (c) Dobereiner could identify only three triads from the boron is a metalloid, carbon is a non-metal and potassium is
elements known at that time. These are not in first ten elements because it’s atomic number is 19.
Li, Na, K; Ca, Sr, Ba; Cl, Br, I 12. (d) Oxides of metals are of basic in nature while those of
non-metals are acidic.
2. (b) Newlands’ law of octaves was applicable only to lighter
Group 1 and group 2 consists of metals. Therefore, all the
elements having atomic masses upto 40 u, i.e. upto calcium.
elements of these groups form basic oxides. The element
After calcium, every eighth element did not possess present in group 13 and period 3 is aluminium, whose oxides
properties similar to that of the first element. is amphoteric in nature.
3. (c) Gallium hasa valency of 3. Hence, it forms an oxide Group 16 consists of non-metals. Therefore, all the elements
having molecular formula E2O3 . In other options, valency of of this group forms acidic oxide. Thus, an element X which
E is not 3. form an acidic oxides belongs to group 16 and period 3.
4. (d) Na (group 1) has one, Al (group 13) has three (13-10), Si 13. (a) Q The oxide turns the red-litmus to blue but shows no
(group 14) has four (14-10) and P (group 15) has five (15-10) effect on blue litmus. Also, the oxide is a metal oxide, thus
valence electrons. Therefore, P has maximum number of one of its component must be a metal. Hence, it is MgO.
valence electrons, i.e. 5 (maximum among the given). 14. (c) The element A will form a basic oxide while B, C and D
will form an acidic oxide. This is because on moving along a
5. (b) The number of electrons present in the outermost orbit
period, the acidic character of the oxide increases.
of the element are known as valence electrons, while
number of electrons used by any element in any chemical 15. (b) The most electropositive element is ‘d’ as electropositive
reaction is called its valency. character increases down the group and decreases along a
period.
Both are co-related as follows
16. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(i) For first four elements in any period,
of A. According to the Dobereiner’s triads, the three
Valence electrons = Valency elements in a traid were arranged in the order of increasing
(ii) For last four elements in any period, atomic masses, the atomic mass of middle element was
Valency = 8 − valence electrons roughly the average of the atomic masses of the other two
elements. So, taking Be, Mg and Ca as a triad.
6. (d) Q belongs to group II, so its valency is +2. R belongs to
15 or VA group, so its valency is −3 (as it requires 3 electrons Elements Be Mg Ca
to complete its octet). Atomic mass 9 24 40
Q R
Average atomic mass of first and third element
9 + 40
= 24.5
+2 –3 Charge
Q3R2
2
17. (c)A is true but R is false. All the elements of group I contains
7. (a) In long form of periodic table, atomic size decreases
one valence electron and valency as the electronic
along the period due to increase in effective nuclear charge.
configuration of Li = 2, 1, Na = 2, 8, 1 and K = 2, 8, 8, 1. All the
Thus, atomic size of B is less than of Be.
elements contain only one valence electron.
8. (d) Because along the period, atomic radii decreases as the
atomic number increases. Thus, the correct increasing order
Noble gases are also called inert gases because they don’t need
is F  O  N.
to react with other elements to fill their outer shell octet, as
9. (c) On moving from left to right, the atomic number they already posses full valence shell.
increases and hence, the nuclear charge increases. With the
increase of nuclear charge, the force binding the electron
increases, so the atom lose the electrons with more difficulty 20. (c)A is true but R is false. Electronegativity of fluorine is
and not easily. greater than that of oxygen, since the non-metallic character
increases along a period from left to right in the modern
10. (a) The correct match for the given item is periodic table.
A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv). 21. (i) (a) In 1913, Henry Moseley discovered the modern
◆
Be belongs to group 2 because it contains 2 valence periodic table by modifying Mendeleev’s periodic law.
electrons. (ii) (b) Along the period 3, (Na) sodium can loose electron
◆
F belongs to group 17 because it contains 7 valence easily because moving from left to right along a period,
electrons. atomic radius decreases due to increase in effective
◆
P contains 5 electrons in it’s outermost shell, so it belongs nuclear charge which tends to pull the valence
to group 15. electrons closer to the nucleus and hence, tendency to
◆
Ar belongs to group 18 because it has full-filled electronic lose the electrons decreases.
configuration.
(iii) (d) Rb has the highest metallic character because down 3. Yes, Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of
the group, the effective nuclear charge decreases as the Newlands’ octaves, e.g. lithium (Li), sodium (Na) and
atomic radius increases. So, the outermost electrons are potassium (K) constitute a Dobereiner’s triads. Now, if we
farther away from nucleus which can be lost easily. consider Li as the first element, then the eighth element
Hence, metallic character increases down the group. from it is Na and if we consider Na as the first element, then
(iv) (b) Electropositive nature increases down the group the eight element from it is K.
due to increase in atomic size. Similarly, Dobereiner’s triad consisting of the elements
(v) (d) Along the period 4, Ca is the most electronegative beryllium (Be), magnesium (Mg) and calcium (Ca) is also
atom because along a period, non-metallic character included in the column of Newlands’ octaves.
increases and so electronegativity also increases. Thus, Dobereiner’s triads are included in the columns of
22. (i) (a) H and P have complete octet. So, they are noble gases. Newlands’ octaves.
(ii) (c) G and O have 7 electrons in their outermost shell. 4. (i) Here, the elements are arranged in the order of
So, they belongs to halogen group. increasing atomic masses, so according to Newlands’
law of octaves there is a repetition of every eighth
(iii) (c) D has 6 electrons. So, its electronic configuration is 2, 4.
element as compared to the given element. The two
L has 14 electrons. So, its electronic configuration is sets of elements which have similar properties are
2, 8, 4.
Set I → F, Cl
Both have 4 valency.
Set II → Na, K
(iv) (d) A has one valence electron. So, its valency is 1.
F and Cl are first and eighth element in the above
It can form A + ion.
sequence, therefore, they have similar properties.
G has seven valence electron. It needs one electron to Although Na and K have similar properties but they are
complete its octet. So, A can make ionic bond with G not related as first and eighth element in the above
and form stable compound, AG. sequence.
(v) (b) B has 4 electrons. So, its electronic configuration is (ii) The given sequence is according to Newlands’ law of
2, 2 and hence, have 2 valence electrons. octaves represented as
J has 12 electrons. So, it’s electronic configuration is 2, F Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar K
8, 2 so, it also contains 2 valence electrons. 5. This law was applicable only upto calcium. After calcium,
◆
 Both B and J contains 2 valence electrons. every eighth element did not possess the same properties
similar to that of the first.
Subjective Questions
◆
Newland assumed that there were only 56 elements existed
1. All the elements discovered at that time could not be
in nature and no more elements would be discovered in the
classified into triads, only a limited number of elements
future. But, later on, several new elements were discovered,
could be arranged in such triads.
whose properties did not fit into the law of octaves.
e.g. The three elements nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and ◆
In order to fit elements into his table, Newlands’ adjusted two
arsenic (As) have similar properties. Therefore, they should
be regarded to form a triad. elements in the same slot and also put some unlike elements
under the same column.
However, the actual mass of the middle element P(31.04) is
e.g. Cobalt and nickel are in the same slot and these are
much lower than the average (44.454) of the atomic masses
of nitrogen (14.4) and arsenic (74.94). Therefore, these three placed in the same column as fluorine, chlorine and bromine
elements do not constitute a Dobereiner’s triad inspite of which have very different properties than these elements.
their similar chemical properties. Iron, which resembles cobalt and nickel in properties, has
2. (i) Na, Si and Cl have different properties, therefore, they been placed far away from these elements. Hence, Newlands’
do not form Dobereiner’s triad even though the atomic law of octaves worked well with lighter elements only.
mass of the middle atom (Si) is approximately the 6. The criteria used by Mendeleev were:
average of the atomic masses of Na and Cl, i.e. (i) The arrangement of elements in increasing order of
Na (23); Si (28); Cl (35) atomic masses.
23 + 35 58 (ii) Similarity in chemical properties of the elements.
Atomic mass of Si = = = 29 7. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, cobalt (Co) with a higher
2 2 atomic mass of 58.93 u is placed before nickel (Ni) due to the
(ii) Be, Mg and Ca have many similar properties and also following reasons :
the atomic mass of the middle element Mg is
approximately the average of the atomic masses of Be (i) The properties of cobalt are similar to those of rhodium
and Ca, i.e. (Rh) and iridium (Ir) (same group) and
Be (9); Mg (24); Ca (40) (ii) The properties of nickel are similar to those of
9 + 40 = 49 = 24.5 palladium (Pd) and platinum (Pt) (same group).
Atomic mass of Mg = 8. Eka-silicon is germanium (Ge). It lies in group 4 of the
2 2
Mendeleev’s periodic table and thus, has a valency of 4.
Therefore, they form Dobereiner’s triad.
 The formula of its chloride is GeCl4 .
Eka-aluminium is gallium (Ga). It lies in group 3 of the average of the atomic masses of other two elements,
Mendeleev’s periodic table and thus, has a valency of 3. e.g.
 The formula of its chloride is GaCl3 . Elements Cl Br I
9. Two main characteristics of Mendeleev’s periodic table are : Atomic mass 35.5 80 127
(i) It consists of 8 vertical columns, called groups and Average atomic mass 35.5 + 127 = 81.25
6 horizontal rows, called period. of first and that elements 2
(ii) In every period, elements are arranged in increasing (iii) Modern periodic law The physical and chemical
order of their atomic masses. properties are a periodic function of their atomic number.
Name of elements of second period are lithium, beryllium, 13. Atomic number of A = 19
boron, carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, fluorine.
Electronic configuration is 2, 8, 8, 1.
10. Electronic configuration of an element decides its position
in modern periodic table. Hence, element A is metal potassium (K) and
If we take an example of sodium (Na), which has Atomic number of B = 17.
atomic number = 11, i.e. it’s electronic configuration = 2, 8, 1 Electronic configuration is 2, 8, 7.
As Na contains 1 electron in its outermost shell, this means It is a non-metal, chlorine (Cl).
that it belongs to group 1 and sodium contains 3 shells so, it So, the electron dot structure of KCl is
belongs to period number 3. –
×× ××
× ×
 We can conclude that, K + ×Cl× K+ ×Cl×
2, 8, 8, 1 ×× ××
Group number = Number of valence electrons 2, 8, 7 2, 8, 8 2, 8, 8
Potassium Chlorine Potassium chloride
(When valence electrons are 1 and 2)
and group number = 10 + valence electrons The bond formed between K and Cl− is ionic bond and
+
(When valence electrons are 3 and above) formula of the product formed K+ Cl− or KCl.
Period number = Number of shells in which electrons are filled. 14. Since, species X has 12 protons and 12 electrons, it is
11. Hydrogen occupies a unique position in the modern electrically neutral. Since, species Y has 12 protons and
periodic table due to the following reasons 10 electrons, therefore, it has two units positive charge.
(i) Both hydrogen and alkali metals have similar outer The electronic configuration of the two species are
electronic configuration as both have one electron in Species X Species Y
the valence shell. Therefore, some of the properties of K L M K L
hydrogen are similar to those of alkali metals and hence, 2 8 2 2 8
it can be placed in group 1 alongwith alkali metals.
Since, species X has three shells while species Y has two
(ii) Both hydrogen and halogens have similar outer
shells, therefore, species Y has smaller radius than species X.
electronic configuration (both have one electron less
than the nearest inert gas configuration). Therefore, 15. (i) Atomic radii decreases along a period from left to right
some of the properties of hydrogen are similar to those due to increase in nuclear charge. Li, Be, F and N
of halogens and hence, it can be placed in group 17 belong to same period. Thus, the atomic radii of Li, Be,
alongwith halogens. F and N increases in the order:
(iii) In some properties, it differs from both hydrogen and F< N < Be < Li
halogens, e.g. the oxide of hydrogen, i.e. H2O is neutral (ii) Atomic radii increase in a group from top to bottom due
but the oxides of alkali metals (i.e. Na 2O, K2O etc.) are to the corresponding increase in the number of filled
basic while those of halogens (i.e. Cl2O7 , Br2O5 , I2O5 electronic shells. Cl, At, Br, I belong to same group. Thus,
etc.) are acidic. atomic radii of Cl, At, Br and I increase in the order:
12. (i) Cl < Br < I < At
Mendeleev’s periodic table Modern periodic table 16. Since, the element ‘X’ of group 15 exists as a
diatomic molecule and combines with hydrogen at 773 K
In the Mendeleev’s In modern periodic table, in presence of a catalyst to form ammonia which has a
periodic table, the the elements are arranged in characteristic smell, therefore, the element ‘X’ is
elements were arranged the increasing order of their nitrogen (N).
in increasing order of atomic number.
their atomic masses. N + 3H 7→
73 K 2NH
2 2 3
Nitrogen Hydrogen Catalyst Ammonia
This table consists of 8 This contains 18 groups and (diatomic molecule) (pungent smell)
groups and 6 periods. 7 periods.
(i) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. So, its electronic
(ii) Dobereiner arrange the elements with similar configuration is 2, 5. Thus, it has five valence electrons.
properties into groups having three elements each and (ii) Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons. Therefore, it needs 3
named these groups as triads. more electrons to complete its octet.
He showed that when the three elements in a triad To do so, it shares three of its electrons with three
were arranged in the order of increasing atomic masses, electrons of the other nitrogen atom to form a diatomic
the atomic mass of the middle element was roughly the molecule of N2 gas.
Thus, three covalent bonds are formed between two (QValency of group 2 element (A) is 2 and that of group
nitrogen atoms and each nitrogen atom is left with one 17 element (B) is 1).
lone pair of electrons.  A B
N+N N N or N N 2 1
 AB2
Two nitrogen atoms Nitrogen molecule
20. The electronic configurations of the given elements
(iii) Electron dot structure for ammonia is as follows : are as follows
H → 2, 1
3 Li
H
× 19 K→ 2, 8, 8, 1
N H
12 Mg → 2, 8, 2
N + 3H× × or N H
×
H H 6C → 2, 4
13 Al →
Nitrogen atom Three hydrogen 2, 8, 3
atoms Ammonia molecule
16 S→ 2, 8, 6
In NH3 molecule, there are three N—H single (i) Element belong to same group are Li and K as they
covalent bonds and one lone pair of electrons on the both contain one electron in their outermost shell.
nitrogen atom.
(ii) Element which has tendency lose two electrons is
17. Since, both the ions consists of same number of magnesium as it cantains 2 electrons its outermost
electrons and has +1 and −1 charges, hence the ions shell.
should belong to group 1A (cation, i.e. A + ) and group VII A (iii) Element which prefer sharing of electron to complete
(anion, i.e. B−). its octet is carbon due to its small size and strong C C
Same number of electrons indicates that their electronic bond.
configuration is same as that of a noble gas whose (iv) Most metallic element is potassium. Elements of group
atomic number lie between that of the two elements A 1 are metallic in nature as they readily loose their one
and B. valence electron.
Dividing the molecular weight (which is sum of atomic (v) Non-metals form acidic oxides. Among the given
masses of A and B), we get the rough idea about the atomic elements, S is a non-metal. Thus, it forms most acidic
74.5
mass of the noble gas which is = 37.25, i.e. nearest to oxide.
2 (vi) Aluminium belongs to group 13 as it contains
argon (Ar - 40).
3 elements in its outermost shell.
Hence, A is K (group IA, 4th period) and element B is Cl
(group VII A, 3rd period). 21. (i) Element ‘D’ is a metal with valency two.
18. (i) Element A has 3 valence electrons, therefore, its Because, the group number of an element having upto
valency is 3 and thus belongs to group 13 (3 + 10 ). As two valence electrons is equal to the number of valence
such, it could be any one of the following elements : B, electrons.
Al, Ga, In or Tl. (ii) ‘C’ is the least reactive element. Because, it belongs to
(ii) Element B has 4 valence electrons, therefore, its group 18. Group 18 (Noble gases) are least reactive due
valency is 4 and it belongs to group 14 (4 + 10). The zero valency of group 18 elements.
element B could be any one of the following : C, Si, Ge, (iii) ‘E’ has a smaller atomic radius than ‘D’ because ‘E’ is
Sn or Pb. on the right side of the modern periodic table.
(iii) Element C has two valence electrons, therefore, its Across the period, atomic size/radius decreases on
valency is 2 and it belongs to group 2. The element C moving left to right. This is due to an increase in
could be any one of the following : Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba nuclear charge which tends to pull the valence
or Ra. electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of
19. (i) The valency of the group 1 elements is 1 and that of the atoms.
oxygen is 2. 22. (i) Metalloids as these elements show the properties of
both the metals and non-metals.
Na O (ii) The list of metalloids alongwith their atomic number is
1 2 as follows:
 Molecular formula of oxide = Na2O B (5), Si(14), Ge (32), As (33), Sb (51), Te(52) and Po (84).
(ii) The valency of group 13 element is 3 and that of halide (iii) These elements are located in groups 13, 14, 15 and 16.
is 1. 23. (i) Thallium has the most metallic character. Metallic
Al Cl character increases down in a group.
(ii) Boron has the highest electronegativity because
3 1 electronegativity decreases down a group.
 Molecular formula of halide = AlCl3 (iii) Less metallic in character, because on moving across a
(iii) Molecular formula of compound formed = AB2 period, metallic nature decreases.
24. Oxygen is a member of group VI A in Mendeleev’s periodic 27. (i) Noble gases are the elements which have completely
table. Its valency is 2. Similarly, the valencies of all the filled shells. The noble gas with two shells (K, L) is Ne
elements given can be predicted from their respective group. having atomic number 10 and electronic configuration
KL both of the shells are completely filled.
This can help in writing the formula of their oxides. 28
(i) Potassium (K) is a member of group IA. Its valency (ii) Electronic configuration 2, 8, 2 suggests that atomic
is 1. Therefore, the formula of its oxide is K 2O. number is 12 (2 + 8 + 2). Magnesium (Mg) has atomic
(ii) Carbon (C) is a member of group IVA. Its valency is 4. number 12.
Therefore, the formula of its oxide is C2O4 or CO2 . (iii) The element with three shells and four electrons in
(iii) Aluminium (Al) belongs to group IIIA and its valency is the valence shell will have electronic configuration
3. Therefore, the formula of its oxide is Al2O3 . KL M
2 8 4 . The atomic number of this element is
(iv) Silicon (Si) is present in group IVA after carbon. Its 14 (2+8+4) so it will belong to group 14. Hence, it is
valency is also 4. Therefore, the formula of its oxide is silicon (Si).
Si2O4 or SiO2 . (iv) Element with two shells and 3 electrons in the valence
(v) Barium (Ba) belongs to group IIA and its valency is 2. shell will exist in second period and will have the
25. Therefore, the formula of its oxide is Ba 2O2 or BaO. electronic configuration K L.
23
Mendeleev’s periodic table Modern periodic table The atomic number of this element will be 5 (2, 3). So,
it will be boron (B).
The properties of elements The properties of elements are (v) The element has two shells. We know that first shell
are the periodic functions of the periodic functions of their can have only 2 electrons, so according to the question
their atomic mass. atomic number. there will be 4 electrons (double the number of
It has 8 groups. It has 18 groups. electrons in the first shell) in the valence shell. The
electronic configuration will be K L, so the atomic
24
There is no place for Isotopes of an element are number is 6. Hence, the element is carbon (C).
isotopes of an element. assigned the same place with
their respective elements as 28. (i) The electronic configuration of element X with atomic
they have the same atomic number 17 is 2, 8, 7. Since, it has 7 valence electrons.
number. Therefore, it lies in group 17 (10 + 7 ). Further, since in
element X, third shell is being filled, it lies in third
No fixed position was given Hydrogen is given a special period. In other words, X is chlorine.
to hydrogen in this periodic position in modern periodic
table. table. The electronic configuration of element Y with atomic
number 20 is 2, 8, 8, 2. Since, it has 2 valence electrons,
Inert gases were not known Inert gases have been placed at
it lies in group 2. Further, since in element Y, fourth
at the time of Mendeleev. the end of period in group 18.
shell is being filled, it lies in 4th period. In other words,
26. (i) Since, the element lies in group 2, it must be an Y is calcium.
alkaline earth metal. Since, it lies in the third period, it
(ii) Since, element X (i.e. Cl) has seven electrons in the
must be magnesium (Mg).
valence shell and needs one more electron to complete
(ii) Atomic number of Mg is 12, therefore, its electronic its octet. Therefore, it is a non-metal. Further, the
K L M
element Y has two electrons in the valence shell that
configuration is 2, 8, 2 .
can be easily lost to achieve the stable electronic
(iii) When Mg burns in the presence of air, it forms a basic configuration of the nearest inert gas, therefore, it is a
oxide, MgO.
metal.
2Mg (s) + O (g)
2 H
→
e at
2MgO (s)
Magnesium Oxygen Magnesium oxide (iii) Since, element Y (i.e. Ca) is a metal, therefore, its oxide
(i.e. CaO) must be basic in nature. Further, metals and
(iv) When MgO is dissolved in water, it forms magnesium
non-metals form ionic compounds, therefore, the
hydroxide.
nature of bonding in calcium oxide is ionic.
2MgO (s) + 2 H2O (l) 
→ 2Mg(OH)2(aq )
Magnesium oxide Water Magnesium hydroxide (iv) Electronic configuration of 20 Ca = 2, 8, 8, 2 [valence
electrons = 2], electronic configuration of 17 Cl = 2, 8, 7
(v) Mg has 2 valence electrons [as electronic configuration
[valence electrons = 7]. The electron dot structure of
of 12 Mg = [2, 8, 2]. Oxygen has 6 valence electrons [as
electronic configuration of 8 O = [2, 6]. Electron dot divalent metal halide,
×××
structure for the formation of magnesium oxide.
×Cl× ×× × –
2– Ca Ca2+
×× i.e. CaCl2 ××
×× ×× ×
×Cl
×Cl ×
Heat 2+ ×× × +
Mg O ×× Mg O× ×× 2
+
×× ×× ××× 2+ ×–
Magnesium oxide 2, 8, 8, 2 2, 8, 7 or Y × X×
2, 8, 2 2, 6 Calcium Chlorine ×× 2
Magnesium Oxygen
Y X Calcium chloride
29. (i) (a) Lithium and potassium, due to presence of same (iv) As the element belongs to group-15, i.e., it’s valence
number of valence electrons. electrons are 5 and valency is 3, so it has the electronic
(b) N → 2, 5 P → 2, 8, 5 configuration = 2, 8, 5.
N is more electronegative element as (v) At present, 118 elements are known to us. All these
electronegativity decrease on moving down the have different properties. Out of these 118 elements,
group. only 94 are naturally occurring.
(c) Both fluorine and chlorine form their hydrides on 31. (i) The atomic number of element B is 9 and number of
reacting with hydrogen. valence electrons are 7, i.e. it belongs to group 17.
H2 + F2 →2HFH2 + Valency = 8 − valence electrons
=8−7=1
Cl2 → 2HCl
KLM Hence, the valency of B is 1.
(ii) (a) The electronic configuration of E = (ii) Electronic configuration of element C is 2, 8, 7, i.e. it
2, 8, 2
has 7 valence electrons and valency is −1 (as it requires
Hence, it should be placed in 3rd period and
1 electron to complete it’s octet) and electronic
group II A.
configuration of element D is 2, 8, 8, 2, i.e. it has 2
(b) The element E is magnesium (Mg). valence electrons and valency.
(c) Mg loses 2 electrons to form noble gas (Ne) with C D
KL
configuration as 2, 8. –1 +2 Charge
(d) Since, Mg is electropositive, it will form basic C2 D
oxide. This forms a divalent compound (C2D).
(e) The formula of chloride is ECl2 or MgCl2 . (iii) The atomic number of element E is 36, so the
30. (i) The element whose atomic number is 17 and belongs to electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d 10 4s2 4p6. Therefore,
third period is chlorine. If we go down the group, i.e. in this element belongs to 4th period as last electron goes
fifth period, number of shells increases as 18e− are in 4th shell and have zero number of valence electrons.
increased in consecutive periods.
Hence, the element is krypton.
Therefore, the atomic number of the element
belonging to same group and present in fifth period is (iv) The atomic number of element A is 3 and electronic
17 + 18 + 18 = 53. configuration is 1s2 2s1. As last electron enters in 2nd
shell, so, it belongs to period 2.
(ii) Hydrogen (H) and helium (He).
(iii) The number of valence shell electrons increases by one (v) The element that belongs to group 17 is ‘C’ because
unit as the atomic number increases by one unit on this group contain those elements which have 7
moving from left to right in a period. Therefore, the electrons in their outermost shell and element C also
atoms of different elements with same number of shells contains 7 valence electrons. Therefore, option (b) is
are placed in the same period. correct.
Chapter Test Short Answer Type Questions
9. Give an account of the process adopted by Mendeleev
for the classification of elements. How did he arrive at
Multiple Choice Questions “periodic law”?
1. Dobereiner grouped the elements into ........................ and 10. What are valence electrons ? Does the number of
Newlands’ gave the ........ valence electrons increase or decrease on moving from
(a) periods, triads (b) triads, law of octaves left to right in a period ? How does valency of elements
(c) octaves, periods (d) triads, periodic law
very in the period ?
2. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, gaps were left for the elements to be 11. (i) How is the valency of an element determine if
discovered later. Which of the following elements found a place in its electronic configuration is known? Determine the
the periodic table later? valency of an element of atomic number 9.
(a) Germanium (b) Chlorine (ii) Which one of the above elements belonging to the
(c) Oxygen (d) Silicon fourth period has bigger atomic radius and why?
3. An element which is an essential constituent of all organic 12. Name
compounds belongs to (i) three elements that have a single electron in their
(a) group 1 (b) group 14 outermost shells.
(c) group 15 (d) group 16 (ii) two elements that have two electrons in their
4. Which of the following is the outermost shell for elements outermost shells.
of period 2? (iii) three elements with filled outermost shells.
(a) K-shell (b) L-shell 13. Identify and name the metals out of the following
(c) M-shell (d) N-shell elements whose electronic configurations are given
5. Which group of element will form an acidic oxide? below.
(a) Group 2 (b) Group 13 (a) 2, 8, 2 (b) 2, 8, 1 (c) 2, 8, 7 (d) 2, 1
(c) Group 15 (d) Group 18 14. (i) What property do all elements in the same column of
the periodic table as boron have in common?
(ii) What property do all elements in the same column of
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-8) Each of these questions the periodic table as fluorine have in common?
contains two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). 15. Arrange the following elements in the increasing order
Each of these questions also has four alternative of their metallic character Mg, Ca, K, Ge, Ga.
choices, any one of which is the correct answer. You Long Answer Type Questions
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
16. What are the limitations of Mendeleev’s periodic table?
given below.
17. (i) The modern periodic table has been evolved through
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
the early attempts of Dobereiner, Newland and
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
Mendeleev. List one advantage and one limitation of
of A.
all the three attempts.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(ii) Name the scientist who first of all showed that atomic
number of an element is a more fundamental
6. Assertion According to Mendeleev, periodic properties of property than its atomic mass.
elements are functions of their atomic number.
(iii) State modern periodic law.
Reason Atomic number is equal to the number
ofprotons. 18. (i) List two criteria Mendeleev’s used in his periodic table
to classify the elements. State Mendeleev’s periodic
7. Assertion The elements of the same group have similar law and explain why no fixed position was assigned to
chemical properties. hydrogen in Mendeleev's periodic table ?
Reason The elements of the same group have the (ii) How and why does the atomic size of elements vary as
different number of valence electrons. we move
8. Assertion Silicon, germanium and arsenic are the metalloids (a) from left to right in a period, and
in the modern periodic table. (b) down a group in the modern periodic
Reason Silicon, germanium and arsenic has properties 19. Write five main characteristics of group in modern
of metal as well as non-metals. periodic table.
Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) Scan the code
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b)
CHAP TER 03
How do Organisms
Reproduce ?
In this Chapter...
 The Fundamentals of Reproduction
 Types of Reproduction
 Human Reproductive System
 Fertilisation and Post-fertilisation Changes
 Menstruation
 Reproductive Health
 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
The process by which living organisms produce its own kind

of individuals to maintain the continuity of species is Types of Reproduction
called reproduction. Like other essential life processes, Reproduction is mainly of two types, i.e. asexual reproduction
reproduction is not essential to maintain life of an individual. and sexual reproduction.
But is a fundamental feature of all known life, each individual ◆
Asexual Reproduction It is a rapid mode of multiplication
organism exists as the result of reproduction. in which one parent (either male or female) is involved. The
new individuals produced are identical to their parents.
The Fundamentals of Reproduction ◆
Sexual Reproduction In this process, the gametes from
The process of reproduction involves the formation of DNA parents of opposite sex (male and female) fuse together to
copy and other cellular apparatus required by the cells of an form a zygote. This zygote develops further and gives rise to
individual. DNA is the blueprint of all the basic design of new offspring. The individual produced by this method
organisms. It is present in the nucleus of a cell as a condensed exhibits variation.
structure called chromosome. It acts as the information source
and helps in making different proteins and cellular machinery I. Modes of Asexual Reproduction
of cell, which makes up the different body designs. Asexual reproduction occurs in unicellular organisms by
fission, budding, spore formation, fragmentation, regeneration
Variations (in animals) and vegetative propagation (in plants). It occurs in
DNA copying during cell division always causes some or multicellular organisms by budding and regeneration.
other type of variations in newly formed cell. This brings the These are as follows
differences found in the morphological and physiological
(i) Fission The process where a unicellular organism splits
features of an organism. itself into two or more daughter cells. It is of two types,
Since no biochemical reaction is absolutely reliable, i.e.
DNA copies generated are similar, but not absolutely (a) Binary Fission In this process, parent cell divides
identical. Variations lead to evolution by increasing the
into two identical daughter cells, e.g. Amoeba,
chances of survival of some individuals. Hence, important for
Leishmania.
the survival of species.
In this process, nuclear division is followed by (iv) Budding A daughter organism is formed from a small
cytoplasmic division. projection known as bud. It develops as an outgrowth due
Pseudopodia to repeated cell divisions of the parent body. When fully
Parent cell grown, it detaches to grow into a new independent
individual, e.g. Hydra.
Nucleus
Tentacles
Pseudopodia
withdrawn
Parent
Hydra
Nuclear Growing
division bud New Hydra
Budding in Hydra
Cytoplasmic
division (v) Vegetative Propagation The process of obtaining complete
plant from any vegetative part of plant is called vegetative
Two daughter propagation. This is mainly of two types
cells formed (a) Natural Vegetative Propagation The vegetative
Binary fission in Amoeba propagation that occurs automatically in plants is called
natural vegetative propagation. It can be achieved by
(b) Multiple Fission In this process, parent cell
root, stem, leaf, etc, e.g. Bryophyllum.
divides into many identical daughter organisms
Bud
simultaneously, e.g. Plasmodium.
Many daughter cells produced
Nucleus by multiple fission
Cytoplasm Daughter cells
released
Multiple fission in Plasmodium artificial vegetative reproduction, e.g. cutting, layering,

grafting, etc.
(ii) Fragmentation The parent body on maturation breaks ◆
Grafting A small part of stem from one plant without
up into two or more small fragments, which later grow roots (scion) is attached to the part with root (stock) of
into a complete new organism, e.g. Spirogyra. another plant.
(iii) Regeneration In this process, all fragments or parts ◆
Layering The development of roots on a stem, while
that are separated from the body develop in new the stem is still attached to the parent plant is called
animals, e.g. sponge, Planaria, Hydra, etc. layering.
◆
Tissue culture It is a technique used for growing new
plants using living tissues (like flower buds, stems,
growing tips, leaves, etc.) in vitro in an artificial culture
medium.
◆
Using this technique, large number of plants can be
developed from a single parent.
(vi) Spore Formation It is a type of asexual reproduction
where blob-like structures called sporangia are
involved. These cells or spores have the ability to
germinate under favourable conditions forming new
plants, e.g. Rhizopus.
Regeneration in Planaria
Spores ◆
Ovary It is the swollen bottom part of carpel. It contains
ovules having an egg cell (female gamete).
Sporangium
Stamen
Stigma
Sporangiophore Anther
Style Filament
Carpel
Petal
Hypha
Ovary Sepal
(Singular-hypha, plural-hyphae)
Spore formation in Rhizopus v

Longitudinal section of flower
II. Modes of Sexual Reproduction Pollination

The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of the stamen to the
In this type of reproduction, both sexes, i.e. male and stigma of a flower is termed as pollination. The pollen grains can
female are involved. Sex cell or gamete of one parent be transferred by various agents like wind, water, insects and
(male) fuses with the sex cell or gamete of another animals.
parent (female). This results in production of a new cell
Pollination usually occurs in two ways
called zygote.
Thus, the sexual mode of reproduction involves two (i) Self-pollination The pollen from the stamen of a flower is
major processes transferred to the stigma of the same flower or another flower
(i) Formation of gametes by meiosis of same plant.
(ii) Fusion of gametes (ii) Cross-pollination The pollen from the stamen of a flower is
transferred to the stigma of another flower of different plant
1. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants of the same species.
Angiosperms bear the reproductive parts within the
flower and their seeds are enclosed in a fruit. Most plants
Fertilisation
have both male and female reproductive It is the process of fusion of male and female gametes. It gives rise
organs in the same flower and are known as bisexual to a zygote. As soon as the pollen lands on suitable stigma, it
flowers. While others have either male or female reaches the female germ cells in ovary. This occurs via pollen
reproductive parts in a flower known as unisexual flowers. tube. The pollen tube grows out of the pollen grain, travels
through the style and finally reaches the ovary.
A flower comprises of four main parts, i.e. sepals, petals,
stamens and carpels. Stamens and carpels are the After fertilisation, ovule develops a rough coat around itself and gets
reproductive parts of a flower. converted to seeds and ovary ripens as fruit.
(i) Stamen It is the male reproductive part of the The seed contains future embryo that grows under suitable
flower. conditions (germination). The fertilisation in the flowering plant is
shown in the given figure.
(ii) Anther It is a bilobed structure containing two
pollen sacs present at tip of stamen. These produce Pollen grain
pollen grains that are yellowish in colour. Stigma
(iii) Carpel (Pistil) It is the female reproductive part, Male gamete (Male germ cell)
which is present in the centre of the flower. It Pollen tube
comprises of three parts
◆
Stigma It is the terminal part of carpel which may
be sticky. It helps in receiving the pollen grains
Ovary
during pollination.
Female gamete
◆
Style It is the middle elongated part of carpel. It
helps in the attachment of stigma to the ovary.
Germination of pollen grain on stigma
2. Sexual Reproduction in Human Beings (ii) Female Reproductive System It includes internal and
external sex organs that function in reproduction of new
Human beings can reproduce sexually after attaining puberty. It
offspring. In human, female reproductive system is
represents period of adolescence when reproductive organs
immature at birth and develops to maturity at puberty
start developing and sexual maturity is attained. Some changes
to be able to produce gametes, and to carry a foetus.
during puberty are common in males and females such as hair
growth in armpits and genitals, oily skin, acne, etc. Oviduct or
Fallopian tube
Specific changes in boys include facial hair growth, hoarse
Ovary
voice, etc. In girls, these changes are enlargement of breast size,
begining of menstruation, etc. Uterus
Cervix
Human Reproductive System
The system of organs required by males and females for the
Vagina
process of sexual reproduction is called reproductive system.
(i) Male Reproductive System It includes parts which
Female reproductive system
produce the germ cells and those which deliver these cells
at the site of fertilisation. Parts and Details of the Female Reproductive System
Seminal vesicle
Parts Details
Ureter
Bladder Ovaries ◆
Paired, oval-shaped organs located in the
abdominal cavity near the kidney.
Prostate gland ◆
Produce thousands of ova or egg cells.
Penis ◆
Secrete female sex hormones like oestrogen
Urethra and progesterone.
Vas deferens
Scrotum
Oviduct It has a funnel-shaped opening near the
◆
(Fallopian tube) ovary.

Carries ova or egg from ovary to the uterus.
◆
Testis It is the site of fertilisation.

