English MCQ - New
English MCQ - New
English MCQ - New
Please note that we have received a few sample MCQ based Test
Papers from publishing houses, which we would like to share with
you, to help you prepare for the forthcoming Semester 1
Examinations.
Please note that these sample papers are being uploaded for the
purpose of revision.
Question 1
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
I was never able to get over the feeling that plants and trees loved Grandfather with as much tenderness
as he loved them. I was sitting beside him on the veranda steps one morning, when I noticed the tendril
of a creeping vine that was trailing near my feet. As we sat there, in the soft sunshine of a north Indian
winter, I saw that the tendril was moving very slowly away from me and towards Grandfather. Twenty
minutes later it had crossed the veranda step and was touching Grandfather’s feet.
There is probably a scientific explanation for the plant’s behaviour something to do with light and
warmth—but I like to think that it moved that way simply because it was fond of Grandfather. One
felt like drawing close to him. Sometimes when I sat alone beneath a tree I would feel a little lonely
or lost; but as soon as Grandfather joined me, the garden would become a happy place, the tree itself
more friendly.
Grandfather had served many years in the Indian Forest Service, and so it was natural that he should
know and understand and like trees. On his retirement from the Service, he had built a bungalow on
the outskirts of Dehra, planting trees all round it: limes, mangoes, oranges and guavas; also eucalyptus,
jacaranda and the Persian lilac. In the fertile Doon valley, plants and trees grew tall and strong.
There were other trees in the compound before the house was built, including an old peepul which had
forced its way through the walls of an abandoned outhouse, knocking the bricks down with its vigorous
growth. Peepul trees are great show-offs. Even when there is no breeze, their broad-chested, slim-waisted
leaves will spin like tops, determined to attract your attention and invite you into the shade.
Grandmother had wanted the peepul tree cut down, but Grandfather had said, ‘Let it be. We can always
build another outhouse.’
Our gardener, Govind, who was a Hindu, was pleased that we had allowed the tree to live. Peepul trees
are sacred to Hindus, and some people believe that ghosts live in the branches of these trees.
‘If we cut the tree down, wouldn’t the ghosts go away?’ I asked.
‘I don’t know,’ said Grandfather. ‘Perhaps they’d come into the house.’
Govind wouldn’t walk under the tree at night. He said that once, when he was a youth, he had wandered
beneath a peepul tree late at night, and that something heavy had fallen with a thud on his shoulders.
Since then he had always walked with a slight stoop, he explained.
‘Nonsense,’ said Grandmother, who didn’t believe in ghosts. ‘He got his stoop from squatting on his
haunches year after year, weeding with that tiny spade of his!’
(a) For each word given below choose the correct meaning (as used in the passage) from the options
provided:[3]
(i) tenderness:
1. affection 2. soreness 3. youthfulness
(ii) explanation:
1. an excuse or pretext
2. a statement or account that makes something clear
3. a long-winded speech
(iii) vigorous:
1. strong, healthy, and full of energy
2. manipulating and meandering
3. timorous
(b) Why did the author feel that plants loved Grandfather with as much tenderness as he loved them?
[2]
1. He saw the tendril of a creeping vine move very slowly towards Grandfather and cross the
veranda step to touch Grandfather’s feet.
2. Because the creeper moved as they sat there, in the soft sunshine of a north Indian winter; it
was something to do with light and warmth.
3. He saw the tendril of a creeping vine moving very slowly towards him, crossing the veranda
step to touch the author’s feet.
(c) Where had Grandfather worked for many years? [2]
1. the Indian Revenue Service 2. the Botanical Gardens 3. the Indian Forest Service
(d) Which trees did Grandfather plant around his bungalow? [2]
1. limes, mangoes, oranges, guavas, eucalyptus, jacaranda, the Persian lilac and a peepul tree
2. limes, mangoes, oranges, guavas, eucalyptus, jacaranda and the Persian lilac
3. creeper vines, limes, mangoes, oranges, guavas, eucalyptus, jacaranda, the Persian lilac, ladybirds
and caterpillars
(e) Why does the author say peepul trees are great show-offs? [2]
1. because there are peepul trees all over India, and people sometimes leave offerings of milk and
flowers beneath them to keep the spirits happy.
2. because even when there is no breeze, their broad-chested, slim-waisted leaves will spin like
tops, determined to attract your attention and invite you into the shade.
3. because ghosts lived in peepul trees where there was both board and lodging.
ICSE Semester 1 English Language 5
(f) How do we know Grandfather was fit? [2]
1. because even at about sixty he was a lean active man who still rode his bicycle at great speed.
2. because he climbed up but couldn’t get down from the jackfruit tree.
3. because he planted so many trees around his bungalow all by himself.
(g) Why did ladybirds or caterpillars sometimes wander about on the tablecloth? [2]
1. because Grandfather came straight to the dining table after his work in the garden.
2. because Grandfather loved both plants and animals and liked to keep them near.
3. because Grandfather wore his gardening clothes at mealtimes and they would wander off his
shirtsleeves and onto the tablecloth.
(h) What has the author said about the old peepul tree? Which of the following combination of sentences
best summarizes the answer? [5]
1. The old peepul knocked down the brick walls of an abandoned outhouse with its vigorous
growth. There are peepul trees all over India, and people sometimes leave offerings of milk and
flowers beneath them to keep the spirits happy. Govind said that once, when he was a youth,
he had wandered beneath a peepul tree late at night, and that something heavy had fallen with
a thud on his shoulders. Since then he had always walked with a slight stoop.
2. The old peepul knocked down the brick walls of an abandoned outhouse with its vigorous
growth. Grandmother wanted it cut down but Grandfather said they could always build another
one. Govind was pleased but frightened of resident ghosts. As no one left any offerings under
the tree, the author decided the ghosts must have left in disgust, to look for trees offering board
and lodging.
3. The old peepul knocked down the brick walls of an abandoned outhouse with its vigorous
growth. There are peepul trees all over India, and people sometimes leave offerings of milk and
flowers beneath them to keep the spirits happy. Grandmother said Govind got his stoop from
squatting on his haunches year after year, weeding with that tiny spade of his rather than from
any resident ghosts alighting on his shoulders.
Question 2
(a) Fill in the blanks with the correct forms of the words provided after the passage: [4]
When he saw the cottage, over amongst some bushes with a rank growth of nettles at one end, he (i)
(think) it was a miserable place. But when he came close to the peeling lime wash, the torn-
down ivy, sagging roof, the (ii) (break) stone doorstep, thick with trampled mud, he saw that
it was a wretched house. The door (iii) (stand) half-open, stuck. He knocked at it and (iv)
(listen) to the acute silence. He knocked again firmly and thought he (v) (hear)
thin whisperings. He did not like the (vi) (hush) fear in the sounds, and was just about (vii)
(knock) peremptorily when there was a shuffling and, as quietly as an apparition, a woman
(viii) (is) there.
(i) 1. Thinks 2. thought 3. thinked
(ii) 1. Breaks 2. broken 3. breaking
(iii) 1. stood 2. is standing 3. had been standing
(iv) 1. was listening 2. had been listening 3. listened
(v) 1. could hear 2. had been hearing 3. was hearing
(vi) 1. Hushing 2. hushed 3. hush
(vii) 1. Knocked 2. knocking 3. to knock
(viii) 1. Be 2. is 3. was
(b) Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks: [4]
(i) Surprised _________ the noise, the judge called for silence.
1. on 2. at 3. with
6 ICSE Semester 1 English Language
(ii) Ravi’s parents are not happy ________ his behaviour.
1. for 2. by 3. with
(iii) The Colonel congratulated the soldiers _______ their victory.
1. beside 2. alongside 3. on
(iv) The planet was seen ________ the telescope.
1. outside 2. before 3. through
(v) He is not afraid _______ the consequences.
1. over 2. of 3. for
(vi) He rushed ______ the class as he was late.
1. into 2. onto 3. in
(vii) The school is famous _______its sports achievements.
1. of 2. for 3. besides
(viii) ___________ being clever, he is brave.
1. Despite 2. Besides 3. For
(c) Choose the correct option to join the following sentences without using ‘and’, ‘but’ or ‘so’: [4]
(i) She sells sea shells. She sells them on the sea shore.
1. She sells sea shells on the sea shore.
2. The sea shells which she sells are found on the sea shore.
3. She sells sea shells which are on the sea shore.
(ii) Why are you upset? Did someone scold you?
1. You are upset having been scolded by someone.
2. She asked him why he was upset and if he had been scolded.
3. Are you upset because someone scolded you?
(iii) She has not seen the message perhaps. She may have chosen to ignore it.
1. Perhaps she chose to ignore the message which she had seen.
2. She may either have not seen the message or chosen to ignore it.
3. Neither did she see the message nor ignore it.
(iv) I often wake up late in the mornings. I am never late for school.
1. Although I often wake up late in the mornings, I am never late for school.
2. I am sometimes late for school because I often wake up late in the mornings.
3. I am never late for school because I usually wake up on time.
(d) Read each sentence with its instructions. Choose the correct answer from the options provided
beneath each: [8]
(i) I couldn’t stop my teeth from chattering as it was very cold.
(Use ‘so’)
1. It was so cold that I couldn’t stop my teeth from chattering.
2. It was so difficult to stop my teeth from chattering it being cold.
3. I couldn’t stop my teeth from chattering so it was very cold.
(ii) As soon as the vacation begins, my neighbour rushes to the seaside.
(Begin: No sooner…)
1. No sooner does my vacation begin than the neighbour rushes to the seaside.
2. No sooner does the vacation begin than my neighbour rushes to the seaside.
3. No sooner did the vacation begin when my neighbour rushed to the seaside.
ICSE Semester 1 English Language 7
(iii) “Will you lend me the book tomorrow?” Priya asked her classmate.
(Begin: Priya asked her classmate if…………………………)
1. Priya asked her classmate if he would lend her the book the next day.
2. Priya asked her classmate if he would lent her the book tomorrow.
3. Priya asked her classmate if he will lend her the book the day after.
(iv) But for Laila’s support, the woman would have lost her job.
(Begin: Had…)
1. Had Laila supported her, the woman would not have lost her job.
2. Had Laila supported her, the woman would have lost her job.
3. Had it not been for Laila’s support, the woman would have lost her job.
(v) Herbert consulted his parents before accepting the job offer.
(Begin: Herbert did not ………..)
1. Herbert did not forgot to consult his parents before accepting the job offer.
2. Herbert did not forget to consult his parents before accepting the job offer.
3. Herbert did not consult his parents before accepting the job offer.
(vi) The tornado had been raging for several hours before people were moved to safety.
(Begin: The people…)
1. The people were moved to safety before the tornado had been raging for several hours.
2. The people were moved to safety only while the tornado had been raging for several hours.
3. The people were moved to safety only after the tornado had been raging for several hours.
(vii) Put your tools away, the children may fall over them.
(Use: lest………………)
1. Put your tools away lest the children may fall over them.
2. Put your tools away lest the children fall over them.
3. Put your tools away, children, lets fall over them.
(viii) Unless you begin now, you will never finish.
