Class Xii Chemistry Students Support Material

STUDENT SUPPORT MATERIAL
SUBJECT-CHEMISTRY
TERM-1
SESSION 2021-22
STUDENT SUPPORT MATERIAL
CHIEF PATRON
Dr. JAIDEEP DAS,

DEPUTY COMMISSIONER,
KVS AHMEDABAD REGION
PATRON
SMT. SHRUTI BHARGAVA,
ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER,
KVS AHMEDABAD REGION
UNDER THE SUPERVISION OF

SHRI MANISH JAIN,
PRINCIPAL, KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA ONGCANKHLESHWAR
CO-ORDINATION TEAM
PHYSICAL ORGANIC INORGANIC
CHEMISTRY CHEMISTRY CHEMISTRY
SH. P K PATIDAR, DR. M R CHOUDHARY, MRS. SABIHA SHAIKH,
KV ONGC K V SAC K V No.1
CHANDKHEDA AHMEDABAD SURAT
REVIEW COMMITTEE
PHYSICAL ORGANIC INORGANIC QUESTION

CHEMISTRY CHEMISTRY CHEMISTRY
PAPER
SH. BHARAT KUMAR SH. S. K. SONI, SH. ATUL TIWARI, SH. INDRA MAL,
PANDYA, K.V NO. 3 KV AHMEDABAD CANTT KV 2 EME BARODA K V INS VALSURA
SURAT
CONTENT DEVELOPEMENT TEAM
CHAPTERS NAME NAME OF TEACHER NAME OF SCHOOL
1. SOLID STATE MRS ANJU BALA KV NO-1,SHAHIBAUG AHMEDABAD
2. SOLUTIONS MRS REENA TIWARI KV CRPF GANDHINAGAR
3. p-BLOCK ELEMENTS SH. S. C. YADAV KV ONGC ANKLESHWAR
4. HALOALKANES AND
MRS NAGESHWARI KV AFS MAKARPURA
HALOARENES
5. ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS MRS BABITA NIGAM KV -02 KRIBHCO , SURAT
AND ETHERS
6. BIOMOLECULES SH. RAJ KUMAR MEENA NO-2 INF JAMNAGAR
7. QUESTION PAPER SH. J L AGARWAL KV SHAHIBAUG AHMEDABAD

CHEMISTRY
Class-XII
INDEX
S NO CONTENT PAGE NO
1 SYLLABUS THEORY TERM-1 2-3
2 SYLLABUS PRACTICAL TERM-1 4
3 THE SOLID STATE 5-14
4 SOLUTION 15-23
5 THE p- BLOCK ELEMENTS 24-34
6 HALOALKANES &HALOARENES 35-47
7 ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS &ETHERS 48-58
8 BIOMOLECULES 59-68
9 CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 69-84
10 SAMPLE PAPER 85-93
4
SYLLABUS FOR SESSION-2021-22
CLASS XII Term-I
S.No UNIT Periods MARKS
1 Solid State 8
2 Solutions 8 10
3 p-Block Elements 7 10
4 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 9
5 Alcohols,PhenolsandEthers 9 15
6 Biomolecules 8
TOTAL 49 35
Solid State: Classification of solids based on different binding forces: molecular, ionic,
covalent and metallic solids, amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea).Unit
cell in two dimensional and three dimensional lattices, calculation of density of unit cell,
packing in solids, packing efficiency, voids, number of atoms per unit cell in a cubic unit
cell, point defects.
Solutions: Types of solutions, expression of concentration of solutions of solids in

liquids, solubility of gases in liquids, solid solutions, Raoult's law, colligative properties -
relative lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point, depression of freezing
point, osmotic pressure,determination of molecular masses using colligative properties.
p Block Elements: Group -15 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration,

occurrence, oxidation states, trends in physical and chemical properties; Nitrogen
preparation properties and uses; compounds of Nitrogen:preparation and properties of
Ammonia and Nitric Acid.
Group 16 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, oxidation states,
occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties, dioxygen: preparation,
properties and uses, classification of Oxides, Ozone, Sulphur-allotropic forms;
compounds of Sulphur: preparation properties and uses of Sulphur-dioxide,
SulphuricAcid: properties and uses; Oxoacids of Sulphur (Structures only).
Group 17 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, oxidation states,
occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties; compounds of halogens,
Preparation, properties and uses of Chlorine and Hydrochloric acid, interhalogen
compounds, Oxoacids of halogens (structuresonly).
Group 18 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, trends in
physical and chemical properties,uses.
HaloalkanesandHaloarenes: Haloalkanes: Nomenclature, nature of C–X bond,

physical and chemical properties, optical rotation mechanism of substitution reactions.
Haloarenes:Nature of C–X bond, substitution reactions (Directive influence of halogen in
monosubstituted compounds only).
Alcohols,Phenols and Ethers: Alcohols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation,
physical and chemical properties (of primary alcohols only), identification of primary,
secondary and tertiary alcohols, and mechanism of dehydration.
5
Phenols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties,
acidic nature of phenol, electrophilic substitution reactions, uses of phenols.
Ethers:Nomenclature,methods of preparation,physical and chemical properties, uses.
Biomolecules: Carbohydrates - Classification (aldoses and ketoses), monosaccahrides

(glucose and fructose), D-L configuration
Proteins -Elementary idea of - amino acids, peptide bond, polypeptides, proteins,
structure of proteins - primary, secondary, tertiary structure and quaternary structures
(qualitative idea only),denaturation of proteins.
Nucleic Acids: DNA and RNA
***********************************************
6
PRACTICALS
TermI:
A 15 mark Practical would be conducted under the supervision of subject
teacher/internal examiner. This would contribute to the overall practical
marks for the subject.
OR
In case the situation of lock down continues until Nov-Dec 2021, a Practical Based
Assessment (pen-paper) of 15 marks would be conducted at the end of Term-I at the
school level and marks would be submitted by the schools to the Board. This would
contribute to the overall practical marks for the subject.
Evaluation Scheme
S.No Practical Marks

1. Volumetric Analysis 4
2. Salt Analysis 4
3. Content Based experiment 2
4. Class record and viva(Internal Examiner) 5
TOTAL 15
(1) Volumetricanalysis(4marks)
Determination of concentration / molarity of KMnO4 solution by titrating it against a

standard solution of:
i. Oxalicacid,
ii. Ferrous Ammonium Sulphate
(Students will be required to prepare standard solutionsby weighing themselves).
(2) Salt analysis (Qualitative analysis) (4 marks)

Determination of one cation and one anion in a given salt.
Cations- Pb2+, Cu2+, As3+, Al3+, Fe3+, Mn2+, Ni2+, Zn2+, Co2+, Ca2+, Sr2+, Ba2+,
Mg2+, NH4+
Anions–(CO3)2-,S2-,NO2-,SO32-,SO42-,NO3-,Cl-,Br-,I-,PO43-,C2O42-,CH3COO-
(Note: Insoluble salts excluded)
(3) Content Based Experiments (2 marks)
A. Chromatography
i. Separation of pigments from extracts of leaves and flowers by paper
chromatography and determination of Rf values.
ii. Separation of constituents present in an inorganic mixture containing two
cations only (constituents having large difference in Rf values to be
provided).
B. Characteristic tests of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in pure samples and their
detection in given food stuffs.
7
1. SOLID STATE
SECTION-A
CASE STUDY BASED-MULTIPLOE CHOICE QUESTIONS (I)
1.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Solids are substances which have fixed shapeand volume. they are characterised by rigidity,
incompressibility, slow diffusion and mechanical strength. They are classified as:
(a) Crystalline solids
(b) Amorphous solids
(a) Crystalline solids - A crystalline solid is a substance whose constituent particles possess
regular orderly arrangement e.g. Sodium chloride, sucrose, diamond etc.
The crystalline solids are further classified as:

(a) Metallic solids
(b) Ionic solids
(c) Covalent solids
(d) Molecular solids
(b) Amorphous solids -An amorphous solid is a substance whose constituent particles do not
possess a regular orderly arrangement e.g. glass, plastics, rubber, starch, and proteins.
Q.1 Amorphous solids
(A) have sharp melting point.
(B) undergo clean cleavage.
(C) have regular geometry.
(D) are isotropic in nature.
Q.2 Which of the following solids is not crystalline?
(A) copper
(B) sodium chloride
(C) diamond
(D) Glass
Q.3 Which of the following statements regarding covalent solids is incorrect?

(A) They are very hard.
(B) They have very high melting points.
(C) They are good conductors of heat
(D) They have high heats of fusion.
Q.4 Dry ice is a
(A) molecular solid
(B) ionic solid
(C) atomic solid
(D) metallic solids
8
Q.5 quartz is a
(A) ionic solid
(B) covalent solid
(C) atomic solid
(D) metalic solid
An ideally perfect crystal is one which has the same unit cell and contains the same lattice
points throughout the crystal. The term imperfection or defect is generally used to
describe any deviation of the ideally perfect crystal from the periodic arrangement of its
constituents.
If the deviation occurs because of missing atoms, displaced atoms or extra atoms, the
imperfection is named as a point defect.
Such defects can be the result of imperfect packing during the original crystallisation or they
may arise from thermal vibrations of atoms at elevated temperatures because with increase in
thermal energy there is increased probability of individual atoms jumping out of their positions
of lowest energy.
Type of point defects – point defects in a crystal may be classified into three types
1.Stoichiometric defects
2.Non – stoichiometry defects
3.Impurity defects
Q.1 Which of the following defects is not a type of Stoichiometry defects ?
(A) Vacancy defect
(B) Interstitial Defect
(C) Schottky defect
(D) Metal excess defect

Q.2 In which of the following defects equal number of anions and cations are missing
from lattice site?
(A) Vacancy defect
(B) Interstitial defect
(C) Schottky defect
(D) Frenkel Defect
Q.3 Which of the following defects does not cause any change in density of crystal?
(A) Vacancy defect
(B) Interstitial defect
(C) Schottky defect
(D) Frenkel Defect
9
Q.4 In metal excess defect, the sites occupied by the extra electrons are known as –
(A) f- centres
(B) vacant site.
(C) interstitial site
(D) site of defect
Q.5 Which of the following compounds does not show metal deficiency defect?
(A) FeO
(B)FeS
(C) NiO
(D) NaCl
A regular three dimensional arrangement of points in space is called a space lattice or crystal
lattice. There are only 14 three-dimensional lattices known as Bravais lattices. The basic
difference between the 14 Bravais lattices are the angles between the faces and the relative
proportion of the sides.
A unit cell is the smallest unit of the crystal which when repeated again and again gives the
crystal of the given substance.
There are three types of unit cells based on the cube. These are:
(a) Primitive or simple cube (b) Body-centred cube (c) Face-centred cube
Q.1 The coordination number of each atom in body centred cubic unit cell is
(A) 12
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 4
Q.2 In face-centered cubic unit cell, edge length is-
(A) 4√3r
(B) 2√2r
(C) 2r
(D) √32r
Q.3 The numbers of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell of a face centered cubic lattice of
similar atoms is-
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C8
(D)10
Q.4 The percentage of empty space in a body centred cubic arrangement is –
(A) 74
(B)68
(C) 32
(D) 26
Q.5 The number of atoms in unit cell in simple cubic, FCC and BCC are-
(A) 1,2,4
(B) 1,2,3
(C) 1,4,2
(D) 1,3,2
10
SECTION-B
CASE STUDY BASED-ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the formation of crystals, the constituent particles (atoms, ions or molecules) get closely
packed together. The closely packed arrangement is that in which maximum available space is
occupied. This corresponds to a state of maximum density. The most efficient close packing can
be achieved in two ways, one which is called hexagonal close packing (hcp) and the other cubic
close packing (ccp or fcc).
In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason.
Mark the correct choice as
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
Q.1 Assertion:The packing efficiency is maximum for the fcc structure.