◆
Male reproductive system These open into the uterus from both
◆
the sides.
Parts and Details of the Male Reproductive System
Uterus (womb) Hollow, pear-shaped, bag-like structure.
◆
Parts Details The growth and development of foetus takes

◆
Testes ◆
Paired, oval-shaped male sex organs. place.
◆
Consist of seminiferous tubules, where the sperms are
Cervix ◆
It is the lower and the narrower portion of
produced.
uterus which opens into the vagina.
◆
Produce a male sex hormone called testosterone, which
brings about changes in appearance of boys at puberty. Vagina ◆
Receives the sperms from the male partner.
Scrotum ◆
Small pouch that contains testis.
◆
Serves as a birth canal.
◆
Present outside the abdominal cavity. As sperms are
formed here, this requires a lower temperature than the Fertilisation and Post-Fertilisation
normal body temperature.
Changes
Vas ◆
Tube-like structure which connects testis to the urethra
deferens in order to allow the passage of semen.
◆
Fusion of sperm with ovum is called fertilisation. It
results in the formation of diploid zygote. This process
Urethra ◆
Common passage for both the sperms and urine. It takes place in the oviduct or Fallopian tube. The
never carries both of them at the same time. formation of embryo is the result of cleavage and growth
Prostate ◆
Secretes seminal fluid and nutrients. in zygote.
gland and ◆
Fluid and nutrients combine with sperm to form semen. ◆
The embryo sinks downward, reaches into the soft
seminal Milky, viscous fluid contains fructose, proteins and other uterine lining and gets embedded. This process is known
vesicles chemicals for nourishing and stimulating sperms. as implantation.
Penis ◆
External male genital organ. ◆
A disc-like structure called placenta grows between the
◆
Transfers sperms into the vagina of the female during uterine wall and embryo. It has finger-like projections
copulation. called villi, which provide surface area for the exchange
Sperms ◆
Tiny and motile bodies that use their long tail to move of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the
through the female reproductive tract. embryo and the mother.
◆
Childbirth (after a gestation period of approximately Methods Examples Details
9 months) occurs by strong rhythmic contractions of
Diaphragm ◆
Rubber cup that is placed in the vagina
uterine muscles.
over the cervix.
Intra-Uterine Copper-T placed in uterus by doctor.
Menstruation
◆
Contraceptive ◆
Used to prevent pregnancy.
In the absence of fertilisation, the uterine lining which Device (IUCD) ◆
Can cause side effects due to the
becomes thick and spongy to receive a fertilised egg, is no irritation of uterus.
longer required. It sheds out as blood and mucus which
Hormonal Oral ◆
Contain hormones, which prevent
lasts for about 2-8 days and occurs every month. This contraceptive release of ovum, so that fertilisation
phase is known as menstruation. pills cannot occur. These disturb the
hormonal balance (levels of FSH and
Reproductive Health LH) of the body.
It can be defined as the state of physical, mental and ◆
Can cause side effects also.
social fitness to lead a healthy reproductive life. Good Chemical Spermicide ◆
Applied in vagina.
reproductive health provides both male and female with
◆
Kills sperms.
◆
the fertility control methods.
◆
Can only be used with condoms or
◆
awareness about how to limit their family size.
diaphragm.
◆
protection from infection and sexually transmitted
diseases. Surgical Vasectomy ◆
Small portion of the sperm duct is cut or
tied properly. Therefore, the sperm
Sex Ratio transfer will be prevented.
◆
Prevents sperms from coming out of
The ratio of the number of females to the number of urethra.
males in a population is known as sex ratio. A balanced ◆
An irreversible process.
female-male sex ratio is necessary for a healthy society.
Tubectomy ◆
Small portion of oviduct is cut or
Population Size tied properly. The Fallopian tube in
the female gets blocked. The egg
The rates of birth and death in a given population will not be able to reach the uterus
determine its size. The population size increases if the and thus,fertilisation will not take
birth rate is higher than the death rate and vice-versa. place.
◆
Prevents the egg from meeting the
Methods of Family Planning sperms.
The sexual act always carries the risk of potential ◆
An irreversible process.
pregnancy. In order to avoid unplanned pregnancies,
many ways have been devised, which are called Female Foeticide
contraception or birth control methods.
The killing of unborn girl child is called female foeticide. It is
Methods of Family Planning happening because of misuse of ultrasound technique by which
Methods Examples Details
people get to know the sex of the child. If it is female, they get it
removed by surgery.
Barrier Condom ◆
Rubber sheath worn over the
penis to stop sperm from
entering the vagina. Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)
◆
Prevents transmission of Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) are caused by different
Sexually Transmitted pathogens transmitted by an intimate contact between healthy
Diseases (STDs) and has no person and an infected person.
side effect.
Some Common STDs

Infections Examples Causative Organisms Comments
Bacterial Gonorrhoea Neisseria gonorrhoeae ◆
Contracted on during unprotected sexual intercourse with an infected person.
infections ◆
Also passed by an infected mother to the developing foetus.
◆
Infects ureter in men and cervix in women.
◆
Treatment with antibiotics is effective.
Symptoms of gonorrhoea
◆
Discharge of pus from penis and vagina.
◆
Burning sensation on urinating.
Syphilis Treponema pallidum ◆
Syphilis is transmitted from person to person by direct contact with syphilis sores
These occur mainly on the external genitals, vagina, anus or in the rectum, can also
occur on lips and mouth.
◆
Syphilis can be transmitted during vaginal, anal or oral sexual contact.
◆
Pregnant women with the disease can pass it to their unborn children.
◆
Can be cured by antibiotics.
Symptoms of syphilis
◆
Appearance of sores on body parts.
◆
Fever, ulcers, bone pain, liver disease and anaemia. These symptoms slow up
during the tertiary stage of syphilis.
Viral AIDS HIV Incurable and fatal as it suppresses the immune system of the body. It can be
infections (Acquired (Human transferred in following ways,
Immuno Immunodeficiency ◆
during unprotected sexual intercourse with an infected person.
Deficiency Virus) ◆
sharing needles and transfusion of HIV unscreened blood.
Syndrome)
◆
from the mother to the child via placenta during pregnancy.
Genital HPV (Human ◆
Causes warts over external genitalia and perianal area.
warts Papilloma Virus) ◆
Podophyllum preparations are effective in treatment.
Chapter
Practice
cut pieces of the two Planaria worms could
PART 1 regenerate to form the complete worm ?
Objective Questions R
P
◆ Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following statement is correct S
regarding DNA copying? Q
I. It is a basic event in reproduction.

(I) (II)
II. Two copies of DNA are produced in a reproducing
cell. (a) Only P
(b) R and S
III. Copies generated are always identical.
(c) P and Q
IV. It is accompanied by the creation of an additional (d) P, Q, R and S
cellular apparatus.
Codes 6. Identify the organisms A and B and mode of asexual
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III reproduction exhibited by them.
(c) I and II (d) II and IV
2. The diagram given below shows
A B
(a) A—Bryophyllum, Vegetative propagation
B—Plasmodium, Multiple fission
(b) A—Plasmodium, Multiple fission
B—Bryophyllum, Vegetative propagation
(a) binary fission in Amoeba (c) A—Planaria, Budding
(b) multiple fission in Plasmodium B—Plasmodium, Binary fission
(c) budding in Hydra (d) A—Hydra, Budding
(d) binary fission in Leishmania B—Rhizopus, Spore formation
3. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding 7. Observe the diagram of pistil of a flower.
in (NCERT)
(a) Amoeba (b) Yeast A
(c) Plasmodium (d) Leishmania
4. An organism which can completely regenerate from B
its cut body parts is

(a) Paramecium (b) Amoeba
(c) Planaria (d) Rhizopus
C
5. A Planaria worm is cut horizontally from the middle D
into two halves P and Q. Another Planaria worm is
cut vertically into two halves R and S. Which of the
Match the labelling referred in Column I and Match the labelling referred in Column I and
correlate with the function in Column II. correlate with the function in Column II.
Column I Column II Column I Column II
A 1. Female germ cell. A 1. Produce ovum
B 2. Receptor of pollen grains. B 2. Site of fertilisation
C 3. Pollen grain travels through it. C 3. Site of implantation
D 4. It ripens as fruit. D 4. Blood and mucus comes out
Codes Codes
A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4 12. Eggs are produced in ovary
(d) 4 1 2 3
8. Carefully study the diagram of flower with labels A to Released in Fallopian tube
D. Select the option which gives correct identification
and main function and/or characteristic.
Fertilised Unfertilised
X Y
A Identify the correct option from the given table which
B represents the correct fate of egg occurring at X and Y,
D respectively.
C
Pregnancy Menstruation
(a) ✓ ²
(a) A—Anther–Formation of ovules (b) ² ✓
(b) B—Stigma–Receives pollen grains (c) ✓ ✓
(c) C—Ovary–Contains pollens which develop into seeds (d) ² ²
(d) D—Filament–Lifts anther to disperse pollen grains
13. The figure given below shows male reproductive
9. In a flower, the parts that produce male and female
system with labels (i) to (iv).
gametes (germ cells) are (NCERT Exemplar)
(a) stamen and anther Identify the correct label with its functions.
(b) filament and stigma
(c) anther and ovary
(d) stamen and style (i)
10. Which of the following is not a secondary (ii)

reproductive organ? (iii)
(a) Fallopian tube (b) Uterus
(c) Ovary (d) Vagina
11. The figure given below shows a female reproductive
(iv)
system in humans with labels A to D.
(a) (i) Bladder–It is essential for the mobility of sperms
A
(b) (ii) Scrotum–It transfers sperm into the vagina of female
(c) (iii) Urethra–It isa common passage for both the sperm
and urine
D (d) (iv) Testis–Its secretion form 20-30% of semen
B
14. Which of the following option contains male
reproductive organs of humans?
C
(a) Seminal vesicle, uterus and penis
(b) Prostate gland, penis and vas deferens
(c) Vagina, testis and penis
(d) Cervix, scrotum and seminal vesicle
15. Which of the following is not the function of 21. Assertion The uterus prepares itself every month to
testosterone? receive a fertilised egg.
(a) Regulation of characters of puberty in boys Reason The ovary releases one egg every month.
(b) Regulation of production of sperms
22. Assertion AIDS is an incurable and a fatal bacterial
(c) Development of bones and muscles
infection.
(d) Regulation of metabolism for body growth
Reason It suppresses the immune system of the
16. What happens to a man, when the labelled part X is body.
cut?
◆ Case Based MCQs
23. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
to (v) given below
Farmers, gardeners and horticulturists have
developed various artificial methods of vegetative
X
propagation for growing plants in gardens and
nurseries. A very simple method of propagation
involves a piece of the parent plants stem with nodes
(a) Sperm ejaculation stops and internodes is placed in moist soil.
(b) Testosterone production stops
This grows into a new plant. In grafting, the cutting
(c) Urine formation stops
of a plants are attached to the stem of a rooted plant.
(d) Semen formation stops
The attached cutting becomes a part of the rooted
17. Which among the following diseases is not sexual plant, draws nutrition from it and grows roots at the
transmitted? (NCERT Exemplar) joint. Now if it is separated, it grows into a new plant.
(a) Syphilis
In layering, one or more branches of the parent plant
(b) Hepatitis
are bent close to the ground and covered with moist
(c) HIV-AIDS
soil. The covered portions grow roots and develop
(d) Gonorrhoea into new plants.
◆ Assertion-Reasoning MCQs (i) Which part of plant is more suitable for vegetative
propagation?
Direction (Q. Nos. 18-22) For given questions, two
(a) Stem (b) Leaves
statements are given, one labelled Assertion (A) and
(c) Root (d) Bulbils
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct
(ii) Choose the odd one out.
answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
(a) Potato (b) Sugarcane
and (d) as given below.
(c) Bryophyllum (d) Wheat
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A (iii) In which type of artificial propagation, stock and
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct scion are involved?
explanation of A (a) Tissue culture
(c) A is true, but R is false (b) Cuttings
(d) A is false, but R is true (c) Grafting
(d) Layering
18. Assertion Individuals produced by asexual
(iv) Which of the following statement is correct about
reproduction are known as clones.
artificial vegetative propagation of plants?
Reason They are known as clones because they are (a) We get seedless plants by this method
genetically identical. (b) The new plants produced by this method are similar
19. Assertion Ureter forms the common passage for both to the parent plants
the sperms and urine. (c) Many plants can be grown from just one parent plant
(d) All of the above
Reason It never carries both of them at the same
time. (v) Which of the following method is suitable for
combining the desirable characters of two plants
20. Assertion Vagina is also called as birth canal. together in a single plant?
Reason During birth, the baby passes through the (a) Layering (b) Cutting
vagina. (c) Grafting (d) All of these
24. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) 3. What is a clone? Why do offspring formed by asexual
to (v) given below reproduction exhibit remarkable similarity?
The uterus or womb is a hollow, pear-shaped organ (NCERT Exemplar)
in a women’s lower stomach between the bladder and 4. Colonies of yeast fail to multiply in water, but multiply
rectum. It sheds the lining each month during in sugar solution. Give one reason for this.
menstruation. A fertilised egg becomes implanted in (NCERT Exemplar)
the uterus and the foetus develops.
A
5. Illustrate with example, the division and fragmentation
method of reproduction in living organisms.
6. List two advantages of vegetative propagation over other
modes of reproduction.
B
7. Name a plant in which layering produces a new plant.
8. Write one main difference between asexual and sexual
mode of reproduction. Which species is likely to have
comparatively better chances of survival, the one
reproducing asexually or the one reproducing sexually?
C Give reason to justify your answer. (CBSE 2018)
(i) Name the parts labelled as A and C. 9. In tobacco plant, the male gametes have twenty four
(a) Umbilical cord and placenta chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in
(b) Umbilical cord and uterine wall the female gamete? What is the number of
(c) Fallopian tube and ovum chromosomes in the zygote? (NCERT Exemplar)
(d) Cytoplasm and umbilical cord
10. Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-
(ii) What determines the sex of a child? pollination.
(a) Chromosome content of the ovum
(b) Chromosome content of the sperm 11. In a bisexual flower inspite of the young stamens being
(c) Number of days between ovulation and fertilisation removed artificially, the flower produces fruit. Provide
(d) Number of days between fertilisation and implantation a suitable explanation for the above situation.
(iii) Which of the following is embedded in the uterine (NCERT Exemplar)
wall ? 12. Differentiate between unisexual and bisexual flowers
(a) Zygote (b) Embryo’s head and give one example of each.
(c) Placenta (d) Eggs
13. (i) List two reasons for the appearance of
(iv) Which of the following is a temporary method of
variations among the progeny formed by sexual
family planning ?
reproduction.
(a) Vasectomy (b) Tubectomy
(ii)
(c) Copper-T (d) Both (a) and (b) A
B
(v) Union of male and female gametes take places in
(a) uterus (b) ovary
(c) vagina (d) oviduct C
PART 2
D
Subjective Questions
(CBSE 2016)
◆ Short Answer Type Questions (a) Name the part marked as A in the diagram.
1. What is the importance of DNA copying in (b) How does A reach part B?
reproduction? (NCERT) (c) State the importance of the part C.
2. Why is variation beneficial to the species, but not (d) What happens to the part marked as D after
necessary for the individual? fertilisation is over?
14. (i) Draw a diagram showing germination of pollen on 28. If a woman is using a copper-T, will it help in
stigma of a flower and mark on it the following protecting her from sexually transmitted diseases ?
organs/parts (CBSE 2020) (NCERT)
(a) Pollen grain (b) Pollen tube 29. Write a short note on family planning.
(c) Stigma (d) Female germ cell 30. (i) ‘Use of a condom is beneficial for both the sexes
(ii) State the significance of pollen tube. involved in a sexual act.’ Justify this statement
(iii) Name the parts of flower that develop after giving two reasons.
fertilisation into (ii) How do oral contraceptives help in avoiding
(a) Seed (b) Fruit pregnancies?
(iii) What is sex selective abortion? How does it
15. Why cannot fertilisation take place in flowers if affect a healthy society? (State any one
pollination does not occur? (NCERT Exemplar)
consequence). (CBSE 2020)
16. How are general growth and sexual maturation different 31. What are the various ways to avoid pregnancy?
from each other? (NCERT Exemplar)
Elaborate any one method. (NCERT Exemplar)
17. Draw the human female reproductive system and label
the following parts ◆ Long Answer Type Questions
(i) Which organ produces ovum? 32. Reproduction is essentially a phenomenon that is
(ii) Where does fertilisation take place? not for the survival of an individual, but for the
(iii) Where does implantation of embryo take place? stability of a species. Justify. (NCERT Exemplar)
(CBSE 2015, 2019)
33. ‘Reproduction helps in providing stability to
18. List two functions of ovary of female reproductive population of a species’. Justify this statement.
system. (CBSE 2016)
34. (i) Name the mode of reproduction of the
19. A newly married couple wants to conceive as quickly following organisms and state the important
as possible. What is the first sign of pregnancy shown feature of each mode
by the woman ? (a) Planaria (b) Hydra
20. What changes are observed in the uterus if fertilisation (c) Rhizopus
does not occur? (NCERT Exemplar) (ii) We can develop new plants from the leaves of
21. How does the embryo get nourishment inside the Bryophyllum. Comment.
mother’s body? (NCERT, CBSE 2015)
35. Explain the fertilisation process in plant with the
22. What is the function of the umbilical cord ? help of a labelled diagram of a longitudinal section of
a flower.
23. Why are testes located outside the abdominal cavity?
24. Trace the path of sperm during ejaculation and mention 36. Define pollination. Explain the different types of
the glands associated with the male reproductive system pollination. List two agents of pollination. How does
and their functions. (NCERT Exemplar)
suitable pollination lead of fertilisation? (CBSE 2019)
25. What would be the ratio of chromosome number 37. Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation.
between an egg and its zygote? How is the sperm Mention the site and product, of fertilisation in a
genetically different from the egg? flower. Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a pistil
showing pollen tube growth and its entry into the
26. State any two methods of contracting an STD other ovule. (NCERT Exemplar)
than the sexual contact.
38. Trace the change that takes place in a flower from
27. How can people practice safe sex to avoid contracting an gamete formation to fruit formation. (CBSE 2020)
STD ?
39. Based on the given diagram answer the questions 43. Give reasons.
given below. (i) Placenta is extremely essential for foetal
B development.
(ii) Blocking of vas deferens prevents pregnancy.
(iii) Wind acts as a pollinating agent.
A
Bladder (iv) Use of condoms prevents pregnancy.
(v) Blocking of Fallopian tubes prevents pregnancy.
44. List four points of significance of reproductive health
in a society. Name any two areas related to the
reproductive health which have improved over the
past 50 years in our country.
D ◆ Case Based Questions

C 45. Read the following and answer the questions from
Salman soaked a few seeds of Bengal gram (chana)
and kept them overnight. Next morning, he drained
Testis
the excess water and covered the seeds with a wet
(i) Label the parts A, B, C and D. cloth. He then left the seeds for a day.
(ii) Name the hormone secreted by testis and After one day, he opened the seeds into two parts
mention its role. and carefully observe the different parts.
(iii) State the functions of B and C in the process of
reproduction. (CBSE 2020)
40. (i) Identify the given diagram. Name the parts

labelled as A to E. (CBSE 2019)
A
(i) Which part of the flower develops into seed?

C
B (ii) Where do the energy required for germination of
D
seeds come from?
(iii) Which part of the seed emerges out the first?
E (iv) Define germination.
(v) What are the necessary conditions for seed
germination?
(ii) What is contraception? List three advantages of 46. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
adopting contraceptive measures. to (v) given below
41. (i) Write the function of following parts in human As soon as boys and girls reach adolescent age,
female reproductive system. certain changes start happening in their bodies
(a) Ovary (b) Oviduct (c) Uterus under the influence of sex hormones produced in
(ii) Describe in brief the structure and function of their bodies. These changes are mostly related to
placenta. (CBSE 2018)
height, size, voice pitch, physical attributes, etc.
The table below shows the average height of boys
42. Trace out the movement and fate of egg in female and girls upto the age of 18 years.
body.
Age/Years Average Height / cm Testicles are also part of the endocrine system.
Boys Girls A
I
0 (at birth) 52 51 B
1 76 75
2 88 88 C
3 97 97 D
H E
4 103 103
5 110 110 G
6 118 117
7 125 122 F
8 131 128 (i) Name the organ that acts as both endocrine and
9 135 133 exocrine gland?
10 141 140 (ii) How is the sperm genetically different from the egg?
11 145 146 (iii) What is semen?
12 150 153 (iv) A man wants a surgical operation for family planning.
Which part of his reproductive system needs to be
13 156 158
operate?
14 164 161 (v) What would be the ratio of chromosome number
15 169 162 between an egg and its zygote?
16 172 162 48. Read the following and answer the questions from
17 174 162 (i) to (v) given below
18 175 162 The term Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) refers to a
condition passed from one person to another through
(i) State the changes happening in adolescent boys
sexual contact. However, it is not the only way STDs can
and girls.
be transmitted.
(ii) When does the most rapid growth take place?
(iii) The increase in height in girls almost ceases at
An STD develops without any symptoms early on, or if
what age? any symptoms appear they are often dismissed as regular
infections.
(iv) Significant spurt in increase of height of boys
occurs at what the age? At present, there are several type of STDs known which
(v) What are the changes that are common in both are caused by different type of pathogens.
boys and girls at the age of adolescence? Some of these STDs are curable, while other are not. The
47. Read the following and answer the questions from only full proof way of avoiding an STD is to practice safe
sex.
(i) to (v) given below.
(i) Give two examples of STDs.
The male has reproductive organs or genitals
that are both inside and outside the pelvis. The (ii) Do you think like viruses, bacteria can also cause an
STD? Give an example.
male genitals include the testicles, the duct
system, accessory glands and the penis. (iii) Name a method of contraception which protects us from
acquiring sexually transmitted diseases?
In male who has reached sexual maturity, the
two oval-shaped testicles make and store (iv) What are IUCD? Given one example.
millions of tiny sperm cells. (v) Emergency contraceptives may prevent pregnancy if
used within 72 hrs of …, … .
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions 12. (c) The given flow chart shows the movement and fate of egg
1. (a) Statements I, II and IV are correct, whereas statement in female body.
III is incorrect. Incorrect statement can be corrected as When egg gets fertilised it forms zygote which develops
The process of copying of DNA will have some variations into embryo. Early embryo gets implanted leading to
each time. As a result, the DNA copies generated will be pregnancy (X).
similar, but may not be identical to the original. When egg does not get fertilised, it degenerates and passes
2. (d) The given diagram shows how Leishmania reproduces out as menstrual discharge through vagina therefore leads to
through binary fission to produce two daughter cells. menstruation (Y).
3. (b) Asexual reproduction in Hydra and yeast, takes place by 13. (c) Option (c) is correct labelled part with its function.
budding. (iii) is urethra, it is a common passage for both the sperm
and urine.
4. (c) Planaria is a flatworm which possesses high regeneration
ability. If its body somehow gets cut into pieces, then each Other options are incorrect labelled parts with their
piece can regenerate into a complete organism by growing functions and can be corrected as
the missing parts. (i) is prostate gland, its secretion form 20-30% of
5. (d) The Planaria reproduces through regeneration method, semen which is essential for the mobility of sperms.
therefore all the cut parts (i.e. P, Q, R and S) of the Planaria (ii) is penis, it transfers sperm into the vagina of female
will regenerate to form complete worms. during copulation.
(iv) is testis, it produces sperms and a male sex hormone
6. (a) A is Bryophyllum, it reproduces by vegetative
called testosterone.
propagation.
B is Plasmodium, it reproduces by multiple fission. 14. (b) Option (b) contains male reproductive organs of humans.
7. (a) The given diagram shows various parts of pistil. The male human reproductive system consists of seminal
vesicle, prostate gland, testis, vas deferens, urethra, penis,
◆
A is stigma, it helps in receiving the pollen grains during scrotum, etc., whereas uterus, vagina and cervix are parts of
pollination. female reproductive system.
◆
B is style, the pollen tube grows out of the pollen grain and
15. (d) Regulation of metabolism for body growth is not a
travels through the style.
function of testosterone (but by thyroid hormones).
◆
C is ovary, it ripens as fruit after the process of fertilisation.
16. (a) Vasectomy isa minor surgery to block sperm
◆
D is ovule, it is the female gamete or female germ-cell of
from reaching the semen that is ejaculated from the
the flower.
penis.
8. (d) Option (d) is correct labelled part with its
functions/characteristics. The labelled part X in the given diagram is vas deferens.
Once vas deferens are cut, sperms cannot get into the
D is filament, it lifts anther to disperse pollen grains.
semen or out of the body. Hence, ejaculation of sperms
Other options are incorrect labelled parts with their
stops.
functions characteristics and can be corrected as
A is anther, it is a site of pollen formation. 17. (b) The diseases which are spread by sexual contact with an
B is style, it lifts stigma to receive pollen. infected person are called Sexually Transmitted Diseases or
C is ovary, it contains ovule which develops into seeds while STDs, e.g. gonorrhoea, syphilis and AIDS. Hepatitis is a
ovary forms the fruit. water-borne viral disease which affects liver. It is not a sexual
transmitted disease.
9. (c) The stamen (male part) containsa swollen topmost part
called anther which contains male gametes, i.e. pollen 18. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
grains. Ovary (female part) makes ovules (female gametes) The new individuals produced by asexual reproduction are
and stores them. always genetically identical to each other and their parents,
hence are known as clones.
10. (c) The primary reproductive organs or gonads consist of the
ovaries and testes. All other organs, ducts and glands in the 19. (d)A is false, but R is true because
reproductive system are considered as secondary or In males, urethra forms the common passage for both the
accessory reproductive organs. So, ovary is not a secondary sperms and urine. whereas ureters are tubes that propel
reproductive organ. urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. It never
carries sperms.
11. (b) The correct matches are as follows 20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
A Oviduct or Fallopian tubes are the site of fertilisation. Vagina is called as birth canal, because the fully matured baby
B Ovary releases one mature egg (ovum) every month. passes through the vagina during birth.
C Vagina, in absence of fertilisation, the lining of uterus
slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as 21. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
blood and mucus. Since, the ovary releases one egg every month, the uterus
also prepares itself every month to receive a fertilised egg.
D. Lining of uterus is site for implantation of embryo.
Its lining become thick and spongy to nourish the
Thus, option (b) is correct. developing embryo.
22. (d)A is false, but R is true because However, if some variations are present in few individuals, it
AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) is caused would help them to colonise other habitats and survive. But, if
by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus), so it is a viral variations are present in a single organism, there would be a
disease. The virus attacks the body’s immune system and very little chance for it to survive and species is lost forever.
suppresses it. Hence, variation is beneficial to the species, but not
23. (i) (a) Stems are more suitable for vegetative propagation necessary for the individuals.
due to the presence of nodes in them. 3. Clones are the offsprings produced by one parent through
(ii) (d) Some plants undergo vegetative propagation such as asexual reproduction. These are genetically identical to the
potato (through nodes), sugarcane (through stem), parent. The clones possess exact copies of the DNA of their
Bryophyllum (through leaves). Wheat plant does not parent and hence show remarkable similarity to the parent
undergo vegetative propagation and is grown by sowing and to one another.
seeds. 4. When the colony of yeast is in water, it does not get
(iii) (c) In grafting, the cut stem of a rooted plant is called nutrition. Sugar solution, on the contrary provides nutrition.
stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is As the yeast gets nutrition and thus energy, it grows and
called scion. begins to produce buds. This is why colonies of yeast fail to
(iv) (d) The process of growing many plants from one plant multiply in water, but multiply in sugar solution.
by man-made methods is called artificial vegetative 5. Multicellular organisms like filamentous algae (Spirogyra)
propagation of plants. The new plants produced by this and sea animal called sea anemone on maturation breakup
method have similar characterstics as their parent into two or more small fragments or pieces. Each fragment
plant. Many seedless plants can grow by this method. subsequently grows to form a complete new organism. This
Hence, all the given statements are correct about type of asexual reproduction is known as fragmentation.
artificial vegetative propagation. 6. Two advantages of vegetative propagation are as follows
Thus, option (d) is correct. (i) Vegetative reproduction is easier and faster methods of
(v) (c) Grafting is a most suitable method of artificial reproduction.
propagation for combining the desirable characters of (ii) It is useful in those plants/animals, which cannot
two plants together in a single plant. reproduce sexually.
24. (i) (a) A is umbilical cord, it is a narrow tube-like 7. Layering is a type of vegetative propagation, e.g. lemon,
structure that connects the developing baby to the rose, jasmine, strawberry, etc., can produce new plant by the
placenta. process of layering.
C is placenta, it is an organ attached to the lining of 8. The main difference between sexual and asexual
the womb that delivers oxygen and nutrients to the reproduction involves the production and union of gametes
growing baby. in the process of fertilisation in sexually reproducing
(ii) (b) Sex of a child is always determined by the type of organisms which do not occur in asexual mode of
sex- chromosomes received by the father. Male reproduction.
produces two types of sperms, either having Sexual reproduction is considered to be superior over
X-chromosome or Y-chromosome. asexual reproduction as it leads to variations, while asexual
(iii) (c) Placenta is embedded in the uterine wall. reproduction does not induce variations among progeny
(iv) (c) Copper-T is an IUD (Intrauterine Device). It individuals.
releases copper ions which are toxic to the egg and Advantages of variations in individuals are
sperms. It stops sperm from fertilising the egg.
(i) It brings adaptation in individuals.
Therefore, it prevents pregnancy for upto 10 years.
(ii) It helps in the survival of species.
(v) (d) Oviduct also known as Fallopian tube, is the site of
fertilisation, where male and female gametes fuse to (iii) It is the basis of evolution.
form zygote. So, union of male and female takes place Hence, the species that reproduce through sexual
in oviducts. reproduction have better chances of survival.
9. The number of chromosome in the female gamete would
Subjective Questions be same as that in the male gamete, i.e. it will have 24
1. The importance of DNA copying during reproduction are chromosomes. The number of chromosome in the zygote
(i) It is responsible for the transmission of parental would be double the number present in the gamete and
characteristics to the offsprings. hence, it would be 48.
(ii) During DNA copying in reproduction, the changes 10. Pollination is transfer of pollen grains from anther to the
occur due to the inheritance of traits from both the stigma of a flower. It is of two types
parents. This leads to certain genetic variations, which (i) Self-pollination Transfer of pollen from the stamens of
are useful for the evolution of species over a period of a flower to the stigma of the same flower or on the
time. stigma of other flower of the same plant.
2. Variations allow organisms to exist in diverse habitats or (ii) Cross-pollination Transfer of pollen from the stamens of
niches. In its absence, a species may remain restricted to a a flower to the stigma of different flower of different plant
particular area. If this area gets drastically altered due to various of same species.
natural or man-made causes, the species may be wiped out.
11. A bisexual flower has the male as well as female Hence, fertilisation cannot take place in flowers if pollination
reproductive organs. If the young stamen (i.e. male unit) is does not occur due to the absence of pollen tube (i.e. the male
removed artificially, the flower still has its pistil (i.e. female gamete).
unit) intact. Therefore, cross-pollination can occur. 16. General growth refers to different types of developmental
When the pollen grains from the anther of another flower process in the body like increase in height, weight gain,
are transferred to the stigma of this flower with the help of changes in shape and size of the body. During this phase, the
pollinating agents such as insects, bees, wind and water, it reproductive organs develop at a slower rate.
causes cross-pollination. After the pollen grains fall on During sexual maturation, the changes that occur prepare
stigma, the next step is fertilisation, followed by formation of
the body for sexual reproduction. These are specific changes
fruits and seeds.
reflected at puberty like cracking of voice, new hair patterns,
12. Stamens and carpels (pistils) are the reproductive organs ofa development of breast in female, etc.
flower, i.e. organs by which sexual reproduction in floral 17.
plants takes place. Oviduct or
Most plants have both male and female reproductive organs Fallopian tube
in the same flower and are known as bisexual flowers, e.g. Ovary
lily, rose, etc., while others have either male or female Uterus
reproductive parts in a flower known as unisexual flowers, Cervix
e.g. papaya, watermelon, etc.
13. (i) Variations appear among the progeny formed by sexual Vagina
reproduction due to the following reasons
(a) Sexual reproduction results in new combinations of Female reproductive system
genes that are brought together during the formation
(i) Ovum is produced by ovaries which are paired,
of gametes by meiotic divisions (I and II).
oval-shaped organs.
(b) The combination of two sets of chromosomes, one
(ii) Oviduct or Fallopian tubes are the site of fertilisation.
between the homologous chromosome arms set from
They have funnel-shaped opening near ovary and carry
each parent during zygote formation, leads to
ova or egg from ovary to uterus.
variation within a species.
(iii) Implantation refers to embedding of the embryo in the
(ii) (a) A–Pollen grain
thick lining of uterus.
(b) Pollen grain reaches part B, i.e. stigma by 18. Ovary in females is responsible for the production of female
pollinating agents such as insects, wind, water, etc. gametes (ova) and also produces female sex hormones, i.e.
This process is known as pollination. oestrogen and progesterone.
(c) Part C is pollen tube. It allows the passage for the 19. The absence of menstrual cycle may be the first indication of
male gametes to reach the ovary having female pregnancy in a woman.
gamete for fertilisation.
20. If the egg is not fertilised, it lives for about one day. Since,
(d) Part D, i.e. female gamete or egg cell that forms
the ovary releases one egg every month, the uterus also
zygote after fertilisation. prepares itself every month to receive a fertilised egg. Its
14. (i)
(a) Pollen grain lining becomes thick and spongy, which is required for
(c) Stigma nourishing the embryo. If fertilisation, however, does not take
place this lining is not needed in the absence of fertilisation
and it slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as
(b) Pollen tube blood and mucus. This cycle takes place roughly every
month and is known as menstruation cycle and usually lasts
for about 2-8 days.
21. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the
help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc-like
(d) Female tissue which develops between the uterine wall and embryo.
germ cell As mother eats, the food passes through the digestive system
where it breaks down into small particles. These nutrients
(ii) The pollen tube takes its origin from intine of pollen travel through the mother’s bloodstream and get exchanged
grains. It grows through the style and reaches the with the bloodstream of foetus through placenta.
micropyle of ovule. It carries male nuclei to the ovule
22. The umbilical cord contains blood vessels which supply
for fertilisation.
blood between the foetus and the placenta.
(iii) (a) Ovule develops into seed.
23. Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity because
(b) Mature ovary develops into fruit.
sperm formation requires a lower temperature than the
15. In a flower, fertilisation requires both male and female normal body temperature.
gametes. So, it is necessary that the male gamete reaches the
24. Path of sperm during ejaculation Formation of sperms take
female gamete. This can happen when the pollen grains are
place in testis. Sperms come out from testis into the vas
transferred to the stigma through any means of pollination.
deferens. It then unites with another tube called urethra
coming from the urinary bladder. Along the path of vas (iv) Surgical method for permanent contraception.
deferens, glands like the prostate and the seminal vesicle Mechanical Barrier There are a number of methods that
add their secretion, so that sperms are in fluid medium to create barrier between sperm and egg
make their transport easier. This fluid also provides nutrition.
Glands associated with male reproductive system are Some of them are as follows
Condom It is a fine rubber balloon-like structure worn over
(i) Testis It secretes the male sex hormone, testosterone. the penis during sexual intercourse. Semen is collected in it
(ii) Prostate Gland It makes the semen medium alkaline. and not discharged into the vagina. This method also
(iii) Cowper’s Gland It secretion of this gland lubricates prevents the spread of STDs like AIDS, syphilis, etc.
the urethra before ejaculation. Diaphragms or Caps It can be fitted in the cervix of a
(iv) Seminal Vesicle It adds fluid content to semen. woman to prevent semen from reaching the Fallopian
tube.
25. The ratio of chromosome number between egg and its zygote
is 1 : 2. An egg is a female gamete and it has haploid number of 32. All the living organisms need energy for their survival and
chromosomes. During fertilisation, it fuses with male gamete growth. This energy is obtained from various life processes
(also having haploid number of chromosomes) to form a zygote such as nutrition, excretion and respiration.
which now has diploid number of chromosomes. Thus, these phenomena are essential for the survival of an
individual. Compared to these life processes, reproduction
Sperms and eggs are genetically different in terms of nature
is not essential for survival of an individual.
of sex chromosome. The sperm contains either X or
Y-chromosome, whereas an egg will always have an It is basically important for continuity of the generation of an
X-chromosome. organism or species as DNA copying during reproduction
helps to produce similar individuals as their parents to
26. Two methods of contracting an STD other than the sexual maintain stability of a species.
contact are as follows
33. A species occupies a well-defined niche in an ecosystem,
(i) Sharing needles with an infected person. using its ability to reproduce. During reproduction, copies of
(ii) Transfusion of STD unscreened blood. DNA pass from one generation to the next. This copying of
27. People can practice safe sex by using condoms as it acts as DNA takes place with consistency in reproducing organisms
barrier method of contraception and does not allow entry of and this is important for the maintenance of body design
semen into vagina. Therefore, prevent STDs and avoid features (physiological as well as structural) which allows the
chances of pregnancy. organism to use that particular niche. Reproduction is
therefore, linked to the stability of population of a species.
28. No, copper-T does not prevent the transmission of sexually
transmitted diseases. Copper-T only prevents implantation. 34. (i) (a) Planaria—Regeneration
The only safe method that can be used to prevent the (b) Hydra—Budding
transmission of sexually transmitted diseases is condoms. (c) Rhizopus—Sporulation
29. Family planning refers to the regulation of conception by the (ii) The leaves of Bryophyllum bear vegetative adventitious
use of contraceptive methods or devices to limit the number buds which on separation can give rise to new plants.
of offspring. 35. Stamens and carpels are the reproductive parts of a flower.
The methods used to prevent the occurrence of pregnancy ◆
Stamen is the male reproductive part of the flower.
are called contraceptive methods. These can be barrier, ◆
Anther is a bilobed structure containing two pollen sacs
hormonal, chemical and surgical methods. present at tip of stamen. These produce pollen grains that
30. (i) Use of a condom is beneficial for both the sexes involved are yellowish in colour.
in a sexual act. It is because of the following facts ◆
Carpel (Pistil) is the female reproductive part, which is
(a) It prevents pregnancy which is not desired by a present in the centre of the flower.
couple. It comprises of three parts
(b) It saves both the partners from sexually transmitted (i) Stigma It is the terminal part of carpel which may be
diseases like AIDS, etc. sticky. It helps in receiving the pollen grains during
(ii) Oral contraceptives are the hormonal pills which are pollination.
taken by the females after their menstruation ends up. (ii) Style It is the middle elongated part of carpel. It helps in
It is taken for 21 days daily. It changes the cyclic events the attachment of stigma to the ovary.
of ovulation, etc. So, mature ovum is not available for (iii) Ovary It is the swollen bottom part of carpel. It contains
fertilisation. ovules having an egg cell (female gamete).
(iii) Sex selective abortion means if the foetus is female, it is
Stigma
Stamen
killed and extracted. This creates an imbalanced in the Anther

society by disturbing the sex ratio. Style Filament
31. Ways to avoid pregnancy are called contraceptive methods. Pistil
Petal
It includes a number of ways such as
(i) Mechanical barrier, e.g. condom. Ovary Sepals
(ii) Drugs (oral pills for females).
(iii) IUCD, e.g. copper-T. Longitudinal section of flower
Fertilisation is the process of fusion of male germ cells with The pollen grain is transferred from the stamen to the stigma. It
the female gametes. It gives rise to a zygote. As soon as the is transferred of pollen occurs in the same flower, it is referred
pollen lands on suitable stigma, it reaches the female germ to as self-pollination.
cells in ovary. This occurs via pollen tube. The pollen tube On the other hand, if the pollen is transferred from one flower
grows out of the pollen grain, travels through the style and to another, it is known as cross-pollination. After the pollen
finally reaches the ovary. lands on a suitable stigma, it has to reach the female germ cells
36. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of the stamen which are present in the ovary.
to the stigma of a flower is termed as pollination. There are For thus, a tube grows out of the pollen grain and travels
two types of pollination through the style to reach the ovary.
(i) Self-pollination The pollen from the stamen of a Pollen grains
flower is transferred to the stigma of the same flower Stigma
or another flower on the same plant.
Male germ cell
(ii) Cross-pollination The pollen from the stamen of a
Pollen tube
flower is transferred to the stigma of another flower of
different individual of the same species.
The pollen grains can be transferred by various agents like Ovary
wind, water, insects and animals. As soon as the pollen
Female
lands on suitable stigma, it reaches the female germ cells in
germ cell
ovary. This occurs via pollen tube.
The pollen tube grows out of the pollen grain, travels
Germination of pollen on stigma The male germ cell
through the style and finally reaches the ovary where it
produced by pollen grain fuses with the female gamete precut in
fuses with female gamete (ovule) to give rise to zygote.
the ovule. This fusion of germ cells is called fertilisation and
Hence, pollination is followed by fertilisation in plants.
gives rise to the zygote.
37. Distinguishes between pollination and fertilisation are as
After the fertilisation, the zygote divides several times to form an
follows
embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a hard coat and is
gradually converted into a seed. The ovary grows rapidly and
Pollination Fertilisation
ripens to form fruit. Meanwhile the petals, sepals, stamens, style
It is the transfer of pollen grains It is the fusion of male and and stigma may shrivel and fall off.
from anther to the stigma. female gametes.
39. (i) A–Ureter B–Seminal vesicle
It is a physical process. It is a biological process. C–Urethra D–Vas deferens
(ii) Testosterone hormone is secreted by testis. It controls
The site of fertilisation is ovule in the ovary.
spermatogenesis (formation of sperm) and secondary
The product of fertilisation is a zygote. sexual characters in male adolescents.
Pollen grain (iii) Seminal vesicle B temporarily stores sperms.
Stigma Urethra (C) It transports and releases urine and sperms
outside the body.
Male germ cells
40. (i) The given figure represents the female reproductive
system. The parts labelled as A-E are
Pollen tube
A. Oviduct or Fallopian tube B. Ovary
C. Uterus D. Cervix E. Vagina
(ii) The prevention of pregnancies by using artificial method is
Ovary called as contraception.
Advantages of using contraceptive measures are
(a) To control family size, population rise or birth rate.
Female This is done by creating awareness about small
germ cell families using contraceptive measures.
(b) To prevent chances of meeting female egg and male
Pistil showing pollen tube growth sperm, thus preventing future unwanted pregnancies.
and its entry into ovule
(c) Use of barrier methods of contraception protects both
38. Stamen is the male reproductive part and it produces the partners from contracting sexually transmitted
pollen grains. The ovary contains ovules and each ovule has diseases like AIDS.
egg cell.
41. (i) (i) Prevention of unwanted pregnancies by using