(Use ‘If’ )
1. If you never finish, you must begin now.
2. If you do not begin now, you will never finish.
3. If you begin now, you will never finish.
ANSWERS
Question 1
(a) (i) (1) (ii) (2) (iii) (1)
(b) (1) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (2) (f) (1) (g) (3) (h) (2)
Question 2
(a) (i) (2) (ii) (2) (iii) (1) (iv) (3) (v) (1) (vi) (2) (vii) (3) (viii) (3)
(b) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (3) (iv) (3) (v) (2) (vi) (1) (vii) (2) (viii) (2)
(c) (i) (1) (ii) (3) (iii) (2) (iv) (1)
(d) (i) (1) (ii) (2) (iii) (1) (iv) (3) (v) (2) (vi) (3) (vii) (1) (viii) (2)
Question 1
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
People came to him when the patient was on his last legs. Dr Raman often burst out, ‘Why couldn’t
you have come a day earlier?’ The reason was obvious—visiting fee twenty-five rupees, and more than
that, people liked to shirk the fact that the time had come to call in Dr Raman; for them there was
something ominous in the very association. As a result, when the big man came on the scene it was
always a quick decision one way or another. There was no scope or time for any kind of wavering or
whitewashing. Long years of practice of this kind had bred in the doctor a certain curt truthfulness; for
that very reason his opinion was valued; he was not a mere doctor expressing an opinion but a judge
pronouncing a verdict. The patient’s life hung on his words. This never unduly worried Dr Raman. He
never believed that agreeable words ever saved lives. He did not think it was any of his business to
provide comforting lies when as a matter of course nature would tell them the truth in a few hours.
However, when he glimpsed the faintest sign of hope, he rolled up his sleeve and stepped into the
arena: it might be hours or days, but he never withdrew till he wrested the prize from Yama’s hands.
Today, standing over a bed, the doctor felt that he himself needed someone to tell him soothing lies.
He mopped his brow with his kerchief and sat down in the chair beside the bed. On the bed lay his
dearest friend in the world: Gopal. They had known each other for forty years now, starting with their
kindergarten days. They could not, of course, meet as much as they wanted, each being wrapped in his
own family and profession. Occasionally, on a Sunday, Gopal would walk into the consulting room and
wait patiently in a corner till the doctor was free. And then they would dine together, see a picture and
talk of each other’s life and activities. It was a classic friendship, which endured untouched by changing
times, circumstances and activities.
In his busy round of work, Dr Raman had not noticed that Gopal had not called in for over three months
now. He only remembered it when he saw Gopal’s son sitting on a bench in the consulting hall one
crowded morning. Dr Raman could not talk to him for over an hour. When he got up and was about
to pass on to the operating room, he called up the young man and asked, ‘What brings you here, sir?’
The youth was nervous and shy. ‘Mother sent me here.’
‘What can I do for you?’
‘Father is ill ...’
It was an operation day and he was not free till three in the afternoon. He rushed off straight from the
clinic to his friend’s house, in Lawley Extension.
Gopal lay in bed as if in sleep. The doctor stood over him and asked Gopal’s wife, ‘How long has he
been in bed?’
ICSE Semester 1 English Language 9
‘A month and a half, Doctor.’
‘Who is attending him?’ ‘A doctor in the next street. He comes down once in three days and gives him
medicine.’
‘What is his name?’ He had never heard of him. ‘Someone I don’t know, but I wish he had had the
goodness to tell me about it. Why, why couldn’t you have sent me word earlier?’
‘We thought you would be busy and did not wish to trouble you unnecessarily.’ They were apologetic
and miserable. There was hardly any time to be lost. He took off his coat and opened his bag. He took
out an injection tube, the needle sizzled over the stove. The sick man’s wife whimpered in a corner
and essayed to ask questions.
‘Please don’t ask questions,’ snapped the doctor. He looked at the children, who were watching the
sterilizer, and said, ‘Send them all away somewhere, except the eldest.’
[From ‘The Doctor’s World’, Malgudi Days by R.K Narayan]
(a) For each word given below choose the correct meaning (as used in the passage) from the options
provided:[3]
(i) Ominous:
1. auspicious 2. portentous 3. evil
(ii) Whitewashing:
1. deliberate concealment of unpleasant facts
2. painting a room
3. changing a situation
(iii) Whimpered:
1. whispered 2. whined 3. lamented
(b) The main objective of the passage is to [2]
1. demonstrate how Dr Raman’s friendship with Gopal had grown over the years.
2. describe the nature of a doctor’s work.
3. introduce Dr Raman as a doctor and the importance he gave to his work.
(c) People came to him when the patient was on his last legs. The underlined phrase means- [2]
1. thriving
2. prepared to use the most desperate means to recover.
3. near the end of life
(d) Which of the following is not true about Dr Raman? [2]
1. He believed pleasant words could save lives.
2. He could not provide comforting lies to a patient.
3. Even with the faintest glimmer of hope, Dr Raman attempted his best to wrest the prize from
Yama’s hands.
(e) How long had Dr Raman known Gopal? [2]
1. Since they were at college.
2. Since their kindergarten days.
3. Since the time he started practicing as a doctor.
(f) In what way was Gopal and Dr Raman’s friendship a classic one? [2]
1. They both understood each other better than anyone else understood them.
2. Even if they did not meet, they stayed in each other’s hearts.
3. It was unaffected by changing times, circumstances and activities.
ANSWERS
Question 1
(a) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (2)
(b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (1) (e) (2) (f) (3) (g) (2) (h) (3)
Question 2
(a) (i) (1) (ii) (2) (iii) (3) (iv) (1) (v) (2) (vi) (3) (vii) (1) (viii) (1)
(b) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (2) (iv) (1) (v) (3) (vi) (2) (vii) (1) (viii) (3)
(c) (i) (2) (ii) (2) (iii) (3) (iv) (1)
(d) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (1) (iv) (3) (v) (1) (vi) (3) (vii) (1) (viii) (3)
Question 1
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
In that last year at Prep school in Shimla, there were four of us who were close friends—Bimal, whose
home was in Bombay; Riaz, who came from Lahore; Bran, who hailed from Vellore; and your narrator,
who lived wherever his father (then in the Air Force) was posted.
We called ourselves the ‘Four Feathers’, the feathers signifying that we were companions in adventure,
comrades-in-arms, and knights of the round table. Bimal adopted a peacock’s feather as his emblem—he
was always a bit showy. Riaz chose a falcon’s feather—although we couldn’t find one. Bran and I were
at first offered crow’s or murghi feathers, but we protested vigorously and threatened a walkout. Finally,
I settled for a parrot’s feather (taken from Mrs Fisher’s pet parrot), and Bran found a woodpecker’s,
which suited him, as he was always knocking things about.
Bimal was all thin legs and arms, so light and frisky that at times he seemed to be walking on air. We
called him ‘Bambi’, after the delicate little deer in the Disney film. Riaz, on the other hand, was a sturdy
boy, good at games though not very studious; but always good-natured, always smiling.
Bran was a dark, good-looking boy from the South; he was just a little spoilt— hated being given out
in a cricket match and would refuse to leave the crease!—but he was affectionate and a loyal friend.
I was the ‘scribe’—good at inventing stories in order to get out of scrapes—but hopeless at sums, my
highest marks being twenty-two out of one hundred.
On Sunday afternoons, when there were no classes or organized games, we were allowed to roam about
on the hillside below the school. The Four Feathers would laze about on the short summer grass, sharing
the occasional food parcel from home, reading comics (sometimes a book), and making plans for the
long winter holidays. My father, who collected everything from stamps to seashells to butterflies, had
given me a butterfly net and urged me to try and catch a rare species which, he said, was found only
near Chotta Shimla. He described it as a large purple butterfly with yellow and black borders on its
wings. A Purple Emperor, I think it was called. As I wasn’t very good at identifying butterflies, I would
chase anything that happened to flit across the school grounds, usually ending up with Common Red
Admirals, Clouded Yellows, or Cabbage Whites. But that Purple Emperor—that rare specimen being
sought by collectors the world over—proved elusive. I would have to seek my fortune in some other
line of endeavour.
One day, scrambling about among the rocks, and thorny bushes below the school, I almost fell over a
small bundle lying in the shade of a young spruce tree. On taking a closer look, I discovered that the
bundle was really a baby, wrapped up in a tattered old blanket.
[From ‘The Four Feathers’, an anthology—collection for young readers, by Ruskin Bond]
14 ICSE Semester 1 English Language
(a) For each word given below choose the correct meaning (as used in the passage) from the options
provided:[3]
(i) frisky:
1. lively 2. talkative 3. feathery
(ii) elusive:
1. occasional 2. difficult to find 3. flighty
(iii) scrambling:
1. running wildly 2. climbing quickly using hands 3. running hastily
(b) The name ‘Four Feathers’ suggested that [2]
1. They were birds of the same feather.
2. They were King Arthur’s knights of the round table.
3. They were companions in adventure.
(c) Bambi was a name given to- [2]
1. Bran 2. Bimal 3. Riaz
(d) Why did the narrator feel that Bran’s feather suited him well? [2]
1. Bran chose a peacock’s feather and it suited him well because he was showy.
2. Bran chose a falcon’s feather and it suited him well because he loved to flaunt it.
3. Bran chose a woodpecker’s feather and it suited him well because he was always knocking
things about.
(e) The Four Feathers spent their Sunday afternoons- [2]
1. Lazing on the grass, chasing birds and reading comics.
2. Lazing on the grass, reading comics and making plans for the long winter holidays.
3. Lazing on the grass, reading and sharing the food that came occasionally.
(f) Common Red Admirals, Clouded Yellows or Cabbage Whites are names of- [2]
1. Butterflies 2. Birds 3. Flowers
(g) The expression ‘to get out of scrapes’ means- [2]
1. To get out of disputes 2. To shake off a dull mood
3. To seek escape from troubles or awkward situations
(h) What is known about the ‘Four Feathers’? [5]
1. The Four Feathers is a group of four close friends who, like the knights of the round table fought
secret wars, settled disputes and wore feathers.
2. The Four Feathers is a group of four close friends who were companions in adventures, and
chose a feather each as his emblem.
3. The Four Feathers is a group of four close friends who, wore a feather each as a mark of loyalty
to each other.
Question 2
(a) Fill in the blanks with the correct forms of the words provided after the passage: [4]
Whenever we (i) (talk) of the hill stations of Uttarakhand, Nainital is always at the top of
the list. Be it breathtaking landscapes or mesmerizing scenes, Nainital has it. (ii) (locate)
2000 meters above sea level, the Naini lake is a fascinating thing to watch. I (iii) (take)
a taxi to Nainital from New Delhi. As soon as the mountain journey (iv) (commence), I
immediately (v) (feel) the gush of cool and fresh air. It (vi) (refresh) me and
took away the lethargy that (vii) (engulf) me. I stopped on my way (viii)
(snap) a few pictures.
(i) 1. Talked 2. had talked 3. talk
(ii) 1. Located 2. locating 3. location
(iii) 1. took 2. had taken 3. will take
ICSE Semester 1 English Language 15
(iv) 1. to commence 2. commenced 3. will commence
(v) 1. feel 2. felt 3. feeling
(vi) 1. refreshed 2. refreshing 3. refreshment
(vii) 1. engulfed 2. had engulfed 3. will have engulfed
(viii) 1. to snap 2. snapped 3. snapping
(b) Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks: [4]
(i) The minister was impeached because he failed to comply the laws of the constitution.