Reason:The coordination number is 12 in fcc structures.
Q.2 Assertion:In close packing of spheres, a tetrahedral void is surrounded by four
spheres whereas an octahedral void is surrounded by six spheres.
Reason: A tetrahedral void has a tetrahedral shape whereas an octahedral
void hasan octahedral shape.
Q. 3 Assertion:Packing fraction of FCC and HCP unit cells are the same.
Reason: Both FCC and HCP unit cells have same packaging pattern i.e.ABCBC..
Q.4 Assertion:The octahedral viods have double the size of the tetrahedral
voids in a crystal.
Reason: The number of tetrahedral voids is double the number of octahedral
voids is a crystal
Q.5 Assertion:hcp is more closely packed than bcc.
Reason:hcp has 12 coordination number and bcc has 8 coordination number.
Non-Stoichiometric Defect
The defect in which the ratio of cation and anion in an ionic lattice is variable is known as a non-
stoichiometric defect. They are of two types, namely:
Metal Excess Defect
Metal Deficiency Defect
Metal Excess Defect occurs in two ways:
(a)Due to anionic vacancies (b) Due to presence of extra cations at interstitial sites
11
Impurity defects are foreign atoms that replace some of the atoms making up the solid or that
squeeze into the interstices; they are important in the electrical behaviour of semiconductors,
which are materials used in computer chips and other electronic devices.
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason
is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
assertion.
(B Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
Q.1 Assertion:Anionic vacancies in alkali halides are produced by heating the alkali
halide crystals with alkali metal vapour.
Reason:Electrons trapped in anion vacancies are referred to as F−centre.
Q.2 Assertion:ZnO becomes yellow when it is heated.
Reason:Metal excess defect arises due to excess of Zn2+ ions which move to
interstitial sites and the electron moves to neighbouring interstitial
sites.
Q.3 Assertion:when impurity defect arises by adding SrCl2 in NaCl, it increases density
Reason:cationic vacancies are created.
Q.4 Assertion:Metal deficiency defect can be seen in FeO
Reason:Li compound (LiCl) shows pink colour when heated with Li vapour due to
F- center.
Q.5 Assertion:Feo is non stochiometric with Fe0.95O
Reason:some Fe2+ ions are replaced by Fe3+ as 3 Fe2+=2 Fe3+ to maintain electrical
neutrality.
SECTION-C
ASSSERTION REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS
Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
assertion.
(B Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
1. Assertion: Crystalline solids are anisotropic.
Reason:Crystalline solids are not as closely packed as ionic solids.
2.Assertion: Solid NaCl does not conduct electricity at all.
Reason: In solid NaCl, the ions have fixed positions in the lattice structure and there are
no free ions.
3. Assertion:Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points.
Reason:There is a strong force of attraction between the ions.
12
4.Assertion:NaCl crystal appears yellow upon heating in Na vapours.
Reason:Na+ in the crystal absorbs electrons from the air and hence gives yellow colour.
5.Assertion:Frenkel defect is shown by silver halides.
Reason:Silver ions are smaller in size and can easily fit in interstitial sites.
6. Assertion:In close packing of spheres,a tetrahedral void has a tetrahedral shape.
Reason: A tetrahedral void is surrounded by four spheres.
7. Assertion:The total number of atoms present in a simple cubic unit cell is one.
Reason:Simple cubic unit cell has atoms at its corners, each of which is shared
between eight adjacent unit cells.
8. Assertion:Graphite is an example of tetragonal crystal system.
Reason: For a tetragonal system, a = b ≠ c, α = β = 90°, γ = 120°.
9. Assertion:No compound has both Schottky and Frenkel defects.
Reason: Schottkeydefects change the density of the solid.
10. Assertion:Stability of a crystal is reflected in the magnitude of its melting.
Reason:The stability of a crystal depends upon the strength of the interparticle
attractive force.
SECTION-D
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
Q.1. Which of the following statements about amorphous solids is incorrect ?
(A) They melt over a range of temperature
(B) They are anisotropic
(C) There is no orderly arrangement of particles
(D) They are rigid and incompressible
Q.2. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of solids?
(A) Intermolecular distances are short.
(B) Intermolecular forces are weak.
(C) Constituent particles have fixed positions.
(D) Solids oscillate about their mean positions.
Q.3. Most crystals show good cleavage because their atoms, ions or molecules are
(A) weakly bonded together
(B) strongly bonded together
(C) spherically symmetrical
(D) arranged in planes
Q.4. Which of the following is not a crystalline solid?
(A) KCl
(B) CsCl
(C) Glass
(D) Rhombic S
Q.5. Which of the following is an amorphous solid ?
(A) Graphite (C)
(B) Quartz glass (SiO2)
(C) Diamond
(D) Silicon carbide (SiC)
13
Q.6. What type of crystal defect is shown in figure given below?
(A) Frenkel Defect

(B) Schottky Defect
(C) Interstitial Defect
(D) Impurity defect
Q.7. Graphite is an example of-

(A) Ionic solid
(B) hydrogen bonded solid
(C) metallic crystal
(D) Covalent solid
Q.8. The intermetallic compound LiAg crystallizes in a cubic lattice in which lithium
and silver atoms have coordination numbers of 8. To what crystal class does the
unit cell belong?
(A) Simple cubic
(B) Face-centred cubic
(C) Body-centred cubic
(D) Edge-centred cubic
Q.9. The arranegement ABC, ABC, ABC ……. is referred as-
(A) octahedral close packing
(B) hexagonal close packing
(C) tetrahedral close packing
(D) cubic close packing
Q.10.Cells present in a cube-shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g ?
[Atomic masses : Na = 23, Cl = 35.5]
(A) 2.57 × 1021
(B) 1.28 × 1021
(C) 1.71 × 1021
(D) 5.14 × 1021
Q.11. The packing efficiency of a metal crystal for simple cubic lattice is
(A) 52.4%
(B) 65%
(C) 60%
(D) 54.5%
Q.12. In compound atoms of element Y forms ccp lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3rd of
tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound ?
(A)X3Y4
(B) X4Y3
(C) X2Y4
(D) X2Y
Q.13. The total number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in 0.5 mol of a compound forming
hcp structure are:
(A) 6.022 ×1023
(B) 3.01×1023
(C) 9.033 ×1023
(D) 12.044 ×1023
14
Q.14. A compound formed by elements A and B has cubic structure in which A atoms
are at the corners of the cube and B atoms are at the face centres. The
formula of the compound will be__________.
(A) AB3
(B) A2B
(C) AB2
(D) A2B3
Q.15.Copper crystal has a face centred cubic structure. Atomic radius of copper atom is
128 pm. What is the density of copper metal? (Atomic mass of copper is 63.5)
(A) 10.71 g cm-3
(B) 4.93 g cm-3
(C) 8.9 g cm-3
(D) 11.2 g cm-3
Q.16. A crystal has the lattice parameters a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 900correspond
to
(A) monoclinic
(B) triclinic
(C) cubic
(D) tetragonal
Q.17. Analysis shows that nickel oxide has the formula Ni0.98O1.00. What fractions of
nickel exist as Ni2+ and Ni3+ ions
(A) 96% and 4%
(B) 92 % and 8%
(C) 88% and 12%
(D) 99% and 1%
Q.18. In a fcc arrangement of P and Q atoms, where P atoms are at the corners of
the unit cell, Q atoms at the face centres and two atoms are missing from two
corners in each unit cell, then the formula of the compound is.
(A)P2Q3
(B) P4Q
(C)P4Q5
(D)PQ4
Q.19. The cubic unit cell of Al (molar mass 27 g mol-1 ) has an edge length of 405 pm. Its
density is 2.7 g/cm3 . The cubic unit cell is _______.
(A) face- centred
(B) body- centred
(C) edge- centred
(D) primitive
Q.20. How many kinds of space lattices are possible in a crystal ?
(A) 7
(B) 14
(C) 23
(D) 230
Q.21. The correct order of the packing efficiency in different types of unit cells is
(A) fcc < bcc < simple cubic
(B) fcc > bcc > simple cubic
(C) fcc < bcc > simple cubic
(D) bcc < fcc > simple cubic
Q.22. Which of the following point defects are shown by AgBr(s)crystals ?
(i) Schottky defect
(ii) Frenkel defect
(iii) metal excess defect
(iv) Metal deficiency defect
15
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i)and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Q.23. The edge lengths of the unit cells in terms of the radius of spheres
constituting fcc, bccand simple cubic unit cell are respectively
(A) √
√
(B) √
√
(C) √
√
(D) √
√
Q.24.which of the following is a network solid?
(A) SO2 (solid) (C) Diamond
(B) I2 (D) H2O(ice)
Q.25.Aluminium crystallises in a cubic close-packed structure. Its metallic radius is 125 pm.
What is the length of the side of the unit cell-
(A) 253.5pm (C) 335.5pm
(B) 453.5pm (D) 353.5pm
Q.26.The lattice site in a pure crystal cannot be occupied by____________
(A) molecule (C) electron
(B) ion (D) atom
Q.27. A compound MpXq has cubic close packing (ccp) arrangement of X. its unit cell structure
is shown below:
The empirical formula of the compound is-

(A) MX (C) M2X
(B) MX2 (D) M5X14
Q.28.Gold crystallizes in fcclattice.Calculate the approximate number of unit cells
Present in 1mg of Gold(At. Mass of gold=197u)
(A) 7.64× 10 17
(B) 3.82× 10 8
(C) ) 1.528× 10 17
(D) ) 6.022× 10 18
Q.29. An element has a body-centred cubic (bcc) structure with cell edge of 288 pm. The
density of the element is 7.2 g cm-3. How many atoms are present in 208 g of the element
(A) 24.17× 10 24
(B) 2.417× 10 24
(C) 8.89× 10 23
(D) 8.89× 10 24
Q.30. The efficiency of packing is 68% in
(A) hcp structure
(B) ccp structure
(C) fcc structure
(D) bcc structure
16
Answer key:
(I) Case study based (MCQ type )
1.
1 2 3 4 5
D D C A B
2.
1 2 3 4 5
D C D A D
3.
1 2 3 4 5
C B C C C
(II) Case study based (A/R) type )