Parts of female contraceptives have shown the development of health in
Functions women.
reproductive system
(ii) Awareness of advantages of small families by using
(a) Ovaries Produce thousands of ova or egg contraceptives has led to economic growth of the family.
cells. Secrete female sex hormones
like oestrogen and progesterone. 45. (i) The ovules present in ovary of a flower develops into
seeds.
(b) Oviduct Carries ova or egg from ovary to the
(Fallopian tube) uterus. It is the site of fertilisation. (ii) Cotyledons of seed store food which fulfil the energy
requirement for seed germination.
(c) Uterus (Womb) Here, the growth and development
of foetus (embryo) take place. (iii) Radicle or future root of the plant emerges out the first
Rhythmic contractions of the from the germinating seed.
muscles in the uterus cause labour (iv) The process of developing seed into a seedling under
pain and childbirth. appropriate conditions is known as germination.
(ii) Structure of Placenta It is a disc between uterine wall (v) All seeds need water, oxygen and proper temperature in
and embryo which is embedded in the uterine wall. It order to germinate.
contains villi on the embryo's side of the tissue. On the 46. (i) The changes happening in adolescent boys and girls are
mother's side, blood spaces are present, which The moustach starts appearing in boys and their voice
surrounded the villi. becomes hoarse. There is onset of menstrual cycle in
Functions of Placenta It provides a large surface area girls and their mammary glands starts developing.
for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the (ii) Most rapid growth takes place within one year after the
embryo. It also removes the waste generated by embryo, birth of a baby.
transferring it to mother's blood. (iii) The increase in height of girls ceases at the age of 15 years.
42. Movement and fate of egg in female body (iv) In boys, significant spurt in height occurs at the age of
Eggs are produced in ovary 11-12 yrs.
Released in Fallopian tube (v) Both boys and girls grow body hair in their pubic area,
as well as under the arms and on the legs at the age of
adolescence.
If fertilised, If unfertilised,
form zygote degenerate 47. (i) The two main functions of the testes (F) are to produce
Passes out as
sperm and to produce the male sex hormones
Early embryo gets implanted
leading to pregnancy and menstrual discharge (testosterone). This makes the testis both an endocrine
foetus starts to develop and exocrine gland.
(ii) The sperm and eggs are genetically different terms of
43. (i) Placenta is extremely essential for foetal development nature of sex chromosome. The sperm contains either X
because it helps in nutrition, respiration, excretion, etc., or Y-chromosome whereas an egg will always have an
of the foetus through the maternal supply. X-chromosome.
(ii) Blocking of vas deferens prevents passage of sperms, (iii) Semen is a fluid which contains sperm cells and
hence, there is no fertilisation so it prevents pregnancy. secretion of accessory glands. It is a milky, viscuous fluid
(iii) Wind acts as a pollinating agent because it helps in contains fructose, proteins and other chemicals for
transfer of light weighted pollen grains from anther to nourishing sperms.
stigma of a flower. (iv) Vasectomy is a form of male birth control that cuts the
(iv) Condoms prevent entry of sperms into vagina, hence supply of sperm to semen. It is done by cutting and
prevents pregnancy. sealing the tubes that carry sperm, i.e. vas deferens (H).
(v) If Fallopian tube is blocked, sperm and egg do not meet or (v) Fusion of a sperm and an egg lead to the formation of
fuse and fertilisation does not take place. a zygote. Therefore, a zygote is diploid in nature,
44. Reproductive health is a state of physical, emotional, mental i.e. 2n, whereas a sperm and an egg are haploid in
and social well-being in relation to sexuality. nature, i.e. n. Hence, the ratio of chromosome number
between an egg and its zygote is 1 : 2.
Significance of reproductive health in a society 48. (i) (a) AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome)
(i) It prevents the spread of various Sexually Transmitted (b) Genital warts
Diseases (STDs). (ii) Yes, bacteria are also known to cause STDs.
(ii) Proper medication and checkups will help in the For example, Syphilis is an STD caused by bacteria,
production of healthy children. Treponema, pallidum.
(iii) Better sex education and awareness help in maintaining (iii) Condoms protect us from acquiring STDs. It also helps
the population and prevent the population explosion. in avoiding pregnancy.
(iv) Unwanted pregnancies are avoided. (iv) IUCD stands for Intra-Uterine Contraceptive Device. It
The reproductive health in India has improved is used to prevent pregnancy, e.g. Copper-T
tremendously over the past 50 years. The areas in which (v) Emergency contraceptives may prevent pregnancy if
reproductive health has improved includes used within 72 hrs of coitus/intercourse.
Chapter Test (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
Multiple Choice Questions explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
1. Exchange of genetic material takes place in (d) A is false, but R is true
(a) vegetative reproduction (b) asexual reproduction
(c) sexual reproduction (d) budding
6. Assertion Pollen grains from the carpel stick to the
stigma of stamen.
2. Identify the option that indicates the correct function or Reason The fertilised egg cells grow inside the
purpose served by A, B and C.
ovary and become seeds.
B 7. Assertion Menstruation is the regular discharge of
blood from the thick uterine lining.
A
C Reason It occurs when egg is fertilised by sperm.
8. Assertion HIV-AIDS is a bacterial disease.
(a) A-Future shoot, B-Future root, C-Store food Reason It spreads through sharing of infected
(b) A-Future root, B-Future shoot, C-Store food needles.
(c) A-Store food, B-Future shoot, C-Future root Short Answer Type Questions
(d) A-Future root, B-Store food, C-Future shoot 9. List out the basic features of reproduction.
3. Which of the following option shows the correct 10. List two advantages of vegetative reproduction
arrangement of events in logical sequence in the life cycle practiced in case of an orange.
of a human? 11. Mention any one disadvantage of producing new
(a) Menarche → Gestation → Menopause → Parturition → plants by vegetative propagation.
Insemination 12. Write the name of gamete producing parts of a
(b) Parturition → Gestation → Insemination → Menarche → flower.
Menopause
(c) Menarche → Insemination → Gestation → Parturition →
13. When does pollen tube develop in a flower?
Menopause 14. Write the dual purposes served by urethra in males.
(d) Menarche → Insemination → Parturition → Gestation → 15. What is placenta? Describe its structure. State its
Menopause functions in case of pregnant human female.
4. Select the barrier methods of contraception among the 16. What do you understand by reproductive health
following. and sex ratio?
(a) Oral pill
(b) Femidom
Long Answer Type Questions
(c) Copper-T 17. Given below is the diagram of a reproductive system.
(d) Vasectomy A
5. Identify the disease which is caused by a virus. I
B
I. Syphilis II. Genital warts
C
III. Gonorrhoea IV. AIDS
D
Codes
H E
(a) I and II (b) II and III
G
(c) II and IV (d) I and III
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs F
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-7) Each of these questions contains (i) Name the system.
two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Each of (ii) Name the parts labelled as A-I.
these questions also has four alternative choices, any one (iii) Describe the functions of partsC,D,E and F.
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of 18. What are the different methods of contraception?
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) Scan the code
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d)
CHAP TER 04
Heredity and
Evolution
In this Chapter...
 Accumulation of Variations During Reproduction
 Heredity (Inheritance of Traits)
 Mendel’s Contribution towards the Inheritance of Traits
 Experiment Conducted by Mendel
 Sex-Determination
Through the process of reproduction individuals give rise to Heredity (Inheritance of Traits)
new individuals that are similar (not same) to the parents. Traits or characteristics, which are passed on from parents to
This similarity in progeny or offspring or child is due to their offspring (generation to generation) are controlled by
transmission of characters or traits from parents to their genes.
progeny. A gene is a unit of DNA which governs the synthesis of one
The transfer of characters from parents to offspring is known protein that constants a specific character of an organism.
as heredity and the process through which characters or traits e.g. Inheritance of free or attached earlobes.
pass from one generation to another is called inheritance.
Accumulation of Variations During

Reproduction
The difference in the characters among the individuals of a
species is termed as variations. These variations
are accumulated by the process of sexual reproduction. (a) Free earlobe (b) Attachedearlobe
Depending upon the nature of variations, different Rules for inheritance of traits Inheritance of a trait is related
individuals would have different advantages, the most to the fact that both father and mother contribute equally
important advantage of variation to a species is that it towards the genetic makeup of their offspring, i.e. for each
increases the chances of its survival in a changing trait two versions are available in the child.
environment.
Some Important Terms and Definitions Used in Heredity Experiments Conducted By Mendel
Terms Definitions
More than a century ago, Mendel worked out the main
Chromosome A long thread-like structure in the nucleus. It appears rules for inheritance. He performed following two
during cell division and carries genes. experiments
Gene A functional unit of heredity. It is present on chromosome.
It is a piece of DNA that codes for one protein that inturn 1. Monohybrid Cross : Inheritance of Traits for
determines a particular character (phenotype). One Contrasting Character
Character The feature or characteristic of an individual like height, ◆
Mendel took pea plants with different characteristics
colour, shape, etc.
such as height (tall and short plants).
Trait An inherited character, i.e. feature, which is normally ◆
The progeny produced from them (F1 -generation
inherited and has its detectable variant too, e.g. tall and
plants) were all tall. Mendel then allowed F1progeny
dwarf are traits of a character, i.e. height.
plants to undergo self-pollination.
Allele One of the different forms of a particular gene, occupying ◆
In the F2 -generation, he found that all plants were not
the same position on a chromosome.
tall, three quarter were tall and one quarter of them
Hybrid An individual having two different alleles for the same trait. were short. This observation indicated that both the
Dominant An allele, whose phenotype will be expressed even in the traits of shortness and tallness were inherited in
allele presence of another allele of that gene. It is represented by F1 -generation. But, only the tallness trait was
a capital letter, e.g. T. expressed in F1 -generation.
Recessive An allele, which gets masked in the presence of a dominant ◆
Two copies of the traits are inherited in each sexually
allele allele and can only affect the phenotype in the absence of a
dominant gene. It is represented by a small letter, e.g. t. reproducing organism.
Genotype Genetic composition of an individual.
Phenotype The expression of the genotype, which is an observable or
measurable characteristic.
Back cross Crossing F1 hybrid with one of its parents,
e.g. Tt  tt or Tt  TT.
Monohybrid A hybridisation cross in which inheritance of only one pair
Tall Short All tall offsprings
cross of contrasting characters is studied.
(TT) × (tt) (Tt)
Dihybrid A cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting
P×P F1
cross characters is simultaneously studied.
Mendel’s experiment showing law of dominance
Homozygous A condition in which an individual possesses a pair of
identical alleles controlling a given character and will ◆
TT and Tt are phenotypically tall plants, whereas tt is
breed true for this character (e.g. occurrence of two a short plant. For a plant to be tall, the single copy of
identical alleles for tallness in a P1 tall pea plant).
‘T’ is enough. Therefore, in traits Tt, ‘T’ is a dominant
Heterozygous A condition in which an individual has a pair of contrasting trait, while ‘t’ is a recessive trait.
alleles for any one character and will not breed true for this
character (e.g. simultaneous existence of dominant and
recessive alleles in F1- hybrid tall pea plant).
Gametes Reproductive cells containing only one set (haploid) of
dissimilar chromosome.
Test cross Crossing F1 heterozygote with homozygous recessive
parent, e.g. F1 hybrid tall plant (Tt) with pure dwarf
plant (tt). Tall Tall Tall Tall Tall Short
F F2
(Tt) × (Tt) 1 (TT) (Tt) (Tt) (tt)
Mendel’s experiment showing law of segregation
Mendel’s Contribution towards the ◆
In F2 -generation, both the characters are recovered,
Inheritance of Traits though one of these is not seen in F1 stage. During
The Austrian monk, Gregor Johann Mendel is known as Father of gamete formation, the factor or allele of a pair segregate
Genetics. He performed many experiments on pea (Pisum sativum) from each other.
plant related to hybridisation. Thus, the phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 and the genotypic ratio
He studied seven pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants and is 1 : 2 : 1 for the inheritance of traits for one contrasting
only one character at a time. character, i.e. monohybrid cross.
2. Dihybrid Cross : Inheritance of Traits for Two sufficient protein will be produced for normal body functions.
Visible Contrasting Characters If the gene for a specific protein is altered, the protein will be
◆
Mendel took pea plants with two contrasting characters, i.e. less efficient or will not be functional at all.
one with a green round seed and the other one with a yellow
wrinkled seed. Mechanism of Inheritance
◆
When the F1 progeny was obtained, they had round and ◆
Both the parents contribute a copy of the same gene to their
yellow seeds, thus establishing that round and yellow are progeny. Each germ cell thus, has one set of gene, present as
dominant traits. chromosome. Each cell of the body will have two copies of
◆
Mendel then allowed the F1 progeny to be self-crossed each chromosome, one inherited from each parent.
(self-pollination) to obtain F2 progeny. He found that seeds ◆
When two germ cells combine, they restore the normal
were round yellow, round green, wrinkled yellow and some number of chromosomes in the progeny. This ensures the
were wrinkled green. stability of the DNA of species. Such mechanism of
◆
The ratio of plants with above characteristics was 9 : 3 : 3 :1, inheritance explains the result of Mendel’s experiments. It
respectively (Mendel observed that two new combinations is used by all sexually and asexually reproducing organisms.
had appeared in F2 ).
In F2-generation, all the four characters were assorted out Sex-Determination
independent of the others. Therefore, he said that a pair of It is the process by which sex of a newborn individual is
alternating or contrasting characters behaves independently determined. Different strategies can determine sex in
of the other pair. For example, seed colour is independent of different species. For example, in reptiles environment
seed coat. The independent inheritance of two separate traits factors such as temperature at which fertilised eggs are kept
shape and colour of seeds is schematically shown below determine sex of the offspring. The determination of sex
Parents occurs largely by genetic control in human beings. In human
RRyy × rrYY beings, there are 23 pairs of chromosomes, out of which
(Round green) (Wrinkled yellow) 22 pairs are autosomes and one pair is sex-chromosomes.
  Females have a perfect pair of sex chromosome
Gametes Ry rY
(homogametic), but males have a mismatched pair
F2-generation
(heterogametic) in which one is X (normal sized) and the
RrYy
(Round yellow) other is Y-chromosome (short in size).
× Hence, an egg fertilised by X-chromosome carrying sperm
F1 F1 results in a zygote with XX, which becomes a female and if an
ry
egg is fertilised by Y-chromosome carrying sperm, it results in a
F2-generation RY Ry rY
XY zygote that becomes male.
RY Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by what they
RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy
inherit from their father. A child who inherits an
X-chromosome will be a girl and one who inherits a
Ry
Y-chromosome will be a boy. The inheritance of sex in
RRYy RRyy RryY Rryy
humans is diagrammatically shown below
rY
RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy
ry
XY XX
RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy

Ratio
F2 -generation 315 round yellow 9 Male Female
108 round green 3
101 wrinkled yellow 3 Gametes
32 wrinkled green 1 X Y X
556 seeds 16
Expression of Traits Zygote

XX XY
Cellular DNA is the source of information for making  
proteins in the cell. A section of DNA that provides
information for one particular protein is called a gene for that Offsprings
protein. Expression of trait in body depends on the Female Male
functioning of a gene. If the gene is working normally, Sex-determination in human beings
Chapter
Practice
7. If a pea plant with round green seed (RRyy) is crossed
PART 1 pea plant with wrinkled yellow seed (rrYY), the seeds
produced in F 1 -generation are
Objective Questions (a) wrinkled and green (b) wrinkled and yellow
(c) round and yellow (d) round and green
◆ Multiple Choice Questions 8. The genotype of the height of an organism is written

as Tt. What conclusion may be drawn?
1. The process through which characters pass from one (a) The allele for height has at least two different genes
generation to another is called (b) There are atleast two different alleles for the gene for
(a) inheritance (b) heredity height
(c) variation (d) evolution (c) There are two different genes for height, each having a
single allele
2. Which of the following statements is not true with (d) There is one allele for height with two different forms
respect to variation?
9. The first generation cross of pure tall and short pea
(a) All variations in a species have equal chance of survival plant gives tall pea plants. F2 -generation will give
(b) Change in genetic composition results in variation (a) dwarf pea plant (b) tall pea plant
(c) Selection of variants by environment factors forms the
(c) Both tall and dwarf plants (d) None of these
basis of evolutionary processes.
(d) Variation is minimum in asexual reproduction. 10. A cross between a pure-breed pea plant A and B is
3. Free earlobes are ...(i)... traits and attached earlobes are shown below.
...(ii)... traits. Parents plants : A × B
(a) (i) recessive, (ii) dominant F1 -generation : A
(b) (i) dominant, (ii) recessive F2 -generation : A, A, A, B
(c) (i) inherited, (ii) dominant Choose the correct option for A and B.
(d) None of the above (a) A are tall and B are round
4. A trait in an organism is influenced by (b) A are tall and B are dwarf
(a) paternal DNA only (NCERT Exemplar) (c) A are dwarf and B are tall
(b) maternal DNA only (d) A are round and B are tall
(c) both maternal and paternal DNA 11. If pea plants having round green seeds and wrinkled
(d) neither by paternal nor by maternal DNA yellow seeds are crossed, what phenotypic ratio will
5. Which amongst the listed tools was used to study the law be obtained in F2 progeny plants?
of inheritance in pea plant by Gregor J Mendel? (a) 1 : 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 9 : 3 : 4
(a) Family tree (b) Pedigree chart 12. The result of a dihybrid cross between two
(c) Punnett square (d) Herbarium sheet individuals is recorded as
6. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) Phenotypes of Numbers of seeds
resulted in progeny that were all tall plants because progeny obtained
(NCERT Exemplar)
Round, A 315
(a) tallness is the dominant trait
(b) shortness is the dominant trait Round, B 108
(c) tallness is the recessive trait C, Yellow 101
(d) height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’ Wrinkled, D 32
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D. 15. Choose the correct statement from the following.
A B C D I. Variation in plants are much lesser than human
(a) Green Yellow Round Yellow beings.
(b) Yellow Green Wrinkled Green II. Each trait in child is influenced by only paternal
(c) Yellow Yellow Wrinkled Green DNA.
(d) Green Green Round Yellow III. An individual having two different alleles for the
13. Carefully study the cross shown below with labels (i), same trait is called hybrid.
(ii) and (iii). Identify the option that indicates the IV. Traits that are passed on from parents to their
correct labellings. offspring are controlled by genes.
Codes
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
Purple (i) White ◆
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each of these questions
contains two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Purple Each of these questions also has four alternative
(ii) choices, any one of which is the correct answer. You
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given
below.
(iii)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A
Purple Purple Purple White
(a) (i) Cross-fertilisation, (ii) Self-fertilisation, (iii) F1 -generation explanation of A
(b) (i) Self-fertilisation, (ii) Cross-fertilisation, (iii) F2 -generation (c) A is true, but R is false
(c) (i) Cross-fertilisation, (ii) Self-fertilisation, (iii) F2 -generation (d) A is false, but R is true
(d) (i) Self-fertilisation, (ii) F 2 -generation (iii) Cross-fertilisation 16. Assertion Dominant allele is an allele whose
14. Observe the diagram given below. phenotype expresses even in the presence of
another allele of that gene.
(A) (B) (C) Reason It is represented by a capital letter, e.g. T.
17. Assertion Mendel self-crossed F1 progeny to
obtain F2 -generation.
Reason F1 progeny of a tall plant with round seeds
and a dwarf plant with wrinkled seeds are all dwarf
(D) Male zygote plants having wrinkled seeds.
Match the labelling referred in Column I and correlate 18. Assertion The ratio of F2 plants when Mendel took
pea plants with two contrasting characters was
with Column II.
9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
Column I Column II
Reason The ratio of F2 plants when Mendel took
A. 1. Y sperm pea plants with one contrasting character was 1 : 1.
B. 2. Ovum 19. Assertion All the human female gemetes will have
C. 3. X sperm only X-chromosome.
D. 4. Female zygote Reason Females are homogametic with two
X-chromosomes.
Codes
A B C D 20. Assertion The sex of a child will be determined by
(a) 3 1 2 4 chromosome received from the father.
(b) 2 3 1 4 Reason A human male has one X and one
(c) 2 1 3 4 Y-chromosome.
(d) 1 2 4 3
◆ Case Based MCQs His experiments with garden pea along with the
inferences drawn together constitute, the foundation
21. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) of modern genetics.
to (v) given below Mendel’s contributions were unique because of the
Mendel’s experiment on sweet pea plants having use of distinct variables and application of
axial flowers with round seeds (AARR) and mathematics to the problem. He kept the record of
terminal flowers with wrinkled seeds (aarr) is shown each generation separately and studied the
below. inheritance of only one pair of characters at a time.
Axial Terminal (i) Mendel took ......... contrasting characteristics of pea
Round wrinkled plants.
Parents AARR aarr (a) eight (b) seven
(c) six (d) five
Gametes AR AR ar ar (ii) After cross pollination of true-breeding tall and
dwarf plants, the F1 -generation was self-fertilised.
AaRr AaRr AaRr AaRr The resultant plants have genotype in the ratio
(a) 1 : 2 :1 (homozygous tall : heterozygous tall :
(i) Phenotype of F1 progeny homozygous dwarf)
(a) axial round (b) 1 : 2 :1 (homozygous tall : dwarf : heterozygous tall)
(b) axial wrinkled (c) 3 :1 (tall : dwarf)
(c) terminal wrinked (d) 3 :1 (dwarf : tall)
(d) terminal round
(iii) Which Mendelian law states that inheritance of one
(ii) Phenotype of F2 progeny produced upon by the character is always independent to the inheritance
self-pollination of F1 progeny of other character within the same individual?
(a) axial round and axial winkled (a) Law of dominance
(b) terminal round (b) Law of segregation
(c) terminal wrinkled (c) Law of independent assortment
(d) All of the above (d) Both (b) and (c)
(iii) The phenotypic ratio of the F 2 -generation will be (iv) Which one is the possible progeny in
(a) 3 :1 (b) 9 : 3 : 3 :1 F 2 -generation of pure breed tall plant with round
(c) 1 : 2 :1 (d) 1 : 3 seed and short plant with wrinkled seed?
(iv) A cross between two individuals results in 9 : 3 : 3 :1 (a) Tall plant with round seed
for four possible phenotypes of progeny. This is an (b) Tall plant with wrinkled seed
example of a (c) Short plant with round seed
(a) dihybrid cross (b) F1 -generation (d) All of the above
(c) monohyorid cross (d) test cross (v) Round and yellow seed is
(v) Which of the following law is mainly explained by (a) recessive (b) dominant
the given cross? (c) hybrid (d) incomplete dominance
(a) Law of dominance
(b) Law of segregation
(c) Law of independent assortment PART 2
(d) None of the above
23. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) Subjective Questions
to (v) given below
Gregor Johann Mendel is known as a ‘Father of
◆ Short Answer Type Questions
Modern Genetics’ for his work in the field of the 1. What do you mean by heredity? Who is its founder?
genetics. He worked out the main rules for (CBSE 2020)
inheritance patterns. The heredity in most of the
living organisms is found to be regulated by certain
2. If a trait ‘A’ exists in 10% of the population of an
definite principles. asexually reproducing species and a trait ‘B’ exists in
60% of the same population, which trait is likely to
Mendel opted for garden pea (Pisum sativum) to have arisen earlier?
conduct his experiments. He performed
self-pollination and cross-pollination to understand 3. How does the creation of variations in a species
the inheritance patterns of traits. promote survival?
4. In any population, no two individuals are absolutely Recompile the above observations and explain the
similar. Why? law of inheritance associated with them.
5. A child questioned his teacher that why do organisms 16. Name the plant Mendel used for his experiments.
resemble their parents more as compared to What type of progeny was obtained by Mendel in
grandparents. In which way, will the teacher explain F1 and F2-generations when he crossed the tall and
to the child? (CBSE 2015) short plants? Write the ratio he obtained in
F2-generation plants. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
6. Why did Mendel choose pea plant for his experiments?
17. Study the following cross showing self-pollination in
7. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may F1 progeny. Fill in the blank and answer the
dominant or recessive? (CBSE 2016)
questions that follows.
8. What do you mean by dominant and recessive RRyy  rrYY Parents
characteristics? (Round green) (Wrinkled yellow)
9. Explain difference between phenotype and genotype. RrYy  …… F1-generation
(Round yellow)
10. In a pea plant, find the contrasting trait if
(i) the position of flower is terminal (i) In above question, what is the combination of
(ii) the flower is white in colour characters in the F2 progeny? What are the ratios?
(iii) shape of pod is constricted (CBSE 2015) (ii) Give reasons for the appearance of new combination
of characters in the F1 progeny. (NCERT Exemplar)
11. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are
inherited independently? (CBSE 2016) 18. How is the sex of a child determined in human
beings?
12. In a certain species of animal black fur (B) is dominant
over brown fur (b). Predict a genotype and phenotype 19. Does genetic combination of mother play a
of the offspring when both parents are Bb or have significant role in determining the sex of a newborn?
(NCERT Exemplar)
heterozygous black fur.
13. A man with blood group A married a woman with blood
◆Long Answer Type Questions
group O and their daughter has blood group O. Is this 20. ‘A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed’.
information enough to tell you which of the traits blood Justify this statement with the help of a suitable
group A or O is dominant? Why or why not? (NCERT) example.
14. Write the phenotypic ratio of progeny of 21. Discuss Mendelian laws with examples.
F 2-generation of a dihybrid cross. (2018, 15)
22. What do you understand by Mendel’s dihybrid
15. Consider the cross between two parents with cross? When pea plants having round and yellow
contrasting characteristics given below. seeds were crossed with plants having wrinkled and
Parents
green seeds and then all the plants of F1 -generation
RRyy × rrYY had round and yellow seeds. Find out the
(Round green) (Wrinkled yellow)
phenotypic ratio of F2 -generation.
Gametes Ry rY 23. After self-pollination in pea plants with round,
yellow seeds, following types of seeds were
F1-generation
obtained by Mendel
RrYy
(Round yellow) Seeds Numbers
×
Round, yellow 630
F1 F1
Ratio
F2 -generation 315 round yellow 9
Round, green 216
108 round green 3 Wrinkled, yellow 202

101 wrinkled yellow 3 Wrinkled, green 64
32 wrinkled green 1
Analyse the result and describe the mechanism of
556 seeds 16 inheritance which explains these results. (CBSE 2020)
24. ‘In humans, there is a 50% probability of the birth of a wrinkled-green seeds, two new varieties A-D and
boy and 50% probability that a girl will be born’. Justify C-B types of seeds were also obtained.
the statement on the basis of the mechanism of (i) What are A-B type of seeds?
sex-determination in human beings. (CBSE 2020)
(ii) State whether A and B are dominant traits or
recessive traits.
◆ Case Based Questions
(iii) What are A-D type of seeds?
25. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) (iv) What are C-B type of seeds?
to (v) given below (v) Out of A-B and A-D types of seeds, which one will
Inheritance from the previous generation provides be produced in (a) minimum number and (b)
both, a common body design and subtle changes in it, maximum number in the F2 -generation?
for the next generation. Now, when the new 27. Read the following and answer the questions from
generation reproduces, the second generation (i) to (v) given below
produced will have variations that they inherit from
the first generation, as well as newly created Mendel selected garden pea for his experiments
differences.] because he discovered for the first time the
occurrence of two types of seeds in pea plants
For example, if one bacterium divides and gives rise growing in the garden of his monastery. Mendel then
to two individuals each of them will divided again used a number of contrasting visible characters of
and give rise to two other individuals in the next garden peas like.
generation.
The four individual bacteria generated would be very Characters Dominant Recessive
similar with minor differences that occurred due to 1. Plant height Tall Dwarf
small inaccuracies to copying of DNA. 2. Flower position Axial Terminal
However, in sexual reproduction, even greater
3. Pod colour Green Yellow
diversity will be generated. Depending upon the
nature of variations, different individuals would 4. Pod shape Full Constricted
have different advantages, the most important 5. Flower colour Violet White
advantage of variation to a species is that it
6. Seed shape Round Wrinkled
increases the chance of its survival in a changing
environment. 7. Seed colour Yellow Green
(i) What do you understand by the term ‘gene’ ? Mendel’s experiments were performed in three
(ii) In which type of reproduction exchange of genetic stages in selection of pure or true breeding
material takes place ? parents, hybridisation and obtaining of
(iii) What is the cause of variation in asexual reproducing F1 -generation of plants and self-pollination of
organisms ? hybrid plants and raising of subsequent generations
(iv) Differentiate between genotype and phenotype of an like F2 , F3 , F4 , etc.
organism. (i) How many contrasting traits were taken by
(v) What is the chemical composition of chromosome ? Mendel in his monohybrid crosses?
(ii) Give a monohybrid cross to explain the
26. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) F1 -generation formed by a plant with green pod
to (v) given below colour and yellow pod colour.
A person first crossed pure-breed pea plants having (iii) State the first law of Mendel.
round-yellow seeds with pure-breed pea plants having (iv) What do understand by homozygous tall plant and
wrinkled-green seeds and found that only A-B type of heterozygous tall plant?
seeds were produced in the F1-generation.
(v) A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding
When F1-generation pea plants having A-B type pea plant bearing violet flowers with pea plants
of seeds were cross-breed by self-pollination, bearing while flowers. What will be the results in
then in addition to the original round yellow and F1 progeny?
28. Read the following and answer the questions from 29. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to
(i) to (v) given below (v) given below
Observe the following cross between tall plants A person crossed pure-breed tall pea plants with
having round seeds and dwarf plants having pure-breed dwarf pea plants and obtained pea plants of
wrinkled seeds. F1 -generation. He then performed two types of
The individuals obtained in the F1 -generation were experiments.
thereafter self-crossed. In the first, he self-crossed the plants of F1 -generation
TTRR  ttrr (experiment A) and in the second, he crossed the plants of
(Tall, Round) (Dwarf, Wrinkled) F1 -generation with the pure-breed dwarf parent plants
(experiment B).
TtRr  TtRr (F -generation
1 self-crossed)
Experiment A : F1 progeny×F1 progeny
(Tall, Round) (Tall, Round)
Experiment B : F1 progeny×Homozygous dwarf plant
(i) What would be the phenotypes of the individuals
obtained in the F 2-generation? Give their ratios. (i) What would be the phenotype of plants in the
(ii) Why do you think all the individuals of the F1 -generation?
F1-generation were tall with round seeds? (ii) What would be the phenotype and genotype ratio of
F2 -generation in experiment ‘A’?
(iii) What will be the number of progeny obtained in
F2 -generation in a dihybrid cross with pure (iii) How would the genotypic ratio in F2 generation
different in experiment ‘B’?
dominant traits?
(iv) How do we describe the phenotypic character that is
(iv) What would be the phenotype of the individual experssed in F1 -generation? What is the term given to
obtained in F 1 -generation? the contrasting character?
(v) According to you, what is responsible for the (v) Name the type of cross shown in experiment B.
inheritance of traits?
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions 13. (c) In the given cross,a purple flowered plant (dominant) is
1. (a) The process through which characters or traits pass from cross fertilised with white flowered plant (recessive). The
F1 -progeny obtained contain all plants with purple flowers.
one generation to another is called inheritance.
The progeny of F1 -generation is self-fertilised to give rise to
2. (a) Statement in option (a) is not true with respect to F 2 -generation having plants with purple flowers and white
variation because flowers in ratio 3 :1.
All variations in a species do not have equal chances of Hence, (i) represent cross-fertilisation, (ii) represent
survival. Some of the variations may be so drastic that the self-fertilisation and (iii) represent F2 -generation.
new DNA copy cannot work with cellular apparatus it 14. (a) The given diagram shows sex-determination in human.
inherits. Such, a newborn cell dies soon. There are two types of sperms in male. Sperms having
3. (b) Free earlobes are dominant (i) traits and attached X-chromosome (A) and sperms having Y-chromosome (B),
earlobes are recessive (ii) traits. whereas the female ovum contains only one type of
4. (c)A trait in an organism is influenced by both maternal and chromosome (C), i.e. X.
paternal DNA. When X sperm fuses with ovum, the female zygote (D) is
5. (c) Punnett square was used by Gregor J Mendel to determine formed, whereas when Y sperm fuses with ovum, the male
the law of inheritance in his experiments with pea plant. zygote is formed. Thus, option (a) is correct.
6. (a) In F1-generation, the cross between TT and tt will result 15. (b) Statements I, III and IV are correct, whereas statement
into all tall plants, because tallness is the dominant trait. II is incorrect and can be corrected as
7. (c) RRyy rrYY
(Round, green)
× Parents
(Wrinkled, yellow)
Each trait in child is influenced by both paternal as well as
maternal DNA.
16. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
Ry rY Gametes of A.
Dominant allele is an allele whose phenotype will be
RrYy F1-generation expressed even in the presence of another allele of that gene. It
(Round, yellow) is represented by a capital letter, e.g. T. It can be expressed
8. (b) An allele is a variant form of a gene, which are located itself in both homozygous and heterozygous conditions.
at the same position on a chromosomes. The heterozygous 17. (c)A is true, but R is false because
organism (Tt) shows that it has two different alleles (T-tall When Mendel self-crossed F1 -generation to obtain
and t-dwarf) for the gene of the height. F2 -generation. F1 progeny of a tall plant with round seeds
9. (c) When a pure tall (TT) plant is hybridised with dwarf and a dwarf plant with wrinkled seeds are all tall plants with
plant (tt), it will always give tall plants in F1-generation. round seeds. This is because tallness and round shape are
both dominant traits, while dwarfness and wrinkled shapes
But, when they are self-pollinated, it will give both tall and of seeds are recessive traits.
dwarf plants in F2 -generation.
18. (c)A is true, but R is false.
10. (b) When pure breed pea plant A is crossed with pure breed
The ratio of F2 plants when Mendel took pea plant with one
pea plant B. It is found that the plants which look like B do not contrasting characters, i.e. monohybrid cross was 3 :1.
appear in F1 -generation but re-emerge in F2 -generation,
which means A is dominant over B trait and both of them are
Females are homogametic with two X-chromosomes. That is
contrasting traits. (i.e. A are tall and B are dwarf).
why, all human female gametes will have only X-chromosomes.
11. (c) If pea plants having round green seeds and wrinkled
yellow seeds are crossed, phenotypic ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 will A human male has one X and one Y-chromosome. When a child
be obtained in F2 progeny. inherits X-chromosome from the father, it will be a girl and one
12. (b) The dihybrid cross between round green plant and who inherits a Y-chromosome will be a boy.
wrinkled yellow plant is shown as 21. (i) (a) Axial round seed is the phenotype of F1 -generation.
Parents RRyy × rrYY (ii) (d) Phenotype of F 2 progeny produced upon by the
(Round, green) (Wrinkled, yellow) self-pollination of F1 progeny will be axial round,
axial-wrinkled, terminal round and terminal wrinkled
Gametes Ry rY plants.
F1 -generation (RrYy)
Thus, option (d) is correct.
(Round, yellow)
Selfing × (iii) (b) The phenotypic ratio of the F 2 -generation will be
F1 F1
 Ratio 9 : 3 : 3 :1.
(iv) (a)A cross between two individuals results in 9 : 3 : 3 :1
F2 -generation 315 round, yellow (A) 9 for four possible phenotypes of progeny. This is an
108 round, green (B) 3
example of a dihybrid cross.
101 wrinkled (C), yellow 3 (v) (c) The given cross mainly explains the law of
32 wrinkled, green (D) 1 independent assortment.
556 seeds 16
22. (i) (b) Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting characteristics 5. The two parents involved in sexual reproduction produce
of pea plants. gametes which fuse together forming a zygote. It gradually
(ii) (a) After cross pollination of true breeding tall and dwarf develops into a young child showing certain similarities
plants, the F1 -generation was self-fertilised. with the parents. Since, a child inherits its characters from
The resultant plants have genotype in the ratio1 : 2 :1 both the parents the resemblance with them is very close.
(homozygous tall : heterozygous tall : homozygous dwarf) The grandparents and the child resemble less closely
×
because a gap of gene pool is created by the parents of the
TT tt Parents
child
Variations of two generations mixing together and addition
T t Gametes
of new variations from parents, increases the difference
between them to a greater extent. Hence, a child resembles
more closely to its parents than the grandparents.
Tt F1-generation
6. Reasons for selecting pea plant for experiment by Mendel
are as follows
Tt × Tt Selfing
◆
Pea is an annual plant with short life cycle. So, several
generations can be studied in short period.
◆
It produces bisexual flowers, which are mainly
TT Homozygous F2-generation self-pollinating.
tall ◆
It can be cross-pollinated.
Tt, Tt Heterozygous Tall ◆
A number of contrasting characters were available in it.
tt Homozygous dwarf 7. Mendel crossed a pure tall pea plant (TT) with pure dwarf
pea plant (tt) and observed that all the progeny were hybrid
Hence, the genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.
tall (Tt), i.e. only one of the traits was able to express itself in
(iii) (c) Law of independent assortment states that inheritance of the F1-generation, which is the dominant trait.
one character is always independent to the inheritance of
The other trait is called the recessive trait which remains
other characters within a same individual.
suppressed.
(iv) (d) In F 2 -generation of pure breed tall plant with round
seeds and short plant with wrinkled seed, the possible Parents TT × tt
progeny will be observed are tall plant with round seeds, (Tall parent) (Dwarf parent)
tall plants with wrinkled seeds, short plant with round Homozygous Homozygous
seeds and short plant with wrinkled seeds. F1-generation Tt
Thus, option (d) is correct. (All hybrid tall)
(v) (b) Round and yellow seeds show dominant character. Heterozygous
Subjective Questions However, when he self-crossed plants of F1-generation, he

observed that one-fourth of the plants were dwarf and
1. The transmission of characters from the parents to their three-fourth were tall.
offspring is called heredity. Heredity was discovered by Gregor
Mendel through his work on pea plant. F1-parents Tt Tt
2. In a population of asexually reproducing species, the chances of
Gametes T t T t
appearance of new traits due to variations are very low and the
trait which is already present in the population is likely to be in
higher percentage and would have been arisen earlier.
Therefore, the trait B present in 60% of the population is the F2-generation TT Tt Tt tt
trait which have arisen earlier. Tall Tall Dwarf
3. During reproduction, copying of DNA takes place, which is not (Homozygous) (Heterozygous) (Homozygous)
100% accurate, thereby causing variations. If these variations The expressed trait T for the tallness is dominant trait,
are favourable, they help the individuals to survive and pass while the trait ‘t’ of dwarfness is recessive. Thus, Mendel’s
these variations to their progeny. experiments show that trait may be dominant or recessive.
Depending upon the nature of variations, different individuals 8. Dominant character The character which will express in
have different advantages, which promotes their survival like F1 -generation in both homozygous and heterozygous
bacteria which can withstand heat will survive better in a heat conditions are dominant characters.
wave.
e.g. Tallness of plant, purple flower colour, etc.
4. Variations occur in the genes of the organisms produced due to
the mutations, reshuffling of genes and inheritance of acquired Recessive character The character which will express only
traits during the evolutionary process which make all in homozygous condition, but not in heterozygous conditions
individuals different from one another. Thus, in any population, or in F1-generation is known as recessive character.
no two individuals are absolutely similar. e.g. Dwarfness, white flower colour, etc.
9. In case II Let assume that ‘O’ is dominant. In this case, the