1. to 2. by 3. with
(ii) Though it was just a lie, she fell it.
1. into 2. for 3. at
(iii) In contrast the living room, the master bedroom seems quite small.
1. with 2. to 3. of
(iv) all her faults, she is a likeable woman.
1. With 2. Of 3. By
(v) After a long-drawn dispute, the two brothers were reconciled each other.
1. to 2. between 3. with
(vi) Since there was no other way, he reconciled himself his fate.
1. to 2. with 3. towards
(vii) He is liable fall in debt for his extravagant expenditure.
1. to 2. for 3. of
(viii) He is liable his father’s debts.
1. to 2. for 3. with
(c) Choose the correct option to join the following sentences without using ‘and’, ‘but’ or ‘so’: [4]
(i) Mrs Charania was elected President of the organization. She was an activist fighting for the dispossessed.
1. Mrs Charania who was an activist fighting for the dispossessed, was elected President of the
organization.
2. Mrs Charania was elected President of the organization since she was an activist fighting for the
dispossessed.
3. Mrs Charania, who was an activist fighting for the dispossessed, was elected President of the
organization.
(ii) He felt tired. He laid his work aside.
1. When he felt tired, he laid his work aside. 2. Feeling tired, he laid his work aside.
3. On feeling tired, he laid his work aside.
(iii) He was ill last term. He was unable to attend school.
1. He was ill last term, so he was unable to attend school.
2. He was so ill last term that he was unable to attend school.
3. Being ill last term, he was unable to attend school.
(iv) The sun rose. The fog dispersed.
1. While the sun rose, the fog dispersed. 2. Since the sun rose, the fog dispersed.
3. As the sun rose, the fog dispersed.
(d) Read each sentence with its instructions. Choose the correct answer from the options provided
beneath each: [8]
(i) Godhuli was most interested in music.
(Begin: Nothing…)
1. Nothing was of greater interest to Godhuli than music.
2. Nothing was of more interest to Godhuli than music.
3. Nothing interested Godhuli as much as music.
ANSWERS
Question 1
(a) (i) (1) (ii) (2) (iii) (2)
(b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (3) (e) (2) (f) (1) (g) (3) (h) (2)
Question 2
(a) (i) (3) (ii) (1) (iii) (3) (iv) (2) (v) (2) (vi) (1) (vii) (2) (viii) (3)
(b) (i) (3) (ii) (2) (iii) (2) (iv) (1) (v) (3) (vi) (1) (vii) (1) (viii) (2)
(c) (i) (3) (ii) (3) (iii) (3) (iv) (3)
(d) (i) (3) (ii) (1) (iii) (2) (iv) (2) (v) (1) (vi) (3) (vii) (3) (viii) (2)
Question 1
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Sustainable fishing guarantees there will be populations of ocean and freshwater wildlife for the
future. Aquatic environments are home to countless species of fish and invertebrates, most of which
are consumed as food. (Others are harvested for economic reasons, such as oysters that produce pearls
used in jewellery.) Seafood is respected all over the world, in many diverse cultures, as an important
source of protein and healthy fats. For thousands of years, people have fished to feed families and local
communities.
Demand for seafood and advances in technology have led to fishing practices that are depleting fish
and shellfish populations around the world. Fishers remove more than 77 billion kilograms (170 billion
pounds) of wildlife from the sea each year. Scientists fear that continuing to fish at this rate may soon
result in a collapse of the world’s fisheries. In order to continue relying on the ocean as an important
food source, economists and conservationists say we will need to employ sustainable fishing practices.
There are ways to fish sustainably, allowing us to enjoy seafood while ensuring that populations remain
for the future. In many indigenous cultures, people have fished sustainably for thousands of years.
Today’s sustainable fishing practices reflect some lessons learned from these cultures.
In the Philippines, the Tagbanua people have traditionally employed fishing practices that simultaneously
harvest and maintain fish populations. They continue to follow these practices today. Tagbanuas fish for
specific species only during certain times of the year, determined by tides and the moon, allowing fish
stocks to replenish themselves. They set aside certain areas, such as coral reefs, as protected spots in which
fishing is prohibited. When they do fish, these traditional fishers primarily use hook-and-line methods,
catching only what they need to feed themselves and their communities. A 2007 study lauded traditional
Tagbanua practices as a way to prevent injury and death to local Irrawaddy dolphins, which become
entangled in more modern fishing gear like nets and traps.
Many individuals, communities, and nations continue to rely on fish and other aquatic life as a source of
food and raw materials. To maintain fish stocks, overfishing and bycatch must be reduced through fisheries
management.
The goal of fisheries management is to develop regulations based on scientific data.
Fishing for bluefin tuna, for instance, is highly regulated in the United States. Fishers may only catch
this species with a rod and reel or hand-thrown harpoon. This regulation ensures they may only catch
one fish at a time. To be taken from the ocean, a fish must measure at least 185 centimeters (73 inches).
The goal of this rule is to give fish a chance to spawn before being caught. In addition, only a certain
tonnage of fish may be caught each year. Once that quota is reached, the fishery is closed for the season.
ANSWERS
Question 1
(a) (i) (1) (ii) (3) (iii) (3)
(b) (3) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (2) (f) (3) (g) (1) (h) (2)
Question 2
(a) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (2) (iv) (1) (v) (1) (vi) (2) (vii) (3) (viii) (2)
(b) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (3) (iv) (3) (v) (3) (vi) (1) (vii) (3) (viii) (2)
(c) (i) (3) (ii) (3) (iii) (3) (iv) (2)
(d) (i) (1) (ii) (3) (iii) (2) (iv) (3) (v) (3) (vi) (2) (vii) (2) (viii) (3)
Question 1
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
It was the festival of spring. From the wintry shades of narrow lanes and alleys emerged a gaily clad
humanity. Some walked, some rode on horses, others sat, being carried in bamboo and bullock carts.
One little boy ran between his father’s legs, brimming over with life and laughter. “Come, child, come,”
called his parents, as he lagged behind, fascinated by the toys in the shops that lined the way.
He hurried towards his parents, his feet obedient to their call, his eyes still lingering on the receding toys.
As he came to where they had stopped to wait for him, he could not suppress the desire of his heart,
even though he well knew the old, cold stare of refusal in their eyes. “I want that toy,” he pleaded. His
father looked at him red-eyed, in his familiar tyrant’s way. His mother, melted by the free spirit of the
day was tender and, giving him her finger to hold, said, “Look, child, what is before you!”
It was a flowering mustard-field, pale like melting gold as it swept across miles and miles of even land.
A group of dragon-flies were bustling about on their gaudy purple wings, intercepting the flight of a
lone black bee or butterfly in search of sweetness from the flowers. The child followed them in the air
with his gaze, till one of them would still its wings and rest, and he would try to catch it. But it would
go fluttering, flapping, up into the air, when he had almost caught it in his hands. Then his mother
gave a cautionary call: “Come, child, come, come on to the footpath.”
He ran towards his parents gaily and walked abreast of them for a while, being, however, soon left
behind, attracted by the little insects and worms along the footpath that were teeming out from their
hiding places to enjoy the sunshine.
“Come, child, come!” his parents called from the shade of a grove where they had seated themselves on
the edge of a well. He ran towards them. A shower of young flowers fell upon the child as he entered
the grove, and, forgetting his parents, he began to gather the raining petals in his hands. But lo! he heard
the cooing of doves and ran towards his parents shouting, “The dove! The dove!” The raining petals
dropped from his forgotten hands. “Come, child, come!” they called to the child, who had now gone
running in wild capers round the banyan tree, and gathering him up they took the narrow, winding
footpath which led to the fair through the mustard fields. As they neared the village the child could see
many other footpaths full of throngs, converging to the whirlpool of the fair, and felt at once repelled
and fascinated by the confusion of the world he was entering.
[From ‘The Lost Child’ by Mulk Raj Anand]
ANSWERS
Question 1
(a) (i) (1) (ii) (3) (iii) (1)
(b) (3) (c) (1) (d) (1) (e) (2) (f) (1) (g) (3) (h) (3)
Question 2
(a) (i) (3) (ii) (3) (iii) (1) (iv) (2) (v) (1) (vi) (1) (vii) (1) (viii) (3)
(b) (i) (1) (ii) (3) (iii) (1) (iv) (2) (v) (3) (vi) (2) (vii) (3) (viii) (1)
(c) (i) (3) (ii) (2) (iii) (3) (iv) (3)
(d) (i) (3) (ii) (2) (iii) (2) (iv) (3) (v) (1) (vi) (3) (vii) (2) (viii) (1)
Section A [10 × 1]
1. The story, The Little Match Girl, was written by .
(a) Hans Christian Andersen (b) Roald Dahl
(c) Ruskin Bond (d) J. K. Rowling
2. The visions seen by the little girl in the short story, ‘The Little Match Girl’ reveal the four things she
needed the most. They were .
(a) warmth, food, love and freedom from fear.
(b) food, shelter, warm clothes and a mother.
(c) roast goose, new slippers, candy and a warm cup of tea.
(d) a warm over coat, food, a scarf, a pair of socks.
3. Maya Angelou has used the caged bird as a symbol for .
(a) the oppressed (b) the opressors (c) feminist writers (d) writers and activists.
4. The central message of Browning’s poem, ‘The Patriot’ is .
(a) public adulation and glory are short lived.
(b) as you sow, so you reap.
(c) death comes to all people, even the rich and famous.
(d) God helps those who help themselves.
5. The Gujars mentioned in Norah Burke’s story, ‘The Blue Bead’ were .
(a) wandering herdsmen (b) Stone Age Hunters
(c) Hunter gatherers (d) Primitive cultivators
6. Sibia lingered behind after the other women had left because .
(a) she didn’t want to have to help her mother with preparing the evening meal.
(b) she wanted to check if her little clay cups were still in the cave where she had left them.
(c) she wanted to chat with the Gujar women who came to draw water from the river.
(d) she was exhausted and she wanted to rest for a while.
7. Tubal returns from Genoa with news both good and bad, for Shylock. Which of the following did
he NOT say to Shylock?
(a) That he had met Jessica, Shylock’s daughter in Genoa.
(b) That in Genoa, he had heard news of Antonio’s misfortunes.
(c) That Jessica had spent eighty ducats in one night in Genoa.
(d) That he had been shown Shylock’s ring that Jessica had traded in Genoa for a monkey.
ICSE Semester 1 Literature in English 3
8. Soon after Portia and Bassanio declare their love for each other, another pair also declare their love for
each other and ask to be married at the same time as Portia and Bassanio. They are .
(a) Gratiano and Nerissa (b) Gratiano and Jessica
(c) Lorenzo and Nerissa (d) Lorenzo and Jessica
9. Bassanio rejected the golden casket because .
(a) he knew that Midas had found gold hard to digest.
(b) he knew that outward appearances are often deceptive.
(c) he found gold too shiny for his taste.
(d) he had been told which casket contained Portia’s portrait.