1.
1 2 3 4 5
A A C D A
2.
1 2 3 4 5
B A B B A
(III) A/R Type questions:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A A C A A A D D A
(IV) MCQ Type questions:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B B D C B B D C D A A B C A C
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A D A B B A A C D C B A B D
17
2. SOLUTION
SECTION-A
CASE STUDY BASED-MULTIPLOE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
For chemical reactions the concentration of the solute is important because it determines the
collision of molecules in solution for the reaction product. The rate of reaction depends upon the
collision of molecules and the equilibrium conditions. The concentration of a solution is the
amount of solute present in a solution or dissolved in a fixed volume of solvent at room
temperature. There are different terms to express the concentration of the solution like
percentage concentration, molarity, normality, formality, molality etc.
Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer:

1. The number of moles of solute present in a 1 litre of solution is known as-
(A) Molality
(B) Molarity
(C) Normality
(D) Formality
2. If 2 gm of NaOH is present is 200 ml of its solution, its molarity will be
(A) 0.025
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.25
(D) 10
3. The correct relationship between mole fraction and molality is-
(A)
(B)
(C) m= X1+X2
(D) m= X/V
4. Calculate molality of the mixture of solution produced by mixing 25 % (W/W) of NaOH
solution with 15 % w/w solution? (Molar mass of NaOH = 40 g/mol)
(A) 12.74m
(B) 5.5m
(C) 9.0m
(D) 4.0m
5. Calculate concentration of urea having 6.022x1020 molecules in 100 ml Urea (NH2CONH2)

solution?
(A) 0.01M
(B) 0.001M
(C) 0.2M
(D) 0.1M
The properties of the solutions which depend only on the number of solute particles but not on
the nature of the solute are called colligative properties. Relative lowering in vapour pressure is
also an example of colligative properties. For an experiment, sugar solution is prepared for
which lowering in vapour pressure was found to be 0.061 mm of Hg. (Vapour pressure of water
at 200C is 17.5 mm of Hg)
18
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
6. Relative lowering of vapour pressure for the given solution is
(A) 0.00348
(B) 0.061
(C) 0.122
(D) 1.75
7. The vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of solution will be
(A) 17.5
(B) 0.61
(C) 17.439
(D) 0.00348
8. Mole fraction of sugar in the solution is
(A) 0.00348
(B) 0.9965
(C) 0.061
(D) 1.75
9. If weight of sugar taken is 5 g in 108 g of water then molar mass of sugar will be
(A) 358
(B) 120
(C) 240
(D) 400
10. The vapour pressure of water at 293K when 25g of glucose is dissolved in 450 g of water
is
(A) 17.2
(B) 17.4
(C) 17.120
(D) 17.02
An everyday example of Henry's law is given by carbonated soft drinks. Before the bottle or can
is opened, the gas above the drink is almost pure carbon dioxide at a pressure slightly higher
than atmospheric pressure.When soft drinks bottle is opened some of the gas escapes giving a
specific pop sound, this is due to the lower pressure above the liquid and carbon dioxide comes
out as bubbles. Carbon dioxide reacts with water, the electron rich oxygen of water donates an
electron pair to the carbon. After proton transfer from water to one oxygen of the CO2unit,
carbonic acid is formed.
Henry's law states that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the
pressure of the gas on liquid. Henry's law is a gas law which states that at the amount of gas
that is dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas above the
liquid when the temperature is kept constant.
The Henry law constant for dissolution of a gas in an aqueous medium is 3×102 atm.We can
use Henry's Law to calculate the concentration of dissolved carbon dioxide in an aqueous
solution. The current average concentration of CO2 is 387 ppm, that is 387 x 10-6 atm. [CO2] =
P/KH = 3.87 x 10-4 atm/29.41 atm M-1 = 1.32 x 10-5 M
appropriate answer:
11. Henry‘s law states that -
(A) Partial pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its mole
fraction in the liquid
(B) Partial pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to the mole
Fraction in the vapour
(C) Partial pressure is equal to the product of the mole fraction and total pressure
(D) Vapour pressure is equal to the product of the mole fraction and total pressure
19
12. On increasing pressure of a gas, solubility of gas in liquid:
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) First Increases then decreases
(D)None
13. The value of the Henry‘s law constant of a gas is dependent on
(A) Nature of gas
(B) Nature of solvent
(C) Temperature
(D) All of these
14. Calculate the solubility of gaseous oxygen in water at a temperature of 293 K when the
partial pressure exerted by O2 is 1 bar.
(Given: kH of O2 34840 barLmol-1)
(A) 2.87x10-5 M
(B) 1.80x10-5 M
(C) 3.07x10-5 M
(D) 2.87x10-2 M
15. The value of kH for CO2 at a temperature of 293 K is 1.6x103 atm.L.mol-1. At what partial
pressure would the gas have solubility (in water) of 2x10-5 M?
(A) 2.032 atm
(B) 1.02 atm
(C) 0.032 atm
(D) 0.57 atm
SECTION-B
CASE STUDY BASED-ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
4. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Osmotic pressure is defined as the tendency of solvent molecules to move in the direction of
lower solvent activity through semipermeable membrane. Osmotic pressure is considered to be
proportional to the molarity and temperature of the solution. By molarity we mean the number
of moles of solute in one liter solution, therefore it is a colligative property. Osmotic pressure
can be defined using the following equation:
Π V = nRT
An external pressure must be applied to reverse the process of osmosis on the side of the
membrane that contains the lower solvent concentration. The pressure forces the solvent to flow
from a region of low concentration to one of high concentration. This concept is used in
desalination of sea water.
In following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Select the correct answer out of the following choices.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason
is correct explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason
is not correct explanation for assertion.
16. Assertion: When a solution is separated from the pure solvent by a semi
permeable membrane, the solvent molecules pass through it
from pure solvent side to the solution side.
Reason: Diffusion of solvent occurs from a region of high concentration
solution to a region of low concentration solution.
20
17. Assertion: Isotonic solution does not show net osmosis.
Reason: Isotonic solutions have same osmotic pressure.
18. Assertion: Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M urea solution is less than that of 0.1M NaCl
solution.
Reason: Osmotic pressure is not a colligative property.
19. Assertion: The preservation of meat by salting and fruits by adding sugar
protects against bacterial action.
Reason: A bacterium on salted meat loses water due to osmosis shrivels and
ultimately dies.
20. Assertion: Water purifiers works on reverse osmosis.
Reason: Movement of solvent from a region of high concentration solution
to a region of low concentration solution is reverse osmosis.
5. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :
At the freezing point of a solvent, the solid and the liquid are in equilibrium. Therefore, a
solution will freeze when its vapour pressure becomes equal to the vapour pressure of the
pure solid solvent.
It has been observed that when a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent, the freezing point
of the solution always lower than that of the pure solvent. Depression in freezing point can be
given as, ∆Tf= Kf m Where, Kf =Molal freezing point depression constant or
In following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is

given. Select the correct answer out of the following choices.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is
correct explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not
correct explanation for assertion.
21. Assertion: 0.1 M solution of glucose has same depression in the freezing point
As 0.1 M solution of urea.
Reason: Kf for both has same value.
22. Assertion: Larger the value of cryoscopic constant of the solvent, lesser will be
the freezing of the solution.
Reason: Extent of depression in the freezing-point depends on the nature of
the solvent.
23. Assertion: The water pouch of instant cold pack for treating athletic injuries
Breaks when squeezed with NH4N03 .
Reason: Addition of non-volatile solute into solvent results into depression of
Freezing point of solvent.
24. Assertion: If a non-volatile solute is mixed in a solution then elevation in
Boiling point and depression in freezing point both will be same.
Reason: Elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point both
Depend on number of particles of solute.
25. Assertion: Increasing pressure on pure water decreases its freezing point.
Reason: Density of water is maximum at 273 K.
21
SECTION-C
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation
of the Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(C) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(D) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
26. Assertion: When molecular mass of Acetic acid in Benzene and in water is
calculated using depression in freezing point it gives different
values.
Reason: Water is polar and benzene is non polar solvent.
27. Assertion: In liquid state molarity changes with change in temperature.
Reason: Volume changes with change in temperature.
28. Assertion: Molarity of the solution does not change on dilution.
Reason: Ratio of moles of solute to the volume of solution is called molarity.
29. Assertion: Ideal solution is prepared by mixing benzene and toluene.
Reason: On mixing 25 ml benzene with 25ml toluene, the volume of solution
become 50 ml and there is no change in the enthalpy of mixing.
30. Assertion: 1 molal aqueous solution of urea contains 60 gm urea in 1Kg water.
Reason: 1 mole solute dissolved in 1000gm solvent the resultant solution is
called a 1 Molal solution.
31. Assertion: 0.9% (w/w) solution of NaCl is isotonic with blood cells.
Reason: isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure.