Phenotype Genotype child may have blood group ‘O’. Since in both the
It represents the external It is the genetic makeup of an assumptions, the child can have blood group ‘O’, so it
morphology of an organism individual for a character. cannot infer which trait is dominant.
for a particular character, 14. When pea plants with two contrasting characters, i.e. one
Same phenotype may or may Same genotype produces with a green round seeds and the other with a yellow
not belong to same genotype. same phenotype. wrinkled seeds are crossed, all the F1 progeny obtained had
round and yellow seeds.
10. Contrasting traits of pea plant were used by Mendel and When the F1 progeny is self-crossed to obtain F 2 progeny,
were classified as dominant or recessive.
four types of seeds were obtained as round yellow, round
green, wrinkled yellow and wrinkled green in ratio
Characters Given traits Contrasting traits 9:3:3:1 respectively.
(i) Position of flower Terminal Axial Hence, the phenotypic ratio of F2 progeny is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
(ii) Colour of flower White Violet 15. Mendel took pea plants with two contrasting characters, i.e.
(iii) Shape of pod Constricted Full one with a green round seeds and the other with a yellow
wrinkled seeds. When the F1 progeny was obtained, they had
11. Mendel performed a dihybrid cross between pure pea plants round and yellow seeds. Mendel then allowed the F1 progeny
to show that traits are inherited independently. He selecteda to be self-crossed to obtain F2 progeny.
pea plant with round green (RRyy) and wrinkled yellow He found that seeds were round yellow, round green,
(rrYY) seeds. wrinkled yellow and some were wrinkled green. The ratio of
In the F1 progeny, it was found that all plants were round plants with above characteristics was 9 : 3 : 3 : 1, respectively.
yellow. But in F 2 progeny, some plants were round green and In F1-generation, all the characters were asserted out
some were wrinkled yellow. independently of each other. Therefore, he stated that a pair
However, there were plants which showed new of contrasting or alternating characters behave
combinations. Some of them were round with yellow seeds, independently of the other pair.
while others were wrinkled with green seeds. Thus, the
round/wrinkled trait and green/yellow seed traits are 16. Mendel used the pea plant for his experiments. He took pea
independently inherited. plants with different characteristics such as height (tall and
12. short plants). The progeny produced from them
Parents : (Black Fur) (Black Fur)
(F1 -generation) plants were all tall.
Bb Bb Mendel then allowed F1 progeny plants to undergo self-
pollination. In the F2 -generation, he found that all plants
were not tall, three quarter were tall and one quarter of
Gametes : B b B b
× them were short. The ratio he obtained in F2 -generation
B b plants is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
F1-generation
BB 17.
Bb
B (Pure black) (Hybrid black)
RRyy  rrYY Parents
Bb bb
b (Hybrid black) (Pure brown)
RrYy  RrYy F1-generation
(Round yellow) (Round yellow)
Phenotype 3 : 1
(i) In F2-generation, the combination of characters is
Black Brown
Round yellow = 9, Round green = 3
Genotype 1 : 2 : 1 Wrinkled yellow = 3, Wrinkled green = 1
Pure Hybrid Pure brown Thus, the ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
black black
(ii) In F1 -generation, the production of all round yellow
Therefore, the phenotypic ratio of black fur and brown fur (RrYy) seeds explains that the round shape and yellow
offspring is 3 : 1. The genotypic ratio of offspring is 1 : 2 : 1. colour of the seeds were dominant traits over the
13. The information is insufficient to tell whether the trait ‘A’ or ‘O’ wrinkled shape and green colour of the seeds which
is dominant. It can find out by assuming the following cases. segregated during F2 -generation.
In case I Let assume that trait ‘A’ is dominant. Father that have 18. A male gamete carries either one X or one Y-chromosome,
IAIO and mother having IOIO type of gene for blood group. In while a female gamete carries only X-chromosomes.
this case 50% of the progeny will have blood group ‘A’ and 50% Therefore, sex of the child depends upon what happens
of the progenies will have blood group ‘O’, when father’s blood during fertilisation.
group is IAIO and mother is IO IO . (i) If a sperm carrying X-chromosome fertilises the egg,
Whereas, in case of father having IAIA type of gene and mother the child born will be a female (XX).
having IOIO type of gene, all of the progeny (100%) will have (ii) If a sperm carrying Y-chromosome fertilises the egg,
blood group A. the child born will be a male (XY).
Thus, the sperm (the male gamete) determines the sex of the (ii) Law of Segregation or Law of Purity of Gametes
child. (Second Law) This law states that the factors or alleles of
XX XY
(Female) (Male)
a pair segregate from each other during gamete formation
 such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors.
X X Y Gametes They do not show any blending.
e.g. The reappearance of wrinkled seed character in
F2 -generation, which was suppressed in F1-generation by
XX XY Offsprings the round seed character.
(Female child) (Male child)
This law is also be proven by monohybrid cross.
19. No, the genetic combination of mother does not play any Parents Tt ´ Tt
significant role in determining the sex of a newborn. This is
because the female cell carries two X-chromosomes (XX). Gametes T t T t
While, the male cell carries one X and one Y-chromosome.
The fusion of X-chromosome bearing sperm (of male cell)
with X-chromosome of female egg produces a female child, F2 -generation TT Tt Tt tt
while the fusion of Y-chromosome bearing sperm (of male Tall Tall Dwarf
cell) with X-chromosome of female egg produces a male (Homozygous) (Heterozygous) (Homozygous)
child. Therefore, it is the contribution of father which
determines the sex of a newborn. (iii) Law of Independent Assortment (Third Law) This law
20. ‘A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed’. Mendel states that two factors of each character assort or separate
crossed tall pea plants with dwarf pea plants. out independent of the factors of other characters at the
time of gamete formation and get randomly rearranged in
the offspring.
e.g. In dihybrid cross, between pure round and yellow
Parents seed pea plants with plants having wrinkled and green
seeds, the F2 -generation produced two parental and two
hybrid combinations.
Pure tall plant Pure dwarf plant (Tt) (Tt) (Tt) (Tt) This law can be proven by dihybrid cross
(TT) (tt)
F1-generation Parents
RRyy × rr YY
Selfing  
Gametes Ry rY
of F1
Tall plant Tall plant (TT) (Tt) (Tt) (tt) RrYy

(Tt) (Tt)
F2-generation F1-generation (Round yellow)
×
Mendel’s observation F1 -generation contained all tall plants
with genotype Tt, where ‘T’ represents a dominant trait and ‘t’ F1 F1
represents a recessive trait. This means when F1 -generation
Ry ry
underwent selfing, the trait that was unexpressed inF1 (dwarf) RY rY
was observed in some F2-progeny. Thus, both traits, tall and F2-generation
dwarf, were expressed in F2 - generation in the ratio of 3 : 1. RY
21. The three major laws of inheritance proposed by Mendel are RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy
as follows
(i) Law of Dominance (First Law) According to this law, Ry
when two homozygous individuals with one or more RRYy RRyy RryY Rryy
contrasting characters are crossed, the F1 hybrid have
both the contrasting alleles of a pair, but only one (i.e. rY
dominant trait) allele expresses and it does not allow RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy
the other one (recessive trait) to appear.
ry
Pure tall plant Pure dwarf plant
(Dominant) × (Recessive) RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy
(TT) (tt) Parents Ratio
108 round green 3
(Tt) F1-generation 101 wrinkled yellow 3
All plants tall (Hybrid) 32 wrinkled green 1
Explanation of law of dominance 556 seeds 16
22. Dihybrid Cross When cross between two varieties having All children will inherit an X-chromosome from their mother
two contrasting characters takes place, then it is called regardless of whether they are boys or girls.
dihybrid cross. Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by what they
In F1-generation, on the basis of law of dominance, only inherit from their father. A child who inherits an
dominant characters appear. During gamete formation, genes X-chromosome from her father will be a girl and one who
of contrasting characters separate and only one gene enters inherits a Y-chromosome from him will be a boy.
each gamete. 25. (i) A gene is a unit of DNA which governs the synthesis of
On self-fertilisation, the F1-generation develops one protein that provides a specific character of the
F2-generation in which 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio appears. organisms.
In F2-generation, new combination also develops. (ii) Exchange of genetic material takes place in sexual
reproduction.
Parents : (iii) Environmental factors and mutations cause variation in
( )
( ) asexual reproducing organisms.
Gametes : (iv) The genetic constitution of an organisms is called
genotype, whereas the phenotype is the physical
appearance or characteristics of the organism.
F1-generation
(v) The chemical composition of a chromosome is DNA and
histone proteins.
26. (i) A-B type of seeds are round in shape and yellow in colour
as round and yellow both constitute the dominant
character, hence expressed in F1-generation.
F2-generation (ii) A(round) and B(yellow) are dominant traits.
(iii) Round-green (A-D).
(iv) Wrinkled-yellow (C-B).
(v) (a) A-D in minimum number.
(b) A-B in maximum number.
27. (i) One contrasting trait, i.e. tall and dwarf plants were
taken by Mendel in his monohybrid crosses.
(ii)
GG × gg Parents
(Green pod colour) (Yellow pod colour)
G g Gametes
Gg F1-generation
(Green pod colour)
@Cbse
In dihybrid cross, Phenotype ratio (iii) The first law of Mendel is law of dominance, which
states that the when two alleles of an inherited pair is
heterozygous, then the allele that is expressed is
dominant, whereas the allele that is not expressed is
Cl
23. In dihybrid cross, the ratio of phenotype of F2 -generation
obtained by selfing of F1-generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1, in which
parental as well as new combination are observed. This
shows law of independent assortment in which two
recessive.
(iv) Homozygous tall plant will have two identical copies of
single gene, i.e. TT.
characters under consideration assort in an independent Heterozygous tall plant will have two different copies of
manner to give rise to different combination. single gene, i.e. Tt.
It means that the genes of all the characters are (v) Heterozygous pea plants with violet flowers will result
independent from each other and combined to make new in F1 -progeny.
varieties. 28. (i) In F2 -generation, the phenotypes of the individuals
24. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosome. Both male and obtained would be
female carry two sets of sex chromosome. Tall and round = 9; Tall and wrinkled = 3;
Male (XY) has one X and one Y sex chromosome. Female Dwarf and round = 3; Dwarf and wrinkled = 1
(XX) has both X sex chromosome. Thus, the ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 :1.
(ii) The appearance of all tall plants with round seeds 29. (i) The phenotype of all the plants in the F1-generation would
shows that the tallness and round-shaped seeds are be tall.
dominant traits over the dwarfness and wrinkled (ii) In experiment ‘A’, the phenotypic ratio of tall and dwarf
shape of the seeds. plants would be 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf, whereas the genotypic
(iii) The number of progeny obtained in F2 -generation ratio would be 1 : 2 : 1 for TT, Tt, tt genotype.
in a dihybrid cross with pure dominant traits, i.e. (iii) When crossed with homozygous recessive parent the
TTRR will be 1 which is formed by the fertilisation genotypic ratio would be 1 : 1 for Tt, tt genotype.
of gametes TR and TR. (iv) The phenotypic character that a capable of expressing in
(iv) In F1 -generation1 , all tall and round plants will be the F1 -generation is described as ‘dominant’. The
obtained. contrasting character, i.e. dwarfness is the recessive
(v) Gene is the carrier that leads to the inheritance of character.
traits. It is the part of a chromosome that controls (v) In experiment B, test cross is done between the F1
the appearance of a set of hereditary heterozygote with homozygous recessive parent.
characteristics.
Chapter Test of A
(d) A is false, but R is true
6. Assertion Genes present in every cell of an organism
Multiple Choice Questions control the traits of the organisms.
1. The number of pair(s) of sex chromosomes in the Reason Gene is specific segment of DNA occupying
zygote of humans is specific position on chromosome.
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four 7. Assertion Traits like tallness and dwarfness in pea plant are
2. The following results were obtained by a scientist inherited independently.
who crossed the F 1 -generation of pure breeding Reason When a homozygous tall pea plant is crossed with
parents for round and wrinkled seeds. dwarf pea plant, medium-sized pea plant is obtained in
F 1 -generation.
Dominants Number of F
Recessive trait 2
8. Assertion In human females, all the chromosomes are
trait offspring
perfectly paired except
Round seeds Wrinkled seeds 7524
sex chromosomes.
From these results, it can be concluded that the Reason X and Y are sex chromosomes in males.
actual number of round seeds he obtained was
(a) 1881 (b) 22572
(c) 2508 (d) 5643 9. ‘Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual
organisms will survive in a population’. Do you agree with
3. A recessive homozygote is crossed with a this statement? Why or why not?
heterozygote of the same gene. What will be the
phenotype of the F1 -generation? 10. Differentiate between homozygote and heterozygote.
(a) All dominant 11. Outline a project which aims to find the dominant coat
(b) 75% dominant, 25% recessive colour in dogs.
(c) 50% dominant, 50% recessive 12. If we cross pure breed tall (dominant) pea plants with pure
(d) 25% dominant, 50% heterozygous, 25% recessive breed dwarf (recessive) pea plants, we get pea plants of
4. Identify the genotype of parent plants by observing F1-generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of
the result of the cross given below. F1-generation, then we obtain pea plants of F2-generation.
(i) What do the plants of F1-generation look like?
F1-generation Aa Aa
(ii) What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in
Aa Aa F2-generation?
(a) Both parents are homozygous (iii) State the type of plants not found in F1-generation, but
(b) Both parents are heterozygous appeared in F2-generation mentioning the reason for the
(c) One parent is homozygous and other parent is same.
heterozygous 13. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female
(d) Cannot say parents ensured in the progeny?
5. Choose the correctly matched pair. Long Answer Type Questions
(a) X and Y-chromosomes—Autosomes
(b) Father of Genetics—Gregor Johann Mendel
14. Ovum and sperm are both female and male gametes,
respectively. But, what is so intricate in sperm which makes
(c) Monohybrid cross—Two pairs of contrasting characters
it solely responsible for determining the sex of the child?
(d) Dihybrid cross—One pair of contrasting characters
Explain.
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs 15. In the following crosses, write the characteristics of the
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-8) Each of these questions progeny obtained.
contains two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (i) RRYY  RRYY
(Round yellow) (Round yellow)
(R). Each of these questions also has four
(ii) RrYy  RrYy
alternative choices, any one of which is the correct (Round yellow) (Round yellow)
answer. You have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (iii) rryy  rryy
(c) and (d) given below. (Wrinkled green) (Wrinkled green)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation (iv) RRYY  rryy
of A (Round yellow) (Wrinkled green)
Answers
For Detailed Solutions
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b)
Scan the code
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d)
CHAP TER 05
Electricity
In this Chapter...
 Ohm’s Law
 Resistance
 Combination of Resistors
 Heating Effect of Electric Current
 Electric Power
Electricity is one of the most convenient and widely used V-I Graph
forms of energy in today’s world. It is a controllable and
The graph between the potential difference V and the
convenient form of energy.
corresponding current I is found to be a straight line passing
through the origin for ohmic (metallic) conductors.
Ohm’s Law
Y
It gives a relationship between current I, flowing in a
metallic wire and potential difference V, across its terminals. A
According to this law, the electric current flowing through a
difference, V
Potential
conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference

applied across its ends, providing the physical conditions
(such as temperature) remain unchanged.

If V is the potential difference applied across the ends of a X
O Current, I
conductor through which current I flows, then according to
Ohm’s law, V-I graph for metallic conductor
VI [at constant temperature]

Resistance
or V = IR
V It is that property of a conductor by virtue of which it
or I= opposes/resists the flow of charges/current through it. Its SI
R unit is ohm and it is represented by .
where, R is the constant of proportionality called resistance of V
Resistance of a conductor is given by, R = .
the conductor at a given temperature. I
The conductors which obey Ohm’s law are called ohmic It is said to be 1 ohm, if a potential difference of 1 volt across
conductors while the conductors which do not obey Ohm’s the ends of the conductor makes a current of 1 ampere to flow
law are called non-ohmic conductors. through it.
1 volt
i.e. 1 ohm = Combination of Resistors
1 ampere
There are two methods of joining the resistors together which
1V
 1= = 1 VA –11 are as given below.
A
1. Series Combination
Factors on which the Resistance of a When two or more resistors are connected end to end to each
Conductor Depends other, then they are said to be connected in series.
The electrical resistance of a conductor depends on the V1 V2 V3
R1 R2 R3
following factors
(i) Length of the Conductor The resistance of a conductor I
R is directly proportional to its length l. + V– +
I A
i.e. Rl …(i) –
(ii) Area of Cross-section of the Conductor The resistance +–
of a conductor R is inversely proportional to its area of K V
cross-section A .
1 The equivalent resistance is equal to the sum of the all
i.e. R …(ii) individual resistances.
A
i.e., R = R1 + R 2 + R 3
(iii) Nature of the Material of the Conductor The resistance
of a conductor depends on the nature of the material of The equivalent resistance is thus greater than the resistances
which it is made. Some materials have low resistance, of either resistor. This is also known as maximum effective
whereas others have high resistance. resistance.
Therefore, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we can write The current through each resistor is same. The potential
difference across each resistor is different.
l l
R or R = 
A A 2. Parallel Combination
where,  is the constant of proportionality and is called When two or more resistors are connected simultaneously
electric resistivity or specific resistance of the material between two points to each other, then they are said to be
of the conductor. connected in parallel combination.
R1
Resistivity I1
R2
It is defined as the resistance of a conductor of unit length and I2 R3
unit area of cross-section. Its SI unit is ohm-metre (-m). I3
I
◆
The resistivity of a material does not depend on its length +
I V A
or thickness but depends on the nature of the substance + –
–
and temperature. It is a characteristic property of the
material of the conductor and varies only, if its + –
temperature changes. K V
◆
Insulators such as glass, rubber, ebonite, etc., have a very The reciprocal of equivalent resistance is equal to the sum of
high resistivity (1012 to1017  -m), while conductors have a the reciprocal of individual resistances.
very low resistivity (10 −8 to10 − 6 -m). 1 1 1 1
i.e. = + +
◆
Alloys have higher resistivity than that of their constituent R R1 R 2 R 3
metals. They do not oxidise easily at high temperatures,
this is why they are used to make heating elements of The equivalent resistance is less than the resistance of
either resistor. This is also known as minimum effective
devices such as electric iron, heaters, etc.
resistance.
◆
Tungsten is almost used exclusively for filaments of
electric bulbs, whereas copper and aluminium are The current from the source is greater than the current
through either resistor. The potential difference across each
generally used for electrical transmission lines.
resistor is same.
Heating Effect of Electric Current The filament is thermally isolated and the bulb is filled with
chemically inactive nitrogen and argon gas to prolong the life
When an electric current is passed through a high resistance of filament.
wire like nichrome wire, then the wire becomes very hot and
produces heat. 2. Electric Fuse
In purely resistive circuits, the source of energy continuously It is used as a safety device in household circuits. It protects
gets dissipated entirely in the form of heat. This is called the the circuits, by stopping the flow of any unduly high electric
heating effect of current. current. It is connected in series with the mains supply. It
This is obtained by the transformation of electrical energy consists of an alloy of lead and tin which has appropriate
into heat energy. e.g. electric heater, electric iron, etc. melting point.
Heat produced is expressed as, H = I2  R  t When the current flowing through the circuit exceeds the safe
It is known as Joule’s law of heating. limit, then the fuse wire melts and breaks the circuit. This
This law implies that heat produced in a resistor is helps to protect the other circuit elements from heavy current.
(i) directly proportional to the square of current for a given Fuses are always rated for different current values such as 1 A,
resistance. 2 A, 5 A, 10 A, 15 A, etc.
(ii) directly proportional to the resistance for a given current.
Electric Power
(iii) directly proportional to the time for which the current
It is defined as the amount of electric energy consumed in a
flows through the resistor.
circuit per unit time.
Practical Applications of Heating Effect of Electric power is expressed as, P = VI
Electric Current V2
or P=
There are two applications of heating effect of electric R
current which are given below The SI unit of electric power is watt (W).
It is said to be 1 watt, if 1 ampere current flows through a
1. Electric Bulb circuit having 1 volt potential difference.
It has a filament made of tungsten. So, most of the power i.e. 1 watt = 1 volt  1 ampere = 1 VA
consumed by this, is dissipated in the form of heat and some
part is converted into light because it has high resistivity and Commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt-hour.
high melting point. 1 kWh = 3.6  106 J
Solved
Examples
RA R d2  d2 
We know that,  = = Q A = 4
Example 1. The potential difference between l 4l  
the
terminals of an electric heater is 75 V when it draws 30    (6 10−4 )2
=
a current of 5 A from the source. What current will the 42
heater draw, if the potential difference is increased to
= 4.24  10−6 -m
150 V ?
Sol. Given, potential difference, V = 75 V The resistivity of the metal at 25°C is 4.24  10−6 -m.
Current, I = 5A Example 4. Three resistors of 5 , 10  and 15  are
V connected in series with a 12 V power supply. Calculate
We know that, R =
I their combined resistance, the current that flows in the
75
R= = 15  circuit and in each resistor and the potential difference
5 across each resistor.
When potential difference is increased to 150 V, then Sol. Given, R1 = 5 , R2 = 10 , R3 = 15 , V = 12 V,
current is
V 150 R = ?, I = ? and V1 , V2 , V3 = ?
I = = = 10 A
R 15 5 10  15 
So, the current through the heater becomes 10 A.

Example 2. A wire of given material having length l and I I
area of cross-section A has a resistance of 10 . What would

be the resistance of another wire of the same material +–
12 V
having length l/4 and area of cross-section 2. 5A?
Sol. For first wire, length = l, area of cross-section = A According to question, the three resistors are connected in
series combination, then equivalent resistance,
and resistance, R1 = 10 , R = R1 + R2 + R3
l
i.e. R1 = = 10  = 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 
A  The current flowing through the circuit (I)
10A
 = …(i) Potential of power supply ( V)
l =
Total resistance of the circuit (R)
For second wire, length = l/ 4, area of cross-section = 2.5 A
12
l/ 4 10A l =
 Resistance, R2 =  =  [from Eq. (i)] 30
2.5A l 4  2.5A 2
= = 0.4 A
=1 5
So, the resistance of that wire is 1 . In series combination, the current flowing through each
resistor is equal to total current flowing through the circuit.
Example 3. Resistance of a metal wire of length 2 m is Therefore, current flowing through each resistor is 0.4 A.
30  at temperature 25°C. If the diameter of the wire is
Potential difference across first resistor,
0.6 mm, then what will be the resistivity of the metal at that
temperature? V1 =IR1 = 0.4  5 = 2 V
Sol. Given, length of wire, l = 2 m Potential difference across second resistor,
Resistance, R = 30  , Temperature, T = 25C V2 =IR2 = 0.4 10 = 4 V
and potential difference across third resistor,
Diameter of wire, d = 0.6 mm = 6  10−4 m
Resistivity of the wire,  = ? V3 =IR3 = 0.4 15 = 6 V
Example 5. Study the following electric circuit. Find We know that,

the readings of (i) the ammeter and (ii) the voltmeter. Potential difference ( V)
Current (I) =
Resistance (R)
+–
V
4 We get the following results for the current
A B 12
2 Current through 40  resistor, I = = 0.3 A
1
40
Also, I2 = 0.3 A
+– 12
() –A
+ Current through 20  resistor, I3 = = 0.6 A
3V K
20
Sol. In the given circuit, the resistance of 4  and bulb resistance Current, I = I1 + I2 + I3 = 0.3 A + 0.3 A + 0.6 A
of 2  are connected in series, so equivalent resistance of the
= 1.2 A
circuit,
R = R1 + R2 = 4  + 2  = 6  Example 7. In the given figure, R1 = 5 , R 2 = 10 , R
(i) Total current flowing in the circuit, (I) 3=15 , R 4 = 20 , R 5 = 25  and a 15 V battery is
Potential difference ( V) 3 connected to the arrangement. Calculate
= = = 0.5 A
Total resistance (R) 6 (i) the total resistance in the circuit, and
In series combination, current flowing through each (ii) the total current flowing in the circuit.
component of the circuit is same and is equal to the total R1
current flowing in the circuit. So, 0.5 A current will flow
through the ammeter, so its reading will be 0.5 A. R2
(ii) Reading of voltmeter = Potential difference across 2  I
bulb
 V = IR = 0.5  2 = 1 V 15 V
+
A
[Q current flowing through the bulb is 0.5 A] R3 –
Example 6. Two 40  resistors and a 20  resistor R4
are alconnected in parallel with a 12 V power supply. )(
R5
Calculate their effective resistance and the current
through each resistor. What is the current flowing
Sol. Resistors R1 and R2 are in parallel.
through the supply? Sol. Given, R1 = 40 , R2 = 40 , R3 = 1 1 1 1 1 1 10
 , So, = +  = +  R = 
V = 12 V,R = ?, I, I , I , I = ?
123 R R1 R2 R 5 10 3
12 V
+ – Similarly, R3 ,R4 and R5 are in parallel
I I 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
R1=40  = + + = + +
I1 
R R3 R4 R5 15 20 25
I2 R2=40 
1 20 + 15 + 12 300
=  R =
I3 R3=20  R 300 47
Thus, the total resistance,
So, the three resistors together have an effective resistance R3

of10 . Each resistor has a potential difference of12 V across it. A 2 3 2B
Because in parallel combination, the potential difference R1 R4 R5

across each resistance is equal to the total potential + –
9V K
difference applied on the combination.
Sol. In the given circuit, R 2 , R 3 and R4 are in parallel I2 R2

combination. As, currents through R2 , R3 and R4 are
different. So, their equivalent resistance R is
I3
1 R3 I5 = I
R2 I = I1 R1
2 I4 R4 R5
R3
2 3 2 I +– K
A B
R1 R4 R5
As R2 , R 3 and R4 are in parallel combination, so potential
+– drop at all resistances will be same as 1 V.
9V K V = V = V = V = 1V
2 3 4
1 = 1 + 1 + 1 V V 1
R R 2 R3 R4 Current through R2 , I2 = 2 = ==1A
R 2 R2 1
= 1 + 1 + 1 6= + 3 + 2 11 = V V 1
1 2 3 6 6 Similarly, I = 3 = = = 0.5 A
3
6 R3 R3 2
 R = 
11 V4 V 1
and I = = = = 0.33 A
Now, the given circuit can be redrawn as shown below 4
R4 R4 3
2 6/11  2
A
R1 R5
B Example 9. An electric iron consumes energy at a rate
R
of 880 W, when heating is at the maximum rate and 340 W,
9V K when the heating is at the minimum, the voltage is 220 V.
+– What are the current and the resistance in each case?
Now, R1 , R and R5 are in series combination. As, current Sol. Power, P = VI, Current, I = P / V
through R1 , R and R5 is same. 880
(i) When heating is at the maximum rate, I = = 4A
So, equivalent resistance of the whole circuit is 220
6
R = R + R + R = 2 + + 2 V 220
1 5 Resistance of the electric iron, R = = = 55 
11 I 4
22 + 6 + 22 50
= =  340
11 11 (ii) When heating is at the minimum rate, I = = 1. 54A
220
Now, total current flowing through the circuit, V 220
V 9 99 Resistance of the electric iron, R = = = 142. 85 
I= = = 2 A I 1. 54
R 50 / 11 50
Current through R1 and R5 will be same as these are in Example 10. An electric heater of resistance 500  is
series combination and will be equal to the total current connected to a mains supply for 30 min. If 15 A current
flowing through the circuit. flows through the filament of the heater, then calculate the
 I = I1 = I5 = 2 A heat energy produced in the heater.
Potential drop at R1 , V1 = I1R1 = 2  2 = 4 V Sol. Given, resistance of the filament, R = 500 
Potential drop at R5 , V5 = I5R5 = 2  2 = 4 V Current, I = 15 A
Now, potential drop at R , V can be calculated as Time, t = 30 min = 30  60 = 1800 s
V = V1 + V5 + V Heat produced, H = I2Rt
 9 = 4 + 4 + V = 152  500 1800
 V = 1 V = 2025 105 J = 20.25 107 J
Chapter
Practice
PART 1 4. Specific resistance of a conductor increases on
increasing its temperature.
Objective Questions (a) True (b) False
(c) Can’t say
◆ Multiple Choice Questions (d) Information insufficient
1. Which one of the following is the correct set-up for 5. A cylindrical conductor of length l and uniform area
studying the dependence of the current on the of cross-section A has resistance R. Another
potential difference across a resistor? (CBSE 2019) conductor of length 2l and resistance R of the same
R R
material has area of cross-section (CBSE 2020)
(a) A / 2 (b) 3A / 2
+ V – + A – (c) 2A (d) 3A
– – 6. The substance which have a higher value of
(a) A (b) V
+ + + + –
resistance and small number of free electrons in it, is
–
called
(a) resistor (b) poor conductor
V –
+
(c) good conductor (d) insulator
A –
–V+ +
7. What is the maximum resistance which can be made
1
using four resistors each of ? (CBSE 2020)
– R R 2
(c) A (d) (a) 2  (b) 1 
+ +
– + – (c) 2.5  (d) 8 
2. 8. Three 2  resistances are connected so as to make a
A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I triangle. The resistance between any two vertices is
graph of three samples of nichrome wire with (a) 6  (b) 2 
resistances R1 , R 2 and R 3 respectively. Which of the 3 4
(c)  (d) 
following is true? 4 3
I (ampere)
R1
9. Determine the equivalent resistance between points
R2 X and Y in the following circuit.
3 
R3
3 
3  3 
V(volt)
(a) R1 = R2 = R3 (b) R1  R2  R3 X Y
(c) R3  R2  R1 (d) R2  R3  R1 (a) 5  (b) 12 
3. The resistivity does not change, if (NCERT Exemplar) (c) 9  (d) 6 
(a) the material is changed 10. The filament of bulb is made up of
(b) the temperature is changed (a) copper (b) tungsten
(c) the shape of the resistor is changed (c) tin (d) lead
(d) Both material and temperature are changed
11. The current flowing through a wire of resistance 2  17. Assertion The connecting wires are made of copper.
varies with time as shown in the given figure. The Reason The electrical conductivity of copper is high.
amount of heat produced (in J) in 3 s would be
18. Assertion When the resistances are connected
3 end-to-end consecutively, they are said to be in series.
B C
2 Reason In case the total resistance is to be
I (A)
1
H I decreased, then the individual resistances are
A D
t (s) connected in parallel.
0 GJ
–1 19. Assertion The fuse is placed in series with the device.
–2 E F Reason Fuse consists of a piece of wire made of a
–3 metal or an alloy of appropriate melting point.
(a) 2 J (b) 18 J 20. Assertion The 200 W bulbs glow with more
(c) 28 J (d) 10 J brightness than 100 W bulbs.
12. The rate at which energy is delivered by a current is Reason A 100 W bulb has more resistance than
determined by 200 W bulb.
(a) heat (b) electric power
(c) potential difference (d) work
◆ Case Based MCQs
13. In an electrical circuit three incandescent bulbs A, B 21. Read the following and answer questions from (i) to (v)
and C of rating 40 W, 60 W and 100 W, respectively given below
are connected in parallel to an electric source. Which The relationship between potential difference and
of the following is likely to happen regarding their current was first established by George Simon Ohm
brightness? called Ohm’s law. An electric circuit is shown below
(a) Brightness of all the bulbs will be the same to verify Ohm’s law.
(b) Brightness of bulb A will be the maximum –
+
V
(c) Brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A A Voltmeter
(d) Brightness of bulb C will be less than that of B Conductor
Connecting
14. An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric power wires Sliding contact
when operated at 220 V. A fuse wire of what rating C of rheostat
+ –
B S Rh
must be used for it? (NCERT Exemplar) Battery Switch Rheostat
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A (c) 4 A (d) 5 A
15. LED indicator of a TV in your house operates at Although Ohm’s law has been found valid over a
0.75 V and 100 mA. Then its power is large class of materials, there do exist metals and
(a) 75 mW (b) 1.00 mW devices used in electric circuits where the
(c) 0.75 mW (d) 7.5 mW proportionality of V and I does not hold.
(i) Materials which follow Ohm’s law are
◆ Assertion-Reasoning MCQs (a) ohmic conductors (b) non-ohmic conductors
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each of these questions (c) insulators (d) superconductors
contains two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). (ii) For insulator at room temperature, the graph
Each of these questions also has four alternative between V and I is given. Which one is correct?
choices, any one of which is the correct answer. You have to I I
select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) (b)
explanation of A.
V
explanation of A. O V
(c) A is true, but R is false. O
(d) A is false, but R is true. I
I
16. Assertion Longer wires have greater resistance and
the smaller wires have lesser resistance. (c) (d)
Reason Resistance is inversely proportional to the
length of the wire. V V
O O
(iii) The slope of V - I graph (V on x-axis and I on

y-axis) gives
PART 2
(a) charge
(b) reciprocal of resistance Subjective Questions
(c) resistance
(d) reciprocal of charge ◆ Short Answer Type Questions
(iv) By increasing the voltage across a conductor, the 1. State the law which gives the relationship between
(a) current will decrease current and potential difference. Define the unit of
(b) resistance will increase resistance.
(c) resistance will decrease
(d) current will increase 2. Define resistance. Give its SI unit. (CBSE 2019)
(v) When a 9 V battery is connected across a 3. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for
conductor and the current flows is 0.1 A, the the corresponding values of potential difference V
resistance is across the resistor are as given below
(a) 90  (b) 9 
(c) 0.9  (d) 900  V (volts) 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 4.0 5.0
22. Read the following and answer the questions from I (amperes) 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0
Plot a graph between V and I and also calculate the
The electrical energy consumed by an electrical resistance of that resistor. (CBSE 2018)
appliance is given by the product of its power rating
and the time for which it is used. The SI unit of 4. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons
electrical energy is Joule (as shown in figure). made of alloy rather than a pure metal? (NCERT)
I 5. (i) List the factors on which the resistance of a
+ conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
(ii) Why are metals good conductors of electricity,
Voltage R Power whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity?
Give reason.
– (iii) What type of material is used in electrical heating
devices? Give reason. (CBSE 2018)
Actually, Joule represents a very small quantity of
energy and therefore it is inconvenient to use where 6. I
A
a large quantity of energy is involved.
(i) The SI unit of electric energy per unit time is
(a) joule (b) joule-second
12 V R1=4  R2
(c) watt (d) watt-second
(ii) Kilowatt-hour is equal to
(a) 3.6  104 J (b) 3.6  106 J
B
(c) 36  106 J (d) 36  104 J
(iii) The energy dissipated by the heater is E. When A student has two resistors 2  and 3 . She has to put
the time of operating the heater is doubled, the one of them in place of R 2 as shown in the circuit.
energy dissipated is The current that she needs in the entire circuit is
(a) doubled (b) half exactly 9 A.
(c) remains same (d) four times Show by calculation which of the two resistors she
(iv) The power of a lamp is 60 W. The energy should choose.
consumed in 1 minute is 7. A metal wire has diameter of 0.25 mm and electrical
(a) 360 J (b) 36 J resistivity of 0. 8  10 −8 -m.
(c) 3600 J (d) 3.6 J
(v) Calculate the energy transformed by a 5 A current (i) What will be the length of this wire to make a
flowing through a resistor of 2  for 30 minutes. resistance 5 ?
(a) 40 kJ (b) 60 kJ (ii) How much will the resistance change, if the
(c) 10 kJ (d) 90 kJ diameter of the wire is doubled?
8. Redraw the given circuit, putting in an ammeter to 15. In an electrical circuit, two resistors of 2  and 4 
measure the current through the resistors and a are connected in series to a 6 V battery. Find the heat
voltmeter to measure the potential difference across dissipated by the 4  resistor in 5 s. (NCERT Exemplar)
12  resistor. What would be the readings in 16. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow
ammeter and voltmeter? (NCERT) while heating element does? (NCERT)
6V
+ – 17. Why fuse are used in electrical circuits?
18. Define the SI unit of electric power. What is the
K commercial unit of electrical energy?
5 8 12 
19. The electric power consumed by a device may be
calculated by using either of the two expressions
9. What is the reason of connecting electrical appliances P = I2R or P = V 2 /R .
in parallel combination in household circuit?
The first expression indicates that the power is
10. What is (i) the highest and (ii) the lowest total directly proportional to R, whereas the second
resistance which can be secured by combinations expression indicates inverse proportionality. How
of four coils of resistances 4 , 8 , 12  and 24 
? can seemingly different dependence of P on R in
(NCERT)
these expressions be explained?
11. Consider the circuit diagram as given below 20. Three 2  resistors, A, B and C are connected as
R5 = 3 
+ – shown in figure. Each of them dissipates energy
and can withstand a maximum power of 18 W
A R3 = 3 
without melting. Find the maximum current that can
=3
flow through the three resistors? (NCERT Exemplar)
K 2
()
I2 B I
R1 = 3  R2 = 3 
A
If R1 = R 2 = R 3 = R 4 = R 5 = 3 , then find the C
equivalent resistance of the circuit. 2
12. With the help of suitable circuit diagram prove that 21. An electric geyser rated 1500 W, 250 V is connected
the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of a group of to a 250 V line mains. Solve
resistances joined in parallel is equal to the sum of (i) the electric current drawn by it.
the reciprocals of the individual resistances.(CBSE 2019) (ii) energy consumed by it in 50 h.
13. A battery E is connected to three identical lamps P, Q (iii) cost of energy consumed, if each unit costs ` 6.
and R as shown in figure. Initially, the switch S is kept
open and the lamp P and Q are observed to glow with
◆Long Answer Type Questions
same brightness. Then, switch S is closed. 22. In the given circuit, A, B, C and D are four lamps
P Q connected with a battery of 60 V.
60 V
+ S
E
– R 3AA4AB5AC3AD
Analyse the circuit to answer the following questions.