10. When Portia left for Venice she put in charge of her house.
(a) Lorenzo (b) Jessica (c) Gratiano (d) Launcelot
Section B
I. Read the following extract from The Merchant of Venice (Act 3) and answer the questions that
follow by choosing the most appropriate response from the choices given below: [5 × 1]
Salarino: Why, I am sure, if he forfeit, thou
Wilt not take his flesh: What’s that good for? Shylock: To bait fish withal: if it will feed nothing
Else it will feed my revenge.
1. Where does the above exchange between Salarino and Shylock take place?
(a) On a street in Venice (b) On the Rialto
(c) On a street outside Shylock’s house (d) On a street in Belmont
2. What is Antonio required to forfeit if he fails to repay the amount he borrowed from Shylock within
the time specified in the bond?
(a) A pound of his flesh (b) Three times the sum that he had borrowed
(c) His friendship with Bassanio (d) All his wealth and property
3. A little later in his speech, Shylock compares Christians with Jews. Which of the following comparisons
does he NOT make?
(a) Both Jews and Christians bleed when cut.
(b) Both Jews and Christians die if poisoned.
(c) Both Jews and Christians treat each other with humility.
(d) Both Jews and Christians seek revenge when wronged.
4. What recent event in his personal life does Shylock lament earlier in the conversation?
(a) his wife’s death (b) his daughter’s death
(c) the loss of an expensive diamond (d) his daughter eloping with a Christian
5. Which of the following words would you use to describe Shylock’s state of mind after this impassioned
speech?
(i) hurt (ii) angry (iii) vindictive (iv) resourceful
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (iii), (iv) and (i) (d) (iv), (i) and (ii)
II. Read the following extract from Act 3 of ‘The Merchant of Venice’ and answer the questions that
follow by choosing the most appropriate response from the choices given below: [5 × 1]
Portia: Away, then! I am locked in one of them:
If you do love me, you will find me out.- Nerissa and the rest, stand all aloof.
1. Portia says, “I am locked in one of them:” The word ‘one’ refers to .
(a) a silver casket (b) a golden casket
(c) a bronze casket (d) a lead casket
2. A little later, Portia compares Nerissa and the rest to .
(a) Alcides and the sea-monster (b) Alcides and the Dardanian wives
(c) Alcides and Hesione (d) the Dardanian wives with tearstained faces
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
SECTION B
I. 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
II. 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c)
III. 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c)
IV. 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)
V. 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c)
VI. 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b)
Section A [10 × 1]
1. The story, The Blue Bead, was written by .
(a) David Routh (b) Roald Dahl (c) Ruskin Bond (d) Norah Burke
2. The crocodile in the short story, ‘The Blue Bead’ is also called an .
(a) antediluvian spinosaurus (b) ceratopsian tyrannosaurus
(c) antediluvian saurian (d) saurian antediluvian
3. The free bird dips his wing in the rays of the sun.
(a) orange (b) red (c) yellow (d) violet
4. The Patriot’s path was strewn with .
(a) jasmines and roses. (b) myrtle and willow.
(c) roses and myrtle. (d) roses and petunia.
5. The Gujar woman carried .
(a) two gurrahs. (b) a can of milk.
(c) two cans of milk. (d) one gurrah.
6. The short story ‘The Little Match Girl’is set on .
(a) the first evening of the new year. (b) the last evening of the old year.
(c) the first evening of the old year. (d) the last evening of the new year.
7. Lorenzo had transformed Jessica into a .
(a) Jew. (b) Parsee. (c) Christian. (d) Byzantine.
8. In his letter to Bassanio, Antonio wrote that Which of the following he did NOT
write?
(a) all his ships had been wrecked (b) his estate had fallen very low
(c) he was not feeling well (d) his creditors were growing impatient
9. Shylock asked Tubal to hire him a .
(a) legal officer. (b) priest. (c) monkey. (d) servant.
10. Portia sent Balthazar to .
(a) Venice (b) Belmont (c) Genoa (d) Padua
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1 (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
SECTION B
I. 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
II. 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
III. 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
IV. 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c)
V. 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b)
VI. 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)
Section A [10 × 1]
1. In the story, ‘The Little Match Girl’, the girl was .
(a) bareheaded (b) barefoot (c) wearing an old apron (d) all of the above
2. The third vision seen by the little girl in the short story, ‘The Little Match Girl’ was of .
(a) a star. (b) a well decorated Christmas tree.
(c) roasted goose. (d) an iron stove.
3. The free bird claims the to be his own.
(a) green valley (b) sunny sky (c) narrow cage (d) fat worms
4. The theme of Browning’s poem, ‘The Patriot’ is .
(a) public’s fickleness, rise and fall of glory and faith in God.
(b) rise and fall of glory, sibling love and faith in God.
(c) public’s fickleness, being rich and famous and sibling rivalry.
(d) faith in God, class distinction and leadership.
5. The crocodile lay on the rippled sand with only his raised eyes out of the water, and raised nostrils
breathing the .
(a) dirty, polluted air. (b) clean, sunny air. (c) clean, wet air. (d) perfumed air.
6. Sibia had seen many wonders in the bazaar. What had she NOT seen?
(a) satin sewn with real silver thread
(b) tin trays from Birmingham
(c) delicate glasswares
(d) sari with chips of looking-glass embroidered into the border
7. Portia calls herself .
(a) unlesson’d girl (b) unschool’d girl (c) unpractis’d girl (d) all of the above
8. Besides the scroll, what other object did Bassanio find in the leaden casket?
(a) a bone (b) Portia’s portrait (c) Nerissa’s portrait (d) a skull
9. Bassanio rejected the silver casket because .
(a) it was pale and common drudge between man and man.
(b) he knew that outward appearances are often deceptive.
(c) it was too expensive.
(d) he had been told which casket was the right one.
10. Portia said that she was leaving for a monastery off her house.
(a) ten miles (b) three miles (c) two miles (d) twenty miles
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
SECTION B
I. 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)
II. 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
III. 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b)
IV. 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)
V. 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
VI. 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a)
Section A [10 × 1]
1. In the story, ‘The Little Match Girl’, how did the girl lose her slippers?
(a) A carriage damaged her slippers.
(b) Someone had stolen her slippers.
(c) One was lost while running across the street and a boy ran off with the other.
(d) Her slippers went missing among a crowd.
2. Why was the poor girl scared of returning home?
(a) It was dark and cold outside.
(b) Her father would beat her for not earning a penny.
(c) Her father would beat her for losing the slippers.
(d) It was too cold back at her home.
3. Maya Angelou’s poem, ‘I know why the caged bird sings’ can be called .
(a) an autobiographical poem (b) a fable
(c) a ballad (d) a satirical poem
4. Browning’s poem, ‘The Patriot’ is written in the form of .
(a) a ballad (b) a fable (c) an elegy (d) a dramatic monologue
5. The Gujars mentioned in Norah Burke’s story, ‘The Blue Bead’ lived in encampment of .
(a) stone huts (b) grass huts (c) mud huts (d) brick huts
6. Sibia sprang from boulder to boulder, leaping like a .
(a) rock goat (b) squirrel (c) mountain deer (d) cheetah
7. Tubal reports Jessica has given Shylock’s ring to someone. What does she trade the ring for?
(a) fine clothes (b) three thousand ducats
(c) a necklace (d) a monkey
8. Jessica dressed herself as a in order to elope with Lorenzo.
(a) page boy (b) lover boy (c) clown (d) princess
9. Bassanio compares Portia’s hair to .
(a) dark clouds (b) golden wig (c) cobweb (d) silken robe
10. According to Shylock, what is Antonio’s flesh good for?
(a) feeding dogs (b) being sold at the Rialto
(c) baiting fish (d) making broth
ANSWERS
SSECTION A
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
SECTION B
I. 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
II. 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c)
III. 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a)
IV. 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
V. 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b)
VI. 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)
Section A [10 × 1]
1. In the story, ‘The Little Match Girl’, how did the girl try to protect herself from the severe cold?
(a) she returned back to home
(b) she huddled herself in a corner formed by two houses
(c) she took shelter under a Christmas tree
(d) she lighted a fire using firewood
2. What did the little girl did NOT see in her visions?
(a) roasted goose (b) warm iron stove
(c) Christmas tree (d) Santa Claus
3. Maya Angelou’s poem, ‘I know why the caged bird sings’ expresses the concept of .
(a) love and hatred (b) peace and war
(c) liberty and bondage (d) rich and poor
4. The of the public is highlighted in Browning’s poem, ‘The Patriot’.
(a) fickle mindedness (b) senselessness
(c) humility (d) cruelty
5. The Gujar woman carried two gurrahs.
(a) bronze (b) brass (c) copper (d) steel
6. Sibia wanted to paint her clay bowls with .
(a) roses and horses (b) marigolds and lions
(c) marigolds and elephants (d) roses and elephants
7. Antonio had called Shylock .
(a) a fox (b) a dog (c) a snake (d) none of the above
8. Portia gives Bassanio that he must swear never to part with.
(a) a ring (b) a locket (c) a casket (d) a trinket
9. Portia asks to go to Padua.
(a) Lorenzo (b) Bassanio (c) Launcelot (d) Balthazar
10. In Act III Scene II, Portia compares Bassanio to which ancient hero?
(a) Ulysses (b) Troilus (c) Alcides (d) Achilles
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
SECTION B
I. 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
II. 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b)
III. 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)
IV. 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
V. 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
VI. 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)
ANSWERS
PART I
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2)
6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1)
PART II
21. (1), (3) 22. (2), (4) 23. (1), (2) 24. (2), (4) 25. (1), (2)
26. 1. (iv) 2. (iii) 3. (ii) 4. (i)
PART III
27. (a) (2) (b) (1) (c) (1), (3)
28. (a) (1) (b) (3) (c) (1), (4)
ANSWERS
PART I
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3)
6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (4)
16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (2)
PART II
21. (1), (3) 22. (1), (2) 23. (1), (3) 24. (1), (3) 25. (1), (4)
26. (1), (4)
PART III
27. (a) (4) (b) (1) and (3) (c) (4)
28. (a) (2) and (4) (b) (4) (c) (4)
ANSWERS
PART I
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3)
6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (4)
PART II
21. (2), (4) 22. (1), (4) 23. (1), (3) 24. (2), (4) 25. (1), (3)
26. (2), (4)
PART III
27. (a) (2) (b) (1), (3) (c) (3)
28. (a) (2) (b) (1), (3) (c) (1)
ANSWERS
PART I
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (2)
16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (2)
PART II
21. (1), (3) 22. (2), (4) 23. (1), (3) 24. (1), (4) 25. (1), (3)
26. (1), (3)
PART III
27. (a) (1), (3) (b) (2) (c) (1)
28. (a) (4) (b) (1), (2) (c) (2)
ANSWERS
PART I
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (3)
6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (4)
PART II
21. (1), (3) 22. (1), (3) 23. (1), (3) 24. (1), (4) 25. (2), (4)
26. (1), (3)
PART III
27. (a) (1), (4) (b) (4) (c) (2)
28. (a) (4) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (2)
–5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4
7. The first three terms of an arithmetic progression (A. P.) are 1, 9, 17, then the next two terms are
(a) 25 and 35 (b) 27 and 37 (c) 25 and 33 (d) none of these
8. If DABC ~ DQRP then the corresponding proportional sides are
AB BC AC BC AB BC AB BC
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
QR RP QR RP QR QP PQ RP
A ` 300 12%
B ` 1200 5%
A B
3c
O
Q C 4c R
6c
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1 (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d)
5. (b) x = ` 500 n = 6 months Amount = ` 3300
Interest = Amount – nx = ` 3300 – 3000 = ` 300
6. (a)
7. (c) AP 1, 9, 17 d = 8
\ The next 2 terms are 17 + 8 = 25, 25 + 8 = 33
8. (a)
9. (b) –x > –7 ⇒ 7 > x x ∈ W
{0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
10. (c) 4x2 – 7x + 2 = 0 x = 1.390, 0.359
\ Correct to 2 significant figure 1.4, 0.36
0.5
1.5 × 8
11. (b) = x \ x = 4
3
12. (b) f (–3) = 2(–3)2 – 7(–3) – 1 = 18 + 21 – 1 = 38
13. (c) 3, 8, 13, 18, ...