32. Assertion: Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M urea solution is greater than that of
0.1M NaCl solution.
Reason: Osmocis is a colligative property.
33. Assertion: To remove snow from road, salt is used.
Reason: NaCl decrease freezing point of water.
34. Assertion: Pressure cooker decreases time of cooking food.
Reason: Boiling point of water decrease in pressure cooker.
35. Assertion: The boiling point of water is higher than H2S.
Reason: H2S has a greater molecular mass than H2O.
Multiple choice Questions-
36. According to Raoult‘s law relative lowering in vapour pressure of non-volatile solute is
equally proportional to-
(A) mole fraction of solvent
(B) mole fraction of solute
(C) mass fraction of solute
(D) mass fraction of solution
37. If 200 ml water is added to 0.2 M 500 ml solution calculate molarity (M) of diluted
solution?
(A) 0.5010 M
(B) 0.2847 M
(C) 0.7093 M
(D) 0.1428 M
22
38. A 1% aqueous solution (w/w)of a certain substance is isotonic with a 3%solution of
dextrose i.e., glucose (M.M. 180 g/mol) at a temperature. The molar mass in g/mol of
the substance is:
(A) 60
(B)120
(C)180
(D) 360
39.Which of the following pair will show positive deviation from Raoult‘s law?
(A) H2O- HCl
(B) C6H6- CH3OH
(C) H2O- HNO3
(D) CH3COCH3- CHCl3
40.Which of the following solutions has highest osmotic pressure?
(A) 1 M NaCl
(B) 1 M Urea
(C) 1 M Sucrose
(D) 1M Glucose
41.Which of the following behaviour is true about ideal binary liquid solution?
(A) Plot of pTotal vs xA is non-linear
(B) Plot of pTotal vs xB is linear
(C) Plot of pT vs xB is linear with slope=0
(D) Plot of pT vs xA is linear with slope=0
42.The relative lowering of vapour pressure in case of a solution of non- volatile solute is
equal to the mole fraction of solute. The statement is based on-
(A)Henry‘s law
(B) Arrhenius law
(C) Raoult‘s law
(D) Ostwald‘s law
43.Which pair will not form ideal solution-
(A) C2H5Br, C2H5I
(B) C6H5Br,C6H5Cl
(C) C6H6,C6H5CH3
(D)C2H5I, C2H5OH
44. Which of the following aqueous solution has highest boiling point?
(A) 1% glucose
(B) 1% sucrose
(C) 1% NaCl
(D) 1% CaCl2
45.Osmotic pressure of the solution can be increased by
(A) Increasing temperature of the solution
(B)decreasing temperature of the solution
(C) Increasing the volume of the solution
(D) diluting the solution
46.The van‘t Hoff‘s factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is
(A) 91.3%
(B) 87%
(C) 100%
(D) 74%
47.A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because
(A) heat is more evenly distributed in cooking space
(B) boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased
(C) higher pressure inside the cooker cruses food material
(D) cooking involves chemical changes helped by rise in temperature
48.If liquid A and B form ideal solutions
(A) The enthalpy of mixing is zero
23
(B) The entropy of mixing is zero
(C) The free energy of mixing is zero
(D)the free energy as well as entropy of mixing are zero
49. On dissolving definite amount having molecular mass 60 gm/mole of substance in 180
gm of water, the vapour pressure of water decreases by 10% then calculate the amount
dissolved ?
(A) 30 gm
(B) 120 gm
(C) 12 gm
(D) 60 gm
50.Calculate molarity of the solution produced by dissolving 120 gm urea. (molecular mass
60u) in1000 gm of water having density 1.15 gm ?
(A) 0.50 M
(B) 1.78 M
(C) 1.02 M
(D) 2.05 M
51.Which of the following has molar concentration same as 2N HCl?
(A) 4.0 N H2SO4
(B) 0.5 N H2SO4
(C) 1 N H2SO4
(D) 2 N H2SO4
52.Vapour pressure of CCl4at 25°C is 143 mm. If 0.5 gm non volatile solute is added in 100
cm3 of CCl4 calculate vapour pressure of the solution (density of CCl4= 1.58 gm/cm3)
(A) 141.93 mm
(B) 94. 39 mm
(C) 199.34 mm
(D) 143.99 mm
53.If ratio of partial pressure of substance A and B is PA0: PB0=1 : 2 and ratio of mole
fraction is 1:2,then calculate molefraction of A in vapour state ?
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.52
(D) 0.2
54.Vapour pressure of a mixture of ethanol and propanol at 300 K is 290 mm. If vapour
pressure of propanol at 300 K is 200 mm and mole fraction of ethanol is 0.6 then at the
same temperature calculate vapour pressure of ethanol?
(A) 300 mm
(B) 700 mm
(C) 350 mm
(D) 360 mm
55.At a definite temperature vapour pressure of pure benzene is 0.85 bar. When 0.5 gm of
solid non-volatile electrolyte is dissolved in 39.0 gm benzene vapour pressure of solution
becomes0.845 bar calculate molecular mass of the solid substance ?
(A) 58 gm mole–1
(B) 170 gm mole–1
(C) 180 gm mole–1
(D) 135 gm mole
56. Solution of Acetone in ethanol ..........
(A) shows positive deviation from Raoult‘s law
(B) acts as an Ideal solution
(C) Obeys Raoult‘s law
(D) shows negative deviation from Raoult‘s law.
24
57. Which of the following pair will make an ideal solution ?
(A) Chlorobenzene + Chloroethane
(B) Benzene + Toluene
(C) Acetene + Chloroform
(D) water + HCl
58.Calculate molarity of 98%by mass H2SO4 at308K temperature having density1.84
gm/ml?
(A) 18.4 M
(B) 4.18 M
(C) 8.14 M
(D) 1.8 M
59.Calculate mole fraction of amount of solute dissolved in 1.00 molal (m) of Aqueous
solution ?
(A) 0.1770
(B) 0.0177
(C) 0.0344
(D) 1.7700
60.Calculate concentration of nitrate ions in the mixture of solution produced by mixing 2
litre 3M AgNO3 solution with 3 litre 1 M BaCl2 solution ?
(A) 1.2 M
(B) 1.8 M
(C) 0.5 M
(D) None of the above
61.How much water should be added to have 3M molarity of a mixture of solution produced
by mixing250 ml of 6M HCl solution with 650 ml. of 3M HCl solution?
(A) 250 ml
(B) 1150 ml
(C) 500 ml
(D) 575 ml
62.Molal elevation constant of water in 1.2 m glucose solution is 0.52 KKgmol-1. What will be
its value in 0.18 m glucose solution?
(A) 0.52 KKgmol-1
(B) 0.26 KKgmol-1l
(C) 1.04 KKgmol-1
(D) None of the above
63.Calculate formality of solution produced by dissolving 5.85 gm NaCl in water to make 0.5L
solution?
(A) 0.2 M
(B) 0.4 M
(C) 1.0 M
(D) 0.1 M
64.To make a decimolar solution in 100 ml how many grams of a dibasic acid having
molecular mass200 gm/mole should be added?
(A) 20 gm
(B) 1 gm
(C) 2 gm
(D) 10 gm
65. The osmotic pressure is expressed in the units of-
(A) MeV
(B)Calories
(C)atmosphere
(D) cm/sec
25
ANSWER KEY-
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B B A A C A C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B D A C B B C A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A D D C A A D A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B D A C B B D A B A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B C D D B B B A D D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A D C B A B A B D
61 62 63 64 65
A A A C C
26
3. p- BLCOK ELEMENTS
SECTION-A
CASE STUDY BASED-MULTIPLOE CHOICE QUESTIONS (I)

All the elements of Group 15 form hydrides of the type EH3 where E = N, P, As, Sb or Bi. The
hydrides show regular gradation in their properties. The stability of hydrides decreases from NH3
to BiH3 which can be observed from their bond dissociation enthalpy. Due to high
electronegativity and small size of nitrogen, NH3 exhibits hydrogen bonding in solid as well as
liquid state. All these elements form two types of oxides: E2O3 and E2O5. The oxide in the higher
oxidation state of the element is more acidic than that of lower oxidation state.
Answer the following questions
1. The correct increasing order of thermal stability of hydrides of 16th group is
(a) H2O <H2S <H2Se <H2Te <H2Po
(b) H2Po <H2Te <H2Se < H2S <H2O
(c) H2S <H2Se <H2Te <H2Po <H2O
(d) H2S <H2Se <H2O <H2Po <H2Te
2. The correct order of basic strength of hydrides of group 15 elements
(a) BiH3< SbH3< AsH3< PH3< NH3
(b) BiH3> SbH3< AsH3> PH3< NH3
(c) BiH3> SbH3> AsH3> PH3> NH3
(d) BiH3< SbH3> AsH3> PH3< NH3
3. The strongest reducing agent amongst all the Hydrides of Group-15 elements.
(a) NH3 (b)PH3 c) BiH3 (d)AsH3
4. The acidic character of group 15 elements oxides
(a) decreased down the group
(b) increases down the group
(c) first decrease after Arsenic increases
(d) first increases then decreases after Arsenic
5. SO3 is more acidic than SO2, because:
(a) Oxidation state of Sulphur is higher in SO3
(b) SO3 is polar but SO2 is non polar
(c) SO3 is non polar but SO2 is polar
(d) All the S-O bonds in SO3 are non-identical
27
CASE STUDY BASED-MULTIPLOE CHOICE QUESTIONS (II)
All the halogens exhibit –1 oxidation state. However, chlorine, bromine and iodine exhibit + 1, +
3, + 5 and + 7 oxidation states also. The higher oxidation states of chlorine, bromine and iodine
are realized mainly when the halogens are in combination with the small and highly
electronegative fluorine and oxygen atoms e.g., in inter halogens, oxides and Oxo acids. The
fluorine atom has no d orbitals in its valence shell and therefore cannot expand its octet. Being
the most electronegative, it exhibits only – 1 oxidation state.
1. Which of the following element is most reactive?
a) Chlorine b) Fluorine c) Bromine d) Iodine
2. Which of the following halogen is radioactive?
a) Fluorine b) Bromine c) Astatine d) Chlorine
3. What is the correct order of enthalpy of dissociation of halogens?
a) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 b) Cl2> Br2> F2> I2
c) Cl2> F2> Br2> I2 d) F2> Br2> Cl2> I2
4. Which of the following is true about interhalogen compounds?
a) They have unpaired electrons b) They are highly stable
c) They are diamagnetic d) They are paramagnetic
5. Which is the correct statement regarding halogens?
a) They are not all diatomic and form univalent ions
b) They are all diatomic and do not form univalent ions
c) They are all diatomic and form univalent ions
d) They are all diatomic and form bivalent ions
CASE STUDY BASED-MULTIPLOE CHOICE QUESTIONS (III)
Sulphuric acid is a colourless, dense, oily liquid with a specific gravity of 1.84 at 298 K. The acid
freezes at 283 K and boils at 611 K. It dissolves in water with the evolution of a large quantity of
heat. Hence, care must be taken while preparing sulphuric acid solution from concentrated
sulphuric acid. The concentrated acid must be added slowly into water with constant stirring.
The acid forms two series of salts: normal sulphates and acid sulphates. Sulphuric acid, because
of its low volatility can be used to manufacture more volatile acids from their corresponding
salts.
28
1. What is the first step involved in forming sulphuric acid through contact process?
a) Conversion of SO2 to SO3
b) Burning of Sulphur or roasting sulphide ores to generate SO2
c) Absorption of SO3 in sulphuric acid
d) Purifying SO3
2. What is the catalyst used in contact process in the conversion of Sulphur dioxide to Sulphur
trioxide?
a) Finely divided iron b) Molybdenum
c) Vanadium pentoxide d) Platinum
3. Which of the following is not a property of sulphuric acid?
a) It acts as a strong dehydrating agent b) It is a Lewis acid
c) It cannot char carbohydrates d) It is dense and oily
4. Which process is used for large scale manufacturing of sulphuric acid?
a) Haber‘s process b) Ostwald‘s process
c) Smith‘s process d) Contact process
5. Which of the following is true about sulphuric acid?
a) It is a soapy liquid b) It is a monobasic acid
c) It is a dibasic acid d) It is a tribasic acid
SECTION-B
CASE STUDY BASED-ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS (I)
Oxygen and Sulphur are non-metals, selenium and tellurium metalloids, whereas polonium is a
metal. Polonium is radioactive and is short lived (Half-life 13.8 days). All these elements exhibit
allotropy. The melting and boiling points increase with an increase in atomic number down the
group The anomalous behaviour of oxygen, like other members of p-block present in second
period is due to its small size and high electronegativity Elements of Group 16 form a large
number of halides of the type, EX6, EX4 and EX
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.
(e) Both assertion and reason are wrong statements.
29
(1). Assertion: HI cannot be prepared by the reaction of KI with concentrated H2SO4
Reason: HI has lowest H–X bond strength among halogen acids.
(2) Assertion: Both rhombic and monoclinic Sulphur exist as S8 but oxygen exists as O2.
Reason: Oxygen forms pπ – pπ multiple bonds due to small size and small bond length but
pπ – pπ bonding is not possible in Sulphur.
(3) Assertion: SF6 cannot be hydrolyzed but SF4 can be.
Reason: Six F atoms in SF6 prevent the attack of H2O on Sulphur atom of SF6.
(4) Assertion:NaCl reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to give colourless fumes with pungent smell.
But on adding MnO2 the fumes become greenish yellow.
Reason: MnO2 oxidizes HCl to chlorine gas which is greenish yellow
(5). Assertion: Reaction of SO2 and H2S in the presence of Fe2O3 catalyst gives elemental
Sulphur.
Reason: SO2 is a reducing agent.
CASE STUDY BASED-ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS (II)