How will the brightness of glow of bulbs P and Q
(i) What kind of combination are the lamps arranged in
change? Justify your answer.
(series or parallel)?
14. (i) Write Joule’s law of heating. (ii) Explain with reference to your above answer, what
(ii) Two lamps, one rated 100 W, 220 V and the other are the advantages (any two) of this combination of
60 W, 220 V are connected in parallel to electric lamps?
main supply. (iii) Explain with proper calculations which lamp glows
Find the current drawn by two bulbs from the line, the brightest.
if the supply voltage is 220 V. (CBSE 2018) (iv) Find out the total resistance of the circuit.
23. Find the equivalent resistance of the following ◆ Case Based Questions
circuit. Also, find the current and potential at each
resistor. 28. Read the following and answer the questions from
1R2
2 Several resistors may be combined to form a
R3 network. The combination should have two end
A2 3 2B points to connect it with a battery or other circuit
R1 R4 R5 elements. When the resistors are connected in series,
the current in each resistor is same but the potential
+ –
9V K difference is different in each resistor.
When the resistors are connected in parallel, the
24. (i) State Ohm’s law.
voltage drop across each resistor is same but the
(ii) How is an ammeter connected in an electric circuit? current is different in each resistor.
(iii) The power of a lamp is 100 W. Find the energy
consumed by it in 1 min. (i) What do you mean by complex circuit?
(iv) A wire of resistance 5 is bent in the form of a (ii) In the graph, it shows the resistance in series and
closed circle. Find the resistance between two parallel for two identical wires. Which of the
points at the ends of any diameter of the circle. following denotes series combination and parallel
combination, individually?
25. An electric lamp of resistance 20  and a conductor B
of resistance 4  are connected to a 6 V battery as
shown in the circuit given below.
I
A
4
I
V
(iii) What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit

+ – K
A given below?
– +
6V R R
Calculate
(i) the total resistance of the circuit. B A
R R
(ii) the current through the circuit.
(iii) the potential difference across the (a) electric
lamp and (b) conductor. (iv) What is minimum effective resistance?
(iv) the power of the lamp. (CBSE 2019) (v) When three resistors of resistances R, 2R and 3R
are connected in series then, how will be the
26. (i) How should two resistors, with resistances R1 () value of current gets affected in each resistor by
and R2 () be connected to a battery of e.m.f. V volts applying a voltage V across the circuit?
so that the electrical power consumed is minimum?
(ii) In a house, 3 bulbs of 100 watt each are lighted for 29. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
5 hours daily, 2 fans of 50 watt each are used for to (v) given below
10 hours daily and an electric heater of 1.00 kWh A cell or a battery is the source of electrical energy.
is used for half an hour daily. Calculate the total Due to the chemical reactions inside them a
energy consumed in a month of 31 days and its potential difference is setup which is responsible for
cost at the rate of ` 3.60 per kWh. the flow of current through any electrical circuit.
27. (a) Define power and state its SI unit. So, to maintain this flow, the source continuously has
(b) A torch bulb is rated 5V and 500 mA. Calculate its to provide the energy. But only a part of this energy
(i) power helps in maintaining the current consumed into
useful work.
(ii) resistances
1 Rest of it may be consumed in the form of heat by
(iii) energy consumed when it is lighted for 2 hours.
2 raising the temperature of the appliances.
(i) How heat produced in a resistor is related to current It showed an electric circuit in which 3 resistors
flowing in that resistor? having resistor R1 , R 2 and R 3 respectively are
(ii) Give two practical application of heating effect of joined end to end i.e in series.
current. While the combination of the resistors in which
(iii) Which type of energy is transformed into heat energy? 3 resistors connected together which point X
(iv) An electric iron of resistance 25  takes a current of and Y are said to be parallel.
7 A. Calculate the heat developed in 0.5 min. (i) Calculate the potential difference across a
(v) 200 J of heat is produced in 10 s in a 5  resistance. series combination of resistors.
Find the potential difference across the resistor. (ii) What is the value of current in a series
combination?
30. Read the following and answer questions from (i) to (v)
given below (iii) Write the formula of electrical energy
dissipated in the resistor.
In resistance for a system of the resistor, there are two
(iv) If 200 resistors, each of value 0.2  are
methods of joining the resistors together as shown below
connected in series, what will be the resultant
R3
L M resistance?
X R2 Y (v) What will be the effective resistance shown in
R1 R2 R3
P R1 Q figure below?
V S T 6
A Rh I + V–
I
6
K
+ – K 2
+ – A
– +
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions 8. (d) Resistance between terminals A and B
1. (c) Option (c) represents correct set-up for studying the C
dependence of the current on the potential difference across
a resistor because ammeter A is connected in series while
voltmeter V is connected across parallel of resistor R.
2 2
2. (c) At given voltage, current I is inversely proportional to
1
resistance, i.e. I  . At given voltage I is maximum for R ,
1
R
therefore, R1 is minimum.
A 2 B
I1 = (2 , 2  in series) parallel to 2 
 4
= (2 + 2)||2  = 4 || 2  = = 

I (ampere)
3
9. (a) As, Req
I2
3  3 
X Y
I3
3  3 
V(volt)
3  3 
At given voltage, I1  I2  I3
 R1  R2  R3 
or R3  R2  R1 6 
3. (c) Resistivity depends on the nature of material and the 3  2 

 
temperature but does not depend on the shape of the 5 
resistor. 3×6 =2 
3+6
4. (a) True; Specific resistance of a conductor increases on
10. (b) The filament of electric bulb is made up of tungsten
increasing its temperature.
because it has a very high resistance.
5. (c) In first case,
11. (c), As heat produced, H = I2Rt
RA
Resistivity of the conductor,  = …(i)
l Here, R = 2 
In second case, For AD, H1 = 32  2  1 = 18 J
Resistivity of the conductor,  = RA …(ii) For DG, H2 = (−2)2  2  1 = 8 J

2
l
For GJ, H3 = (1)  2  1 = 2 J
2
QFor same material, resistivity of the conductor will be

same.  Total amount of heat produced in 3 s is,
So, on substituting the value of  in Eq. (ii), we have H = H1 + H2 + H3
RA RA
=  A = 2A  H = 18 + 8 + 2 = 28J
l 2l
12. (b) Electric power determines the rate at which energy is
6. (b)A material that offers higher resistance as compared to
delivered by a current.
conductors to the flow of electron, so has small number of
free electrons is called a poor conductor. 13. (c) Bulbs are rated presuming that they all are connected
with the same voltage supply. In parallel combination,
7. (a) The maximum resistance is obtained when resistors are
voltage across each bulb is same, so greater the watt, greater
connected in series combination.
the brightness.
Thus equivalent resistance
 Brightness (B) of 3 bulbs are as follows
Req = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4
B100  B60  B40
1 1 1 1
= + + + = 2
2 2 2 2  BC  BB  BA
14. (d) Given, power, P = 1 kW = 1000 W 22. (i) (c) The SI unit of electric energy per unit time is watt.
electric energy J
Voltage, V = 220 V Q P= = = Js −1 = W
Current, I=? time s
P 1000 (ii) (b)1 kilowatt-hour is equal to 3.6 106 joule.
I= = = 4. 5A
V 220 (iii) (a) As E  t
Thus, the rating of fuse-wire is 5 A which is greater than 4.5 A.  When the time of operating the heater is doubled, the
15. (a) Given, V = 0.75 V, I = 100 mA = 100  10−3 A = 0.1 A energy dissipated is doubled.
(iv) (c) Given, P = 60 W, t =1 min = 1  60 s
 Power, P = VI = 0.75  0.1
 E =P  t = 60  60
 P = 75 mW  E = 3600 J
16. (c) As we know, resistance of conductor depends on the (v) (d) Given, I = 5A, R = 2 , t = 30 min = 1800 s
length of conductor as R  l  E = I2Rt = 5  5  2  1800
As the length of wire is more, resistance of conductor is  E = 90000 = 90 kJ
more.
A is true but R is false. Subjective Questions
17. (a) Copper conducts the current without offering much 1. Ohm’s law gives the relationship between current I flowing
resistance due to high electrical conductivity. Hence, in a metallic wire and potential difference V, across its
conducting wires are made of copper. terminals. According to this law, the electric current flowing
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential
difference applied across its ends, providing physical
18. (b) Resistors are connected in series, when they join
conditions remains unchanged.
end-to-end consecutively with each other. In parallel
i.e. V  I or V = IR
combination, the total resistance is always less than the least
resistance in combination. where R is constant of proportionality called resistance of
 Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation conductor at a given temperature.
of A. Unit of resistance is ohm. It is said to be 1 ohm, if potential
19. (b) Fuse isa safety device that is used in household circuits. difference of 1 volt across the ends of the conductor makes a
It is connected in series with the main supply. current of 1 A to flow through it.
1V
i.e. 1 ohm () = = VA −1
Fuse consists of an alloy of lead and tin which has 1A
appropriate melting point.
2. Resistance is the property of a conductor by virtue of which
 Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation it opposes/resists the flow of charges/flow of current through
of A. it. Its SI unit is ohm and is represented by the Greek letter
V
V2  (ohm). Resistance of a conductor is given by R = .
20. (a) The resistance,R =
I
P
1 3. Scale : At x-axis, 1 div (1 cm) = 0.1 A
R
P At y-axis, 1 div (1 cm) = 0.5 V
i.e. Higher the wattage of a bulb, lesser is the resistance and The graph between current and potential difference is
so it will glow brighter. shown below.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Y
5.0
21. (i) (a) Materials that follow Ohm’s law are called ohmic
4.0
conductor. V - I graph is a straight line passing from
3.0
origin for ohmic conductors.
V 2.5
(ii) (c) V - I curve for insulator is straight line that lies on (Volts) 2.0
voltage axis at room temperature. 1.5
I 1
(iii) (b) Slope of V - I graph = = . 1.0
V R 0.5
(iv) (d) On increasing the voltage, the resistance remains X
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8
same but current increases. I (Ampere)
(v) (a) Given, V = 9 V, I = 0.1 A
V 9 Resistance (R) of the resistor is determined by the slope of
 R= = = 90  V-I graph.
I 0.1
V
 Resistance = R =Slope of graph = 0. 25 −3 
2
I
= 5    2 10 
RA
 l= 
 R = y 2 − y1 = 1.5 −1.0  0. 8 10−8
x 2 − x1 0.3 − 0.2 2 D
0.5 [Q A = r and r = ]
= = 5 2
0.1 5   1. 56 10−8
= = 30.62 m
4. Alloys have a higher resistivity than their constituent metals. 0. 8 10−8
They do not oxidise or burn at higher temperatures as they l
have high melting point. Thus, they are used to make coils of (ii) Resistance, R =
electrical toasters and electric irons rather than pure metals. A
l l 4
5. (i) Following factors on which resistance of a wire depends = =   2
(a) length of wire : R  l  D2 D

(b) area of cross-section of wire : R 
1 2 D
[Q A = r2 and r = ]
A 2
(c) resistivity of material of wire : R   l  l
l R' = = [QD has become 2D]
 R = A
   
2
A
2
(ii) Metals are good conductors as their resistivity is very low l
whereas glass is a bad conductor having high resistivity. =
(iii) Alloys are used as heating elements as their resistivity  D2
and melting points both are very high. R' l l4
Now, = 
6. The given circuit is shown below R D2 D
I  l D2 1
=  =
A D2  l  4 4
 R' = R
4
12 V R1=4  R2 Thus, resistance will decrease by 4 times.
8.
6V
+ –
B –
A
K
Let R be the resistance of the entire circuit. 5 8 12 
+
Given, overall current needed, I = 9 A
R1 R2 + V –
Voltage, V = 12 V
Using Ohm's law, V = IR
V 12 4 Equivalent resistance of the circuit,
 R= = =
I 9 3 R = R1 + R 2 + R3 = 5 + 8 + 12 = 25 
Now, the resistors R1 and R2 are in parallel combination. [QR1 , R2 and R3 are connected in series]
1 1 1 1 1 1
 = +  = + In series combination, current flowing through all the
R R1 R2 R 4 R2 resistances is same and equal to the total current flowing
3 1 1 4 through the circuit.
 = + [QR = ]  Current in the resistors,
4 4 R2 3 V 6
1 3 1 2 1 I= = = 0. 24 A
 = − = = R 25
R2 4 4 4 2
 Ammeter reading = 0.24 A
 R2 = 2  Potential across 12  resistance,
So, the student should choose 2  resistor. V = IR = 0.24 12 = 2.88 V
7. Given, diameter = 0.25 mm
 Voltmeter reading is 2. 88 V.
Resistivity,  = 0. 8 10−8 -m
9. Parallel combination of resistances is highly useful in
(i) Resistance, R = 5 
l circuits used in daily life, as the circuits used have
We know that, R = components of different resistances requiring different
A amounts of current.
This type of combination in a circuit divides the current Now, the given circuit can be redrawn as shown below
among the components (electrical gadgets), so that they can R5 =3 
+ –
have necessary amount of current to operate properly. This
is the reason of connecting electrical appliances in parallel
combination in household circuit. A
R'' =2 
10. (i) Resistance is maximum when resistors are connected in
series. K
()
4 8 12  24 
A B R1 =3 
R max = 4 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 48  Now, it is clear from the above circuit that all the resistances
R5 , R and R1 are in series combination.
(ii) Resistance is minimum when resistors are connected in
parallel. As, current through R1 ,R and R5 is same.
4
 Equivalent resistance of the circuit is
R = R5 + R + R1 = 3  + 2  +   = 8 
A B
8 12. The following figure shows the connection of resistors in
parallel
12 
R1
24  I1
R2
1 1 1 1  24
I2 R3
Rmin. = 1 /  + 8+ 12 + 24  =12  = 2  I3
4 I
+
11. From the combination, it can be observed that R2 and R3 are I
+V – A
in series order. –
+ – R5 = 3 
+ –
K V
A R3 = 3  An applied potential difference V produces current I1 in
R1 , I2 in R2 and I3 in R3 .
K Total current, I = I + I + I …(i)
1 2 3
)(
V
R=3 R=3 By Ohm’s law, I = V , I = V and I =
3
1 2 1 2
R1 R2 R3
As current through R2 and R3 is same. So, their equivalent V
If R is the equivalent resistance, then I =
resistance is R = R 2 + R 3 = 3  + 3  = 6  R
V V V V
Now, the given circuit can be redrawn as shown below Thus, = + + [from Eq. (i)]
R R1 R2 R3
R5 = 3  V 1 1 1 
+ –  = V + + 
R  R1 R2 R3 
A 1 1 1 1
 = + +
R R1 R2 R3
)
K
=6 13. The brightness of glow of bulb P will increase and brightness
(
of glow of bulb Q will decrease.

R1 = 3 
This is because, on closing S, bulbs Q and R will be in parallel
Now, it can be seen that R 4 and R are in parallel and the combination will be in series with bulb P. Hence, the
combination. As, currents through R 4 and R are total resistance of the circuit will decrease and the current
different. So, their equivalent resistance can be calculated flowing in the circuit will increase. Therefore, the glow of
as below bulb P will increase.
1 1 1 1 1 1+2 3 1
= + = + = = = Also, bulbs Q and R will be in parallel in this case. So, the
R R R 4 6 3 6 6 2 current gets divided and lesser current flows through Q and
hence the glow of bulb Q decreases.
 R = 2 
14. (i) According to Joule’s law of heating, amount of heat P = V2/R is used when potential difference ( V) across every
produced in a resistor is component of the circuit is constant. This expression is used
(a) directly proportional to square of current flowing in case of parallel combination in the circuit. In series
through the resistor. combination, R is greater than the value of R in parallel
 H I2 combination.
(b) directly proportional to resistance of the resistor. 20. Resistance, R = 2 
 H R Maximum power, Pmax = 18 W
(c) directly proportional to time for which the current Maximum current, Imax = ?
flows through the resistor. P = I 2R
 H t P 18
Hence, H =I2Rt  I = = = 3 A = Imax
R 2
(ii)
100 W, 220 V
Maximum current that can flow through 2  resistor is 3 A.
L1
This current divides along B and C because they are in
parallel combination. Voltage across B and C remains same
1
L2 60 W, 220 V and hence I  . Since, B and C have same resistance 2 
R
3
each, and has same current. i.e. I = = 1.5 A flowing through
2
220 V B and C.
Here, potential, V = 220 V 21. Given, power, P = 1500 W,
Power, P1 = 100 W, P2 = 60 W Voltage, V = 250 V
As, current drawn is given by (i) Electric current drawn,
Power (P) [From P = VI] P 1500
I=
Voltage (V) I= = = 6A
100 60 V 250
So, I1 = = 0.45 A and I2 == 0.27 A (ii) Energy consumed, E = Power  Time
220 220
= 1500  50 [Q t = 50 h]
15. Given, R1 = 2 , R2 = 4 , t = 5s, V = 6 V
Net resistance, R = R1 + R2 = 2  + 4  = 6  = 75000 Wh = 75 kWh
V 6V [Q 1 kW = 1000 W]
 Current, I = = =1A
R 6 = 75 unit [Q 1 unit = 1 kWh]
In series, same 1 A current passes through both resistors. (iii) Q Cost of energy consumed = 75  6 = ` 450
 Heat dissipated, H = I2R 1  t = (1)2  4  5 = 20 J 22. The given circuit is shown below
16. The heating element of heater is made up of an alloy that has
very high resistance. So when the current flows through it, it
becomes very hot and glows red. But the resistance of cord
60 V
is less because it is made up of copper or aluminium, so it
does not glow.
17. Electric fuse is used to protect the electrical circuit from 3AA4AB5AC3AD
overloading and short circuit. When the current flowing
through a circuit exceeds the safe limit, the temperature of
fuse wire increases and due to heating effect, it gets melt
and breaks the circuit.
(i) In the circuit, all the lamps have same voltage, i.e. 60 V
18. The SI unit of electric power is watt (W). It is the power but each lamp is having different current. So, the lamps
consumed by a device that carries 1 A of current when are arranged in parallel combination.
operated at a potential difference of 1 V. Thus,
(ii) The two advantages of lamps in parallel combination are
1W = 1 volt  1 ampere = 1 VA
(a) if one lamp gets faulty, it will not affect the working
The commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt hour
of other lamps.
(kWh), commonly known as ‘unit’.
1 kWh = 3.6  106 J (b) in parallel combination of lamps, each lamp will use
the full potential of the battery.
19. P = I R is used when current flowing in every component of
2
(iii) The lamp with the highest power will glow the brightest.
the circuit is constant. This is the case of series combination As, power = Voltage  Current
of the devices in the circuit.
In this case, all the lamps have same voltage i.e., 60 V.
For lamp A , current = 3A Potential drop at R1 ,

 Power = 60  3 = 180 W V1 = I1R1 = 2  2 = 4 V
For lamp B, current = 4 A Potential drop at R5 ,
 Power = 60  4 = 240 W V5 = I5R5 = 2  2 = 4 V
For lamp C, current = 5 A Now, potential drop at R , V can be calculated as
 Power = 60  5 = 300 W V = V1 + V5 + V
For lamp D, current = 3 A  9 = 4 + 4 + V
 Power = 60  3 = 180 W  V = 1 V
As, the lamp C is having the maximum power, so it will I2 R2
glow the brightest.
(iv) Let R be the total resistance of the circuit. I3
Total current in the circuit, I = 3 + 4 + 5 + 3 = 15 A R3 I5 = I
Voltage, V = 60 V I = I1 R1
Using Ohm's law, V = IR I4 R4 R5

V 60
 R= = =4 I +–
I 15 K
23. In the given circuit, R 2 , R 3 and R4 are in parallel As R2 , R 3 and R4 are in parallel combination, so potential
combination. As, currents through R , R and R are 2 3 4
drop at all resistances will be same as 1 V.
different. So, their equivalent resistance R is
V2 = V3 = V4 = V = 1V
(i) 
Current through R2 ,
R2
2 V V = 1 = 1 A
I2 = 2 =
R3 R 2 R2 1
2 3 2 V V 1
A B Similarly, I = 3 = = = 0. 5 A
3
R1 R4 R5 R3 R3 2
+– V4 V 1
K and I4 = = = = 0.33 A
9V R4 R4 3
1 1 1 1
= + + 24. (i) A states that the electric current flowing through a
R R2 R3 R4 conductor directly proportional to the potential
1 1 1 6 + 3 + 2 11 difference applied across its ends provided the physical
= + + = = conditions such as temperature remains unchanged.
1 2 3 6 6
(ii) An ammeter is connected in series in a circuit.
6
 R =  (iii) Given, P = 100 W and time t = 1 min = 60 s.
11 As, energy E = Pt = 100  60 = 6000 J
Now, the given circuit can be redrawn as shown below
(iv) Given, a wire with resistance 5 .
2 6/11  2
A B Now, wire is converted into a ring as shown below
R1 R R5
9V K A B
+–
Now, R1 , R and R5 are in series combination. As, current
through R1 , R and R5 is same.
The equivalent circuit,
So, equivalent resistance of the whole circuit is
R = R1 + R + R5 A B
6 22 + 6 + 22 50
=2+ +2= = 
11 11 11
Now, total current flowing through the circuit, 2.5  2.5
V 9 99 Hence, Req = RAB = = 1.25W
I= = =  2A 2.5 + 2.5
R 50 50 25. Given, resistance of lamp (R1 ) = 20 
11 Resistance of conductor (R2 ) = 4 
Current through R1 and R5 will be same as these are in Potential difference of battery ( V) = 6 V
series combination and will be equal to the total current
(i) Total resistance,
flowing through the circuit.
R = R1 + R2 = 20 + 4 = 24 
 I = I1 = I5 = 2 A
(ii) Current through the circuit (ii) Resistance of bulb,

V 6 V
I = = = 0.25 A R= (Ohm’s law)
R 24 I
(iii) (a) Potential difference across electric lamp = IR1  R=
5
= 10 
= 0.25  20 = 5 V 500  10− 3
(b) Potential difference across conductor 1
(iii) Energy consumed in 2 hour
= IR2 = 0.25  4 = 1 V 2
(iv) Power of lamp = I2R1 2.5  2.5 1
E = P. t. = [2 hour = 2.5 hour]
= (0.25)2  20 1000 2
6.25
= 0.0625  20 = 1.25 W = = 0.00625 kWh
1000
26. (i) Power is given as, P = VI where V is the voltage and I is 28. (i) The electrical circuit in which some resistances are
the current. Power consumed is minimum when the connected in series combination and some in parallel
current passing is minimum. So, the resistors should be combination, this type of combination is called complex
connected in series. circuit.
(ii) Power of each bulb= 100 W (ii) Resistance in series is always greater than resistance in
Total power of 3 bulbs parallel. The slope of V-I graph gives resistance.
PB = 3 100 = 300 W Hence, line B denotes resistance in series combination
Energy consumed by 3 bulbs in a day, and line A denotes resistance in parallel combination.
EB = PB  t B (iii) Equivalent circuit diagram is
= 300W  5 h = 1. 5 kWh [ Qt B = 5 h] RS
1
Similarly, power of 2 fans, PF = 2  50 W = 100 W
Energy consumed by 2 fans, EF = PF  t F
= 100 W 10 h [ Qt F = 10 h]
= 1 kWh A B
Now, energy consumed by heater in a day

EH = PH  t H RS 2
1 1
= 1kWh  h [ P = 1 kWh, t = h] R = R + R = 2R
(i) H H
2 S1
RS2 = 2R + 2R = 4R
= 0. 5 kWh
Both of them are in parallel.
Total energy consumed in a day
E=E+E+E RS 2  RS 1 4
 R eq =
B F H = R
= (1. 5 + 1 + 0. 5) kWh = 3 kWh R S 1 + RS 2 3
Energy consumed in a month of 31 days (iv) When the equivalent resistance is less than the resistance
of least resistor. This is known as minimum effective
= E  31 = 93 kWh
resistance.
The cost of energy consumed
(v) In series combination, the value of current is same
= (` 3.60/kWh) × (93 kWh) through each resistor.
=` 334.80 So, it will not be affected at all.
27. (a) Power is defined as the rate at which electric energy is 29. (i) According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced in
dissipated or consumed in an electric circuit. a resistor is directly proportional to the square of current
P = VI = I2R = V2/R flowing through that resistor.
The SI unit of electric power is watt (W). (ii) Practical application of heating effect of current is
It is the power consumed by a device that carries 1 A of electric heater, electric iron etc.
current when operated at a potential difference of 1 V. (iii) Electrical energy is transformed into heat energy.
1W =1 volt  1 ampere =1 VA (iv) Given, resistance R = 25 ; current I = 7 A;
(b) Given, voltage rating, V = 5 V and current rating I= 500 mA Time t = 0.5 min = 0.5  60 = 30 s. Heat H = ?
(i) As, we know power of bulb We know that, Heat H = I2Rt
P = VI = 5  500  10−3 [QA H = (7)2  25  30 = 36750 J
1mA = 10−3 A]
= 3.68 104 J
= 2.5 W
So, the heat developed is 3.68 104 J.
= 2.5  10− 3 kW
(v) Given, Heat H = 200 J, Resistance, R = 5  (iii) (c) Electrical energy = Power × Time
Time t = 10 s, Potential difference V = ?  W = P  T = VIT
(iv) (b) Resistance of each resistor = 0.2 
We know that,
Total resistance in series RS = n  R = 200  0.2
Heat, H = I2Rt  RS = 40 
(v) (d) Resistor of 6  and 2  are in parallel.
 Current, I = H
Rt R R
 R P = R1 + R2
200 1 2
7= =2A 62
5 10 =
So, the potential difference across the resistor is 6+2
3
V = IR [by Ohm’s law] RP = 
2
= 2  5 = 10 V Equivalent circuit is shown below,
30. (i) (a) An applied potential V produces current I in the 3/2  6
resistors and R1 , R2 and R3 causing a potential drop
V1, V2 and V3 respectively, through each resistor.
Both of them are in series
Total potential, V = V1 + V2 + V3  3 + 6 
(ii) (a) In series combination of resistors, the current is same  R =eq  
2 
at every point of the circuit, i.e. the current through each 15
resistor is same.  Req = 
2
Chapter Test 8. Assertion Heater wire must have high resistance
and high melting point.
Reason If resistance is high, the electric conductivity
will be less.
1. Which of the following obeys Ohm’s law?
(a) Filament of a bulb (b) LED
9. Draw the V-I graph for ohmic and non-ohmic
(c) Nichrome (d) Transistor conductors.
2. What is the minimum resistance which can be made using 10. A wire of resistance 5  is bent in the form of a
five resistors each of 1/5 ? closed circle. Find the resistance between two
points at the ends of any diameter of the circle.
(a) 1/5  (b) 1/25  (c) 1/10  (d) 25 
3. Two resistors of resistance 2  and 4  when connectedtoa 11. Give two characteristics properties of copper wire
which makes it suitable for use as fuse wire.
battery will have
12. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity
(a) same current flowing through them when connected in parallel
 = 1.6  10−8 -m. What will be the length of its
(b) same current flowing through them when connected in series
(c) same potential difference across them when connected in series
wire to make its resistance 10  ? How much does
the resistance change, if diameter is doubled?
(d) different potential difference across them when connected in
parallel 13. Two conducting wires of same material and of equal
4. Two bulbs have the following ratings lengths and equal diameters are first connected in
series and then parallel in a circuit across the same
(i) 40 W, 220 V (ii) 20 W, 110 V
potential difference, what is the ratio of heat
The ratio of their resistances is produced in series and parallel combinations ?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 3 14. Compare the power used in 2  resistor in each of
5. At the time of short circuit, the electric current in the the following circuits (i) a 6 V battery in series with 1
circuit
 and resistors, (ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12
(a) varies continuously
 and 2  resistors.
(b) reduces substantially
(c) does not change Long Answer Type Questions
(d) increases heavily
15. Two metallic wires A and B are of same material
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs where length of wire A is l and wire B is 2l and radius
of wire A is r and wire B is 2r.
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-8) Each of these questions contains
(i) When both of them are connected in series,
two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Each of
find the ratio of total resistance in series
these questions also has four alternative choices, any one
combination with wire A .
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of
(ii) When both of them are connected in parallel,
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
Find the ratio of total resistance in parallel
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
combination with wire A.
of A. 16. (i) Two lamps rated 100 W, 220 V and 10 W, 220 V are
(c) A is true, but R is false. connected in parallel to 220 V supply. Calculate the
(d) A is false, but R is true. total current through the circuit.
6. Assertion At high temperatures, metal wires have a (ii) Two resistors X and Y of resistances 2  and
greater chance of short circuiting 3  respectively are first joined in parallel and
then in series. In each case, the supplied voltage is
Reason Both resistance and resistivity of a material vary
5 V.
with temperature.
(a) Draw circuit diagrams to show the combination
7. Assertion Incandescent bulb passes an electric current
of resistors in each case.
through a metal filament to produce heat.
(b) Calculate the voltage across the 3  resistor in
Reason The higher the wattage, the more energy is
the series combination of resistors.
consumed.
Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
Scan the code
6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d)
CHAP TER 6
Magnetic Effects
of Electric Current
In this Chapter...
 Magnetic Field
 Electric Motor
 Electromagnetic Induction
In 1820, Christian Oersted discovered that a compass needle

Properties of Magnetic Field Lines
get deflected when a current carrying metallic conductor is
placed nearby it. He concluded that the deflection of The magnetic field lines have the following properties
compass needle was due to the magnetic field produced by ◆
They originate from North pole of a magnet and end at its
the electric current. South pole, by convention.
Hence, it was deduced that electricity and magnetism are ◆
These lines are closed and continuous curves.
related to each other. ◆
They are crowded near the poles, where the magnetic field
is strong and separated far from the poles, where the
Magnetic Field magnetic field is weak.
◆
Field lines never intersect with each other. If they do, that
It is the space around a magnet in which its effect can be
would mean that there are two directions of the magnetic
experienced i.e. its force can be detected. It is a vector
field at the point of intersection, which is impossible.
quantity. The SI unit of magnetic field is Tesla.
Magnetic Lines of Force Magnetic Field due to a Current
They are the imaginary lines representing magnetic field Carrying Conductor
around a magnet. When iron fillings are kept near a magnet, When electric current flows through a metallic conductor, a
they get arranged in a pattern which represents the magnetic magnetic field is produced around it.
field lines.
Different magnetic field patterns are produced by current
carrying conductors of different shapes.
S N
Magnetic Field due to a Current through
a Straight Conductor
Magnetic field lines around a bar magnet
The magnetic field lines around a current carrying
A compass needle behaves as a small bar magnet whose one straight conductor are concentric circles whose centres lie
end points towards North and other end towards South. on the wire.
The magnitude of magnetic field B produced by a straight At every point on a current carrying circular loop, the
current carrying wire at a given point is magnetic field is in the form of concentric circles around it.
(i) Directly proportional to the current I passing through As we move away from it, the circles would become larger
the wire, and larger.
i.e. B I …(i) When we reach the centre of loop, the field appears to be a
straight line. The magnetic field produced by current
(ii) Inversely proportional to the distance r from the current carrying circular wire at a given point is
carrying conductor,
1 (i) Directly proportional to the amount of current (I )
i.e. B …(ii) passing through it,
r i.e. B I ...(i)
I
(ii) Directly proportional to the number of turns (N) of the
wire,
i.e. BN ...(ii)
This is because the current in each turn is in the same
direction. Therefore, the field due to these turns get
added up.
I
Thus, the strength of magnetic field produced by a
Concentric field lines around a straight conductor current carrying circular coil can be increased by
I ◆
increasing the number of turns of the coil.
By using Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get, B 
r
◆
increasing the current flowing through the coil.
If the direction of current in a straight wire is known, then the Magnetic Field due to a Current
direction of magnetic field produced by it is obtained by
Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule. in a Solenoid
A solenoid is defined as a coil consisting of a large number
Maxwell’s Right Hand Thumb Rule of circular turns of insulated copper wire. These turns are
It states that, if you hold the current carrying straight wire in wrapped closely to form a cylinder.
the grip of your right hand in such a way that the stretched
thumb points in the direction of current, then the direction of
the curl of the fingers will give the direction of the magnetic
field. This rule is also called Maxwell’s corkscrew rule.
S N
+ –
Magnetic field
Current Magnetic field lines of force due to a current
carrying solenoid
Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule
The field lines around a current carrying solenoid are
similar to that produced by a bar magnet. This means that a
Magnetic Field due to a Current current carrying solenoid behaves as if it has North pole and
through a Circular Loop South pole. The field lines inside the solenoid are parallel to
The magnetic field lines due to a circular coil are shown in the each other.
given figure. Thus, the strength of magnetic field is the same, i.e. uniform
at all points inside a solenoid.
Electromagnet
N
The strong magnetic field produced inside a solenoid can be
S
used to magnetise a piece of magnetic material like soft iron
when placed inside the coil. The magnet so formed is called
– electromagnet.
+
The magnetic effect remains only till the current is flowing
Magnetic field lines due to a through the solenoid.
current through a circular loop
An electromagnet is used in electric bells, electric Electric Motor

motors, telephone diaphragms, loudspeakers and for
sorting scrap metal. It is a rotating device used for converting electric energy into
mechanical energy.
Principle
It is based on the principle that when a rectangular coil is placed
in a magnetic field and current is passed through it, two equal and
– + K opposite forces act on the coil which rotate it continuously.
An electromagnet Construction
It consists of a rectangular coil, connected to a source of current
Force on a Current Carrying and a switch.
Conductor in a Magnetic Field The commutators R1 and R2 are fixed to the coil and pressed
tightly against the brushes X and Y.
When a current carrying conductor is placed in a
magnetic field, it experiences a force. The force acting is The function of commutator is to reverse the direction of current
due to interaction between magnetic field produced by flowing through the coil, after every half rotation. In an electric
the current carrying conductor and external magnetic motor, split rings act as commutator.
field in which the conductor is placed. Rectangular coil
The direction of force on the conductor depends on the B C
following factors
(i) Direction of current The direction of force on the
N S
conductor can be reversed by reversing the
direction of current.
A D
(ii) Direction of magnetic field The direction of force
on the conductor can be reversed by reversing the Permanent Split rings R1R2
magnet (R1 and R2) Y
direction of magnetic field by interchanging the Brushes
X
position of poles. (X and Y )
Force on the conductor is maximum when the direction Axle
of current is at right angles to the direction of magnetic K
field. + –
Fleming’s Left Hand Rule A simple electric motor

Working
The direction of force which acts on a current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field is given by Fleming’s
◆
Let coil ABCD be in horizontal position. When the key is
left hand rule. closed, the current flows in the coil ABCD through brush X and
flows back to the battery through the brush Y via ring R2 .
Field ◆
No force acts on arms BC and ADas they are parallel to magnetic
field. Arm AB experiences a force in downward direction and arm
Field CD experiences an equal force in upward direction.
Current ◆
The direction of force is obtained by applying Fleming’s left
Force
hand rule. This causes the coil to rotate in the anti-clockwise
direction.
Force ◆
When the rotating coil is in the vertical position, the brushes
or Current
motion lose contact with the rings and current stops flowing. But the
coil does not stop due to inertia of motion.
Fleming’s left hand rule ◆
When the coil rotates, the rings change their positions and
It states that, if the forefinger, thumb and middle come in contact with opposite brushes.
finger of left hand are stretched mutually perpendicular ◆
This reverses the direction of current through the coil but the
to each other, such that the forefinger points along direction of current on right hand side of the coil remains the
the direction of external magnetic field, middle same.
finger indicates the direction of current, then the ◆
So, the force on right hand side is always upwards and a force on
thumb points towards the direction of force acting on left hand side is always in downward direction. Thus, the coil
the conductor. continues to rotate in anti-clockwise direction.
The speed of rotation of the motor can be increased by Ways to Induce Current in a Circuit
◆
increasing the strength of the current in the coil.
There are different methods by which current can be
◆
increasing the number of turns in the coil.
induced in a circuit
◆
increasing the area of the coil.
◆
increasing the strength of magnetic field. (i) By Moving a Coil in a Magnetic Field Current can
be induced in coil either by moving it in a magnetic
Commercial Electric Motor field or by changing the magnetic field around it as
indicated by deflection in galvanometer needle.
It has the following components
◆
An electromagnet in the place of permanent magnet. Motion of coil Stationary
magnet
◆
A large number of turns of conducting wire in the current N S
Coil
carrying coil.
◆
A soft iron core on which the coil is wound. The combination
of soft iron core and coil is called armature. It enhances the
power of motor. G
◆
Electric motor is used in electric fans, refrigerators, mixers, Moving coil towards stationary magnet
washing machines, computers, MP3 players, etc. The induced current is found to be maximum when
the direction of motion of the coil is at right angle
Electromagnetic Induction to the magnetic field.
Production of an electric current in a closed circuit by a The direction of induced current can be reversed by
changing magnetic field is called an induced current. This reversing the direction of magnetic field. If the coil as
phenomenon is called electromagnetic induction. well as the magnet are stationary, then no current is
Direction of motion induced in the coil.
(ii) By Changing the Magnetic Field Around a Nearby
Coil N S Coil Consider two coils, where coil 1 is called as
A bar magnet primary coil and coil 2 as secondary coil. Primary coil
is connected to a battery.
G
Galvanometer Coil 1 Coil 2
A bar magnet is pushed inside a fixed current carrying coil
Fleming’s Right Hand Rule + –

The direction of induced current is given by Fleming’s right hand K
G
rule. It states that, if the forefinger, middle finger and thumb of the Set up of two stationary coils, where current is
right hand are stretched at right angles to each other, with the induced in coil 2 when current in coil 1 is changed
forefinger in the direction of the magnetic field and the thumb in
the direction of the motion of the wire, then the induced current in When the key (K) is closed, the current in primary coil
the wire is in the direction of the middle finger. takes a little time to rise from zero to a maximum
value. This causes a momentary change in the
Galvanometer
magnetic field around this coil. This induces a
momentary current in the secondary coil.
It is an instrument thatcan detect the presence of current in a
circuit. The pointer remains atzero (the centre of the scale) for The same happens in the reverse direction when the
zero currentflowing through it. key (K ) is opened. Current is induced in coil 2 when
Depending upon the direction of current, it deflects either to current in coil 1 is changed which is indicated by the
the left or to the right of the zero mark. deflection in galvanometer needle.
Chapter
Practice
PART 1 (a) directly above the wire
(b) directly below the wire
Objective Questions (c) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the
North side of the wire
◆ Multiple Choice Questions (d) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the
South side of the wire
1. Which of the following is the property of magnetic 5. Four students A, B, C and D plotted the sketch of
field lines ? the patterns of magnetic field lines representing the
(a) Magnetic field lines are closed and continuous curves magnetic field around a current carrying straight
(b) Magnetic field lines never intersect with each other wire as shown. Whose sketch is correctly
(c) Magnetic field lines are crowded near the poles represented?
(d) All of the above –A+ –A+
2. Which of the following is the correct representation