\ a = 3, d = 8 – 3 = 5
70
a + (n – 1)d = 3 + (n – 1)5 = 73 ⇒ n – 1 = = 14
5
\ n = 15
14. (b) (x + 1)2 = 0, real and equal.
15. (b) All null matrices are square matrix False
16. (d) (x – 2) is a factor of x3 + 2x2 – 13x + k
23 + 2(2)2 – 13(2) + k = 0 ⇒ 16 – 26 + k = 0 ⇒ k = 10
SECTION B
17. (b) x = ` 1200 n = 12
6
12 × 13 × 1200 5 1
I = × × = ` 390
2 100 12
18. (c) (x2 – 4) is a factor of x3 + x2 – 4x – 4
x2(x + 1) – 4(x + 1) = (x + 1) (x2 – 4) = (x + 2(x – 2)(x + 1)
SECTION C
23. Road 240 km x km/h
Train 300 km (x + 20) km/h
240
(i) (a) Time taken by car =
x
300
(ii) (d) Time taken by train =
x + 20
240 300
(iii) (b) – = 1
x x + 20
\ 240x + 4800 – 300x = x2 + 20x ⇒ 0 = x2 + 80x – 4800
(iv) (c) (x + 120)(x – 40) = 0 ⇒ x = 40 km/h (speed of car)
24. (i) (a) ΔARQ ~ DORC
(ii) (b) AAA
(iii) (c) QC = 6 cm, CR = 4 cm, BR = 3 cm
RP QR PR 105 15
= ⇒ = \ PR = = 7.5 cm
BR CR 3 42 2
(iv) (c) PQ : BC = QR : CR = 10 : 4 = 5 : 2
25. an = 3n + 1
(i) (d) a1 = 3 + 1 = 4 a2 = 3 × 2 + 1 = 7 a3 = 9 + 1 = 10
4, 7, 10
(ii) (a) d = 7 – 4 = 3
(iii) (b) a + (n – 1)d = 4 + 3(n – 1) = 3n + 1
3n + 1 = 27
26
3n = 26 n = is a fraction \ 27 is not a term of the AP.
3
10
(iv) (b) S10 = [(2 × 4) + 9 × 3] = 5[8 + 27] = 5 × 35 = 175
2
–4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3
(a) {–2, –1, 0, 1} (b) {–2, –1, 0}
(c) {x : –2 x < 1, x ∈ R} (d) {x : –2 < x 1, x ∈ R}
7. If 6, 8, x, 12 are proportional, then the value of x is
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 3 (d) 4
8. If 9 – 2x > 1, x ∈ W, then the solution set for the inequation is
(a) {x : 4 > x, x ∈ R} (b) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} (c) {0, 1, 2, 3} (d) {1, 2, 3, 4}
9. If an is the nth term of an AP and a19 – a13 = 24, the common difference is
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) None of these
10. In the given figure AB || EF || DC. DABE is similar to A
D
(a) DCBE
(b) DCFE E
(c) DCDE
(d) DDBC
B C
F
ICSE Semester 1 Mathematics 9
11. If A and I are 2 × 2 matrices and I is a unit matrix. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) A × I = A (b) I × A = A × I (c) I × A = A (d) I × A = I
12. The first 2 terms of an AP are –3, 2. The next 2 terms are
(a) 7, 9 (b) 0, 2 (c) 7, 12 (d) 1, 0
13. The roots of a quadratic equation are 1.963 and 3.845. The roots correct to 2 significant figures are
(a) 1.9, 3.8 (b) 2.0, 3.8 (c) 1.96, 3.85 (d) None of these
14. Which of the following is not a quadratic equation?
1
(a) x3 – 1 = (x2 + 2)(x – 1) (b) x + = 2
x
(c) x2 – 3x = 0 (d) (x + 2)(x – 3) = x2 + 5x – 9
15. If (x + 2) is a factor of 2x3 + 9x2 + 7x – b, then the value of b is
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) –66 (d) 44
16. When x + 4x – 2x – 8 is divided by (x + 3), the remainder is
3 2
P Q
9 cm O
B C
(i) The DAPQ ~ DABC by axiom
(a) SSS (b) SAS (c) AA (d) AAS
(ii) The ratio of PO : OC is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 5 : 2
(iii) The length of BC is
(a) 10 cm (b) 7.5 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 12.5 cm
(iv) The length of AC is
(a) 12 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 16 cm (d) 18 cm
25. The first term of an AP is –1 and 350 is the last term. If the common difference is 9.
(i) The first 3 terms are
(a) –1, 8, 17 (b) –1, 10, 19 (c) –1, –10, –19 (d) –1, –8, –17
(ii) The number of terms is
(a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 39 (d) 38
(iii) The sum of all terms is
(a) 6800 (b) 6780 (c) 6980 (d) 6500
(iv) The 10th term is
(a) 82 (b) 81 (c) 80 (d) 79
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c)
9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a)
SECTION B
17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (c)
SECTION C
23. (i) (b) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (c)
24. (i) (c) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (b)
25. (i) (a) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (c)
1
B C
0 X
–3 –2 –1 1 2 3 4 5 6
–1
–2
–3
D
11. Chetan deposits ` 600 per month for 1 year 8 months in a Recurring Deposit Scheme. If he receives
` 13050 as maturity amount, the interest earned is
(a) ` 150 (b) ` 2250 (c) ` 5010 (d) ` 1050
L 16 cm
M 3c
N S P
(i)
DRLQ ~ DPLN by the axiom
(a) AA (b) SAS (c) SSS (d) AAS
(ii)
DRLM is similar to
(a) DRLQ (b) DPLQ (c) DPLN (d) DSNM
(iii) The ratio of QR : NP is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 5 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 5 : 2
(iv) The length of NP is
(a) 16 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 6.67 cm
24. A wire which is 60 cm long is shaped to form a right triangle with hypotenuse 25 cm.
(i) If the base of the triangle is x cm, the height of the triangle is
(a) (60 – x) cm (b) (x – 60) cm (c) (35 – x) cm (d) (x – 35) cm
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b)
9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d)
SECTION B
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (i) (b) (ii) (d) 20. (c) 21. (i) (c) (ii) (b) 22. (c)
SECTION C
23. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (c)
24. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (a) (iv) (d)
25. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (c)
2. A
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5
B
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) 3 : 7 (b) 3 : 4
(c) 4 : 3 (d) 4 : 7 B C
(iii) The length of PO is
(a) 7.5 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 4.5 cm
(iv) The length of OQ is
(a) 3.375 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 7.5 cm
25. A man bought x books for ` 1200. When the price of each rose by ` 30, he could buy 2 books less
for ` 1200.
(i) Cost price of each book is
1200 1200 1200 1200
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x x – 30 x + 30 x – 2
(ii) Price of each book after the rise in price is
1230 1230 1200 1200
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x – 2 x x + 30 x – 2
(iii) The quadratic equation formed is
(a) x2 + 30x – 18000 = 0 (b) x2 + 30x – 12000 = 0
(c) x2 – 2x – 80 = 0 (d) x2 – 30x + 18000 = 0
(iv) Original price of each book is
(a) ` 10 (b) ` 120 (c) ` 150 (d) ` 100
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c)
9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c)
SECTION B
17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (i) (c) (ii) (c)
SECTION C
23. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (d) (iv) (a)
24. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (d) (iv) (b)
25. (i) (a) (ii) (d) (iii) (c) (iv) (b)
cm Q
B
(a) AA (b) SSS (c) SAS (d) ASA
3. The roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 5x – 24 = 0 are
(a) –8, 3 (b) –8, –3 (c) 8, –3 (d) 8, 3
4. If (x + 4)(x – 4) = 20, then the roots of the quadratic equation are
(a) ±8 (b) ±6 (c) ±1 (d) ±2
5. If (x – 3) is a factor of x + ax – 6, then the value of a is
3
B
16. When x3 – x2 + 3 is divided by (x + 1), the remainder is
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 1
Section B [12 Marks] [6 × 2]
17. The first term of an AP is 5 and the last term is 62 and the sum of terms is 670.
(i) The number of terms in the AP is
(a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 15
(ii) The common difference is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
2a2 + 8ab + 5b2
18. If a, b, c are in continued proportion, then is .
2b2 + 8bc + 5c2
a b c a
(a) (b) (c) (d)
c c a b
3 –3
19. If A = and A2 = mA, then the value of m is
–3 3
(a) 18 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 9
20. A dealer buys an article for ` 1600 and sells it to a consumer at a profit of ` 200. GST = 5%.
(i) The GST paid by the dealer to the state government is
(a) ` 45 (b) ` 5 (c) ` 2.50 (d) ` 8
(ii) The price paid by the consumer is
(a) ` 1805 (b) ` 1845 (c) ` 1890 (d) ` 1810
21. John deposits ` 400 per month in a Recurring Deposit Scheme for 2 years. If the interest received at
the time of maturity is ` 900, the rate of interest is
(a) 5% (b) 8% (c) 6% (d) 9%
22. For what value of n are the nth terms of the following 2 AP’s same?
AP1 = 51, 49, 47, ... AP2 = 3, 7, 11, ...
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 6
Section C [12 Marks] [3 × 4]
23. A retailer purchases a camera for ` 2500 and sells it to a consumer at 10% profit. If the rate of GST
is 12%.
(i) The selling price of the camera excluding GST is
(a) ` 2700 (b) ` 3000 (c) ` 2800 (d) ` 2750
20 ICSE Semester 1 Mathematics
(ii) The selling price of the camera including GST is
(a) ` 3000 (b) ` 3024 (c) ` 3080 (d) ` 2780
(iii) The GST paid by the retailer to the state government is
(a) ` 165 (b) ` 15 (c) ` 30 (d) ` 330
(iv) The GST received by the central government on this item is
(a) ` 330 (b) ` 30 (c) ` 15 (d) ` 165
24. In the given DABC, ∠ABC = 90° and PQ is ⊥ AC. A
3 cm
If AP = 5 cm, AQ = 3 cm and QC = 17 cm.