Group 15 includes nitrogen, phosphorus, arsenic, antimony and bismuth. As we go down the
group, there is a shift from non-metallic to metallic through metalloid character. Nitrogen and
phosphorus are non-metals, arsenic and antimony metalloids and bismuth is a typical metal.
Covalent and ionic (in a particular state) radii increase in size down the group. There is a
considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P. However, from As to Bi only a small
increase in covalent radius is observed. This is due to the presence of completely filled d and/or
f orbitals in heavier members
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
the assertion.
of the assertion.
(1). Assertion: Nitrogen does not form pentahalides
Reason: Nitrogen has no d-orbital.
(2) Assertion: The stability of +5 oxidation state increases due to inert pair effect.
Reason: Due to poor shielding effect of fully filled, d and f-orbitals, the ns2 electrons of the
heavier elements of p-block become passive towards bonding
30
(3) Assertion: Dinitrogen inert at room temperature
Reason: Dinitrogen is in gaseous state
(4). Assertion: pentahalides of Group-15 elements, more covalent than their trihalides
Reason: In +5 oxidation state, elements have more polarizing power than in +3 oxidation
state, so the covalent character of bond is more in pentahalides.
(5). Assertion: Reducing property of hydrides of group -15 elements increases down the group.
Reason: Down the group, the size of element increases and so the length of E----H bond
increases.
SECTION-C
In the following questions 1 TO 10 a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is

given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
the assertion.
of the assertion.
1. Assertion :- H2S is less acidic than H2Te
Reason:- Due to decrease in E---H bond dissociation enthalpy, down the group, acidic
character increases
2. Assertion :- O3 act as a powerful oxidizing agent
Reason:- It decomposes to give O2 and nascent Oxygen.
3. Assertion :- O2 diamagnetic in nature
Reason:- It is because it has 2 unpaired electrons in its anti-bonding molecular orbitals.
4. Assertion :- S2 shows paramagnetic behavior.
Reason:- It is because it has 2 unpaired electrons in its anti-bonding molecular orbital.
5. Assertion :- HF is liquid and HCl is a gas
Reason:- due to the presence of Hydrogen bond in HF.
6. Assertion:- Helium is used in scuba divers apparatus
Reason:-Helium is less soluble in blood/ has very low solubility in blood.
7. Assertion:- PH3 has higher boiling point than NH3
31
Reason:- PH3 cannot form Hydrogen bond.
8. Assertion:- The stability of -3 oxidation state, decreases down the group for group 15.
Reason:- It is due to increase in size and metallic character or decrease in electronegativity
down the group
9. Assertion:- XeF2 has linear geometry
Reason:- The molecule has two lone pair of electron.
10. Assertion:- Noble gases have very low boiling points
Reason:- Noble gases being monoatomic have no interatomic forces except weak dispersion
forces.
SECTION-D
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

1. Which of the following represents the general electronic configuration of an element
belonging to the p-block of the periodic table?
a)(n-2)f0(n-1)d0ns2 np0-6 b) (n-2)f0(n-1)d1 – 10 ns2 np1- 6
c) (n-2)f0(n-1)d0 ns2np1-6 d) (n-2)f1- 14(n-1)d1- 10ns2np1- 6
2. What happens to the size of atoms of elements of p-block as we move from left to right
in the same period?
a)Size increases b) Size decreases
c) Size does not change d) Size increases then decreases
3. What is the maximum covalency of the nitrogen atom?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
4. Why does nitrogen show poor tendency towards catenation?
a) N atom can form multiple pπ – pπ bonds
b) Octet of N2 is complete unlike carbon
c) The N ≡ N is unreactive at room temperature
d) The N – N single bond is weaker and unstable
5. What is the primary product of Haber-Bosch process?
a) Ammonia b) Nitric acid
c) Nitrous acid d) Pyridine
6. Which gas is released when copper chips are subjected to concentrated nitric acid?
a) Nitrogen (I) oxide b) Nitrogen (II) oxide
c) Nitrogen (III) oxide d) Nitrogen (IV) oxide
7. What catalyst is used for oxidation of ammonia to produce nitric acid
a) Palladium hydride b) Sodium amalgam
c) Platinum-Rhodium gauze d) Vanadium (V) oxide
32
8. What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in di-nitrogen trioxide?
a) +1 b) +2 c) +3 d) +4
9. Which of the following elements does not belong to group 16 of the periodic table?
a) Oxygen b) Phosphorus c) Sulphur d) Selenium
10. Which of the following statements regarding group 16 elements is not true?
a) The electronic configuration of Oxygen is [He]2s22p4
b) The electronic configuration of Sulphur is [Ne]3s23p4
c) The atomic radii of the elements of group 16 are larger than those of the corresponding
elements of group 15
d) The electronic configuration of Tellurium is [Kr]4d105s25p
11. Which group 16 element is the most electronegative?
a) Sulphur b) Polonium c) Oxygen d) Selenium
12. Which group 16 element has the highest tendency for catenation?
a) Oxygen b) Sulphur c) Selenium d) Polonium
13. What is the correct order of reactivity of group 16 elements?
a) O > Se > S >Te> Po
b) S > O >Te> Po > Se
c) S > O > Se >Te> Po
d) O > S > Se >Te> Po
14. What is the correct order of enthalpy of dissociation of halogens?
a) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 b) Cl2 >Br2 > F2 > I2
c) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 d) F2 > Br2 > Cl2 > I2
15. Which of the following halogen exists as a solid at room temperature?
a) Chlorine b) Fluorine c) Iodine d) Bromine
16. Which of the following noble gases do not occur in the elemental state in the
atmosphere?
a) Helium b) Neon c) Argon d) Radon
17. Which of the following is the second most abundant noble gas in the atmosphere?
a) Helium b) Argon c) Neon d) Krypton
18. Which of the following noble gases is not obtained via fractional distillation?
a) Krypton b) Argon c) Neon d) Helium
19. Which of the following statements is incorrect about noble gases?
a) They are monoatomic b) They are colourless
c) They are odourless d) They all have an outer electronic configuration of ns2np6
20. What is the electron gain enthalpy for noble gases?
a) > 0 b) < 0 c) = 0 d) It is not defined for noble gases
33
21. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Among halogens, radius ratio between iodine and fluorine is maximum.
(b) Except F – F bond, all halogens have weaker X – X bond than X – X‘ bond in inter-
halogens.
(C) Among inter-halogen compounds maximum number of atoms are present in iodine
fluoride.
(d) Inter-halogen compounds are more reactive than halogen compounds.
22. When XeF6 is partially hydrolysed by one mole of H2O, it yields
(a) XeSO3 (b) XeOF2 (c) XeOF4 (d) XeF2
23. Complete the following reaction: Xe + PtF6
(a) Xe + PtF6 XeF4 + PtF2 (b) Xe + PtF6 XeF6 + Pt
–
(c) Xe + PtF6Xe+[PtF6] (d) Xe + PtF6  XeO2F4 + Pt
24. The shape of XeF4 is
(A) tetrahedral (B) square planar (C) pyramidal (D) linear
25. Which of the following statements are true?
(a) Only types of interactions between particles of noble gases are due to weak
dispersion forces.
(b) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction.
(c) Xenon fluorides are not reactive.
(d) None of the above
26. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) S–S bond is present in H2S2O8.
(b) In per oxo mono sulphuric acid (H2SO5) Sulphur is in +6 oxidation state.
(c) Iron powder along with Al2O3 and K2O is used as a catalyst in the preparation
of NH3 by Haber‘s process.
(d) Change in enthalpy is positive for the preparation of SO3 by catalytic
oxidation of SO2.
27. A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow
gas. When excess of this gas reacts with NH3 an unstable tri-halide is formed. In this
process the oxidation state of nitrogen changes from:
(a) – 3 to +3. (b) – 3 to 0. (C) – 3 to +5. (d) 0 to – 3.
28. Which of the following statements are correct for SO2 gas?
(a) It acts as bleaching agent in moist conditions.
(b) Its molecule has linear geometry.
(C) It can be prepared by the reaction of dilute H2SO4 with metal sulphide.
(d) All of the above
34
29. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Single N–N bond is stronger than the single P–P bond.
(b) PH3 can act as a ligand in the formation of coordination compound with transition
elements.
(C) NO2 is paramagnetic in nature.
(d) Covalency of nitrogen in N2O5 is four.
30. Which of the following are per oxo acids of Sulphur?
(A) H2SO5 and H2S2O8
(B) H2SO5 and H2S2O7
(C) H2S2O7 and H2S2O8
(D)H2S2O6 and H2S2O7
31. In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O2+PtF6– as a base
compound. This is because
(A) both O2 and Xe have same size.
(B) both O2 and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy.
(C) both O2 and Xe have same ionisation enthalpy.
(D) bothXe and O2 are gases.
32. Which one of the following does not exist?
(A) XeOF4 (B) NeF2 (C) XeF2 (D) XeF6
33. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the
halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
(A) H-F (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI
34. Which of the following does not react with oxygen directly?
(A) Zn (B) Ti (C) Pt (D) Fe
35. Which of the compounds will act as strongest reducing agent?
(A) NH3 (B) PH3 (C) AsH3 (D) SbH3
36. Which of the following elements can be involved in p∏–d∏ bonding?
(A) Carbon (B) Nitrogen (C) Phosphorus (D) Boron
37. On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO, white
phosphorus gives a gas. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the gas?
(A) It is highly poisonous and has smell like rotten fish.
(B) It‘s solution in water decomposes in the presence of light.
(C) It is more basic than NH3.
(D) It is less basic than NH3.
38. In the complex ion [AuXe4]2+, Xe acts as:
(A) central atom (B) ligand
(C) chelating agent (D) electrophile
35
39. Compounds of noble gases except _______ are known.
(A) Krypton (B) Radon (C) Helium (D) Xenon
40.Which of the following oxide is more acidic
(A) As2O3 (B) P2O5 (C) N2O5 (D) Sb2O5
41. What is the range of the oxidation states shown by nitrogen in its oxides?
a) +1 to +3 b) +2 to +4 c) +1 to +2 d) +1 to +5
42. Fluorine differs from rest of the halogens in some of its properties. This is due to
(a) its smaller size and high electronegativity.
(b) lack of d-orbitals.
(c) low bond dissociation energy.
(d) All of these.
43. The set with correct order of acidity is
(a) HClO< HClO2< HClO3< HClO4
(b) HClO4< HClO3< HClO2<HClO
(c) HClO< HClO4< HClO3< HClO2
(d) HClO4< HClO2< HClO3<HClO
44. Helium is preferred to be used in air balloons instead of hydrogen because it is
(a) Incombustible (b) lighter than hydrogen
(c) More abundant than hydrogen (d) non polarizable
45. Among the 15th group elements, as we move from nitrogen to bismuth, the Penta
valency becomes less pronounced and tri valency becomes more pronounced due to
(a) Nonmetallic character
(b) Inert pair effect
(c) High electronegativity
(d) Large ionization energy
36
ANSWER KEY
SECTION-A
Case study based question PART-I(MCQ)