– –
of uniform magnetic field?
(a) N S (b) S N K K
Student A Student B
–A+ –A+
(c) N
– –
N (d) N S
K K
3. Which of the following correctly describes the
Student C Student D
magnetic field near a long straight wire? (NCERT) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the
wire
6. A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the
plane of paper carries a current when the key is ON.
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire
The current as seen from points A and B (in the plane
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the
wire
of paper and on the axis of the coil) is anti-clockwise
and clockwise, respectively.
(d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on the
wire The magnetic field lines point from B to A.
The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the face
4. A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the
close to (NCERT Exemplar)
plane of the paper from East to West as shown in
figure. The direction of the magnetic field at a point
will be North to South A B
N
Variable
resistance
–
W E
S
W E (NCERT) + –
A
K
(a) B (a) forces both pointing into the plane of paper

(b) A (b) forces both pointing out of the plane of paper
(c) A, if the current is small and B, if the current is large (c) forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the
(d) B, if the current is small and A, if the current is large plane of paper, respectively
(d) force pointing opposite and along the direction of
7. Which of the following properties of a proton can the uniform magnetic field, respectively
change when it moves freely in a magnetic field?
(a) Mass (b) Speed (NCERT) 12. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated
(c) Velocity (d) Momentum near a long straight wire such that the wire is
parallel to one of the sides of the loop and is in
8. A positively charged particle (-particle) projected the plane of the loop. If a steady current i is
towards West is deflected towards North by a created in wire as shown in figure below, then
magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is the loop will
(NCERT) i
(a) towards South (b) towards East
(c) downwards (d) upwards i
9. The strength of magnetic field inside a long current

carrying straight solenoid is (a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
(a) more at the ends than at the centre (b) move towards the wire
(b) minimum in the middle (c) move away from the wire or towards right
(c) same at all point (d) remain stationary
(d) found to increase from one end to the other
13. The direction of the induced electric current in a
10. Match the items in Column I with the items in conductor, when placed in a varying magnetic
Column II and choose the correct codes given below. field can be assessed by (CBSE 2020)
Column I Column II (a) Maxwell’s right hand-thumb rule
A. SI unit of magnetic field (i) Small bar magnet that rotates (b) Ohm’s law
(c) Fleming’s left hand rule
B. Magnetic field inside (ii) Tesla
solenoid (d) Fleming’s right hand rule
C. Compass needle (iii) Temporary magnet 14. In the arrangement shown in figure below, there
are two coils wound on a non-conducting
D. Solenoid (iv) Uniform value
cylindrical rod. Initially, the key is not inserted.
Codes Then, the key is inserted and later removed.
A B C D Then, (NCERT Exemplar)
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) Coil I Coil II
(c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
11. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of
+ –
paper pointing from left to right as shown in the e
figure. In the field, an electron and a proton move (a) The deflection in the galvanometer remains zero
as throughout.
shown in the figure. The electron and the proton (b) There is a momentary deflection in the
experience (NCERT Exemplar) galvanometer only when the key is removed.
Proton
(c) There are momentary galvanometer deflections that
die out shortly; the deflections are in the same
Uniform
magnetic direction.
field (d) The galvanometer shows momentary deflections in
opposite directions.
Electron
15. Match the terms of Column I with Column II and 19. Assertion The magnetic field produced by a current
choose the correct option from the codes given below. carrying solenoid is independent of its length and
Column I Column II
cross-sectional area.
A. Direction of force (i) Direction of magnetic Reason The magnetic field inside the solenoid has
force on a North pole variable value.
B. Direction of induced (ii) Fleming’s left hand rule 20. Assertion Production of an electric current in a
current closed circuit by a changing electric field is called
C. Direction of magnetic (iii) Maxwell’s right hand an induced current.
field produced by thumb rule
straight current
Reason The direction of induced current is given
carrying conductor by Fleming’s right hand rule.
D. Direction of magnetic (iv) Fleming’s right hand
field lines at a point in rule
◆Case Based MCQs
a magnet 21. Read the following and answer the questions from
Codes
A B CD A solenoid is a long helical coil of wire through
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) which a current is running in order to create a
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) magnetic field.
(c) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
The magnetic field of a solenoid is the superposition
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
of the fields due to the current through each coil. It
is nearly uniform inside the solenoid and close to
◆ Assertion-Reasoning MCQs
zero outside and is similar to the field of a bar
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) For given questions two magnet.
statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the
The following graph is obtained by a researcher,
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to
while doing an experiment to see the variation of the
these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as magnetic field with respect to the current in the
given below. solenoid. The unit of magnetic field as given in the
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct graph attached is in (mT) and the current is given
explanation of A. in (A).
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 18
explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. 16
(d) A is false, but R is true. 14
Magnetic field B (mT)
16. Assertion The magnetic field is stronger at a point 12

which is nearer to the conductor and goes 10
on decreasing on moving away from the conductor. 8
Reason The magnetic field B produced by a straight 6
current carrying wire is inversely proportional to 4
the distance from the wire.
2
17. Assertion A current carrying conductor experiences 0
a force in a magnetic field. 0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2
Current (A)
Reason The force acting on a current carrying
conductor in a magnetic field is due to interaction (CBSE Sample Paper)
between magnetic field produced by the conductor (i) What type of energy conversion is observed in a
and external magnetic field. linear solenoid?
18. Assertion If an electron, moving vertically from outer (a) Mechanical to magnetic
space, enters the earth’s magnetic field, then it gets (b) Electrical to magnetic
deflected towards West. (c) Electrical to mechanical
Reason Electron has negative charge. (d) Magnetic to mechanical
(ii) What will happen, if a soft iron bar is placed inside the (i) The direction of rotation of the coil, when viewed
solenoid? from the front by the student is
(a) A high amount of electric charge flows in the bar (a) clockwise
resulting in short-circuit. (b) anti clockwise
(b) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current (c) First half clockwise and other half anti-clockwise
in the circuit (d) First half anti-clockwise and other half clockwise
(c) The bar will be magnetised permanently (ii) The student is still testing on the feasibility of using
(d) The bar will not be affected by any means metal strips in the model. His observations are given
(iii) The magnetic field lines produced inside the solenoid below.
are similar to that of I. As the current reverses in the coil for every half
(a) a bar magnet turn, the coil rotates in one direction.
(b) a straight current carrying conductor II. The speed of rotation of the motor is increased, if
(c) a circular current carrying loop the value of current is increased.
(d) electromagnet of any shape III. The direction of force, acting on the coil is given by
Fleming’s left hand rule.
(iv) After analysing the graph, a student writes the following IV. The coil continues its rotation in
statements. magnetic field even if there is no current in
I. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is circuit.
inversely proportional to the current. The correct observations made by him are
II. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is (a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
directly proportional to the current. (c) I, II and III (d) II and III
III. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is (iii) Commercial electric motors do not use
directly proportional to square of the current.
(a) an electromagnet to rotate the armature.
IV. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is (b) effectively large number of turns of conducing
independent of the current. wire in the current carrying coil
Which of the following would be the correct statement(s). (c) a permanent magnet to rotate the armature
(a) Only IV (b) I, III and IV (d) a soft iron core on which the coil is wound
(c) Both I and II (d) Only II
(iv) Which one of the following is true about electric
(v) From the graph, deduce which of the following motor?
statements is correct? (a) It converts electrical energy into mechanical
(a) For a current of 0.8 A, the magnetic field is 13 mT. energy
(b) For larger currents, the magnetic field increases (b) It converts mechanical energy into electrical
non-linearly. energy
(c) For a current of 0.8 A, the magnetic field is 1.3 mT. (c) It converts magnetic energy into electric energy
(d) There is not enough information to find the magnetic (d) It converts electric energy into magnetic energy
field corresponding to 0.8 A current.
(v) The direction of magnetic field at a place is coming
22. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) out of the paper. A wire whose direction of current
to (v) given below flow is as shown in the figure is placed there. In
A student wants to study the working of electric motor. which direction is the force due to the magnetic
He used a model of DC motor for electromagnetism as field experienced byNthe wire?
shown in figure.
i
45°
Metal S N 45°
strips W E
O
Rheostat
–+ .
S
K (a) North-West direction
He fixed the two ends of the coil to a pair of curved (b) North direction
elastic metal strips. The metal strips are connected to (c) South-West direction
the power supply with a rheostat. (d) South-East direction
PART 2 (i) Vertically in North-South plane and an observer
looking it from East sees the current to flow in
anti-clockwise direction.
Subjective Questions (ii) Vertically in East-West plane and an observer looking it
from South sees the current to flow in anti-clockwise
◆ Short Answer Type Questions direction.
(iii) Horizontally and an observer looking at it from below
1. List the properties of magnetic lines of force. Why sees current to flow in clockwise direction.
do two magnetic lines of force not intersect with
each other? (NCERT)
8. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can
you determine the North and South poles of a
2. The adjoining diagram shows two current carrying solenoid using a bar magnet?
parallel straight conductors carrying Explain. (NCERT)
same current. Copy the diagram and draw 9. Give reasons for the following
the pattern of the magnetic field lines (i) There is either a convergence or a divergence of
around them showing their directions. X magnetic field lines near the ends of a current
What is the magnitude of magnetic field at carrying straight solenoid.
a point X which is equidistant from the (ii) The current carrying solenoid when suspended freely
conductors? Give justification for your rests along a particular direction.
answer. (CBSE 2019) (iii) The strength of magnetic field is uniform inside a
3. How will the strength of the magnetic field change solenoid. (CBSE 2020)
when the point where magnetic field is to be 10. When is the force experienced by a current
determined is moved away from the straight wire carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
carrying constant current? Justify your answer. largest? Which rule determines the direction of
(CBSE 2019) force on current carrying conductor?
4. AB is a current carrying conductor in the plane of 11. A magnetic field is non-uniform but its direction is
the paper as shown in figure. What are the constant (East to West) is set-up in a chamber. A
directions of magnetic fields produced by it at charged particle enters the chamber and travels
points P and Q? undeflected along a straight path with constant
A
P speed.
r1
What do you say about the initial velocity of the
particle?
I
12. An -particle (positive charge) enters, a uniform
r2 magnetic field at right angles to it as shown below.
Q
B
Given r1 > r2 , where will the strength of the

magnetic field be larger? (NCERT Exemplar) -particle Magnetic
field
5. A horizontal power line carries a current from East
to West direction. What is the direction of the
magnetic field due to the current in the power
In which direction -particle moves, if the direction
line at a point above and at a point below the power
of magnetic field gets reversed?
line?
6. A circular loop carrying a current is placed on a 13. State whether an -particle will experience any
force in a magnetic field, if (-particles are
horizontal surface (current is in the clockwise
positively charged particles).
direction).
(i) It is placed in the field at rest.
What is the direction of its magnetic field at
(ii) It moves in the magnetic field parallel to field
the centre? What is the direction of the
lines.
magnetic field at a point outside the surface of the
loop? (iii) It moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to
field lines.
7. Find the direction of magnetic field due to a Justify your answer in each case.
current carrying circular coil held
14. The electron enters in uniform magnetic field What are the two observations that can be noted
with three different ways as shown below. from the galvanometer reading?
e– 20. (i) A coil of insulated wire is connected to a
B e–
B galvanometer. What would be observed if a
B
strong bar magnet with its south pole towards
e– one face of the coil is
(a)
(a) moved quickly towards it?
(b) (c) (b) moved quickly away from it?
Identify the case in which the force on electron will (c) held stationary near it?
be maximum and minimum, respectively. Give (ii) Name the phenomenon involved.
reasons for your answer. Find the direction of (CBSE 2020, NCERT)
maximum force acting on electron. ◆ Long Answer Type Questions
15. The figure shows the split ring commutator and 21. Why does a magnetic compass needle pointing
the two carbon brushes in their respective positions. North and South in the absence of a nearby
Carbon brush
magnet get deflected when a bar magnet or a
current carrying loop is brought near it? Describe
some salient features of magnetic lines of field
concept. (NCERT Exemplar)
Split ring
commutator
22. PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of
+– the paper as shown in the figure below.
P
What can you say about carbon brush and split ring
commutator? R
r1
16. Sketch the schematic diagram of electric motor. What
is the role of split rings in an electric motor? (NCERT)
S
17. (i) In what ways the speed to rotation of an electric r2
motor is increased?
(ii) Name some devices in which electric motors are Q
used. (NCERT) (i) Find the directions of the magnetic fields

18. A circular metallic loop is kept above the wire AB as produced by it at points R and S.
shown below. (ii) Given r1  r2 , where will the strength of the
magnetic field be larger? Give reasons.
(iii) If the polarity of the battery connected to the
A B
wire is reversed, how would the direction of the
magnetic field be changed?
What is the direction of induced current produced in
(iv) Explain the rule that is used to find the direction
the loop, if the current flowing in the straight wire
of the magnetic field for a straight current
(i) is steady, i.e. does not vary? carrying conductor. (CBSE Sample Paper)
(ii) is increasing in magnitude?
23. What is solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic
Justify your answer in each case. field lines of (i) a current carrying solenoid and
19. In the arrangement shown in figure there are two (ii) a bar magnet.
coils wound on a non-conducting cylindrical rod. List two distinguishing features between the two
Initially the key is not inserted in the circuit. Later fields. (CBSE Delhi, 2019)
the key is inserted and then removed shortly after.
Coil I Coil II
24. (i) State Fleming’s left hand rule.
(ii) Write the principle of working of an electric
motor.
(iii) Explain the function of the following parts of
an electric motor.
K (a) Armature (b) Brushes
G (c) Split ring (CBSE 2018, NCERT)
25. (i) What is meant by electromagnetic induction? Name (i) What type of material is placed on white paper?
one device which works on the principle of (ii) Why do the iron fillings arrange in such a
electromagnetic induction. pattern?
(ii) Describe three different ways to produce induced (iii) What should we call to the region in which
current in a coil of wire. magnetic force can be detected?
◆ Case Based Questions (iv) What do the lines on pattern demonstrate?
(v) Does degree of closeness of the field lines relate
26. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to something?
(v) given below 28. Read the following and answer the questions
A bar magnet is moved in and out ofa coil, i.e. from (i) to (v) given below
connected to a sensitive centre zero meter as shown in Jay performs an experiment by using two
the figure given below. different coils of copper wire having different
number of turns.
He inserted them over a non conducting
cylindrical roll as shown.
Coil 1 Coil 2
Sensitive
centre zero
N
meter + –
Coil
G
Bar magnet K
Setup of two stationary coils
Then he connects the coil-1, having large

The meter needle swings to the left when the magnet is number of turns in series with a battery and plug
moving towards the coil. key and other coil-2 with galvanometer. As, he
(i) How the needle behaves when the bar magnet is at rest? plug the key, he observes some deflection in
(ii) How the needle behaves when the bar magnet is at rest galvanometer.
and the coil is moving away from the magnet? (i) Why there is deflection in the galvanometer
(iii) In which condition, the meter needle swings to the left? when a key is inserted in the circuit ?
(iv) Which phenomenon is involved in this? (ii) When there is flow of induced current through a
coil ?
(v) Give two applications based on the given phenomenon.
(iii) Jay disconnected coil-1 from the battery and
27. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to noted the following observation.
(v) given below ‘‘The needle momentarily moves but to the
A child performs an activity with a special material. He opposite direction’’. Justify the statement.
fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using (iv) When will the induced current is found to be
some adhesive material and places that material in the highest?
centre of it. (v) Y
White paper
N S
Iron fillings
V
X
Material
G
A conducting rod XY moves across two magnets

as shown and the needle in galvanometer gets
deflected momentarily. What is the name of this
Then he sprinkles some iron fillings uniformly around it physical phenomenon?
with a salt-sprinkler and taps the board gently.
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions So, both electron and proton has current in same direction.
Therefore, the forces acting on it are given by Fleming’s
1. (d) Properties of magnetic field lines are as following
left hand rule and they are pointing into the plane of the paper.
(a) Magnetic field lines are closed and continuous curves.
12. (b) The force on the left side of loop is attractive because the
(b) Magnetic field lines never intersect with each other.
direction of current in wire and loop is same, while on right
(c) Magnetic field lines are crowded near the poles. side of loop, force is repulsive.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
The force on perpendicular sides is zero. Hence, the
2. (a) In a uniform magnetic field, the magnetic field lines of attractive force is greater than repulsive force, so, the loop
force are parallel and equidistant from each other. will move towards the wire.
The correct representation of uniform magnetic field is 13. (d) The direction of the induced electric current in a
shown below. conductor, when placed in a varying magnetic field can be
assessed by Fleming’s right-hand rule.
N S
14. (d) When key is inserted and removed, then the magnetic
field lines pass through second coil increase and decrease in
3. (d) The magnetic field lines due to a straight current two cases respectively.
carrying wire are concentric circles with centre on the wire. Therefore, the direction of current in two cases is in
4. (b) According to right hand thumb rule, when conductor is opposite directions and the galvanometer shows momentary
held in right hand, keeping thumb from East to West. The deflections in opposite directions.
curve of the finger will be from North to South at a point 15. (a) The correct match for the given term is
lying directly below the wire.
(A) –(ii) The direction of force on a current carrying is given
5. (d) The magnetic field lines around a straight current by Fleming’s left hand rule.
carrying conductor are concentric circles and the direction
(B) –(iv) The direction of induced current is given by
of magnetic field is given by right hand thumb rule.
Fleming’s right hand rule.
6. (b) The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the face close to
(C) –(iii) The direction of magnetic field produced by a
A, because the magnetic field lines enter in loop from B and
come out from A. straight current carrying conductor is given by Maxwell’s
right hand thumb rule.
Also, as a matter of fact magnetic lines come out of the
(D) –(i) The direction of magnetic field lines at a point in a
N-pole of magnet. Therefore, face close to A represents
magnet is the direction of magnetic force on a North pole.
N-pole. The currents in A and B are same.
16. (a) The magnitude of magnetic field is
7. (d) Proton isa charged particle. When it moves in a
magnetic field, a magnetic force is applied due to its (i) directly proportional to the current I passing through
velocity and hence the momentum changes. the wire.
8. (d) The positively charged particle is moving towards West, (ii) inversely proportional to the distance r from the wire.
i.e. the direction of current is towards West (current flows in The magnetic field is stronger at a point which is nearer to the
the direction of the motion of positive charge). conductor and goes on decreasing on moving away from the
conductor.
The particle is deflected towards North, so the direction of
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
force is towards North.
17. (b) When a current carrying conductor is placed in a
Thus, from Fleming’s left hand rule, the direction of
magnetic field, it experiences a force except when it is
magnetic field is in upward direction.
placed parallel to the magnetic field. The force acting
9. (c) The strength of magnetic field inside a long current on a current carrying conductor depends on magnetic field
carrying straight solenoid is same at all points. produced by the current carrying conductor and external
Therefore, correct option is (c). magnetic field.
10. The correct match for the given items is Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
A– (ii) The SI unit of magnetic field is Tesla (T). 18. (b) The Earth’s magnetic field is towards North and velocity
B– (iv) The magnetic field inside solenoid has a uniform value. of electron is downwards. By applying, Fleming’s left hand
C– (i) A compass needle is a small bar magnet that can rotate. rule, the direction of force is towards West. Also, electron
D– (iii), Solenoid is a temporary magnet. has a negative charge.
11. (a) In the given figure, the proton and electron are moving Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
in opposite direction to each other and in perpendicular to 19. (c) The magnetic field is independent of length and area of
the direction of magnetic field. Now, we know that the solenoid, it only depends on the number of turns and current
direction of current is taken opposite to the direction of flowing through the solenoid. It is uniform inside the solenoid.
motion of electron. A is true but R is false.
20. (d) When a closed circuit is placed in a varying magnetic Subjective Questions
field, an electric current is produced in it which is known as 1. The properties of magnetic field lines are
induced current. (i) They originate from North pole of a magnet and end at
The direction of induced current is given by Fleming’s right its South pole.
hand rule. (ii) They form closed and continuous curves.
 A is false but R is true. (iii) They never intersect each other.
21. (i) (c)A linear solenoid is an electromagnetic device that (iv) They are uniform inside the magnet.
converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. If two magnetic field lines intersect each other, then at the
(ii) (b) When a soft iron bar is placed inside the solenoid, it point of intersection, there will be two directions of
will magnetise the iron bar as long as there is current in magnetic field lines, which is not possible. Hence, the
the circuit. Hence, the strength of the magnetic field magnetic field lines never intersect with each other.
inside the solenoid will also increase. 2. Magnetic field lines due to parallel current carrying
(iii) (a) The magnetic field lines produced inside the solenoid conductors are shown in figure.
are similar to that produced by a bar magnet. The field Magnetic field at X will be zero as both conductors are equal
lines inside the solenoid are parallel to each other. The in magnitude and are opposite in direction.
magnetic field lines due to a current carrying solenoid
and bar magnet are shown below
X
S N S N
+–
Field lines produced by a Field lines produced by 3. The strength of the magnetic field is inversely proportional
current carrying solenoid a bar magnet 1
to the distance i.e. B  .
r
(iv) (d) The given magnetic field versus current graph is
linear. It is clear that magnetic field increases with As, the point where magnetic field is to be determined is
increase in current. Hence, the magnetic field produced moved away from the straight wire carrying constant
by the solenoid is directly proportional to the current. current, the magnetic field strength decreases.
(v) (a) From graph, when current = 0.8 A, the magnetic field 4. According to the right hand thumb rule, magnetic field at P
is 13 mT. is directed into the plane of paper and at Q, it is out of the
plane of paper. The strength of the magnetic field at Q will
Upto current of 1.0 mA, the magnetic field increases 1
be larger as strength of the field  .
linearly with current.
r (distance)
For larger values of current (>1A), the graph does not
depict any information. Here, r1  r2
22. (i) (b) The direction of rotation of the coil, when viewed  B1  B2 i.e. B2 has larger field.
from the front is anti-clockwise. 5. According to right hand thumb rule,
(ii) (c) Observations (I), (II) and (III) are correct while (IV) Power line N
can be corrected as, when there is no current in the coil,
it will stop rotating because force is produced only when W E
there is flowing current in coil.
(iii) (c) Commercial electric motors do not use permanent S
magnet to rotate the armature because permanent
magnets are weak and do not produce strong magnetic (i) The direction of magnetic field at a point above the
field in the region. power line is from South to North.
(iv) (a) Electric motor isa device which converts electrical (ii) The direction of magnetic field at a point below the
energy into mechanical energy. power line is from North to South.
6. The magnetic field lines are concentric circles at every point
(v) (d) By applying, Fleming’s left hand rule, the direction of
on a current carrying circular loop.
force experienced by wire due to magnetic field is
South-East direction. The direction of magnetic field is determined by right hand
thumb rule. At the centre of the circular loop, the magnetic
field lines are straight and points towards North.
The direction of magnetic field lines at the point outside the particle enters East to West or West to East as shown
surface of the loop is shown below. below.
Circular loop B B
carrying current
q q
Magnetic
field lines
Magnetic
12. Here, the force acting on the -particle is directed
field lines
(anti-clockwise) (clockwise)
perpendicular to the plane of paper in inward direction by
Fleming’s left hand rule. If the direction of magnetic field
+ – Key gets reversed then the force will also act in opposite
()
direction of -particle i.e. the force experienced by
Battery
-particle is now in outward direction to the plane of
7. (i) When the coil is kept in the North-South plane and the paper.
current is flowing in the anti-clockwise through the loop, 13. (i) No, it will not experience any force. As, magnetic field
then the magnetic field is in the East to West direction. exerts force on a moving charged particle only.
(ii) When the coil is in vertically East-West plane and current (ii) No, it will not experience any force because magnetic
through the coil is in anti-clockwise direction, then the field exerts a force in perpendicular direction to
magnetic field is in the South to North direction. motion of the particle.
(iii) When a circular coil carrying current is placed horizontally (iii) Yes, it will experience a force in a direction
and the direction of the current is clockwise, then the perpendicular to the direction of its own motion and
direction of the field for the observer positioned below the the direction of magnetic field can be determined by
coil is in the downward direction. Fleming’s left hand rule.
8. A solenoid behaves like a magnet when electric current passes 14. Force on electron is maximum in case (a), because here
through it. the direction of motion of electron is perpendicular to the
One end of a solenoid behaves as a North pole and the other direction of magnetic field B.
end behaves as a South pole. We can use a bar magnet to Similarly, the force on electron is minimum in case (c)
determine the North and South poles of a current carrying because, in this case the direction of motion of electron is
solenoid by using the property, i.e. like poles repel and unlike along the direction of magnetic field B, as electron is
poles attract each other. moving along B.
The end of solenoid which attracts North pole of a bar magnet Hence, the direction of maximum force acting on electron
is magnetic South pole of the solenoid. The end of solenoid is perpendicular to the plane of paper and directed into it.
which repels the North pole of a bar magnet is the magnetic
15. When the gaps of the split ring commutator are aligned
North pole of the solenoid.
with the carbon brushes, then contacts are broken and the
9. (i) The magnetic field lines are crowded (convergent) near the current is temporarily cut-off.
poles of solenoid. Hence, the magnetic field is strong and
However, the coil keeps on rotating in the same direction
divergent, where the magnetic field is weak.
due to its inertia until the split ring commutator and the
(ii) A freely suspended current carrying solenoid always points carbon brushes are in contact again.
in the North-South direction even in the absence of any
16. The schematic diagram of electric motor is shown below,
other magnet. Because the earth itself behaves as a magnet
or solenoid to point always in a particular direction. Rotating of coil
(Clockwise) Rectangular coil
(iii) The field lines around a current carrying solenoid are
similar to field lines of a bar magnet. So, inside the solenoid B C
field lines are parallel to each other and the strength of
magnetic field is same i.e. uniform at all points inside a
solenoid. N S
10. The force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed
in a magnetic field is the largest, when conductor is kept A D
perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. Permanent Split rings R1 R2
Fleming’s left hand rule determines the direction of force ona magnet (R1 and R2) Y
current carrying conductor. It states that, if the forefinger X Brushes
(X and Y )
(magnetic field), middle finger (current and thumb are
stretched mutually, then the direction of force acting on Shaft Axle
conductor is given by thumb. K
+ –
11. If a charged particle moves parallel or anti-parallel to the
magnetic field, no magnetic force will act on it and remains
Split rings act as commutator and its function is to reverse
undeflected. So, in the given condition either the charged
the direction of current flowing through the coil.
17. (i) The speed of rotation of the motor can be increased by (iii) If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current will
◆
increasing the strength of the current in the coil. be going from top to bottom in the wire and the magnetic
◆
increasing the number of turns in the coil. field lines will now be in the clockwise direction on the
plane, which is perpendicular to the wire carrying
◆
increasing the area of the coil.
current.
◆
increasing the strength of magnetic field.
(iv) Maxwell's right hand thumb rule is used to find the
(ii) Electric motor is used in electric fans, refrigerators, direction of the magnetic field for a straight current
mixers, washing machine, computers, MP3 player, etc. carrying conductor.
18. (i) No induced current will be produced in the loop as the This law states that, if you hold the current carrying straight
constant current flowing in the straight wire produces a wire in the grip of your right hand in such a way that the
constant magnetic field. Hence, no induced current is stretched thumb points in the direction of current, then the
produced in the loop. direction of the curl of the fingers will give the direction of
(ii) Since, current in the straight wire is changing, hence the magnetic field.
induced current will be produced in it. According to
Fleming’s right hand rule, the current flowing in the
loop will be in clockwise direction.
19. The observation that can be noted from the galvanometer
reading are Magnetic field
(i) There are momentary galvanometer deflections that die Current
out shortly.
(ii) The deflections are in opposite directions. 23. A solenoid is defined as a coil consisting of a large number of
circular turns of insulated copper wire. These turns are
20. (i) (a) Galvanometer gets deflection in one direction.
wrapped closely to form a cylinder.
(b) Galvanometer gets deflection in opposite direction of
the first one.
(c) Galvanometer shows no deflection.
(ii) Phenomenon involved is electromagnetic induction.
S N
21. When a magnetic compass needle pointing North and
South in the absence of a nearly magnet or a current loop, +–
K
it is acting upon by the earth’s magnetic field only. But in
the presence of a magnet or a current loop (which also has
a magnetic field) the earth’s magnetic field near the (i) Magnetic field lines of force due to a
compass is modified and the needle is deflected from current carrying solenoid
North and South directions.
The salient features of magnetic field lines are
(i) A magnetic field line is directed from North-pole to
South-pole outside the magnet. S N
(ii) A magnetic field line is a closed and continuous curve.

(iii) The magnetic field lines never intersect each other,
because if two lines meet, it means that force is acting (ii) Field lines around a bar magnet
in two directions at that point which is not possible. Distinguishing features are as follow
(iv) Closer the field lines, stronger is the magnetic field ◆
Magnetic field outside the solenoid is negligible as
and vice-versa is also true.
compared to the bar magnet.
(v) Magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, those ◆
Magnetic field of solenoid can be varied as per our
represent a uniform magnetic field.
requirement just by changing current or core of
22. (i) According to right hand thumb rule, the magnetic field solenoid but in bar magnet it is fixed.
produced by PQ at point R is into the plane of the paper
and at point S is out of the plane of paper. 24. (i) Fleming’s left hand rule states that, if the forefinger,
thumb and middle finger of left hand are stretched
(ii) Here, r1 r2
mutually perpendicular to each other, such that the
The magnetic field will be larger at point S as compared
forefinger points along the direction of external magnetic
to that at point R.
field, middle finger indicates the direction of current,
This is because the magnetic field produced by a then the thumb points towards the direction of force
straight current-carrying conductor is inversely
acting on the conductor.
proportional to the distance from the wire. So, the
magnetic field will be larger at the point which is (ii) Electric motor is based on the principle that, when a
nearer to the conductor. rectangular coil is placed in a magnetic field and current
As, point S is nearer to the conductor as compared to is passed through it, two equal and opposite forces act on
point R. So, field at S > field at R. the coil which rotate it continuously.
(iii) (a) Armature It is a coil wound over a soft iron core. (v) Electric generators, transformers etc., are the applications
It rotates in magnetic field, when a current flows of electromagnetic induction.
through it. 27. (i) Bar magnet is placed on white paper which attracts the
(b) Brushes They provide a sliding contact and sprinkled iron fillings.
facilitate current through armature while it (ii) The bar magnet exerts its influence in the region
rotates in field. surrounding it. Therefore, the iron fillings experience a
(c) Split ring It ensures unidirectional current force and this force makes iron fillings to arrange in a
through armature as it rotates in field. pattern.
(iii) The region surrounding a magnet, in which the force of the
25. (i) An electric current produced in a closed circuit by a magnet can be detected, is said to have a magnetic field.
changing magnetic field is called an induced current.
(iv) The iron fillings arrange themselves in a particular
This phenomenon is called electromagnetic induction.
alignment that are called magnetic field lines. These field
An electric generator works on the basis of
lines represent the region in which force of the magnet
electromagnetic induction. can be detected.
(ii) Three different ways to produce induced current in a
(v) The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the
coil of wire are as following
degree of closeness of the field lines. The field is stronger,
(a) If a magnetic field is changed around a coil, then as the force acting on the pole of the magnet is greater,
an induced current is set up in it. It can be done where the field lines are crowded.
by taking a bar magnet and bringing it closer to 28. (i) As the current in first coil changes, the magnetic field
the coil or taking it away from the coil. associated with it also changes. Hence, the current is
(b) If a coil is moved in a magnetic field, then induced in coil-2.
an induced current is set up in the coil. (ii) By Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, the
(c) By changing the magnitude of current flowing induced current flows in a coil only when there is a change
through another coil kept close to the coil. in the magnetic field within the coil.
26. (i) Since, the magnet is at rest, so no current is induced in (iii) A current carrying coil has a magnetic field just like bar
the coil. magnet. In experiment, if coil-1 is disconnected from
(ii) Since, the bar magnet is at rest and the coil is moving battery, then the needle momentarily moves, but to the
away from the magnet, needle of the galvanometer coil opposite side. It means the current flows in the opposite
swing towards right. direction in coil-2.
(iii) When the magnet will move towards the coil, the (iv) The induced current is found to be highest when the
meter needle swings to the left. direction of motion of the coil is at right angles to the
magnetic field.
(iv) The phenomenon involved in this is electromagnetic
induction (EMI). In this phenomenon, current is (v) The phenomenon associated with this is electromagnetic
induced in the circuit by changing the magnetic field. induction.
Chapter Test (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
of A.
Multiple Choice Questions (c) A is true, but R is false.
1. Which of the following is the correct representation of (d) A is false, but R is true.
magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet? 6. Assertion When current passes through a solenoid,
N N N
N then it tends to contract.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Reason The current flowing through two parallel wires
in the same direction gives rise to force of attraction on
S S S S each other.
2. Choose the incorrect statement from the following 7. Assertion Galvanometer is used to measure polarity.
regarding magnetic lines of field. Reason Galvanometer is an instrument which is used to
detect current in any circuit.
(a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the
direction in which the North pole of a magnetic compass 8. Assertion A pump operated by electric motor starts
needle points. pumping liquid.
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves. Reason Motor converts mechanical energy to electrical
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they energy.
represent zero field strength.
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree Short Answer Type Questions
of closeness of the field lines. 9. What are magnetic field lines? Justify the following
3. The magnetic field at a distance r from a long wire statements.
carrying current I is 0.4 T. The value of magnetic field (i) Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other.
at a distance 2r is (ii) Magnetic field lines are closed curves.
(a) 0.2 T (b) 0.1 T (c) 0.15 T (d) 1 T
10. List some methods of producing magnetic fields.
4. A coil, carrying a current is arranged within a magnetic
11. It is established that an electric current through a
field. The coil experiences forces that can make it move.
conductor produces a magnetic field around it. Is there
Y a similar magnetic field produced around a thin beam
Current of moving (i) alpha particles, (ii) neutrons? Justify your
answer in each case.
12. How can it be shown that a magnetic field exists around a
wire through which a direct current is passing?
13. Meena draws magnetic field lines of field close to the
Magnetic field axis of a current carrying circular loop. As she moves
Current away from the centre of the circular loop, she
observes that the lines keep on diverging. How will you
X
explain her observation?
In which direction does the coil move?
(a) Along the magnetic field (b) Turns about the axis XY
14. (i) Two circular coils P and Q are kept close to each
(c) Out of the paper (d) From Y to X other, of which coil P carries a current. If coil P is
moved towards Q, then will some current be
5. Which of the following is not the application of electric induced in coil Q? Give reason for your answer and
motor?
name the phenomenon involved.
(a) Washing machines (b) Mixers and grinders
(c) Electric drills (d) Transformers (ii) What happens, if coil P is moved away from Q?
(iii) State few methods of inducing current in a coil.
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-8) Each of these questions
contains two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). 15. With the help of a diagram of experimental set-up
Each of these questions also has four alternative describe an activity to show that the force acting on a
choices, any one of which is the correct answer. You current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given increases with increase in field strength.
below. 16. How electric motor works?
Answers
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) For Detailed Solutions
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs Scan the code
6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c)
CHAP TER 7
Our Environment
In this Chapter...
 Ecosystem
 Food Chain, Trophic Levels,
Energy flow and Food Web
 Environmental Problems
All those things and set of conditions that influence the life of
2. Artificial Ecosystem
an organism like their growth, survival, development and
reproduction, constitute the environment. An ecosystem which is created and maintained by humans
It is composed of physical surrounding (e.g. air, water), living is called as artificial or man-made ecosystem. It rely on
beings (e.g. plants, animals) and climatic conditions (e.g. human efforts to sustain. It does not possess a self-regulating
rainfall, temperature) of the region. mechanism.
e.g. Aquariums, botanical gardens, field crops, etc.
Agro-ecosystem is the largest man-made ecosystem.
Ecosystem
It is the structural and functional unit of biosphere. It is a Components of Ecosystem
stable ecological unit where regular input of energy and
The ecosystem encompasses both living (biotic) and
circulation of matter takes place. The term ecosystem was non-living (abiotic) components of the earth.
coined by AG Tansley (in 1935).
All the interacting or living organisms (biotic components) in 1. Biotic Components
an area together with the non-living constituents (abiotic These include all the living organisms present in the
components) of the environment form an ecosystem, e.g. a ecosystem, i.e. plants, animals and microorganisms.
lake, a field or a forest. On the basis of food, they consume the different living
organisms can be categorised into three groups. These are as
Types of Ecosystem follows
There are two types of ecosystem, i.e. natural and artificial (i) Producers All green plants and certain blue-green
ecosystem. algae which can produce food by the process of
photosynthesis are producers. These are also called
1. Natural Ecosystem autotrophs. These are the source of nutrition for rest of
The naturally existing ecosystem without any human support is ecosystem.
called as natural ecosystem. Depending upon the habitats, (ii) Consumers These are dependent on producers for
natural ecosystem may be terrestrial (desert, grassland and their nutritional requirement and consume food prepared
forest) and aquatic (ponds, lakes, estuaries and marine). by producers. These are also called heterotrophs.
Consumers can be further divided into the following three Trophic Levels
categories
The transfer of food or energy takes place through various
◆
Herbivores These are primary consumers which feed
steps or levels in the food chain known as trophic levels.
directly on the producers, i.e. plants. e.g. Grazing
animals. The producers (autotrophs) are present at the first trophic
◆
Carnivores The carnivores which feed on herbivores level. They fix solar energy, making it available for
are called secondary consumers. consumers (heterotrophs). The herbivores or the primary
◆
Some are predators which attack and kill their prey and consumers are found at the second trophic level.
feed on their bodies. Some are scavengers that feed on Small carnivores or secondary consumers are present at the
dead animals that they find. These are called tertiary third trophic level. The large or the tertiary consumers
consumers. form the fourth trophic level.
◆
Omnivores These are animals that feed on both plants
and animals, e.g. humans and bears.
Trophic
(iii) Decomposers These are microorganisms which feed on levels
decaying and dead organic matter. They breakdown the Tertiary
IV
remains of dead animals and plants, to release simpler consumers
inorganic materials, making nutrients available to Secondary III
producers. consumers
e.g. Bacteria and fungi. Primary consumers II
Producers I
2. Abiotic Components
The abiotic components of an ecosystem are the non-living Trophic levels in an ecosystem
components on which living organisms depends. These
components are light, temperature, water, atmospheric gases, Energy Flow
wind, etc. ◆
The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about
1% of the energy of sunlight (light energy). They convert
Food Chain it into food (chemical energy).
It is a linear network of living organisms in a community ◆
When green plants are eaten by primary consumers, a
through which energy is transferred in the form of food.
great deal of energy is lost as heat and an average of 10%
It describes relationship of organisms about ‘who eats whom’.
of the energy of food eaten by an organism is turned back
into its own body and made available for the next level
of consumers. This is known as the 10% law (Lindemann
in 1942).
Therefore, 10% can be taken as the average value for the
amount of organic matter that is present at each step and
reaches to the next trophic level.
◆
The loss of energy at each step is very large. Only a little
energy is available for the next level of consumers, food
chains generally consist of three or four steps.
Top carnivores
(a) (b) (c) Carnivores
Food chain in nature; (a) in forest,