5 cm Q
(i) DABC ~ DAQP by the axiom
(a) SSS (b) AA P
(c) SAS (d) SSA 17 cm
ANSWERS
SECTION A
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b)
9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d)
SECTION B
17. (i) (b) (ii) (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (i) (b) (ii) (c) 21. (d) 22. (a)
SECTION C
23. (i) (d) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (d)
24. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (a) (iv) (b)
25. (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (c)
Question 1
(a) Choose the correct statement with respect to Refraction of light.[1]
1. The colour always changes when light enters from one optical medium to another.
2. Absorption of light when it strikes the surface of a medium is refraction.
3. Speed of light changes when it enters from one optical medium to another of different optical density.
4. Speed of light does not change when it enters from one optical medium to another of different optical
density.
(b) When a light ray enters from a denser medium to a rarer medium.[1]
1. The light ray bends towards the normal. 2. Angle of incidence is less than angle of refraction.
3. Speed of light decreases. 4. Speed of light remains unchanged.
(c) In the diagram shown below: [1]
1. B is incident ray and C is refracted ray. 2. A is incident ray and B is refracted ray.
3. C is incident ray and B is refracted ray. 4. A is incident ray and C is refracted ray.
(d) From the diagram shown below, identify the characteristics of the image that will be formed.[1]
1. Real. 2. Diminished.
3. Formed within the focal length. 4. Virtual.
(e) The wavelength of light in a medium A is 600 nm. The wave enters medium B of refractive index 1.5
Steps to find the wavelength of light in medium B are given below. Choose an option which has
the correct sequence of steps, to find the wavelength. [2]
0 50 60 100 0 50 60 100
3. 4.
Fulcrum 30 gf Fulcrum 80 gf
(e) A body has kinetic energy 250 J. If the mass of the body is 5 kg, then choose its velocity and
momentum from the following options. [2]
1. 50 m/s 2. 50 kg.m/s 3. 20 kg.m/s 4. 15 m/s
5. 10 m/s 6. 100 kg.m/s
3.2 m
Cliff
(I) Calculate distance at which the person is standing in front of the cliff? Steps are given to calculate
the distance. Select the correct sequence of the steps from the given options:
2d d
(i) 340 = (ii) 340 =
3 3
(iii) d = 170 × 3 = 510 m (iv) d = 340 × 3 = 1020 m
1. (ii) then (iv) 2. (iii) then (ii) 3. (i) then (iii) 4. (iii) then (i) 5. (i) then (iv)
(II) If the speed of sound changes to 350 m/s then how much distance should the person move
towards or away from the cliff in order to hear the echo in the same time. Steps are given to calculate
the distance. Select the correct sequence of the steps from the given option. [4]
340 + 350 2d 2d
(i) = (ii) 350 − 340 =
2 3 3
345 × 3 30
(iii) d = = 517.5 m (iv) d = = 15 m (v) 7.5 m
2 2
1. (ii), (iii) then (v) 2. (iv) then (ii) 3. (iv) then (v)
4. (ii) then (iv) 5. (i), (iv) and (v)
Question 4.
(a) Assuming all lenses shown below are of the same material, state which lens has the maximum
power. [1]
P Q R S
1. R 2. P 3. Q 4. S
(b) In an electric cell while in use, the change in energy is from:[1]
1. Chemical to mechanical 2. Chemical to electrical
3. Electrical to mechanical 4. Electrical to chemical
(c) The diagram below shows a pendulum having a bob of mass 80 g. A and C are extreme positions
and B is the mean position. The bob has velocity 5 m/s at position B. Assuming there is no loss of
energy, select the correct statements from the options given below: [g = 10 N/kg] [2]
ANSWERS
1. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (4) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (3) (ii) (3) (iii) (1) (iv) (2)
2. (a) (2) (b) (4) (c) (4) (d) (3) (e) (2), (5)
(f) (i) (4) (ii) (3) (iii) (1) (iv) (4)
3. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (1) (d) (2) (e) (5)
(f) (I) (3) (II) (4)
4. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (3), (5) (d) (1), (4)
(e) (i) (3) (ii) (4) (iii) (1) (iv) (4)
Question 1
(a) One electron volt is equal to: [1]
1. 1.6 × 10 –17
J 2. 3.6 × 10 –19
J 3. 1.6 × 10 –19
J 4. 1.6 × 10 –24
J
(b) Kilowatt hour is the commercial unit of [1]
1. Electric power 2. Electric energy 3. Work 4. None of these
(c) A body is moved through a distance of 3 m in the following different ways. In which case is the
maximum work done? [1]
1. When pushed over an inclined plane.
2. When pushed over smooth rollers.
3. When lifted vertically upwards.
4. When pushed on a plain horizontal surface.
(d) The upper circular stone of a hand flour grinder is provided with a handle its
rim so that minimum force is required to produce the turning effect. [1]
1. In between 2. Far away 3. Near 4. None of the above
(e) A uniform metre scale is in equilibrium as shown in the diagram below:
Calculate the weight of the metre scale. [2]
5 cm 30 cm
F
0 cm 100 cm
40 gf
1. 150 gf 2. 200 gf 3. 120 gf 4. 50 gf
(f) A ball falls to the ground as shown below: [4]
(i) What will be the kinetic energy of the ball when it hits the ground?
1. 8 J 2. 80 J 3. 0.8 J 4. 8 × 103 J
(ii) What is the potential energy of the ball at B?
1. 32 J 2. 320 J 3. 3.2 J 4. 56 J
Stone
1. Its acceleration 2. Its kinetic energy 3. Its potential energy 4. Its weight
(d) When a body falls freely towards the earth then its total energy [1]
1. Increases 2. Decreases
3. Remains constant 4. First increase and then decreases
(e) A coin placed at the bottom of the beaker appears to be raised by 4.0 cm. If the refractive index of
water is 4/3 , find the depth of the water in the beaker. [2]
1. 12 cm 2. 16 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 24 cm
(f) From the diagram given below, answer the questions that follow: [4]
Sea shore
Water
1. The distance between the observer on the ship and the person on the shore.
1. 600 m 2. 640 m 3. 1280 m 4. 1200 m
2. The distance between the cliff and the observer on the ship.
1. 100 m 2. 160 m 3. 80 m 4. 480 m
ANSWERS
1. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (3) (e) (4)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (2) (iv) (3)
2. (a) (1) (b) (1) (c) (3) (d) (3) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (3) (iv) (1)
3. (a) (2) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (3) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (2)
4. (a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (2)
(e) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (4) (iv) (2)
Question 1
(a) A ray of light passes from glass into air. The angle of refraction will be: [1]
1. equal to the angle of incidence. 2. Greater than the angle of incidence.
3. Smaller than the angle of incidence. 4. 45°
(b) The phenomenon due to which a ray of light deviates from its path while travelling from one optical
medium to another optical medium is called: [1]
1. Dispersion 2. Reflection 3. Refraction 4. Spectrum
(c) Which of the following coloured light has the least speed in glass prism: [1]
1. Violet 2. Yellow 3. Red 4. Green
(d) Choose the incorrect statement with respect to the factors affecting the refractive index of the medium.
[1]
1. Nature of the medium 2. Angle of incidence
3. Temperature 4. Colour or wavelength of light
(e) The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water will be [2]
1. 1.33 × 10 ms
8 –1
2. 3 × 10 ms
8 –1
3. 2.25 × 10 ms
8 –1
4. 2.66 × 10 ms
8 –1
(f) An object is placed at a distance from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. [4]
(i) State the position of the object which will produce a magnified real image.
1. 35 cm 2. 30 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 10 cm
(ii) State the position of the object which will produce a magnified virtual image.
1. 35 cm 2. 30 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 10 cm
(iii) State the position of the object which will produce a diminished real image.
1. 35 cm 2. 30 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 10 cm
(iv) State the position of the object which will produce an image of same size as the object.
1. 35 cm 2. 30 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 10 cm
Question 2
(a) Which one of the following is not a unit of energy? [1]
1. Joule 2. kilowatt hour 3. horse power 4. electron volt
ANSWERS
1. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (1) (d) (2) (e) (3)
(f) (i) (3) (ii) (4) (iii) (1) (iv) (2)
2. (a) (3) (b) (1) (c) (2) (d) (1) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (3) (ii) (2) (iii) (4) (iv) (3)
3. (a) (2) (b) (4) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (3) (ii) (1) (iii) (2)
4. (a) (4) (b) (1) (c) (3) (d) (2)
(e) (i) (4) (ii) (1) (iii) (1) (iv) (2)
Question 1
(a) Light travelling from a denser medium to a rarer medium along a normal to the boundary: [1]
1. is refracted towards the normal 2. is refracted away from the normal
3. Is not refracted 4. goes along the boundary.
(b) A thick glass slab with a silvered side forms multiple images on account of: [1]
1. Reflection of light 2. Refraction of light
3. Dispersion of light 4. Both reflection and refraction of light
(c) When an equilateral prism is in minimum deviation position, the angle of incidence is [1]
1. Greater than the angle of emergence 2. Equal to the angle of emergence
3. Smaller than the angle of emergence 4. None of these
d) Centre of gravity of an object depends on its [1]
1. Weight 2. Density 3. Shape 4. Mass
(e) Calculate the power of a convex lens of focal length 12.5 cm [2]
1. +10.5 D 2. –10.5 D 3. +8 D 4. –8 D
(f) A boy of mass 55 kg runs up a flight of 40 stairs, each measuring 0.15 m in 15 s. [4]
[Take g = 10 ms and 1 HP = 746 W] -2
Question 3
(a) The point at which the algebraic sum of moments of weights of the particles is zero. [1]
1. Inertia point 2. Centre of gravity 3. Centroid 4. Central point
(b) Which one of the following is not the property of electromagnetic waves? [1]
1. Electromagnetic waves exhibit the properties of reflection and refraction.
2. Electromagnetic waves require material medium for propagation.
3. Electromagnetic waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
4. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
(c) How is the critical angle related to the refractive index of a medium? [1]
i m m r
1. Sin C = 2. Sin C = 3. Sin C = 4. Sin C =
m i r m
(d) The principle on which SONAR works [1]
1. Reflection of sound 2. Reflection of ultrasonic waves
3. Principle of reversibility 4. Law of conservation of energy
(e) A radar send a signal to an aeroplane at a distance 45 Km away with a speed of
3 × 108 ms–1. After how long is the signal received back from the aeroplane? [2]
1. 135 s 2. 0.0003 s 3. 3000 s 4. 1350 s
(f) Calculate the resultant torque from the following diagram. [4]
ANSWERS
1. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (2) (d) (3) (e) (3)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (1) (iv) (2)
2. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (3) (d) (4) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (1) (iii) (3) (iv) (3)
3. (a) (2) (b) (2) (c) (1) (d) (2) (e) (2)
(f) (2)
4. (a) (1) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (i) (3) (ii) (1)
(e) (i) (1) (ii) (1) (iii) (3) (iv) (2)
Question 1
(a) The figure given below shows a light ray enters from medium A to medium B. The refractive index
of medium B relative to A will be [1]
(b) In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab, four
students measured the angles of incidence (i), angle of refraction (r) and angles of emergence (e) as
shown in the diagrams: [1]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ICSE Semester 1 Physics 21
Identify the correct measurement given in the diagram:
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
(c) Diamonds sparkle more than the glass, because they have: [1]
1. Smaller critical angle than the glass 2. Larger critical angle than the glass
3. Critical angle plays no role 4. None of these
(d) Which of the following colour of white light has the least wavelength? [1]
1. Red 2. Orange 3. Violet 4. Blue
(e) An object of height 2 cm is placed at a distance of 8 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm.