(I)- b (ii) a (iii) c (iv) a (v) a
Case study based question PART -II(MCQ)
(I)- b (ii) C (iii) b (iv) c (v) c
Case study based question PART -III(MCQ)
(I)- b (ii) C (iii) c (iv) d (v) c
SECTION-B
Case study based question PART-I (assertion/reasoning)
(1)- b (2) a (3) a (4) a (5) c
Case study based question PART-II (assertion/reasoning)
(1)- a (2) d (3) b (4) a (5) a
SECTION-C
ASSERTION REASONIN TYPE QUESTIONS
1. a 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. a 9. c 10. a
SECTION-D
ANSWER KEY OF QUESTION NO – 1 TO 30
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5a 6. D 7. C
8. C 9. b 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. B 15.b 16. D
17. C 18. D 19. D 20. A 21. D
22. C 23. C 24. B 25. a 26. B 27. A 28 a
29. A 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. A
36. C 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. C 41. D 42. D
43. A 44. B 45. B
**************************************
37
4. HALOALKANESANDHALOARENES
[SECTION- A]
CASEBASEDMCQ - I
Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes. The low reactivity of
haloarenes can be attributed to
(i) Resonance effect
(ii) Sp2hybridisation of C- X bond
(iii) Polarity of C-X bond
(iv) Instability of phenyl cation
(v) repulsion between the electron rich attacking nucleophiles and electron rich arenes.
Reactivity of haloarenes can be increased or decreased by the presence of certain groups
atcertain positions for example, nitro (-NO2) group at ortho or para positions increases
there activity of haloarenes towards nucleophilc substitution reactions.
appropriate answer:
(i) Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction as compared
to alkylhalides due to-
(A) The formation of less stable carbonium ion
(B) Resonance stabilisation
(C) Larger carbon-halogen bond length
(D) Inductive effect.
(ii) Which of the following group at para position increase the reactivity of aryl
halides towards nucleophilic substitution?
(A) -CH3
(B)-OCH3
(C)-NH2
(D)-NO2
(iii) Which one of the following will react fastest with aqueous NaOH?
A) Chlorobenzene
B) BenzylChloride
C) Cyclohexylchloride
D) All three react at equal rate
(iv) The reactivity of the following compounds towards nucleophilic substitution
(i) CH3Br,(ii) CH3I,(iii) CH3Cl,(iv) CH3F decreases as
(A)(i)>(ii)>(iii)>(iv) (B)(iv)>(ii)>(i)>(iii)
(C)(iv)>(iii)>(i)> (ii) (D)(ii)>(i)>(iii)>(iv)
(v) Increasing order of rate of nucleophilic reaction of following compounds is-
(A)(c)<(b)<(a) (B)(b)<(c)<(a)
(C)(a)<(c)<(b) (D)(a) <(b) <(c)
38
CASEBASEDMCQ - II
2. Nucleophilic substitution reactions are of two types; substitution nucleophilic
bimolecular(SN2) and substitution nucleophilic unimolecular (SN1) depending on molecules
taking part indetermining the rate of reaction. Reactivity of alkyl halide towards SN1 and SN2
reactions depends on various factors such as steric hindrance, stability of intermediate or
transition state and polarity of solvent. SN2 reaction mechanism is favoured mostly by
primary alkyl halide or transition state and polarity of solvent, SN2 reaction mechanism is
favoured mostly by primary alkyl halide then secondary and then tertiary. This order is
reversed in case of SN1reactions.
The following questions are multiple choice question. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?
(A) C6H5Cl
(B) CH2=CHCl
(C) ClCH2CH=CH2
(D) CH3CH=CHCl
(ii) Isopropyl chloride undergoes hydrolysis by
(A) SN1 mechanism
(B) SN2 mechanism
(C) SN1 and SN2 mechanism
(D) Neither SN1 nor SN2 mechanism
(iii) The most reactive nucleophile among the following is-
-
(A) CH3O
-
(B) C6H5O
-
(C) (CH3)2CHO
-
(D) (CH3)3CO
(iv) Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by SN2 mechanism because of-
(A) insolubility
(B) instability
(C) inductive effect
(D) steric hindrance
(v) Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing SN2 reactivity?
(A) RCH2X>R2CHX>R3CX
(B) R3CX>R2CHX>RCH2X
(C) R2CHX>R3CX>RCH2X
(D)RCH2X>R3CX>R2CHX
In Haloalkanes C-X bond is polar bond due to–I effect of halogen atoms so
haloalkanes more reactive than corresponding hydrocarbons. When a stronger
nucleophile approaches the positively charged carbon atom of an alkyl halide, the
halogen atom alongwith its bonding electron pair gets displaced and a new bond with
the carbon and the nucleophile is formed.These reactions are called nucleophilic
substitution reactions.
In these reactions the atom or group of atoms which loses its bond from carbon and
takes on an additional pair of electrons is called leaving group.Halide ions are good
leaving groups..
39
i) Which of the following can not act as nucleophile ?
A) CO2
B) CH3NH2
C) NH3
D) H2O
ii) What is the product if KCN act as a nucleophile?
A) Nitriles
B) Alkylisocyanide
C) both
D) none of the above
iii) The nucleophilic substitution of vinylchloride is difficult than ethyl chloride.Because

A) Vinyl group is electron withdrawing group
B) Vinyl group is electron releasing group
C) Vinyl Halide is resonance stabilised
D) Vinyl group does not have nucleophilic centre.
iv) Which of the following is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution

A) CH3CH2Cl
B) CH3CH2Br
C) CH3CH2I
D) CH3CH2F
v) Aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halides towards nucleophilic substitution.
Which one of the following is not a correct reason?
(A) Resonance effect
(B) sp2 hybridisation of C- Xbond
(C) less polar of C- X bond
(D) Stability of phenyl cation
[SECTION -B] :CASE BASED A/R QUESTIONS-I

The order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction depends upon the stability of carbocation in
the first step.Greater the stability of the carbocation,greater will be its ease of formation
from alkyl halide and hence faster will be the rate of the reaction. As we know, 3°
carbocation is most stable, therefore, the tert-alkyl that halides will undergo SN1 reaction
very fast. For example, it has been observed that the reaction (CH3)3CBr with OH- ion to
give 2-methyl-2-propanol is about 1 million times as fast as the corresponding reaction of
the methyl bromide to give methanol.
The primary alkyl halides always react predominantly by SN2 mechanism. On the other
hand,the tertiary alkyl halides react predominantly by SN1 mechanism. Secondary alkyl
halides may react by either mechanism or by both the mechanisms without much preference
depending up on the nature of the nucleophile and solvent.
In these questions( i-v),a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.

(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
40
(i) Assertion: Low concentration of nucleophile favoursSN1mechanism.
Reason:2°alkylhalides are less reactive than 1° towards SN1 reactions.
(ii) Assertion: Polar solvent slowsdown SN2 reactions.
Reason: CH3-Br is less reactive than CH3Cl
(iii) Assertion: Benzyl bromide when kept in acetone-water it produces benzyl alcohol.
Reason: Benzyl bromide undergoes nucleophilicsubstitution reaction by SN2 mechanism.
(iv) Assertion: Rate of hydrolysis of methyl chloride to methanol is higher in DMF than
inwater.
Reason: Hydrolysis of methyl chloride follows second order kinetics.
(v) Assertion: SN2 reaction of an optically active alkyl halide with an aqueous solution of
KOH always gives an alcohol with opposite sign of rotation.
Reason:SN2 reactions always proceed with inversion of configuration.
CASEBASEDA/RQUESTIONS-II
The aryl halides are relatively less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution
reactions as compared to alkylhalides.This low reactivity can be attributed to
the following factors:
1. The C - X bond in halobenzene has a partial double bond character due to involvement
of halogen electrons in resonance with benzene ring.
2. The C - X bond in aryl halides is less polar as compared to that in alkyl halides
as sp2 hyridised carbon is more electronegative than sp3 hybridised carbon.
In these questions( i-v),a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is
given.

(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
(i) Assertion: Primary benzylic halides are more reactive than primary alkyl halides
Towards SN1 reactions.
Reason: Reactivity depends upon the nature of the nucleophile and the solvent.
(ii) Assertion : is less reactive than towards nucleophilic substitution

reactions by SN1mechanism.
Reason:Tertiary alkyl halides react predominantly by SN1 mechanism.
(iii) Assertion: Chlorobenzene is more reactive than p-chloroanisole to nucleophilic

substitution reactions.
Reason: Greater the stability of carbanion, greater is its ease of formation and
hence, more reactive is the aryl halide.
(iv) Assertion: Chlorobenzene is less reactive than benzene towards the electrophilic
substitution reaction.
Reason: Resonance Effect of ‗Cl‘ activates benzene ring towards electrophilic
substitution.
41
(v) Assertion:The C–Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is shorter than that in CH3–Cl.
Reason: In haloarenes Cl is attached to sp2 hyridised carbon which is more
electronegative than sp3 hybridisedcarbon.
[SECTION – C] :ASSERTION–REASONING QUESTIONS
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement

of reason is given.Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
explanation of assertion
(C) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.
(E) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
1.Assertion : Phosphorus chlorides (tri and penta) are preferred over thionyl chloride for
the preparation of alkyl chlorides from alcohols.
Reason: Phosphoruschlorides give pure alkyl halides.
2.Assertion : The boiling points of alkyl halides decrease in the order :RI >RBr>RCl>RF
Reason : The boiling points of alkyl chlorides, bromides and iodides are
considerably higher than that of the hydrocarbon of comparable
molecular mass.
3.Assertion : KCN reacts with methyl chloride to give methyl isocyanide
Reason: CN– is an ambident nucleophile.