(b) in grassland and (c) in a pond Herbivores
On the basis of choice of habitat, food chains are of two types Producers
(i) Terrestrial food chain It is the food chain present on
Sunlight
land.
e.g. Grass → Insects → Snake → Hawk. Flow of energy in an ecosystem
(ii) Aquatic food chain It is the food chain present in ◆

The flow of energy is unidirectional, i.e. the energy which
different water bodies. passes to the next trophic level, does not come back to the
e.g. Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fish → Shark lower trophic level.
Food Web In the atmosphere, UV radiations breakdown CFCs

molecules and release chlorine atom. These atoms on
It is the interconnection of different food chains, which correlate at reacting with ozone, dissociate ozone molecules into
various trophic levels operating in an ecosystem. Each organism is oxygen.
generally eaten by two or more other kinds of organisms. They in
Thus, it leads to depletion of ozone layer.
turn are eaten by several other organisms.
Managing the Garbage We Produce
The household waste is called garbage. Every
household produces a lot of garbage on daily basis.
Improvements in our lifestyle have resulted in
greater amounts of waste material generation.
These waste substances can be divided into two main
groups
(i) Biodegradable substances The substances which
can be disposed off naturally by the action of
microorganisms like bacteria, fungi, etc., are called
biodegradable substances.
e.g. Tea leaves, waste paper, left over food, etc.
(ii) Non-Biodegradable substances The substances
that cannot be converted into harmless simpler
Food web consisting of many interlinked food chains forms by the action of microorganisms are called
non-biodegradable substances. These are toxic,
Environmental Problems harmful, may be inert and accumulate in the
environment or food chain.
Human are an integral part of the environment. Various human
e.g. Plastics, insecticides, heavy metals, etc.
activities pollute the environment in various ways and pose.
Serious environmental problems such as biomagnification, ozone
layer depletion, waste accumulation are as follows
Methods of Waste Disposal
Various methods of waste disposal are as given below
Biological Magnification or Biomagnification (i) Recycling It is the processing of waste materials to
It is the phenomenon of progressive increase in the concentration form new products.
of non-biodegradable toxicants in organisms at each successive (ii) Composting Biodegradable domestic wastes
trophic level. It is also called bioconcentration. These toxic can be buried in a pit, dug into ground and
chemicals enter the food chain through pesticides like DDT. are converted into compost and used as manure.
The maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated (iii) Incineration It is burning of a substance at high
in humans as they occupy the topmost place in any food chain. temperature to form ash. It is commonly used to
dispose hospital waste.
Depletion of Ozone Layer (iv) Landfills Solid waste is dumped into a low lying
Ozone (O3 ) is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen. It is area and covered with soil.
found in the stratosphere. It shields the surface of the Earth from (v) Sewage treatment Organic material in the sewage
harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiations of the Sun. is allowed to settle down and decompose in large
Formation of Ozone Layer tanks. The water from these tanks is cleaned and is
released into waterbodies.
Ozone is a product of UV radiations acting on oxygen (O2 )molecule.
The high energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (vi) Biogas production In some places, sewage is
(O2 ) into free oxygen (O) atoms. These atoms are very reactive and decomposed anaerobically to yield biogas and
combine with the molecular oxygen to form ozone. manure.
UV Note Disposable paper cups which are biodegradable in nature
O 2 → O + O; O + O2 → O3 are now being used in trains instead of plastic cups and
(Ozone) kulhads.
Ozone Depleting Substance As the production of kulhads at a large scale resulted in the
The increasing use of synthetic chemicals like Chlorofluorocarbons loss of top fertile layer of soil which leads to soil erosion,
whereas, plastic cups are non-biodegradable in nature,
(CFCs) which are used in refrigerants as coolant and in fire
therefore cause environmental problems.
extinguishers are responsible for ozone layer depletion.
Chapter
Practice
PART 1 5. In the given food chain, organisms are labelled as A
to D. Match the labelling referred in Column I
Objective Questions with their most suitable feature in Column II.
◆ Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is an incorrect pair?
D
(a) River—Natural ecosystem
(b) Air—Biotic component C
(c) Crop field—Artificial ecosystem
(d) Water—Abiotic component B
2. Which of the following is not a functional component of A

an ecosystem?
(a) Communities Column I Column II
(b) Decomposers A 1. Primary carnivore
(c) Sunlight
B 2. Secondary carnivore
(d) Energy flow
C 3. Autotrophs
3. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always D 4. Primary consumer
(a) unidirectional (NCERT Exemplar)
Codes
(b) bidirectional A B C D A B C D
(c) multidirectional (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(d) no specific direction (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 2 1 4
4. The diagram represents the flow of energy within a 6. What will happen if deer is missing in the food
balanced ecosystem. chain given below? (NCERT Exemplar)
The boxes represents various trophic levels. Select the Grass → Deer → Tiger
option which gives correct identification and main (a) The population of tiger increases
function or characteristic (b) The population of grass decreases
(c) Tiger will start eating grass
P Q R
(d) The population of tiger decreases and the population of
grass increases
S 7. The diagram shows the flow of energy through an
ecosystem.
(a) P-Producers : They are heterotrophic in nature
(b) Q-Primary consumers : They eat only plants and their products
3 4
(c) R-Herbivores : They are secondary consumers
(d) S-Decomposers : They act as tertiary consumers in a food chain Sun Primary Secondary
Producers
1 consumers 2 consumers
The smallest amount of energy transferred between 11. Identify the option that indicates the same trophic
organisms and the largest amount of energy lost to level of different organisms in the given food web.
the ecosystem is represented by which arrows?
Smallest energy transfer Largest energy loss
(a) 4 3
(b) 2 1
(c) 2 3
(d) 1 4
8. Which of the following represents the labelled parts

X and Y correctly?
Phytoplankton
Zooplankton Y
X Y
(a) Primary consumer Producer (a) Goat, Snake, Owl (b) Rabbit, Fox, Peacock
(b) Secondary consumer Decomposer (c) Frog, Fish, Bird (d) Tiger, Fox, Eagle
(c) Primary consumer Secondary consumer 12. What happens in biological magnification?
(a) There is a progressive increase in the level of harmful
(d) Carnivore Herbivore
substances through trophic levels
(b) There is a progressive increase in the body weight
9. Carefully study the given pyramid of energy flow in
through trophic levels
an ecosystem. Select the option which gives correct
(c) There is a progressive increase in number of organisms
identification and their examples.
through trophic levels
(d) There is a progressive increase in biological activities
T4 through trophic levels
T3 13. Which of the following chemicals cause the thinning

T2
of layer P?
T1 Sunlight
(a) T1 —Herbivores—Deer (b) T 2 —Producers—Fungi Layer P

(c) T 3 —Omnivores—Bear (d) T 4 —Decomposers—Grass
10. Which of the following pyramid given below Earth
correctly represents the food chain?
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Nitrogen dioxide
(c) Chlorofluorocarbon (d) Carbon dioxide
Plants Plants
Caterpillars (b) Toads
14. Which of the following is the correct reaction
(a)
involved in formation of ozone layer?
Toads Caterpillars
UV
(a) O2  →
 O + O; O+O 2 → O3
Snakes Snakes
(b) O + O → O 2; O 2 + O → O 3
Infrared
(c) O 2  → O + O; O + O + O → O 3
(d) O 2 + O → O 3; O 3 → O 2 +O
(c)
Snakes
(d)
Snakes 15. Burning of waste products at high temperature to
Toads Toads form ash, reduces waste considerably. This method
Caterpillars Plants of waste disposal is called
Plants Caterpillars
(a) composting (b) sewage treatment
(c) recycling (d) incineration
◆ Assertion-Reasoning MCQs (i) The correct order of animals in food chain

operating in a river is
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each of these questions (a) W → X → Y → Z (b) Y → W → X → Z
contains two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). (c) Z → X → W → Y (d) X → W → Z → Y
Each of these questions also has four alternative choices, any
(ii) If concentration of DDT in W is estimated to
one of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of
be 0.4 ppm, then amount of DDT in Y and Z
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. would respectively be
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (a) 0.02 ppm and 2 ppm
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation (b) 2 ppm and 0.02 ppm
of A (c) 0.3 ppm and 0.5 ppm
(d) 0.04 ppm and 0.02 ppm
(iii). Due to biomagnification, which of the following
16. Assertion Biotic components of an ecosystem include all substances accumulate and go on concentrating
the living organisms present in that ecosystem. at each trophic level?
Reason Biotic components also include wind, gases, (a) Biodegradable substances
light, etc. (b) Non-biodegradable substances
(c) Biotic components
17. Assertion Food chains generally consist of more than (d) Abiotic components
four trophic levels.
(iv) The decomposers are not included in the food
Reason There is loss of energy at each trophic level chain. The correct reason for the same is
and very little usable energy remains after four trophic because decomposers :
levels. (a) act at every trophic level of the food chain
18. Assertion Producers are present at the first trophic level. (b) do not breakdown organic compounds
(c) convert organic material to inorganic forms
Reason Consumers or heterotrophs fix energy and make (d) release enzymes outside their body to convert
it available for autotrophs. organic material to inorganic forms
19. Assertion Certain pesticides and other chemicals used to (v) Which amongst the following are hazardous for
protect our crops from diseases and pests are the environment?
non-biodegradable. I. Pesticides II. Fertilisers
Reason They do not get accumulated at various trophic III. Heavy metals IV. Manures
levels. Codes
20. Assertion Ozone layer shields the surface of Earth from (a) I, II and IV (b) I and II
UV radiations. (c) I, II and III (d) Only IV
Reason The UV radiations are highly damaging to 22. Read the following and answer the questions
organisms. from (i) to (v) given below
Sheenu took three different types of solid wastes
◆ Case Based MCQs R, S and T. She buried them under the soil in a
21. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to pit, as she wanted to study their rate of
(v) given below decomposition. Her findings are shown in the
given graph.
A group of scientists analysed samples of four different
animals from a river for possible accumulation of DDT in
their body due to biomagnification. The result obtained
S
is shown in the given graph. Amount
of solid in pit
Z (grams)
T
R
Amount
X Number of days
of DDT
(in ppm) W
Y (i) Which of the following waste does not
decompose at all?
O (a) R (b) S
Animals (c) T (d) Both (a) and (c)
(ii) Choose the correct statements regarding 6. Based on their feeding habits, differentiate between
non-biodegradable wastes. parasites and decomposers.
I. Easily decomposed by fungi. 7. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a
II. Enter into food chain and get magnified. food chain and state the different trophic levels in it.
III. Biological in origin. (NCERT)
IV. Cause soil pollution. 8. Number of trophic levels is limited to 3-4 in a food
Codes
chain. Give reason.
(a) I and II (b) II and IV
(c) I and IV (d) II and III 9. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one
trophic level?
(iii) Which of the following solid waste comes under the
category of R? 10. State 10% law. Explain with an example how energy
(a) Cow dung (b) Leather shoes flows through different trophic levels.
(c) Plastic bottles (d) Electronic waste
11. Indicate the flow of energy in an ecosystem. Why it
(iv) Which of the following is the safe method of is unidirectional? (NCERT Exemplar)
disposal of the non-biodegradable waste?
(a) By recycling
12. What do you mean by biological magnification?
(b) By burning 13. What is biological magnification? Will the levels of
(c) By disposing them in water bodies this magnification be different at different levels of the
(d) By mixing with biodegradable waste ecosystem? (NCERT Exemplar)
(v) Incineration is another method of waste disposal 14. Write the major cause of ozone depletion. What steps
which is used for should be taken to limit the damage to ozone layer?
(a) kitchen waste
15. Explain how ozone being a deadly poison can still
(b) electronic waste
(c) biomedical waste
perform an essential function for our environment.
(CBSE 2020)
(d) plastic waste
16. Give reason why a food chain cannot have more than
four trophic levels? (CBSE 2020)
PART 2 17. (i) Explain the role of UV radiation in producing ozone
Subjective Questions layer.

(ii) Mention the reaction involved.
◆ Short Answer Type Questions (iii) Why is excessive use of CFCs a cause of concern?
18. How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? State
1. Define an ecosystem. Draw a block diagram to show its importance. What is responsible for its depletion?
the flow of energy in an ecosystem. (CBSE 2019) Write one harmful effect of ozone depletion.
2. (i) What do you understand by the term ecosystem? (CBSE 2019)
(ii) Autotrophs are at the first level of food chain. Give 19. Give some methods that could be applied to reduce
reason. accumulation of pesticides in our body.
(iii) In a food chain of frogs, grass, insects and snakes, 20. How can you help in reducing the problem of waste
assign trophic level to frogs. To which category of disposal? Give any two methods.
consumers do they belong to? (CBSE 2020)
21. If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will this
3. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem? have no impact on the environment?
(NCERT)
4. Natural water bodies are not regularly cleaned 22. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable
substances would affect the environment.
whereas an aquarium needs regular cleaning. Why?
(CBSE 2019) 23. Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable
5. How does study of food chain in an area or habitat wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins?
help us? Give an example of four steps of food chain 24. ‘Effective segregation of wastes at the point of
operating in a large lake. generation is very important’. Justify this statement.
25. Sheenu went to a picnic where she saw a pond. Her 35. What is ozone and how does it affect any
teacher gives her an assignment to draw the pond ecosystem? (NCERT Exemplar)
ecosystem and show its different components. Help her 36. (i) What is ‘environmental pollution’?
to complete the assignment.
(ii) Distinguish between biodegradable and
26. Name the wastes which are generated in your house non-biodegradable pollutants.
daily. What measures would you take for their disposal? (iii) Choose the non-biodegradable pollutants
(NCERT Exemplar)
from the list given below
27. A modern insecticide has been introduced with Paper, DDT, Radioactive waste, Plastic,
certain new properties like, accumulation in the bodies Insecticides.
of predators, broken down by soil bacteria, easily
washed into lakes and rivers and taken up by plant roots. 37. Suggest any five activities in daily life, which are
eco-friendly. (NCERT Exemplar)
Among all these properties, which one will help in
reducing or keeping the level of environment pollution 38. What are the reasons for the shift from plastic to
to lowest? kulhads and then finally to paper cups?(CBSE 2020)
28. Mona eats curd and yogurt and follows vegetarian diet. ◆ Case Based Questions
For this food intake, what should be the trophic level
occupied by her in a food chain ? 39. Read the following and answer the questions
from (i) to (v) given below
◆ Long Answer Type Questions Food web is the interconnection of different food
29. What are decomposers? What will be the consequence of chains, which correlate at various trohpic levels
their absence in an ecosystem? (NCERT Exemplar)
operating in an ecosystem.
30. (i) What are consumers? What will be the consequence of Foxes
the absence of primary consumers in an ecosystem? Snake
Mice Rabbits
(ii) What will be the direction of energy transfer in each
of the following cases?
Seeds Young trees Grass
(a) Grasshopper eaten by a frog
Food web
(b) Deer feeds on grass
(c) Deer eaten by a lion (i) How many food chains are present in the given
food web?
31. (i) Will the impact of removing all the organisms in
a trophic level be different for different trophic (ii) Name the primary consumer in the given food
levels? web.
(ii) Can the organisms of any trophic level be removed (iii) How much percentage of energy is less at each
without causing any damage to the ecosystem? trophic level?
(NCERT Exemplar)
(iv) If all the foxes are killed due to a disease, what
32. (i) ‘Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional’. Justify will be your observations about food web?
this statement. (v) Name the organism in which accumulation
(ii) Explain how the pesticides enter a food chain and of toxic non-biodegradable substances is the
subsequently get into our body. (CBSE 2014) lowest.
33. (i) How do food chains get shortened? How does the 40. Read the following and answer the questions from
shortening of food chain affect the biosphere? (i) to (v) given below
(ii) How will you justify that vegetarian food habits give Food chains are very important for the survival of
us more calories? most species. When only one element is removed
from the food chain it can result in extinction of a
34. Explain some harmful effects of agricultural practices on
species in some cases.
the environment. (NCERT Exemplar)
The foundation of the food chain consists of Analyse the populations and their effects on each other.
primary producers.Primary producers or
autotrophs can use either solar energy or chemical
energy to create complex organic compounds,
whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot
and so must consume producers or other life that
itself consumes producers.
Because the Sun's light is necessary for
photosynthesis, most life could not exist if the Sun
disappeared.
Even so, it has recently been discovered that
there are some forms of life, chemotrophs that
appear to gain all their metabolic energy from
chemosynthesis driven by hydrothermal vents,
thus showing that some life may not require solar
energy to thrive.
Food webs Food web
(i) How many trophic levels are there in the longest food
Secondary
carnivores chain?
(ii) What is the role of rabbit in the given food web?
(iii) Give the significance of food web.
(iv) Why do all food chain start with plants?
Primary
carnivores (v) What leads an organism to increase in number?
(v) given below
Herbivores To study the ozone layer depletion, Mrs. Sharma, a
science teacher draw the given flow chart on the
blackboard. She asked students to fill the bubbles
Producers Grass
labelled as 1-5 in the flow chart.
(i) If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a Ozone depleting
substances
terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of solar
energy will be converted into food energy? 1
(ii) Why decomposers are not included in the food

chain? Formation of ozone Effects of ozone
depletion
(iii) How primary consumers are different from 2
Ozone Layer 5
primary carnivores?
(iv) State one reason that limits the number of trophic
levels in a food chain.
(v) In the given food web, name the organism in What is ozone?
Where is it found?
which highest accumulation of toxic substance is
found. 3 4
41. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) What are ozone depleting substance?
(ii) How is ozone formed?
Each organism is generally eaten by two or more (iii) Ravi want to drawn a ozone layer in a diagram
other kinds of organisms. They in turn are eaten by showing different layers of atmosphere, where he
several other organisms. should label it?
Study the figure which shows the similar (iv) What is the difference between good ozone and bad
relationship between various organisms of ozone?
ecosystem through a food web. (v) What could be the effect of ozone depletion?
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions 8. (b) In the given food chain, X could be small fish who feeds on
1. (b) Option (b) is incorrect pair and can be corrected as zooplankton.
Air is abiotic (non-living) component of ecosystem. Hence, X is a secondary consumer. Y acts on every trophic
2. (d) The flow of energy is not a functional component of an level which means it is a decomposer who acts on dead remains
ecosystem. of living organisms.
3. (a) Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always unidirectional. 9. (c) In the given pyramid of energy, T1, T2, T3 and T4 represent
the trophic levels. T1 represents plants which are producers,
4. (b) In the given diagram, P represents producers as every food
e.g. grass, T2 represents herbivores who are plant-eating
chain begins with plants which are autotrophic in nature. Q is
animals, e.g. deer. T3 represents both carnivores or omnivores
primary consumer that depends on plants directly, i.e. they are who feeds on plant-eating animals, e.g. bear. T4 represents
herbivores. tertiary consumers who feed on other animals, e.g. lion,
R could be carnivores or omnivores and acts as secondary Hence, option (c) is correct.
consumer in the food chain as it depends upon plant eating
10. (c) C represents the correct pyramid in a food chain.
animals.
Population of producers (plants) are maximum in a food chain
S are decomposers that help in cleaning our environment by to support other animals. As the trophic level increases, the
acting on dead and decaying organic matter and decompose number of organisms decreases.
them into soil.
11. (c) The given food web contains various food chains
Thus, option (b) gives correct identification and main function interconnected with each other.
or characteristic.
Frog, bird and fish act as secondary consumers in their
5. (a) The given food chain is as follows respective food chains, therefore acquire same trophic level ,
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk i.e. third trophic level in their respective food chain.
A B C D E 12. (a) Biomagnification is the phenomenon of progressive
A. Grass acts as producer in the given food chain as it is increase in the concentration of non-biodegradable toxicants
autotrophic in nature and make its own food in the in organisms at each successive trophic level. It is also called
presence of sunlight. All living organisms depend upon bioconcentration.
plants directly or indirectly.
13. (c) The layer P is ozone layer that protects us from harmful UV
B. Grasshoppers are primary consumers as they feed on
rays of Sun. Chlorofluorocarbon is responsible for depletion of
plants (grass) directly.
ozone layer.
C. Frogs are primary carnivores as they feed on plant-eating
animals (grasshoppers). 14. (a) High energy UV radiations split apart molecular
D. Snakes are secondary carnivores as they eat flesh of other oxygen (O2 ) into free oxygen atoms (O) which are highly
animals and feed on primary carnivores majorly. reactive and combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone
Thus, option (a) is correct. layer.
6. (d) If deer is missing in the given food chain, there will not be 15. (d) Incineration involve degradation of wastes by burning
sufficient food for the tigers. Some of the tigers will die them at high temperature.
because of starvation and hence, the population of tigers will 16. (c)A is true, but R is false.
decrease. Since grass is eaten by deers, the population of grass
All living organisms are biotic components of ecosystem
will also increase when deer is missing.
whereas all non-living things such as wind, gases, light, water,
7. (c) In a food chain, only around 10% of the available energy is etc., are abiotic components of ecosystem.
passed on to the next trophic level. The rest of the energy is lost
17. (d)A is false, but R is true.
to the ecosystem in form of heat.
Food chains generally consist up to three or four trophic levels
As the trophic level increases, the amount of energy transfer
because there is loss of energy at each trophic level and very
decreases.
little usable energy remains after three or four trophic levels.
Secondary consumers receive the smallest amount of energy
18. (c)A is true, but R is false.
from primary consumers.
Autotrophs (producers) are present at the first trophic
Hence, arrow 2 shows smallest energy transfer, whereas arrow
level because they fix solar energy, making it available for
3 shows largest energy loss as 90% of energy at producer level
consumers or heterotrophs.
is lost to the ecosystem, whereas only 10% of energy is
transferred to the primary consumers.
19. (c)A is true, but R is false. (iii) (a) Solid waste R completely decomposes in very few days
Certain pesticides and other chemicals used to protect which means it is an easily decomposable biodegradable waste.
our crops from diseases and pests do not get degraded e.g. Cow dung, fruit pulp, etc.
(i.e. non-biodegradable). So, they get accumulated (iv) (a) Non-biodegradable waste can be decomposed
progressively at each trophic level. by recycling or by dumping underground into landfills.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation (v) (c) Incineration isa method of waste disposal in which
of A. Ozone layer is present in the stratosphere region of burning of substances take place at high temperature to form
our atmosphere. It shields the surface of Earth from ash. It is used to dispose off hospital or harmful wastes of
harmful UV radiations of Sun which are highly damaging biomedical industries.
and can cause various health issues and diseases such as
skin cancer, cataract, etc. Subjective Questions
21. (i) (b) Due to biomagnification, the concentration of 1. Ecosystem is defined as the structural and functional unit of
harmful chemicals such as DDT increases at each biosphere. It is a stable ecological unit where continuous input of
successive trophic level. energy and circulation of matter occurs.
The maximum concentration of DDT gets Top carnivores
accumulated in Z and least is found in Y.
Therefore, the correct order of animals in food chain Carnivores
is Y → W → X → Z.
(ii) (a) The concentration of DDT is found to be less in Herbivores
organisms of lower trophic level and higher in
organisms of higher trophic levels. Producers
If the amount of DDT in W is estimated to be 0.4
ppm then in Y, it has to be less than 0.4 ppm, i.e. Sunlight
0.02 ppm and in Z, it has to be more the 0.4 ppm, i.e
Flow of energy in an ecosystem
2 ppm.
Hence, option (a) is correct. 2. (i) Ecosystem is the structural and functional unit of biosphere
(iii) (b) The progressive increase in the concentration of and is a stable ecological unit where regular input of energy
non-biodegradable toxicants in organisms at each and circulation matter takes place.
successive trophic level is known as (ii) Autotrophs can make their own food in the presence of
biomagnification. sunlight. They are the ultimate source of energy for each and
every organism of a food chain. Hence, every chain always
(iv) (a) Decomposers are microorganisms that
starts with producers (autotrophs) that is why they are placed
breakdown dead and decayed organisms into
at the first trophic level of food chain.
simpler inorganic materials, making nutrients
(iii) In given food chain, Grass→ Insects→ Frogs → Snakes
available to primary producers. They act at every
trophic level of the food chain. Frogs assign at third trophic level. They acts as secondary
Hence, they do not have a fix position in the food consumers who feeds of primary consumers (i.e. insects).
chain. 3. Organisms that feed on dead plants and animals are called
(v) (c) Toxic chemicals and non-biodegradable decomposers, e.g. bacteria, fungi, etc. They breakdown the
substances such as pesticides, fertilisers and heavy complex organic compounds present in the dead remains into
metals are hazardous to the environment, whereas simpler substances and obtain nutrition from them. These
manures are organic substance made by substances are released into the soil and to the atmosphere.
decomposing dead and decayed living organisms Thus, they play the following roles
buried under the soil. (i) They help in recycling of materials, replenishment of the
22. (i) (b) S is the solid waste that does not decompose at soil’s nutrients, etc.
all. According to the graph, there is no change in (ii) They clean our surroundings by decomposing dead organisms
number of days for the amount of decomposition and organic wastes.
take place in S waste. 4. Natural water bodies are example of natural ecosystem. They
Hence, it is a non-biodegradable waste. exist naturally without any human support, whereas aquarium is
(ii) (b) Substances which do not decompose by the an artificial ecosystem which is created and maintained by
action of microorganisms present in the soil are humans. It rely on human efforts to sustain. It does not possess a
known as non-biodegradable substances. self-regulating mechanism.
They enter into food chain through soil and get 5. The study of food chain in an area or habitat helps in
magnified into higher trophic levels. In soil, they (i) understanding the energy transfer through organisms.
also cause pollution which decreases the soil (ii) understanding the ecological balance in a habitat or
fertility. ecosystem.
(iii) understanding harmful human activities and disruption 11. The flow of energy in an ecosystem occurs in the following
of ecological balance, if any. sequence
An example of four steps of food chain operating in a large lake Sun → Producer → Herbivore → Carnivore
is as follows (Primary (Secondary
consumer) consumer)
Algae → Protozoan → Small fish → Big fish.
The flow of energy is unidirectional because of the reasons
6. Parasites are organisms (animals or plants) that live in or an given below
other organism (host) and take benefits by deriving nutrients (i) Energy flows progressively from one trophic level to
from it, i.e. they get food or protection from host organism, e.g. another and cannot revert back. Energy given out as
Cuscuta. heat is lost to the environment and does not return to be
On other hands, decomposers are organisms that breakdown used again.
dead or decaying organisms into simple inorganic (ii) The available energy decreases at higher trophic level.
substances. e.g. Fungi. Out of the total energy available at a particular trophic
7. The transfer of food or energy takes place through various level, only 10% is passed on to the next trophic level,
levels in the food chain, which are known as trophic levels. e.g. making it impossible for energy to flow in the reverse
Trees → Rabbit → Snake → Hawk direction.
(First trophic (Second trophic (Third trophic (Fourth trophic 12. Biological magnification also known as biomagnification is the
level) level) level) level) phenomenon of progressive increase in the concentration of
[Producers] [I consumer] [II consumer] [III consumer]
non-biodegradable toxicants in organisms at each successive
trophic level.
8. In a food chain, about 80-90% of the energy available at a
trophic level is lost during its transfer to next trophic level. 13. Biological magnification refers to the increase in the
Hence, amount of energy available goes on decreasing at each concentration of certain toxicants at each successive trophic
successive trophic level. level.
If a plant fixes 4000 J energy, then next three successive No, the levels of magnification will not be same in all trophic
trophic levels will get 400 J, 40 J and 4 J, respectively levels. When the chemicals do not get degraded and get
(according to 10% law). If another level is added in a food chain accumulated progressively at each trophic level, it leads to
then it will get only 0.4 J energy. Thus, usually food chains biomagnification. Biomagnification is more in organisms of
remain shorter and limited to 3-4 trophic levels only. higher trophic levels.
9. If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the lower trophic 14. Depletion of ozone is mainly caused due to the excessive use of
level will grow more in number and the higher trophic level will Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). These are synthetic chemicals
not survive. which are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
Hence, flow of energy from one trophic level to other will not Steps which should be taken to limit the damage to ozone layer
take place. include
(a) Minimising the use of aerosol spray propellants containing
10. According to 10% law, only 10% of the energy entering a
fluorocarbons and chlorofluorocarbons.
particular trophic level of organisms is available for transfer
to the next higher trophic level. (b) Exercising control over large scale nuclear explosions
and limited use of supersonic planes.
The flow of energy through a food chain is unidirectional and it
moves progressively through various trophic levels as follows 15. Ozone layer filter the Sun's ultraviolet radiation (UV-B),
thereby protecting the environment from its harmful effects
(i) Green plants capture 1% of energy of the sunlight that
and also play key role in regulating the temperature.
falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy.
(ii) When green plants are eaten by primary consumers, a 16. The energy and biomass decrease from lower to higher trophic
great deal of energy is lost as heat to the environment. levels, so the length of food chain is restricted and cannot have
On an average only 10% of food eaten is turned into its more than four trophic levels.
own body and made available for the next level of 17. (i) UV radiation acts on the O2 molecule. Higher energy of
consumers. UV split apart O2 .
(iii) Thus, 10% can be taken as average value of the amount (ii) O2 U
V
→
 O+O
of organic matter present at each step and reaches the O + O2 → O3
next level of consumers. (Ozone)
Leaf 10% energy Caterpillar
(iii) CFCs rise up in stratosphere where UV radiation splits
Sun (producer) transferred (primary consumer) them releasing molecular chlorine (Cl− ). It reacts with
O3 and releases oxygen, so O3 gets depleted.
10% energy Bird 10% energy
Snake 18. Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV
(tertiary consumer ) transferred (secondary consumer) transferred radiations acting on oxygen (O2 ) molecule. The high energy UV
Energy lost by energy transfer radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2 ) into free
oxygen (O) atoms. These atoms are very reactive and combine 24. Effective segregation of waste as biodegradable and
with the molecular oxygen to form ozone. non-biodegradable is much easier to recycle. Biodegradable
UV waste used to make manure can out of compost, whereas
O2 → O +O
non-biodegradable waste could be recycled and reused for
O + O2 → O3 various purposes. Also effective segregation of wastes means
(Ozone) that less waste goes to landfill, which makes it cheaper and
It shields the surface of the Earth from harmful ultraviolet better for people and environment.
(UV) radiations of the Sun. 25. A pond ecosystem refers to freshwater ecosystem where
Due to environmental pollution, ozone layer has began to there are various organisms dependent on each other with
deplete in the 1980s. the prevailing water environment for their nutrients and
survival.
This was mainly due to the increasing use synthetic
chemicals like Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). These are used Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small fish → Big fish
in refrigerants as coolant and in fire extinguishers. There are two components of the pond ecosystem
Due to depletion of ozone layer harmful UV rays can (i) Abiotic It includes water, dissolved minerals, oxygen
penetrate or enter our atmosphere.These radiations are and carbon dioxide. Sunlight is the main source of
highly damaging to organisms. They can cause skin cancer in energy.
human beings, damage eyes (cause disease called cataract), (ii) Biotic It consists of phytoplanktons, zooplanktons,
decrease crop yield, disturb global rainfall, etc. aquatic insects, fishes and other aquatic animals. These
19. Following methods could be applied to reduce the organisms are classified as producers, consumers and
accumulation of pesticides in our body. decomposers.
(i) Minimise the use of pesticides 26. The waste generated in our house and measures for its disposal
(ii) Consuming washed fruits and vegetables are given in the table below
(iii) Developing vegetarian feeding habits
(i.e. feed upon plants as plants belong to lower trophic level so, Household wastes Measures for disposal
they have less accumulation of insecticides, whereas Kitchen waste like bottles, Prepare a compost pit
organisms of higher trophic level have higher concentration of plastics, food, etc.
insecticides and pesticides).
Paper wastes like Should be recycled
20. We can reduce the problem of waste disposal by the following
newspaper, envelopes, etc.
methods
Recycling The solid wastes such as paper, plastics, glass
◆ Plastic bags Should be safely dumped in
and metals, etc., are recyclable. So, waste paper can be sent garbage bins for
to paper mills for reprocessing to form newspaper. The non-biodegradable wastes
plastic articles can be melted and remoulded again to make Vegetable/fruit peels/rind Can be placed near trees/plants,
new articles. so that on decomposition enrich
Biodegradable waste The waste such as left over food,
◆
the soil with nutrients
fruits, animal dung, peels of vegetables can be converted
into compost by burying them in a pit dug in ground and All other wastes Segregation into biodegradable
and non-biodegradable wastes
can be used as manure.
21. If all the waste is biodegradable, then there will be no 27. Insecticides are non-biodegradable chemicals added to crop
accumulation of waste on the Earth and it would be a cleaner fields to stop the growth of insects infecting the crops.
place to live.
Modern insecticides are being developed keeping in
But if, this biodegradable waste is too large in amount then its mind, the harm they cause to the environment and its
slow degradation may lead to air pollution (due to release of components.
gases) as well as water and land pollution.
Biodegradable insecticides can be decomposed into harmless
22. The two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would substances, which will subsequently be dispersed in their
affect the environment are specific pathways and cause no pollution.
(i) They make the environment poisonous and unfit for
Non-biodegradable insecticides build up in the fat tissues of
survival of living forms of life.
the body and pass on to organisms that feed on them.
(ii) They block the transfer of energy and minerals in the
ecosystem. Hence, they accumulate along the food chain resulting in
23. Biodegradable materials are broken down by microorganisms significant amounts in the tissues of consumers at the
present in nature into simple harmless substances. highest trophic level.
Non-biodegradable materials need a different treatment like The property of newly developed insecticide includes that it
heat and temperature for disposal and hence, both should be can easily get decomposed into simpler components by soil
discarded in two different dustbins. bacteria.
So, the energy that is captured by the producers does