Find the size of the image. [2]
1. –40 cm 2. 10 cm 3. 20 cm 4. 16 cm
(f) Observe the following ray diagrams drawn by four students to locate the position of image formed
by a convex lens when the object is placed at 2F. [4]
(I) (II)
(III) (IV)
(i) Identify the correct ray diagram drawn by the student.
1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV
(ii) Name the device which uses this principle.
1. Magnifying glass 2. Slide projector
3. Terrestrial telescope 4. Galilean telescope
(iii) State the nature of the image.
1. Real, inverted and highly diminished 2. Real, inverted and magnified
3. Real, inverted and highly magnified 4. Real, inverted and of same size
(iv) The focal length of the lens changes when the lens is placed in water instead of air.
Choose the correct statement:
1. Focal length increases 2. Focal length decreases
3. Focal length remains unchanged 4. None of these
Question 2
(a) In a uniform circular motion: [1]
1. Speed of a body continuously changes because the direction of motion changes.
2. Velocity of body continuously changes because the direction of motion changes.
3. The motion of the body is accelerated.
4. Both (2) and (3)
150 m 300 m
Second
Man with
man
gun
1. 1 second after seeing the flash 2. 2 seconds after hearing the gun
3. 2 seconds after seeing the flash 4. 4 seconds after hearing the gun
(f) In an experiment, a student used an equilateral triangular glass prism and projected a narrow beam
of white light source from one side of the surface of the prism. She placed a screen on the other side
and saw many colours appearing as patches on the screen. But when she used a red light source,
she could see only a red patch on the screen. Similarly she used a blue and green light source and
could only see one colour patch on both occasions. [4]
(i) When white light ray falls on a prism, the ray at its first surface suffers:
1. No refraction 2. Only dispersion
3. Only deviation 4. Both deviation and dispersion
(ii) Name the phenomenon student was trying to demonstrate:
1. Dispersion 2. Reflection 3. Refraction 4. Scattering
(iii) The student could not see any other colour when the red light was used because:
1. Red colour does not refract in prism 2. Red colour is monochromatic
3. Prism was defective 4. The prism is opaque to red colour
(iv) The colour of white light which deviates the most.
1. Red 2. Violet 3. Blue 4. Yellow
Question 4
(a) Raindrop reaching the earth surface with constant velocity is in state of: [1]
1. Static equilibrium 2. Dynamic equilibrium
3. Neutral equilibrium 4. No equilibrium
ANSWERS
1. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (4) (iv) (1)
2. (a) (4) (b) (1) (c) (3) (d) (3) (e) (2)
(f) (i) (2) (ii) (4) (iii) (3) (iv) (2)
3. (a) (3) (b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (1) (e) (3)
(f) (i) (4) (ii) (1) (iii) (2) (iv) (2)
4. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (1) (d) (i) (3) (ii) (2)
(e) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (2) (iv) (4)
Question 1
The trend in metallic nature of metals as we go from top to bottom in a group: [1]
1. increases 2. decreases
3. neither increases nor decreases 4. none of the above
Question 2
The colour change observed when the solution of magnesium hydroxide is tested with the following
indicators: [1]
1. phenolphthalein turns colourless to pink 2. methyl orange remains orange
3. phenolphthalein remains colourless 4. blue litmus solution turns red
Question 3
The compound which is a non-electrolyte: [1]
1. KCl (aq) 2. H2SO4 (dil) 3. CCl4 (l) 4. CH3COOH (aq)
Question 4
Twice the vapour density gives: [1]
1. Actual vapour density 2. Relative vapour density
3. Molecular mass 4. Molar volume
Question 5
The number of lone pair of electrons in the nitrogen atom in ammonia molecule: [1]
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
Question 6
Elements with similar valence shell configuration in a Periodic Table are placed in: [1]
1. different groups 2. same period 3. different period 4. same group
Question 7
The gas liberated when sodium sulphite reacts with dilute sulphuric acid: [1]
1. Carbon dioxide 2. Hydrogen 3. Hydrogen sulphide 4. Sulphur dioxide
Question 8
Thickness of metal coating during electroplating depends on: [1]
1. Duration of current passage 2. A low current
3. Nature of cathode 4. Purity of anode
Question 9
Ionic bonding is seen in: [1]
1. Methane 2. Hydrogen 3. Ammonia 4. Sodium oxide
ANSWERS
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (1)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (2)
26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (3) 30. (2)
31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (1)
Question 1
Which of the following properties of the periodic table does not increase while moving down the group
of the periodic table? [1]
1. Atomic radius 2. Metallic character
3. Valency 4. Number of shells in an element
Question 2
Identify the method used for preparation of Iron (III ) chloride. [1]
1. Action of an acid on a metal 2. Direct combination
3. Neutralization 4. Precipitation
Question 3
Name a liquid which is non electrolyte. [1]
1. Dilute hydrochloric acid 2. Aq. Copper sulphate solution
3. Pure water 4. Sodium hydroxide solution
Question 4
State the term defined by : The mass of a given volume of gas compared to the mass of equal volume
of H2? [1]
1. Empirical formula 2. Vapour density
3. Molecular formula 4. Molecular weight
Question 5
Which of the following statement is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to
right across the periods of the periodic table? [1]
1. The elements become less metallic in nature.
2. The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
3. The number of valence electrons increases.
4. Nuclear charge increases.
Question 6
The colour change observed when dil. Sulphuric acid is added to methyl orange solution. [1]
1. Colour changes from orange to red 2. Colour changes from orange to colourless
3. Colour changes from orange to blue 4. Colour changes from orange to pink
ANSWERS
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2)
6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (3)
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (4)
26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30. (3)
31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (1) 37. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (1) (d) (1)
Question 1
The element which has the highest ionization potential. [1]
1. Helium 2. Lithium 3. Fluorine 4. Carbon
Question 2
The number of single covalent bond and lone pair electrons in ammonia. [1]
1. 1 single bond and 2 lone pairs 2. 3 single bond and 1 lone pair
3. 2 single bond and 3 lone pairs 4. 1 single bond and 3 lone pairs
Question 3
A solution of iron(III) chloride has pH less than 7. What is the nature of the solution? [1]
1. Acidic 2. Alkaline 3. Neutral 4. None of these
Question 4
How many valence electrons are present in the valence shell of the element with atomic number 18? [1]
1. 10 2. 6 3. 2 4. 8
Question 5
Relation between molecular weight and vapour density. [1]
1. Molecular weight = 2 × V.D 2. Molecular weight = V.D/2
3. Molecular weight = V.D 4. Molecular weight × V.D = 2
Question 6
A compound X consists of only molecules. Choose the correct statement from the options given below
to identify the property of compound X. [1]
1. A crystalline hard structure
2. A low melting point and low boiling point
3. An ionic bond
4. A strong force of attraction between its molecules
Question 7
Which of the following hydroxides is not an alkali? [1]
1. Copper hydroxide 2. Ammonium hydroxide
3. Calcium hydroxide 4. Magnesium hydroxide
Question 15
A compound in which shared pair of electrons are unequally distributed between the two atoms is
known as [1]
1. Non-polar covalent compound 2. Polar covalent compound
3. Coordinate compound 4. Electrovalent compound
Question 16
A chloride which forms a precipitate that is insoluble in excess of ammonium hydroxide. [1]
1. Calcium chloride 2. Ferrous chloride 3. Ferric chloride 4. Copper chloride
Question 17
The electrolyte used for electroplating an article with silver. [1]
1. Aqueous solution of nickel sulphate 2. Aqueous copper (II) sulphate
3. Molten lead bromide 4. Aqueous solution of Silver argento cyanide
Question 18
A yellow monoxide that dissolves in hot and concentrated alkali. [1]
1. Lead hydroxide 2. Lead oxide 3. Magnesium oxide 4. Calcium oxide
Question 19
Gelatinous white precipitate soluble in excess of ammonium hydroxide. [1]
1. Calcium hydroxide 2. Magnesium hydroxide
3. Zinc hydroxide 4. Lead hydroxide
Question 20
An alkaline earth metal. [1]
1. Potassium 2. Calcium 3. Lead 4. Copper
ANSWERS
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1)
6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (2)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (3)
26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (3)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (1)
Question 1
The element in period 2 having the smallest atomic size. [1]
1. Neon 2. Lithium 3. Oxygen 4. Fluorine
Question 2
The type of bond present in a chlorine molecule is a _______ [1]
1. Double covalent bond 2. Single covalent bond
3. Triple covalent bond 4. Coordinate bond
Question 3
Methyl orange turns _________ when added to ammonia solution. [1]
1. Pink 2. Yellow 3. Orange 4. Colourless
Question 4
What will be the observation when silver nitrate solution is added to hydrochloric acid? [1]
1. Dirty green precipitate is formed 2. Curdy white precipitate is formed
3. Reddish brown precipitate is formed 4. Pale yellow precipitate is formed
Question 5
Which substance gets oxidised in the following reaction? [1]
4Na + O2 → 2Na2O
1. Na2O 2. O2 3. Na 4. None of these
Question 6
It is the amount of energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of an isolated gaseous
atom. [1]
1. Electronegativity 2. Ionisation potential
3. Electron affinity 4. None of these
Question 7
An element has atomic number 16. It belongs to [1]
1. Period 2, group II 2. Period 3, group VIA
3. Period 2, group 0 4. Period 3, group 0
A B
1. Electrode A 2. Electrode B
3. Electrode A and B 4. None of these
Question 16
P, Q, R, S are four elements having electronic configuration 2, 8, 3 ; 2, 8, 7 ; 2, 8, 5 ; 2, 8, 2 respectively.
The element with highest metallic character is [1]
1. P 2. Q 3. R 4. S
Delivery tube
Cork
Test tube
Conc. H2SO4
NaCl
1. Litmus paper used is dry.
2. Litmus paper used is moist.
3. Litmus paper does not change its colour in an acid.
4. Litmus paper was kept very close to the mouth of the delivery tube.
20 ICSE Semester 1 Chemistry
Question 33
Arrange the following elements in the order of their decreasing metallic character: [1]
Na, Si, Cl, Mg, Al
1. Cl > Si > Al > Mg > Na 2. Na > Mg > Al > Si > Cl
3. Na > Al > Mg > Cl > Si 4. Al > Na > Si > Ca > Mg
Question 34
Which of the following salt will give acidic solution when dissolved in water? [1]
1. Ammonium chloride 2. Sodium chloride
3. Sodium carbonate 4. Potassium chloride
Question 35
Identify the weak electrolyte from the following. [1]
1. Sodium chloride solution 2. Dilute hydrochloric acid
3. Dilute sulphuric acid 4. Aqueous acetic acid
Question 36
60 g of compound on analysis gave 24 g Carbon, 4 g of Hydrogen and 32 g of Oxygen. The empirical
formula of the compound is [1]
1. C2H4O2 2. CH2O2 3. C2H2O2 4. CH2O
Question 37
State the correct answer for changes in properties of elements on moving left to right across a period.