4. Assertion : tert-Butyl bromide undergoes Wurtz reaction to give 2, 2, 3, 3-
tetramethylbutane.
Reason : In Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides react with sodium in dry ether to give
Hydrocarbon containing double the number of carbon atoms present
in the halide.
5. Assertion : Presence of a nitro group at ortho or para position increases the
reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution.
Reason : Nitro group, being an electron withdrawing group decreases the electron
density over the benzenering.
6. Assertion : In mono haloarenes, further electrophilic substitution occurs at ortho and
para positions.
Reason: Halogen atom is a ring deactivator.
42
7. Assertion : Aryl iodides can be prepared by reaction of arenes with iodine in the
presence of an oxidising agent.
Reason: Oxidising agent oxidises I2 into HI.
8. Assertion : It is difficult to replace chlorine by –OH in chlorobenzene in comparison to
that in chloroethane.
Reason : Chlorine-carbon (C—Cl) bond in chlorobenzene has a partial double bond
character due to resonance.
9. Assertion : Hydrolysis of (–)-2-bromooctane proceeds with inversion of configuration.
Reason:This reaction proceeds through the formation of a carbocation.
10. Assertion: Nitration of chlorobenzene leads to the formation of m-nitrochlorobenzene
Reason:—NO2 group is a m-directing group.
[SECTION –D]MCQ:Choosethemostappropriateanswer
1. AmongthefollowingcompoundswhichoneundergoesSN1substitutionreactionfaster?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. The order of reactivity of following alcohols with halogen acids is .
A) A>B>C
B) A<B<C
C) A>C>B
D) B>A>C
3. Which of the following alcohols will yield the corresponding alkyl chloride on reaction
with concentrated HCl at room temperature?
A) Pentan-1-ol
43
B) Pentan-2-ol
C) 2-Methylbutan-1-ol
D)2-Methylbutan-2-ol
4. Identify the compound Y in the following reaction.
A) (i)
B) (ii)
C) (iii)
D) (iv)
5. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride giving ortho and
para halocompounds.The reaction is
(A) Electrophiliceliminationreaction
(B) Electrophilicsubstitutionreaction
(C) Freeradicaladditionreaction
(D) Nucleophilicsubstitutionreaction
6. Which of the following is halogen exchange reaction?
A) i, ii and iii
B)ii,iii and iv
C) only i
D) only iv
44
7. Which reagent will you use for the following reaction?
(A) Cl2/UVlight
(B) NaCl+H2SO4
(C) Cl2 gas in dark
(D) Cl2gas in the presence of iron in dark
8.Which of the following compounds will form when Bromo ethane reacts with Mg in
presence of dry ether
A) CH3-CH3
B) CH3-CH2MgBr
C) CH3MgBr
D)(CH3)2MgBr
9. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points
(A) c<a<b
(B) b>a>c
(C) a>b>c
(D) c<b<a
10.In which of the following molecules carbon atom marked with as(*)is asymmetric?
(A)(a),(b),(c),(d)
(B)(a),(b),(c)
(C)(b),(c),(d)
(D)(a),(c),(d)
11.Which of the following is an example of vic-dihalide?
(A) Dichloromethane
(B) 1,2-dichloroethane
(C) Ethylidenechloride
(D) Allylchloride
12.The position of–Br in the compound in CH3CH=CHC(Br)(CH3)2can be classified as

(A) Allyl
(B) Aryl
(C) Vinyl
(D) Secondary
45
13.Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of
AlCl3.Which of the following species attacks the benzene ring in this reaction?
(A) Cl–
(B) Cl+
(C) AlCl3
(D) [AlCl4]–
14.Ethylidenechloride is a/an .
(A) vic-dihalide
(B) gem-dihalide
(C) allylichalide
(D) vinylichalide
15.What is ‗A‘ in the following reaction?
A) iii and iv
B) ii, iii and iv
C) only i
D) only iii
16.A primary alkylhalide would prefer to undergo .

(A) SN1 reaction
(B) SN2 reaction
(C) α–Elimination
(D) Racemisation
17. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?
(A) (CH3)3C—F
(B) (CH3)3C—Cl
(C) (CH3)3C—Br
(D) (CH3)3C—I
46
18. What is the correct IUPAC name of CH3-CH(C2H5)CH2-Br
(A) 1-Bromo-2-ethylpropane
(B) 1-Bromo-2-ethyl-2-methylethane
(C) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane
(D) 2-Methyl-1-bromobutane
19. What should be the correct IUPAC name for diethylbromomethane?
(A) 1-Bromo-1,1-diethoxyethane
(B) 3-Bromopentane
(C) 1-Bromo-1-ethylpropane
(D) 1-Bromopentane
20. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the presence of iron and in the absence of
light yields .
A) Benzylchloride
B) o-Chlorobenzene
C) p-Cholorobenzene
D) MixtureofBand C
21. Chloromethane on treatment with excess of ammonia yields mainly
A) N,N-Dimethylmethanamine
B) N-Methylmethanamine
C) Methanamine
D) Mixtureofalltheabovecompounds
22. Molecules whose mirror image is non superimposable over them are known as
chiral. Which of the following molecules is chiral in nature?
(A) 2-Bromobutane
(B) 1-Bromobutane
(C) 2-Bromopropane
(D) 2-Bromopropan-2-ol
23. Reaction of C6H5CH2Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows .
(A) SN1mechanism
(B) SN2mechanism
(C) Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction
(D) Saytzeffrule
24. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following
compounds?1-Iodobutane,1-Bromobutane,1-Chlorobutane,Butane
(A) Butane<1-Chlorobutane<1-Bromobutane<1-Iodobutane
(B) 1-Iodobutane<1-Bromobutane<1-Chlorobutane<Butane
(C) Butane<1-Iodobutane<1-Bromobutane<1-Chlorobutane
(D) Butane<1-Chlorobutane<1-Iodobutane<1-Bromobutane
47
3
25. Haloalkanes contain halogen atom (s) attached to the sp hybridised carbon atom of
an alkyl group. Identify haloalkanes from the following compounds.
(A) 2-Bromopentane
(B) Vinylchloride(chloroethene)
(C) 2-chloroacetophenone
(D) chlorobenzene
26. Which of the following compounds is unsaturated?
(A) Ethylidenechloride
(B) ChloroEthylene
(C) Methylchloride
(D) Benzylchloride
27. Alkylhalides are prepared from alcohols by treating with
(A) HCl+ZnCl2
(B) RedP+Br2
(C) PCl5
(D) Alltheabove
28. Alkylfluorides are synthesized by heating an alkylchloride/bromide in presence of
(A) CaF2
(B) PF3
(C) Hg2F2
(D) NaF
48
29. Match the structures given in Column I with the names in Column II.
A) i-a,ii-b,iii-c,iv-d
B) i-b,ii-a,iii-d,iv-c
C) ) i-d,ii-b,iii-c,iv-a
D) i-a,ii-d,iii-c,iv-b
30. Match the reactions given in Column I with the names given in ColumnII.
A) i-a,ii-b,iii-c,iv-d
B) i-b,ii-a,iii-d,iv-c
C) ) i-d, ii-b,iii-c,iv-a
D) i-c,ii-a,iii-b,iv-d
49
ANSWERS:
SECTIONACASEBASEDMCQ:
Q.NO1 i)B ii)D iii)B iv)D v)D
Q.NO2 i)C ii)C iii)Aiii) iv)Div)C v)A
Q.NO3 i)A ii)A C v)D
SECTIONBCASEBASEDA/R
Q.NO1i)C ii)C iii)A iv)D v)A
Q.NO2i)A ii)D iii)A iv)C v)B
SECTION C A/R
1E 2B 3D 4A 5A 6B 7C 8A 9C 10D
SECTION DMCQ
1C 2B 3D 4A 5B 6C 7A 8B 9A 10B
11B 12D 13B 14B 15D 16B 17D 18C 19B 20D
21C 22A 23A 24A 25A 26B 27D 28C 29A 30B
50
5. ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS
SECTION – A
CASE BASED MCQ – 1

In alcohols, the oxygen of the –OH group is attached to carbon by a sigma (s ) bond
formed by the overlap of a sp3hybridised orbital of carbon with a sp3hybridised orbital
of oxygen. Figure given below depicts structural aspects of methanol, phenol and
methoxymethane.
1. The bond angle C-O-H in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle
(109°28‘). It is due to –
(A) The attraction between C-O and O-H bond pairs.
(B) The repulsion between the unshared electron pairs of oxygen.
(C) The repulsion between neighbouring C-H bonds.
(D) The high electronegativity of oxygen.
2. In phenols, the –OH group is attached to ____ hybridised carbon of an aromatic
ring.
(A) sp3
(B) sp
(C) dsp2
(D) sp2
3. The C – O bond length in phenol is slightly less than that in methanol. This is
due to –
(A) Partial double bond character on account of the conjugation of unshared
electron pair of oxygen with the aromatic ring.
(B) Presence of heavier group – phenol.
(C) Positioning of lone pair over oxygen in 3 – D space.
(D) sp3hybridised state of carbon to which oxygen is attached.
4. The bond angle in ethers is slightly greater than the tetrahedral angle due to –
(A) Presence of four electron pair around the oxygen.
(B) The repulsive interaction between the two bulky (–R) groups.
(C) Absence of O – H bond.
(D) The attractive interaction between the two bulky (–R) groups.
5. In methoxymethane, the oxygen atom is ____ hybridised.
(A) sp3
(B) sp
(C) dsp2
(D) sp2
51
The boiling points of alcohols and phenols increase with increase in the number of
carbon atoms (increase in van der Waals forces). In alcohols, the boiling points
decrease with increase of branching in carbon chain (because of decrease in van der
Waals forces with decrease in surfacearea). The –OH group in alcohols and phenols is
involved in intermolecular hydrogen bonding as shown below:
It is interesting to note that boiling points of alcohols and phenols are higher in
comparison to other classes of compounds,
1. The high boiling points of alcohols as compared to hydrocarbons and ethers are
mainly due to the –
(A) Presence of intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
(B) High molecular mass.
(C)High volatile nature.
(D) Presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
2. On comparing the boiling points of ethanol, propane and methoxymethane –
(A) Ethanol has intermediate boiling point.
(B) Propane has intermediate boiling point.
(C)Methoxymethane has intermediate boiling point.
(D) Methoxymethane and propane have same boiling points.
3. Why does tertiary butyl alcohol has lower boiling point than n-butyl alcohol?
(A) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding in tertiary butyl alcohol.
(B) Smaller surface area and lesser van der Waal forces in tertiary butyl
alcohol.
(C)Intramolecular hydrogen bonding in n-butyl alcohol.
(D) Smaller surface area and lesser van der Waal forces in n-butyl alcohol.
4. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling point.
Propan-1-ol, Butan-1-ol, Butan-2-ol and Pentan-1-ol.
(A) Propan-1-ol, Butan-2-ol, Butan-1-ol and Pentan-1-ol.
(B) Propan-1-ol, Butan-1-ol, Butan-2-ol and Pentan-1-ol.
(C)Pentan-1-ol, Butan-2-ol, Butan-1-ol and Propan-1-ol.
(D) Pentan-1-ol, Butan-1-ol, Butan-2-ol and Propan-1-ol.
5. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling point.