28. As Mona follows vegetarian diet along with milk products.
not revert back to the Sun and the energy transferred to
She should be considered as occupying third trophic level
the herbivores does not come back to the producers. It
because the curd is prepared by the milk of cow/buffalo by just keeps on moving to the next trophic level in one
the action of bacteria, but the energy of the milk is getting direction. That is why the flow of energy in the food
transferred from cow to Mona, so Mona is at the third chain is always unidirectional.
trophic level. (ii) A large number of pesticides and chemicals are used to
Grass → Cow (milk) → Human protect our crops from pests and diseases. Some of these
(First trophic level) (Second trophic level) (Third trophic level) chemicals are washed down from the soil, while some
29. Organisms which breakdown the complex organic compounds enter the water bodies. From the soil, they are absorbed
present in dead and decaying matter into simpler inorganic by plants along with water and minerals and from the
materials are called decomposers, e.g. certain bacteria and water bodies, they are taken up by aquatic plants and
fungi. animals. This is how these chemicals enter the food
Decomposers act as cleaning agents of environment by chain.
decomposing dead bodies of plants and animals. They also As these chemicals cannot decompose, they accumulate
help in recycling of materials, replenishment of soil’s progressively at each trophic level. This increase in the
nutrients, etc. concentration of harmful chemicals with each step of the
food chain is called biomagnification. As human beings
The consequence of their absence in an ecosystem can be
occupy the top level in any food chain, these chemicals
disastrous. The dead bodies would persist for long, leading
get accumulated in our bodies in considerably high
to their accumulation and thus, polluting the environment.
amount causing diseases.
The biogenetic nutrients associated with these remains will
33. (i) Undesirable activities of man eliminate growth of
not be returned back to the environment.
organisms belonging to one or more trophic levels in a
As a result, all the nutrients present in soil, air and water food chain. Thus, the food chain gets shortened, e.g.
would soon be exhausted and the whole life cycle of hunting tigers for their skin, etc.
organisms will be disrupted. It causes imbalance in the functioning of ecosystem and
30. (i) Consumers are the organisms who derive energy by biosphere. If organisms of one trophic level are
eating plants or other organisms as they cannot produce eliminated, the organisms prior to that trophic level will
food on their own. Absence of primary consumers in flourish and increase in number. Also, the organisms of
nature would lead to enormous growth of plants and the subsequent trophic level will sharply decrease,
decline in the population of carnivore animals, who eat thereby creating an imbalance.
them. Hence, the whole food web will get distrupted. (ii) Vegetarian food chain is advantageous in terms of energy
(ii) The direction of energy transfer in following cases are as because it has less number of trophic levels. As we know,
follows only 10% of the energy is transferred to the next trophic
(a) Primary consumer (grasshopper) to secondary level in a food chain, so if a person is vegetarian then, he
consumer (frog). would have maximum amount of energy by consuming
(b) Producer (grass) to primary consumer (deer). producers or plants in a food chain.
(c) Primary consumer (deer) to secondary consumer 34. Some harmful effects of agricultural practices on the
(lion). environment are as follows
31. (i) Yes, the impact of removing all the organisms in a (i) Soil degradation Extensive cropping causes loss of soil
trophic level will be different for different trophic levels. fertility. Also, over the time it can lead to soil erosion
The lower trophic level of an ecosystem has a greater and finally to desertification.
number of individuals than the higher trophic levels. (ii) Pollution Use of synthetic chemical fertilisers and
Removal of producers will affect all the organisms of pesticides leads to soil, water and air pollution.
successive trophic levels and it will threat their survival. (iii) Water shortage Excess use of groundwater for
The removal of higher trophic level will lead to increase agriculture lowers the water level. This results in acute
in organisms of lower trophic level and the organisms of water shortage at many places.
higher trophic level will die due to the shortage of food. (iv) Biomagnification The chemical pesticides, being
(ii) No, removal of all organisms of a trophic level will non-biodegradable accumulate in organisms in
disturb the ecosystem. Killing of higher trophic level increasing amounts at each trophic level.
organisms will cause explosion in the population of lower (v) Deforestation Indiscriminate cutting of trees for
trophic level organisms. This will adversely affect the agriculture has resulted in loss of habitat for wildlife.
ecosystem and thus environment. Thus, it also causes damage to natural ecosystem.
32. (i) The producers convert solar energy into chemical energy 35. Ozone is a triatomic molecule, i.e. made up of three atoms of
in the form of organic compounds. The primary consumers oxygen joined together. Its molecular formula is O3 . It can
(herbivores) derive their nutrition from the producers. affect any ecosystem in the following ways
According to the energy transfer law, only 10% of energy is (i) It protects against ultraviolet rays if, present in
transferred from one trophic level to the other. stratosphere.
(ii) Ozone dissipates the energy of UV rays by undergoing (v) Use compost Instead of using synthetic fertilisers,
dissociation followed by reassociation. compost provides a full complement of soil organisms
UV and the balance of nutrients needed to maintain the
O2 → O + O ; O + O2 → O3
(Ozone) soil’s health. Healthy soil minimises the population of
(iii) In atmosphere, it is highly toxic and causes injury to weeds.
mucous membranes, eye irritation and internal 38. Materials that remain for a long time in the environment,
haemorrhages in animals and humans. without getting decomposed by any natural agents, also
36. (i) Environmental pollution is an undesirable change in the causing harm to the environment are called
physical, chemical or biological characteristics of the non-biodegradable. Plastic cups are non-biodegradable and
natural environment, brought about by man’s activities. raised the concern towards hygiene, thus they were
This pollution may affect the soil, water or air. replaced by kulhads.
(ii) Differences between biodegradable and Kulhads are made up of clay on a large scale resulted in the
non-biodegradable pollutants are as follows loss of top fertile soil. It is replaced by disposable paper
cups because the paper can be recycled, it is biodegradable
Biodegradable Non-biodegradable and is eco-friendly material which does not cause
pollutants pollutants environment pollution.
These pollutants can be These pollutants cannot be 39. (i) There are 6 food chains that constitute to form the
broken down into non-toxic broken down into non-toxic given food web. These are as follows
substances in nature by the substances by microorganisms. 1. Seeds → Mice → Foxes
action of microorganisms. 2. Young trees → Mice → Foxes
3. Young trees → Rabbits → Foxes
They get recycled thus, do They cannot be recycled thus, 4. Grass → Rabbits → Foxes
not need any dumping sites. require dumping sites. 5. Grass → Rabbits → Snake
They cause minimum They cause maximum 6. Young trees → Rabbits → Snake
environmental pollution. environmental pollution. (ii) The primary consumers are the organisms who directly
feed on the producers. In the given food web, rabbits
(iii) Non-biodegradable pollutants include DDT, radioactive and mice are the primary consumers, whereas foxes and
waste, plastic, insecticides. snake are the secondary consumers.
37. Some daily life eco-friendly activities are (iii) About 90% of energy is loss at each trophic level.
(i) Save a tree, use less paper You can buy ‘tree-free’ 100% (iv) The foxes feed on the rabbits and mice. If all the foxes
post-consumer recycled paper for everything from are killed then there will be no direct predator of
greeting cards to toilet paper. Paper with a high rabbits and mice, hence the number of rabbits and mice
post-consumer waste content uses less pulp and keeps (i.e. both are primary consumers) will increase in the
given ecosystem, which will disturb its balance.
more waste paper out of landfills.
(v) Accumulation of toxic non-biodegradable substances
(ii) Opt bamboo for hardwood floors Bamboo is considered
increases at each trophic level. It is least in organisms
as an environmental-friendly flooring material due to its
of first trophic level (i.e. seeds), young trees and grass
high yield and the relatively fast rate at which it and highest in organisms of third trophic level (i.e. foxes
replenishes itself. It takes just 4-6 years for bamboo to and snake).
mature, compared to 50-100 years for typical hardwoods.
Also look for sources that use formaldehyde-free glues. 40. (i) The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture
about 1% of the energy of sunlight (light energy). They
(iii) Reduce plastics, reduce global warming Unfortunately,
convert it into food energy (chemical energy).
plastics are made from petroleum, the processing and
Therefore, if 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in
burning of which is considered one of the
a terrestrial ecosystem, only 1% of solar energy, i.e. 100 J
main contributors to global warming, according to the
will be converted into food energy.
EPA. In addition, sending plastics to the landfill also
increases greenhouse gases. Reduce, reuse and recycle (ii) Decomposers are not included in the food chain as they
act at every trophic level of the food chain.
our plastics are one of the best ways to combat global
warming. (iii) Primary consumers are those organisms who directly
feed on plants, e.g. herbivores.
(iv) Use healthier paints Conventional paints contain
Primary carnivores are those organisms who feeds on
solvents, toxic metals and Volatile Organic Compounds
plant-eating animals, e.g. snake.
(VOCs) that can cause smog, ozone pollution and indoor
air quality problems with negative health effects, (iv) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels (according to
according to the EPA. These unhealthy ingredients are 10% law) is one of the main reason that limits the number
released into the air, while we are painting, drying of paint of trophic levels in a food chain.
and even after the paints are completely dry.
(v) Owl is placed at highest trophic level in the given food 42. (i) Substances that are responsible for depletion ozone layer
web, therefore the accumulation of non-biodegradable or breakdown of ozone molecules are known as ozone
toxic materials are found to be highest in them due to depleting substances.
biomagnification. e.g. CFCs, halogens, nitrous oxide, CCl4 and CH4 are ozone
41. (i) The longest food chain consist of maximum five trophic depleting substances responsible for ozone layer depletion.
levels. (ii) Atomic oxygen is highly reactive. It combines with
(ii) Rabbit is a herbivore as it feeds on plants directly. Its molecular oxygen to form ozone.
UV
role in the given food web is to transfer the energy from O2 → [O] + [O]
producers to carnivores. 2O2 + 2 [O] → 2O3 (Ozone)
(iii) The significance of food web is as follows (iii) Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere around 15-30 km
(a) Food chain provides pathways for availability of above the Earth’s surface.
food.
(iv) Ozone is a triatomic molecule made up of three atoms of
(b) It allows endangered populations to grow in size.
oxygen (O3). It is present in atmosphere as an ozone layer
(iv) Sun or solar energy is the ultimate source of energy for shield that protects us from high energy UV radiations.
the Earth. Only plants can utilise this energy to make So, it is known as good ozone whereas near the surface of
their on food. earth ozone act as a highly poisonous gas. Hence, known
(v) When predator for a particular organism decreases in bad ozone.
number, the organisms start increasing in number.
(v) Cancers, mutations, effect on eyesight, global warming,
As the animals which used to feed on them decrease in weakening of immune system, etc., are some adverse
number, therefore, the population of those organisms effects of ozone depletion.
increases.
7. Assertion (A) The green plants capture about 10%
Chapter Test of the energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves.
Reason (R) When green plants are eaten by primary
consumers, a great deal of energy is lost as heat to
Multiple Choice Questions the environment.
1. Which of the following option correctly represents the 8. Assertion (A) Biodegradable domestic wastes can
biotic and abiotic components of ecosystem? be buried in a pit, dug into ground.
Reason (R) They are converted into compost and
Biotic components Abiotic components used as manure.
(a) Soil Water Short Answer Type Questions
(b) Plants Animals 9. Suggest one word for each of the following
statements.
(c) Animals Decomposers
I. The physical and biological world where we live.
(d) Decomposers Water II. The physical factors like rainfall, wind, soil are
termed as.
2. Biomagnification is highest in
III. Trophic level of plant-eating animals.
(a) producer
(b) primary consumer IV. Each level of food chain where transfer of energy
(c) secondary consumer takes place.
(d) decomposer 10. What percentage of solar energy is trapped and
3. Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates from inorganic utilised in terrestrial and aquatic ecosystem?
compounds using radiant energy are called 11. Which chemical is used in fire extinguishers? How is
(a) decomposers (b) producers it harmful?
(c) herbivores (d) carnivores 12. Among all four types of animals, i.e. carnivores,
4. In a food chain, the snake an predates as rabbit which fed decomposers, herbivores and producers, how
on fresh green bushes. What percentage of the energy does energy flow in an ecosystem, occur through
accumulated by rabbit, would be acquired by snakes? these organisms? Explain with the help of example.
(a) 90% (b) 10% 13. How are water bodies affected by sewage disposal?
(c) 50% (d) 25%
5. Bad ozone is formed in
(a) atmosphere 14. ‘Number of vultures are decreasing remarkably
(b) ionosphere
now-a-days, which is a matter of concern’.
(c) stratosphere Answer the following questions related to the
(d) troposphere above given statement.
(i) Vultures belong to which category of animals?
(ii) What is their role in nature to maintain ecological
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-8) Each of these questions contains balance?
two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Each of (iii) At which trophic level, will you place vultures in a
these questions also has four alternative choices, any one food chain?
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of (iv) How much energy is passed on at each trophic
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. level in a food chain? Give the energy flow
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A diagram of an ecosystem.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation (v) Mention one of the main cause for this decline in
of A the number of vultures.
15. Salman wants to volunteer for Swachh Bharat
Abhiyan intership. He got a responsibility to device
6. Assertion (A) The autotrophs are at the first trophic level. various methods for garbage management. Help
Reason (R) Autotrophs fix up the solar energy and make it him to write various ways to control and manage
available for consumers. garbage.
Answers
For Detailed Solutions
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs Scan the code
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a)
CB SE Term II Science X
Science
Class 10th ( Term II)
*
Practice Paper 1
(Solved)
General Instructions Time : 2 Hours
Max. Marks : 40
1. There are 11 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A, Question no. 1 to 3 is a Case Based Questions, which has four MCQs/Questions. Each question carries one mark.
3. Section B, Question no. 4 to 8 are Short Answer Type Questions. Each question carries 2/3 marks.
4. Section C, Question no. 9-11 are Long Answer Type Questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
5. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. Students have to attempt
only one of the alternatives in such questions.
* As exact Blue-print and Pattern for CBSE Term II exams is not released yet. So the pattern of this
paper is designed by the author on the basis of trend of past CBSE Papers. Students are advised
not to consider the pattern of this paper as official, it is just for practice purpose.
Section A
1. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to (iv) given below
A student wants to study the dependence of potential difference (V) on current (I) flowing across a resistor.
He plotted a graph by taking I along X-axis and V along Y-axis of all his observations.
Y
Potential difference (v)
1.0
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
X
0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
Current (I)
(i) The value of resistance used in the circuit is
(a) 1  (b) 2  (c) 4  (d) 0.5 
(ii) The inverse of the slope of V-I curve gives
(a) resistance (b) conductance (c) reactance (d) resistivity
(iii) The correct representation of Ohm’s law is
1 1
(a) V  (b) I  (c) V  I (d) I  V
I V
(iv) His friend noticed some observations from this demonstration as follows
1. The slope of the line gives the resistance of a conductor.
2. Motion of electrons through a conductor is retarded by its resistance.
3. All conductors do not obey Ohm’s law.
Which of the following observation(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Or 3. Read the following and answer the questions from

What is the use of the variable resistor in the circuit in (i) to (iv) given below
the Ohm’s law experiment shown below?
Sex-determination is the method by which
distinction between males and females is
A established in a species. The sex of an individual is
determined by specific chromosomes. In human
beings, it is determined as follows
Sperms Egg
V and
X Y X
I. To change the voltage across the fixed resistor.
XX XY
II. To change the resistance across the fixed resistor.
III. To change the current flowing through the fixed (i) In XX-XY type of sex-determination,
resistor. (a) females produce two different types of gametes
(a) Only I (b) Only III (b) males produce two different types of gametes
(c) I and III only (d) I, II and III (c) female produces gametes with Y-chromosome
2. Read the following and answer the questions from (d) male produces gametes with X-chromosome only
(i) to (iv) given below (ii) A couple has six daughters. What is the possibility
In modern periodic table, some properties show a of them having a girl child next time?
regular trend when we move along a period from (a) 10% (b) 90% (c) 100% (d) 50%
left to right or in a group from top to bottom. (iii) Number of chromosome present in the egg cell of a
Atomic size refers to the radius of an atom. It may human female is
be visualised as the distance between the centre of (a) 23 pairs (b) 23
the nucleus and the outermost shell of an isolated (c) 22 (d) 22 pairs
atom. It is measured in picometres. (iv) Choose the incorrect statement from the following
About 75% of all elements in one periodic table are set of statements.
metals. The most common metal found in the I. XX-XY type of sex-determination is the example of
Earth’s crust is aluminium. The non-metals also are male heterogamety.
some of the most abundant elements in the II. XX-XY type of sex-determination is the example of
universe including the Earth’s crust, the female heterogamety.
atmosphere and the human body. III. There are always 50% chances of having a baby girl
The position of three elements A, B and C in the child.
periodic table are shown below IV. Changes in the non-reproductive tissues can be
passed on to the DNA of the germ cells.
Group 16 Group 17
Codes
— — (a) I and III (b) II and IV
— A (c) III and IV (d) I and III
— — Or
B C Sex of human child is determined by
(a) size of the egg (b) size of the sperm
(i) State whether A is a metal or non-metal. (c) type of the sperm (d) type of the egg
(ii) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive
than A. Section B
(iii) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B? 4. Choose the kind of chemical bonding (ionic
(iv) Which type of ion- cation or anion, will be formed bond, covalent bond, both ionic and covalent
by A? bonds)
Or present in the following compounds. Potassium
What are metalloids? Give examples. chloride, magnesium oxide, sulphuric acid,
ammonium hydroxide, zinc sulphide, phosphorus
trichloride (PCl3 ). [2 M]
Or
Section C
Write the name and structure of a saturated
compound in which the carbon atoms are 9. (i) Which is the better way to connect lights and other
arranged in a ring. Give the number of single appliances in domestic circuit, series connection or
bonds present in this compound. [2 M] parallel connection? Justify your answer.
(ii) An electrician has made electric circuit of a house in
5. Differentiate between pollen tube and style. [2 M] such a way that, if a lamp gets fused in a room of the
6. For the current carrying solenoid as shown below, house, then all the lamps in other rooms of the
draw magnetic field lines and give reason to house stop working. What is the defect in this type
explain that out of the three points A, B and C at of circuit wiring? Give reason.
which point, the field strength is maximum and at Or
which point, it is minimum.
B Three incandescent bulbs of 100 W each are
connected in series in an electric circuit. In another
set of three bulbs of the same wattage are connected
A in parallel to the source.
C
(i) Will the bulb in the two circuits glow with the same
I I [3 M]
brightness? Justify your answer.
Or (ii) Now, let one bulb in both the circuits get fused. Will
Diagram shows the lengthwise section of a current the rest of the bulbs continue to glow in each circuit?
carrying solenoid. Give reason.
 Indicates current entering into the page, 10. Differentiate between monohybrid and dihybrid
• Indicates current emerging out of the page. crosses with the help of an example.
Or
A B Explain the term ‘regeneration’ as used in relation to
reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how
regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms
Decide which end of the solenoid A or B, will like Hydra?
behave as North pole. Give reason for your
answer. Also, draw field lines inside the 11. (i) How can pregnancy be prevented surgically?
solenoid. [3 M] (ii) Study the diagram given below
7. Give an example of each of the following
(i) A carbon compound containing two double
bonds.
(ii) A molecule in which central atom is linked to
three other atoms.
(iii) A compound containing both ionic and covalent (a) Identify the process.
bonds. [3 M] (b) Which organism uses the above method for
reproduction?
Or
(c) How is the above method different from the
Define homologous series. Examine it with an
process of fragmentation?
example. Will there be any change in their physical
properties? Give reason for your answer. [3 M] Or (i) Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable
wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins?
8. Give any three points of differentiation between
acquired and inherited characters with one (ii) Why do we exemplify crop fields as artificial
ecosystem?
example each. [3 M]
Explanations
1. (i) (a) The slope of V-I graph gives resistance. (ii) (d) When a sperm having an X-chromosome fuses with
0.4 − 0 0.4 the egg, the zygote formed will develop into a female
 Resistance = = = 1 baby whereas when a sperm having Y-chromosome
0.4 − 0 0.4 fuses with the egg, the zygote formed will develop into
(ii) (b) The inverse of the slope of V-I curve gives a male baby. Thus, there are always 50% chances of
conductance. i.e. having a girl child by the couple.
1 1 (iii) (d) Gametes are haploid in nature, i.e they contain half
= = Conductance ()
Slope Resistance (R) the number of chromosomes as compared to other
somatic cells. Human beings have 23 pairs of
(iii) (d) The correct representation of Ohm’s law is I  V. It
chromosomes. Therefore, the egg cell (gamete) contains
states that current flowing through the conductor is 23 chromosomes only.
directly proportional to the potential difference
(iv) (b) Statements II and IV are incorrect and can be
applied across the conductor.
corrected as
(iv) (d) All the observations are correct. The slope of the ◆
XX-XY type of sex-determination shows male
line in V-I graph gives the resistance of a conductor heterogamety and female homogamety.
whereas motion of electrons through a conductor is ◆
Changes in the non-reproductive tissues cannot be
retarded by its resistance.
passed on to the DNA of the germ cells.
All conductors do not obey Ohm’s law i.e., Ohm’s
Or (c) Sex of a human child is determined by the type of sperm
law is not universal.
(X or Y) that fuses with egg during fertilisation.
Or (c) Ohm’s law states that the resistance (ratio of the voltage
A sperm with an X-chromosome will produce a baby girl and
across the fixed resistor to the current flowing through
that with Y-chromosome will produce a baby boy on
it) is constant. The aim of Ohm’s law experiment is to
fertilisation.
find the resistance of a fixed resistor. By adjusting the
variable resistor. 4.
Covalent
• the voltage across the variable resistor and fixed Ionic bond Both ionic and
bond covalent bond
resistor will change.
• the total resistance in the circuit will change (i) Potassium chloride Phosphorus Sulphuric acid
leading to a change in current flowing through the (ii) Magnesium oxide trichloride Ammonium
fixed resistor. hydroxide
(iii) Zinc sulphide
2. (i) Since, A belongs to group 17 and has 7 valence
electrons so it is a non-metal because it will gain one Or Cyclopropane
electron to complete its octet. H H
(ii) C lies below A and belong to the same group. As we H C H

move down a group, the size increases and C C
electronegative character decreases. With the decrease H H
in electronegative character, the electron accepting Cyclopropane contains three CC single bond and six CH
tendency and hence the reactivity of non-metals single bond.
decreases, so C is less reactive than A. Total 9 single bonds are present in cyclopropane.
(iii) C and B both belongs to the same period therefore, C is 5. Differences between pollen tube and style are as follows
smaller than B in size because as we move left to right
in a period, atomic size decreases due to increased Pollen Tube Style
effective nuclear charge.
A tube growing out of pollen The middle elongated
(iv) As discussed in that element A has a tendency to gain grain when it reaches stigma. part of the carpel, i.e.
electron to complete its octet. It needs to take up one female part of a flower.
electron, so it will form anion (A −). It transports male gametes The attachment of stigma
Or These are some elements which exhibit the properties from pollen grains to ovules. to the ovary.
of both metals and non-metals. These are called
metalloids. In modern periodic table, a zig-zag line 6. Magnetic field lines due to a solenoid
separates metals from non-metals.
The border line elements—boron, silicon, antimony are B
intermediate in properties, so they are called mtalloids
or semi-metals.
A
3. (i) (b) In XX-XY type of sex-determination (human’s sex-
determination), the males produce two different types C
of gametes, one contains X-chromosome whereas the I I
other contains Y-chromosome.
In case of an ideal solenoid, magnetic field strength is 9. (i) Parallel connection is a better way to connect lights and
maximum at point A and is minimum or zero at point B. This other appliances in domestic circuit.
is because the magnetic field is strong, where magnetic field It is because
lines are crowded and is weak, where magnetic field lines
(a) when we connect a number of devices in parallel
are far apart. At the point C, the density of the field lines is
less than that of point A but greater than that of point B. So,
combination, each device gets the same potential
the order of magnetic field at points A, B and C is as provided by the battery and it keeps on
working even, if other devices stop working.
BB  BC  BA
Or From diagram, we can see that current is entering from A (b) parallel connection is helpful when each device
and emerging out from B. has different resistances and requires different
current for its operation as in this case the
current divides itself through different devices
unlike series connection.
A B (ii) Electrician has made series connection of all the lamps
in electric circuit of house because of which, if one
lamp gets fused, all the other lamps stop working.
This is due to the fact that when devices are connected
in series, then if one device fails, the circuit gets broken
Thus, using right hand thumb rule, direction of magnetic and all the devices in that circuit stop working.
field lines is from B to A. We know that, magnetic field lines Or (i) Let us assume that the resistance of each bulb be R.
move from North to South direction. Thus, B represents The circuit diagram in two cases may be drawn as given
North pole or A represents South pole. below
7. (i) Carbon dioxide (CO2) B1
•• A1
(ii) Ammonia molecule (NH3 ) H— N— H A
B1 B2 B3 B2
 A2
H + – K B3
A3
(iii) Ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) contains both ionic and
K
covalent bonds. V
+ –
 H  +
 |  Equivalent resistance in series combination
 H N H C l − R = R + R + R = 3R, voltage = V
 |  S
 H  Let current through each bulb in series combination be I1 .
V
Or A series of similarly constituted compounds in which the By Ohm’s law, V = I1  3R  I 1=
members present have the same functional group and 3R
similar chemical properties and any two successive members Power consumption of2 each bulb in series combination,
in a particular series differ in their molecular formula by V V2 V2
( CH ) unit, is called a homologous series, e.g. alkane P = I2( 3R) =    3R =  3R = ...(i)
2 1 1  3R 9R 2 3R
series CnH2n+ 2 . For parallel circuit, the resistance of each bulb = R
CH4 Methane C2H6 Ethane C3H8 Voltage across each bulb = V
Propane C4H10 Butane [Q same voltage in parallel combination]
C5 H12 Pentane  Power consumption of each bulb in parallel combination
is given by
With increase in the molecular mass, a gradual change in V2
their physical properties is seen. e.g. The melting and P2 = …(ii)
R
boiling points increase with increasing molecular mass. From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
8. Differences between acquired and inherited traits are as P2 ( V2 / R )
follows =
P1 ( V 2 / 3R )
Acquired Characters Inherited Characters V2 3R
  =3  P2 = 3P1
They develop in the organism They are received by the R V2
during their lifetime. organisms from their parents. Therefore, each bulb in parallel combination glows 3 times
brighter than that of each bulb in series combination.
They do not bring any change They bring about certain changes
(ii) When one bulb gets fused then in series combination, the
in the genes of organisms. in the genes of the organisms.
circuit gets broken and current stops flowing, whereas in
They are lost with the death of They are transferred to the next parallel combination, same voltage continues to act on the
the individual, e.g. intelligence. generation, e.g. free and fused remaining bulbs and hence other bulbs continues to glow
earlobes. with same brightness.
10. Differences between monohybrid and dihybrid crosses are Or

as follows Regeneration is used in relation to reproduction because
Monohybrid cross between homozygous tall plant and reproduction is the process by which a living organism is able
homozygous short plant is shown below to produce new individuals of its own kind likewise
regeneration is the ability of some organisms to give rise to
Monohybrid cross A hybridisation cross in which new organisms when the individual is cut or broken up into
inheritance of only one pair of many pieces.
contrasting characters is studied.
It is seen in Hydra and Planaria.
Dihybrid cross A cross in which inheritance of two Regeneration in Multicellular Organism like Hydra
pairs of contrasting characters is
(i) It is carried out by specialised cells.
simultaneously studied.
(ii) When Hydra is cut or broken up into many pieces, these
specialised cells proliferate and make large number of
cells.
(iii) From this mass of cells, different cells undergo changes
to become various cell types and tissues.
(iv) These changes take place in an organised sequence
referred to as development thereby making each piece
to grow into a separate individual.
Tall Short All tall offsprings
(TT) × (tt) (Tt)
11. (i) When vas deferens in males are blocked surgically,
sperm transfer is be prevented. Similarly, when
P×P F1 Fallopian tubes are blocked in females the egg will
not be able to reach the uterus therby preventing
pregnancy.
(ii) (a) The process in the figure depicts binary fission in
Amoeba,a method of asexual reproduction.
(b) Binary fission also occurs in Euglena and Paramecium,
etc.
(c) Differences between fission and fragmentation are as
Tall Tall Tall Tall Tall Short
F F2 follows
(Tt) × (Tt) 1 (TT) (Tt) (Tt) (tt)
Fission Fragmentation
Dihybrid cross between pure breed of plants having Round
and Green seed and Wrinkled and Yellow seeds is shown It is the division of parent It is the division of
below body into two identical parent body into two
Parents
daughter cells. or more small fragments.
RRyy × rrYY
(Round green) (Wrinkled yellow) It occurs in unicellular It occurs only in
  organisms or multicellular multicellular organisms
Gametes Ry rY organisms with simple body with complex cellular
organisation. organisations.
F1-generation
RrYy e.g. Amoeba, Plasmodium e.g. Spirogyra (algae)
(Round yellow)
×
(protozoan)
F1 F1
Or (i) Biodegradable materials are broken down by
RY Ry rY ry microorganisms in nature into simple harmless
F2 substances. Non-biodegradable materials need a
RY
different treatment like heat and temperature for
RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy
disposal and hence, both should be discarded in two
different dustbins.
Ry
(ii) Artificial ecosystems are those ecosystems which are
RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
modified and managed by human beings.
rY Crop fields are man-made. Here plants do not grow
RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy naturally rather most of the plants are grown by humans
ry according to the season, type of soil, etc.
RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy In crop fields, the land is managed, soil is prepared
Ratio for sowing seeds, then irrigated and further
progress is also kept under observation for getting good
108 round green 3
101 wrinkled yellow
yield.
3
32 wrinkled green 1 This is why, crop fields are known as artificial ecosystem.
556 seeds 16
CBS E Term II Science X 131
Science
*
Practice Paper 2
(UnSolved)

Max. Marks : 40
Section A
1. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to (iv) given below.
After the discovery of large number of elements it became necessary to classify them and arrange them in a
regular manner in order of their periodic properties. In order to study the properties of all these elements
separately, scientists felt the necessity to group elements having similar characteristics together. So, all the
elements have been divided into few groups in such a way that elements in the same group have similar
properties of elements.
In 1817, Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner’ triad to arrange the elements with similar properties into groups. He
identified some groups fo three elements having similar physical and chemical properties, known as
Dobereiner’s triads.
In 1865, John Newlands arranged all known elements in the order of increasing atomic masses and found
that the properties of every eighth element are similar to the properties of the first element.
(i) If Cl, Br, I is a Dobereiner’s triad and the atomic masses of Cl and I are 35.5 and 127 respectively, then the
atomic mass of Br is
(a) 162.5 (b) 91.5 (c) 81.25 (d) 45.625
(ii) Example of Dobereiner’s triad is
(a) Li, Al, Ca (b) Li, Na, K (c) Li, K, Na (d) K, Al, Ca
(iii) A and B are two elements having similar properties which obey Newlands’ law of octaves. How many elements
are there in between A and B ?
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 6
(iv) According to the Newland’s law of octaves, the properties of magnesium are similar to those of
(a) beryllium (b) lithium (c) sodium (d) potassium
Or
On what basis the elements are arranged in Dobereiner’s triad?
(a) Atomic number (b) Atomic mass
(c) Number of neutrons (d) Number of electrons
2. Read the following and answer the questions from

(i) to (iv) given below.
(a) (b)
Devices in series and parallel.
You must have seen tiny bulbs strung together for
decorating buildings during festivals like Diwali,
and occasions like marriages, etc. These bulbs are
connected in series and the mains voltage is applied
(c) (d)
to the combination. (as shown in figure)
I R1 R2 R3 R4
Or Which of the following option(s) is/are correct for

the given statements about series combination?
(i) Current flowing in series combination is same in
+ V– all the resistors of the circuit.
AC mains
(ii) Potential difference across each resistor in the
circuit is same.
The potential difference (V) of the mains gets (iii) Equivalent resistance of the circuit is the product
divided across the bulbs (V = V1 + V2 + V3 +K) of all the resistances.
So, a small potential difference exists across each (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
bulb, close to that required to make the bulb work. (c) Only (i) and (ii) (d) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(i) The equivalent resistor of series combination of 3. Read the following and answer the questions from
four equal resistors is S. If they are joined in (i) to (iv) given below.
parallel, the total resistance is P. The relation
The amount of ozone in the atmosphere began to
between S and P is given by S = nP, then the
minimum possible value of n is (as shown in drop sharply in the 1980s. This decrease has been
figure) linked to synthetic chemicals which are used as
R
refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
R
R R R R
R
Solar radiation
R
Series
Parallel
Ozone Layer
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 10
(ii) In a series combination when high resistors are
connected with each other then, the value of
Harmful UV rays
current for the potential difference V will be
(a) increased CFCs etc
(b) decreased
(c) increased first then decreased
(d) None of the above
(iii) In the circuit shows below, the value of current I
flowing will be
(i) Which layer of the atmosphere consists of ozone

2V layer?
1  2  (ii) Why ozone is important for us?
(iii) Give one reason for damaging ozone layer.
1  (iv) What are the effects due to depletion of ozone
1 2 3 layer?
(a) A (b) 1 A (c) 2A (d) A
2 3 2 Or
(iv) Which arrangement of 3 resistors will give a total Where was the first ozone hole discovered?
resistance of 7?
Section B 7. It is the responsibility of the government to arrange

for the management and disposal of waste. As an
4. ‘Males are heterogametic’ Explain. [2 M] individual you have no role to play. Do you agree.
5. What are the advantages of connecting electrical Support your answers with two reasons. [3 M]
appliances in parallel with the battery instead of Or “The chromosome number of the sexually
connecting them in series? [2 M] producing parents and their offsprings is the same”.
Or Justify this statement. [3 M]
I 8. A magnetic compass needle is placed in
A
the plane of paper near point A as
shown in the figure. In which plane A
should a straight current carrying
12 V R1=4  R2 conductor be placed, so that it passes S
through A and there is no change in the
deflection of the compass? Under what condition is
B
the deflection maximum and why? [3 M]
A student has two resistors 2  and 3 . She has o t

put one of them in place of R 2 as shown in the Section C
circuit. The current that she needs in the entire 9. Define all the events in correct sequence that lead
circuit is exactly 9 A. Show by calculation which of to pregnancy in a female.
the two resistors she should choose. [2 M]
Or
6. An element X belongs to 3rd period and group 16 of What is meant by the word contraception? Discuss
the modern periodic table. the types of surgical method of contraception.
(i) Determine the number of valence electrons and
the valency of X. 10. (i) Describe an activity to obtain magnetic field line
around current carrying straight conductor.
(ii) Molecular formula of the compound when X
reacts with hydrogen and write its electron dot (ii) State the rule used to find the direction of this
structure. magnetic field.
(iii) How does magnitude of magnetic field depend on
(iii) Name the element X and state whether it is
metallic or non-metallic. [3 M]
current through a conductor?
Or Consider the part of periodic table given below and Or (i) Prachi draws magnetic field lines of field close to
the axis of a current carrying circular loop. As she
answer the following questions.
moves away from the centre of the circular loop.
Group → As she moves away from centre of the circular
1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
Period loop, she observes that the lines keep on
1 a j diverging. How will you explain her observation?
2
(ii) How will you use a solenoid to magnetise a steel
b e g h k
bar?
3 c f i l
11. (i) What are hydrocarbons? Give examples.
4 d
(ii) Give the structural differences between saturated
(i) The atom of which element is smaller in size e or h? and unsaturated hydrocarbons with two examples
(ii) Which element is the most electropositive in each.
nature? (iii) What is functional group? Give examples of four
(iii) Which element has only one proton in its atom? different functional groups.
(iv) What is the valency of g? Or Define structural isomer and draw the isomeric
(v) How many valence electrons does g have? structures of butane. Compare the structure of
(vi) Name the element which is a metalloid. [3 M]
benzene and cyclohexane by drawing them.
Answers
1. (i) - (c); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (a, b) 2. (i) - (c); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (d, a)
Science
*
Practice Paper 3
(UnSolved)

Max. Marks : 40
Section A
1. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to (iv) given below
Menstrual cycle is the cycle of events taking place in female reproductive organs, under the control of sex
hormones, in every 28 days.
Diagrammatic representation of various events occurring during menstrual cycle is shown below
homone levels homone levels
Pituitary
FSH LH
Oestrogen
Ovarian
Progesterone
1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29/1
Menstruation Follicular phase Luteal phase Next cycle
(1-4 days) (Proliferative phase) (Secretory phase) begins
(5-14 days) (15-28 days)
(i) What changes take place in the uterus of a menstruating female?

(a) Release of egg into uterus (b) Fusion of male and female gametes
(c) Breakdown of uterine lining (d) Building up of uterine lining\
(ii) Zygote differs from embryo in a manner that
(a) it is larger in size (b) it is single-celled
(c) it is multicellular (d) it is obtained as a result of fusion
(iii) The average duration of human pregnancy is
(a) 7 months (b) 6 months (c) 12 months (d) 9 months
(iv) The release of eggs from the ovary of a human female is A galvanometer pointer gives a momentary
called deflection to the right of the zero position
(a) ovulation (b) menstruation when it is connected to a small coil and a
(c) pregnancy (d) fertilisation magnet is allowed to fall towards the coil.
Or Uterus is also called (i) Where will the galvanometer pointer move, if
(a) ureter (b) fallopian tube the magnet moves through the coil and it
(c) womb (d) ovary falls away from the coil?
2. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to (ii) Predict the direction of induced current
(iv) given below using Fleming’s right hand rule.
Food, clothes, medicines, books, or many of the things (iii) What is the magnitude of the induced
are all based on this versatile element carbon. In current in the circular loop KLMN of radius
addition, all living structures are carbon based. The r, if the straight wire PQ carries a steady
earth’s crust has only 0.02% carbon in the form of current of magnitude 1 ampere?
K
minerals. The element carbon occurs in different forms
in nature will widely varying physical properties. Both
diamond and graphite are formed by carbon atoms, the N L
difference lies in the manner in which the carbon atoms
are bonded to one another. Carbon has the unique ability M
to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to
P Q
large molecules. This property is called catenation.
(iv) How can you show that the magnetic field
(i) The various layers of carbon atoms in graphite are held
produced by a given electric current in the
together by.......... force?
wire decreases as the distance from the wire
(a) H-bonding (b) weak van der Waals’
increases?
(c) London (d) electrostatic
Or
(ii) Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Graphite is much less dense than diamond State the phenomenon of “electromagnetic
(b) Graphite is black and soft induction”.
(c) Graphite has low melting point
(d) Graphite feels smooth and slippery Section B
(iii) Which of the following are isomers? 4. A plant is heterozygous for a pair of alleles.
(a) Butane and isobutene (b) Ethane and ethene This plant is self-pollinated and the resulting
(c) Propane and propyne (d) Butane and isobutane seeds are germinated and allow to grow.
(iv) Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon? Write the ratios of phenotypes and genotypes
(a) Soot (b) Graphite of expected offsprings. [2 M]
(c) Diamond (d) Carborundum
5. Draw the electron dot structure of
Or
(a) H2 S molecule
Propane has the molecular formula C3 H8 . It has (b) Ethene [2 M]
(a) 10 covalent bonds (b) 12 covalent bonds
(c) 8 covalent bonds (d) 3 covalent bonds
Or
Write any two difference between covalent
and ionic compounds. [2 M]
(iv) given below
S
6. What is meant by pollination? Differentiate
between the two modes of pollination in
N flowering plants. [3 M]
Galvanometer
7. What is meant by non-biodegradable waste?
Why is the government stressing more on
the use of jute/paper bags instead of plastic
bags? [3 M]
Or Or
The sperms are tiny bodies that consist of mainly What harmful effects do agricultural practices have on
genetic material and a long tail the environment?
X Y
(i) Where are the sperms produced? 10 A small valued resistance XY is
(ii) What is the role of the long tail?
. connected across the ends of a
(iii) How are the sperms delivered from the site of coil. Predict the direction of
their production? [3 M] induced current in the resistance
A B
8. An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of 840 XY, when S
W when heating is at the maximum rate and 360 (i) South pole of a magnet moves towards end A of coil.
W when the heating is at the minimum rate. The (ii) South pole of magnet moves away from end A of the
applied voltage is 220 V. coil.
What is the value of current and the resistance Or A coil made of insulated copper wire is connected toa
in each case? [3 M] galvanometer. What will happen to the deflection of
Or the galvanometer if this coil is moved towards a
Derive an expression for equivalent resistance in stationary bar magnet and then moved away from it?
the following case Give reason for your answer and name the
phenomenon involved.
R2 R3 11. Consider two elements A (atomic number = 17) and B
R1 (atomic number = 19).
A B
(i) Write the positions of these elements in the modern
R4 R5
periodic table giving justification.
(ii) Write the formula of the compound formed when A
Decide which resistances are in series and combines with B.
parallel. Solve for series and then for parallel.
(iii) Draw the electron dot structure of the compound and
Combine both the results to get the equivalent state the nature of the bond formed between the two
resistance. [3 M]
elements.
Or (i) How is the valency of an element determine if its
Section C electronic configuration is known? Determine the
9. (i) State any three characteristics of sexual valency of an element of atomic number 9.
reproduction. (ii) Which one of the above elements belonging to the
(ii) Explain what happens to the egg, once it gets fourth period has bigger atomic radius and why?
fertilised in human female.
Answers
1. (i) - (c); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (a, c) 2. (i) - (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (d, a)

Arihant Science Term 2 Question Bank Class 10th

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CBSE Term II 7

Watch Free Learning Videos

 Video Solutions of CBSE Sample Papers

Practice Papers (1-3) 125-136

One Paper Max Marks: 40

THEME THE WORLD OF THE LIVING

THEME NATURAL PHENOMENA

THEME NATURAL RESOURCES

dsUnzh; ek/;fed f'k{kk cksMZ

Hkkjr CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

Hkkjr CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

Carbon and It's

Carbon is the third most important element after oxygen and ◆

because it possesses 4 valence electrons and hydrogen is ◆

H H H Structure of Cyclic Compounds

Isomerism Names and Formulae of Functional Group

3. Which of the following is the correct representation B. C6H6 (ii) Alkyne

PART 2 15. Write the molecular formula of the following

H H H any reference to space, the phenomenon is called

Cl C Cl or Cl —C — Cl (ii) Tetravalency It has 4 valence electrons, so it can form

Cl double bonds or a single and a triple bond with other

Electron dot structure of cyclopentane

oxygen atoms which consists of four electrons.

(iii) They do not conduct electricity as they do not contain HHOH

Newland’s Law of Octaves Features of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table

Mendeleev’s Periodic Table (Published in a German journal in 1872)

Periods  A B A B A B A B A B A B A B Transition series

113 114 115 116 117 118

f -block or inner-transition elements

CBSE Term II Science X

8. Which of the following gives the correct increasing A

Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each of these questions Cs 0.262 Ba 0.217

The process by which living organisms produce its own kind

Multiple fission in Plasmodium artificial vegetative reproduction, e.g. cutting, layering,

Spore formation in Rhizopus v

II. Modes of Sexual Reproduction Pollination

(Fallopian tube) ovary.

Testis It is the site of fertilisation.

Parts Details The growth and development of foetus takes

Some Common STDs

I. It is a basic event in reproduction.

its cut body parts is

10. Which of the following is not a secondary (ii)

D ◆ Case Based Questions

40. (i) Identify the given diagram. Name the parts

(i) Which part of the flower develops into seed?

killed and extracted. This creates an imbalanced in the Anther

41. (i) (i) Prevention of unwanted pregnancies by using

Accumulation of Variations During

RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy

RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy

Expression of Traits Zygote

◆ Multiple Choice Questions 8. The genotype of the height of an organism is written

108 round green 3 Wrinkled, yellow 202

Subjective Questions However, when he self-crossed plants of F1-generation, he

9. In case II Let assume that ‘O’ is dominant. In this case, the

Tall plant Tall plant (TT) (Tt) (Tt) (tt) RrYy

(Green pod colour)

conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference

VI [at constant temperature]