[4]
(a) Non-metallic character of elements:
1. Decreases 2. Increases 3. Remain the same 4. Depends on period
(b) The electronegativity
1. Decreases 2. Remain the same
3. Depends on number of valence electrons 4. Increases
(c) The ionization potential
1. Goes up and down 2. Decreases 3. Increases 4. Remain the same
(d) Atomic size
1. Decreases 2. Increases
3. Sometimes increases or decreases 4. Remain the same
ANSWERS
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (3)
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (1)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)
26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (4) 30. (1)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (4)
36. (4) 37. (a) (2) (b) (4) (c) (3) (d) (1)
Question 1
Which of the following elements would lose an electron easily? [1]
1. Mg 2. K 3. Na 4. Ca
Question 2
The compound which does not contain COVALENT bond is [1]
1. CCl4 2. K2S 3. HCl 4. H2O
Question 3
A white ppt soluble in dil. hydrochloric acid. [1]
1. Silver nitrate 2. Silver chloride 3. Sodium carbonate 4. Sodium sulphate
Question 4
An element X has mass number 40 and contains 21 neutrons in its atom. To which group of the periodic
table does it belong? [1]
1. Group 1 2. Group 4 3. Group 2 4. Group 3
Question 5
The maximum number of covalent bonds by which the two atoms can be bonded to each other is [1]
1. Four 2. Three 3. Two 4. None of these
Question 6
Pb(NO3)2 + 2NaOH → 2NaNO3 + Pb(OH)2
The colour of the above precipitate is [1]
1. Dirty green precipitate 2. Reddish brown precipitate
3. Pale yellow precipitate 4. Chalky white precipitate
Question 7
The molecular weight of a compound is 30. What is its molecular formula? [1]
1. C2H2 2. CH3 3. C2H3 4. C2H6
Question 8
Three elements B, Si and Ge are [1]
1. Metals 2. Non-metals 3. Metalloids 4. None of these
Question 9
The formula of the hydroxide of the element having electronic configuration 2, 8, 2. [1]
1. Ca(OH)2 2. Mg(OH)2 3. KOH 4. NaOH
Question 10
Which of the following does not conduct electricity? [1]
1. Molten NaOH 2. Molten KOH 3. Solid NaCl 4. Aqueous NaCl
22 ICSE Semester 1 Chemistry
Question 11
A metallic chloride insoluble in excess of NH4OH is ______ [1]
1. MgCl2 2. PbCl2 3. CaCl2 4. ZnCl2
Question 12
A hydrocarbon contains 82.8% carbon. If its vapour density is 29, find its molecular formula. [1]
1. CH3 2. C4H10 3. C2H5 4. C4H6
Question 13
State the reaction taking place at the cathode during electrolysis of molten lead bromide. [1]
Battery Ammeter
Steel rod
Graphite rod
(Cathode)
(Anode)
Silical crucible
Molten PbBr2
Question 17
Method used for the preparation of Calcium carbonate. [1]
1. Neutralization by action of dil. acid on Insoluble base.
2. Neutralization by action of dil. acid on soluble base.
3. Precipitation by double decomposition.
4. Displacement reaction.
Question 18
Pale blue precipitate can be obtained from NH4OH when the salt solution contains: [1]
1. Cation of alkaline earth metal in period 4 2. Cation of lower valency of iron
3. Cation of a blue vitriol 4. Cation of alkali metal in period 3
Question 19
Calculate the empirical formula of a compound whose molecular formula is C8H6O4 and empirical formula
weight is 83. [ C = 12, H = 1, O = 16 ] [1]
1. C4H3O2 2. CHO2 3. C2H4O2 4. C6H10O6
ANSWERS
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2)
6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (2)
26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (4) 30. (3)
31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (a) (3) (b) (1) (c) (4) (d) (4)
ANSWERS
SECTION I
1. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (3)
2. (a) (4) (b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (1)
3. (a) (1) (b) (1) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (2)
SECTION II
4. (a) (3) (b) (1) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (4)
5. (a) (1) (b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (2)
6. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (1) (e) (2)
SECTION III
7. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (3) (e) (3)
8. (a) (4) (b) A. (2) B. (1) C. (4) (c) (2)
1 2
3
(a) Label the parts A, B and C
1. A – Cell plate, B – Spindle fibre, C – Chromatid
2. B – Cell plate, C – Spindle fibre, A – Chromosome
3. A – Chromatid, B – Spindle fibre, C – Cell plate
4. A – Nuclear membrane, B – Chromosome, C – Cell plate
(b) How many chromosomes are visible in the above diagram?
1. 4 pairs 2. 4 pairs 3. 8 pairs 4. 8
(c) Name the stages 1, 2 and 3.
1. Stage 1 – Prophase, Stage 2 – Metaphase, Stage 3 – Telophase
2. Stage 2 – Prophase, Stage 3 – Anaphase, Stage 1 – Metaphase
3. Stage 1 – Prophase, Stage 2 – Metaphase, Stage 3 – Anaphase
4. Stage 2 – Anaphase, Stage 1 – Metaphase, Stage 3 – Prophase
(d) State one identifying characteristic of Stage 3.
1. Chromosomes have moved to the opposite poles.
2. Sister chromatids have moved to the opposite poles.
3. Chromosomes are at the equatorial plane.
4. Centromere has not split into two.
(e) How is the part C formed in the cell?
1. By furrowing of cytoplasm.
2. By alignment of chromosomes at the equator.
3. By the aggregation of droplets from golgi complex and microtubules.
4. By the disappearance of nuclear membrane.
Question 8
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions given:[5]
Swelling
ANSWERS
SECTION I
1. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (3) (e) (1)
2. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (2)
3. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (3) (e) (4)
SECTION II
4. (a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (4) (e) (2)
5. (a) (2) (b) (1) (c) (4) (d) (1) (e) (3)
6. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (4)
SECTION III
7. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (3)
8. (a) (2) (b) (1) (c) (2) (d) (1) (e) (4)
Photosynthesis
reached at 0–0.2% conc. of CO2
Rate of
Rate of Photosynthesis
Stabilised
0–0.2% 0–0.2%
CO2 Conc. CO2 Conc.
S’
(a) Which two factors are affecting the rate of photosynthesis? (as shown in the diagram)
1. Light intensity and chlorophyll content. 2. Carbon dioxide concentration and water
3. Light intensity and carbon dioxide concentration 4. Light intensity and water
(b) Name two internal factors that can affect the rate of photosynthesis.
1. Structure of leaf and chlorophyll content 2. Structure of leaf and light intensity
3. Protoplasm and light intensity 4. Structure of leaf and carbon dioxide concentration
(c) How can the rate of photosynthesis be increased beyond the point S?
1. By increasing light intensity 2. By increasing carbon dioxide concentration
3. By decreasing light intensity 4. By decreasing carbon dioxide concentration
(d) Which law is followed here?
1. Moll’s Law of limiting factors 2. Hoff’s Law of limiting factors
3. Mendel’s Law of Inheritance 4. Blackman’s Law of limiting factors
(e) Why does photosynthesis rate fall and stops after 40°C?
1. Enzymes are destroyed. 2. Diffusive capacity of carbon dioxide is reduced.
3. Dehydration of protoplasm occurs. 4. None of the above.
Question 8
Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow: [5]
Spring Balance
Leafy Shoot
Oil
Water
ANSWERS
SECTION I
1. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (2) (e) (3)
2. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (1) (e) (2)
3. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (2) (d) (1) (e) (3)
SECTION II
4. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (3) (e) (1)
5. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (1) (e) (4)
6. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (4) (e) (3)
SECTION III
7. (a) (3) (b) (1) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (1)
8. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (1) (e) (2)
Light Light
Ball jar
Potassium
hydroxide sol.
Greased
glass sheet
Plant – A Plant – B
(a) How was the chlorophyll removed?
1. By boiling the leaf of water. 2. By boiling the leaf in oil.
3. By boiling the leaf in methylated spirit. 4. By boiling the leaf in milk.
(b) What is the purpose of keeping potassium hydroxide solution?
1. To absorb the carbon dioxide from the atmospheric air.
2. To absorb carbon dioxide from the air trapped inside the ball jar.
3. To absorb sunlight from inside the ball jar.
4. To make the leaves starch free.
(c) Why are greased sheets necessary for this experiment?
1. To prevent the escape of chlorophyll 2. To block the stomata
3. To seal the apparatus 4. To make the apparatus airtight
(d) What is the purpose of plant B in the experiment?
1. It is the control set up. 2. It is used to compare the results of the experiment.
3. It is used to verify the condition of the experiment. 4. All of the above.
(e) Give the equation of the biochemical process occurring here.
enzymes sunlight
1. C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O + 38ATP 2. 6CO2 + 12H2O C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2↑
chlorophyll
sunlight enzymes
3. 6CO2 + 6O2 C6H12O6 + 6H2O 4. C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2
chlorophyll
Question 8
Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow: [5]
A T
T A
G C
T A
A T
C G
GC GC
TA TA
AT
AT
CG CG
AT AT
GC
GC
TA
TA
CG
ICSE Semester 1 Biology 21
(a) Name the process shown in the diagram.
1. Transcription 2. Translocation 3. DNA replication 4. RNA replication
(b) What do the letters A, T, C, G stand for?
1. A – Adenine T – Thymine C – Cytosine G – Guanine
2. A – Adenine T – Thiamine C – Cysteine G – Guanine
3. A – Adenosine T – Triphosphate C – Cytoxine G – Guanosine
4. A – Adenine T – Thymine C – Cysteine G – Glycine
(c) What type of bonds exist between A, T, C, G?
1. A and T triple hydrogen bond
2. G and C double hydrogen bond
3. A and T double hydrogen bond, G and C triple hydrogen bond
4. A and C double hydrogen bond, G and T triple hydrogen bond
(d) In which phase of Interphase does it occur?
1. In the G1 phase 2. In the S-phase 3. In the G2 phase 4. In the G0 phase
(e) In a human cell, where does this process occur?
1. In the cytoplasm 2. In the vacuole
3. In the nucleus 4. In the cell membrane
ANSWERS
SECTION I
1. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (1) (e) (4)
2. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (2) (d) (4) (e) (3)
3. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (4) (e) (2)
SECTION II
4. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (4) (d) (2) (e) (3)
5. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (2) (d) (3) (e) (1)
6. (a) (4) (b) (3) (c) (2) (d) (1) (e) (4)
SECTION III
7. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (4) (e) (2)
8. (a) (3) (b) (1) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (3)
Gas bubbles
Water
Hydrilla
F1 generation Bb ?
Father Mother
F2 generation
bb Bb Bb bb
ANSWERS
SECTION I
1. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (4) (d) (4) (e) (2)
2. (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (3) (d) (1) (e) (2)
3. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (2)
SECTION II
4. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (2) (e) (1)
5. (a) (4) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (1) (e) (2)
6. (a) (3) (b) (4) (c) (1) (d) (2) (e) (3)
SECTION III
7. (a) (4) (b) (4) (c) (2) (d) (3) (e) (4)
8. (a) (3) (b) (2) (c) (1) (d) (3) (e) (4)