Pentanal, n-Butane, Ethoxyethane and Pentan-1-ol.
(A) Pentanal, n-Butane, Ethoxyethane, Pentan-1-ol.
(B) Pentanal, Ethoxyethane, n-Butane, Pentan-1-ol.
(C)n-Butane, Pentanal, Ethoxyethane, Pentan-1-ol.
(D) n-Butane, Ethoxyethane, Pentanal, Pentan-1-ol.
52
By a proper choice of reagents, both symmetrical and unsymmetrical ethers can be
prepared by Williamson synthesis which involves the reaction between an alkyl halide
and and an alkoxide ion. The reverse process involves the cleavage of ethers to give
back the original alkyl halide and the alcohol can be carried out by heating the ether
with HI at 373 K.
1. The mechanism of Williamson synthesis involves –
(A) Nucleophilic substitution bimolecular
(B) Nucleophilic substitution unimolecular
(C)Electrophilic substitution bimolecular
(D) Electrophilic substitution bimolecular
2. Benzyl ethyl ether reacts with HI to form –
(A) p-iodotoluene and ethyl alcohol.
(B) Benzyl alcohol and ethyl iodide.
(C)Benzyl iodide and ethyl alcohol.
(D) Iodobenzene and ethyl alcohol.
3. Allyl phenyl ether can be prepared by heating –
(A) C6H5Br + CH2=CH-CH2ONa
(B) CH2=CHCH2Br + C6H5ONa
(C)C6H5CH=CHBr + CH3ONa
(D) CH2=CHBr + C6H5CH2ONa
4. Better results are obtained if the alkyl halide is primary. In caseof secondary
and tertiary alkyl halides –
(A) Steric hinderance is more.
(B) Elimination competes over substitution.
(C)C-X bond is stronger.
(D) Generation of electrophile is difficult.
5. Which of the following ethers are not cleaved by HI?
(A) Dicyclohexyl ether
(B) Ethyl phenyl ether
(C) Di – tert – butyl ether
(D) Diphenyl ether
SECTION – B
CASE BASED A-R TYPE MCQ - 1

Instructions –
In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Alcohols and phenols are acidic in nature. In fact, alcohols and phenols are Brönsted
acids i.e., they can donate a proton to a stronger base (B:).The acidic character of
alcohols and phenols is due to the polar nature of O–H bond. Alcohols are, however,
weaker acids than water. The reaction of phenol with aqueous sodium hydroxide
indicates that phenols are stronger acids than alcohols and water. In substituted
53
phenols, the presence of electron withdrawing groups such as nitro group, enhances
the acidic strength. On the other hand, electron releasing groups result in decrease in
acid strength. This effect is more pronounced when such a group is present at ortho
and para positions.
1. Assertion – p- Nitrophenol is a stronger acid than o-Nitrophenol.
Reason – Intramolecular hydrogen bonding makes o-isomer weaker than p-
isomer.
2. Assertion – p-Florophenol is less acidic than p-chlorophenol.
Reason – F exerts better +mesomeric effect than Cl.
3. Assertion – m-Methoxyphenol is a stronger acid than p-Methoxyphenol.
Reason – Methoxy group exerts +R effect at both ortho and para positions.
4. Assertion – Ethanol is a weaker acid than phenol.
Reason – Sodium ethoxide may be prepared by the reaction of ethanol with
aqueous NaOH.
5. Assertion – Water is weaker acid than alcohols.
Reason - Alkoxide ion is a better proton acceptor than hydroxide ion.

Instructions –
In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
assertion.
Alcohols undergo dehydration to form alkenes on treating with a protic acid e.g.
concentrated H2SO4, or catalysts such as anhydrous zincchloride or alumina. Ethanol
undergoes dehydration by heating it with concentratedH2SO4 at 443 K. Secondary and
tertiary alcohols are dehydrated under milder conditions. The mechanism of
dehydration of ethanol involves the following steps:
54
1. Assertion – The ease of dehydration of alcohols follow the order - 1°>2°>3°.
Reason – Dehydration process proceeds through the formation of carbocation.
2. Assertion– 2-Butanol on heating with conc. H2SO4 gives 1-Butene and 2-
Butene.
Reason – In dehydration of 2-Butanol the preferred product is that alkene
which has the greater number of alkyl groups attached to the doubly
bonded carbon atoms.
3. Assertion – tert-Butyl alcohol undergoes acid catalysed dehydration readily
than propanol.
Reason – Tertiary alcohols have greater steric hindrance.
4. Assertion – Methanol does not give a stable compound on dehydration.
Reason – Carbene is highly unstable.
5. Assertion – Dehydration of alcohols form alkanes.
Reason – Dehydration of alcohols involve elimination reaction.
SECTION – C
A-R TYPE MCQ
Instructions –
In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason
is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
assertion.
1. Assertion – In case of phenol, bromination takes place even in absence of

Lewis acid whereas bromination of benzene takes place in presence of Lewis
acid like FeBr3.
Reason – OH group attached to benzene ring is highly deactivating.
2. Assertion – Ethers behave as bases in the presence of mineral acids.
Reason –Oxygen has two lone pairs of electrons.
3. Assertion – With HI, anisole gives iodobenzene and methyl alcohol.
Reason – Iodide ion combines with smaller group to avoid steric hindrance.
4. Assertion – Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic
substitution reaction.
Reason – In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation is more
resonance stabilized.
5. Assertion – Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with CCl4 in NaOH at 340 K
gives salicyclic acid as the major product.
Reason – The reaction occurs through intermediate formation of
dichlorocarbene.
6. Assertion – Phenols give o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol on nitration with
conc. HNO3 and H2SO4 mixture.
Reason – OH group in phenol is o, p – directing.
7. Assertion – 2-pentanol and 3-pentanol cannot be distinguished by iodoform
test.
Reason – 2-pentanol and 3-pentanol both are secondary alcohols.
8. Assertion – Benzene diazonium chloride on boiling with water gives phenol.
Reason – C-N bond is polar.
55
9. Assertion – Reaction of alcohols with SOCl2 is catalysed by the presence of
tertiary amine.
Reason – Tertiary amine promotes the reaction by reacting with the by
product HCl
10.Assertion – Solubility of alcohols decreases with increase in the size of
alkyl/aryl groups.
Reason – Alcohols form hydrogen bonding with water to show soluble nature.
SECTION – D
MCQ
1. Among the following compounds, strongest acid is –

(A) H-C = C-H
(B) C6H6
(C) C2H6
(D) CH3OH
2. In the following compounds:
The order of acidity is

(A) c > d > a > b
(B) a > d > c > b
(C) b > a > c > d
(D) d > c > a > b
3. Which of the following is most acidic?
(A) Phenol
(B) Benzyl alcohol
(C) m-chlorophenol
(D) Cyclohexanol
4. In the reaction of phenol with CHCl3 and aqueous NaOH at 343 K, the
electrophile attacking the ring is –
(A) CHCl3
(B) CHCl2
(C) CCl2
(D) COCl2
5. The ether
when treated with HI produces

(A) Benzyl iodide
(B) Benzyl alcohol
(C)Iodobenzene
(D) Phenol
56
6. 1-Propanol and 2-propanol can be best distinguished by –
(A) Oxidation with KMnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution.
(B) Oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling
solution.
(C) Oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling
solution.
(D) Oxidation with cone. H2SO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution.
7. Phenol reacts with Br2 in CS2 at low temperature to give –
(A) o-Bromophenol
(B) o-and p-Bromophenols
(C) p-Bromophenol
(D) 2, 4, 6 -Tribromophenol
8. The compound which gives the most stable carbonium ion on dehydration is –
(A) (CH3)2CHCH2OH
(B) (CH3)3COH
(C) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(D) CH3CH OH CH2 CH3
9. In the following reaction
→
(A) Ethane
(B) Ethylene
(C) Butane
(D) Propane
10.Which of the following cannot be made by using Williamson Synthesis –
(A) Methoxybenzene
(B) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether
(C)tert. butyl methyl ether
(D) Ditert. butyl ether
11.Among the following, the one which reacts most readily with ethanol is –
(A) p-Nitrobenzyl bromide
(B) p-Chlorobenzyl bromide
(C)p-Methoxybenzyl bromide
(D) p-Methyl benzyl bromide
12. Cyclohexene is best prepared from cyclohexanol by which of the following –
(A) Conc. H3PO4
(B) Conc. HCl/ZnCl2
(C) Conc. HCl
(D) Conc. HBr
13.Acetone reacts with Grignard reagent to form –
(A) 3° alcohol
(B) 2° alcohol
(C) Ether
(D) No reaction
14.Phenol on reduction with H2 in the presence of Ni catalyst gives –
(A) Benzene
(B) Toluene
(C) Cyclohexane
(D) Cyclohexanol
57
15.The alcohol which does not react with Lucas reagent is –
(A) isobutyl alcohol
(B) n-butanol
(C)tert-butyl alcohol
(D) sec-butyl alcohol
16.During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with cone. H2SO4 the
initial step is –
(A) Formation of an ester
(B) Protonation of alcohol molecule
(C) Formation of carbocation
(D) Elimination of water
17.The product of acid catalysed hydration of 2-phenylpropene is –
(A) 3-Phenyl-2-propanol
(B) 1-Phenyl-2-propanol
(C) 2-phenyl-2-propanol
(D) 2-phenyl-1-propanol
18.Oxygen containing organic compounds upon oxidation forms a carboxylic acid
as the only organic product with its molecular mass higher by 14 units. What is
the organic compound?
(A) A primary alcohol
(B) A ketone
(C)An aldehyde
(D) A secondary alcohol
19.An organic compound with a pleasant odour and 78 degrees boiling point is
boiled with concentrated H2SO4. It gives a colourless gas which decolorizes
bromine water and alkaline potassium permanganate. What is this organic
compound?
(A) C2H5COOCH3
(B) C2H5OH
(C)C2H5Cl
(D) C2H6
20.Which of the following is true?
(A) Lower alcohols are liquid at room temperature and the higher ones are
solid
(B) Lower alcohols and higher alcohols, both are liquid at room temperature
(C)Higher alcohols are liquid at room temperature and the lower ones are
solid
(D) Both lower and higher alcohols are solid at room temperature
21.How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral in nature?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C)3
(D) 4
22.IUPAC name of m-cresol is –

(A) 3-methylphenol
(B) 3-chlorophenol
(C)3-methoxyphenol
(D) Benzene-1,3-diol
58
23.Which of the following compounds is aromatic alcohol?
(A) a, b, c, d
(B) a, d
(C) b, c
(D) a
24.Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in
water?
(A) C6H5OH
(B) C6H5CH2OH
(C)(CH3)3COH
(D) C2H5OH
25.Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH
yields –
(A) o-Cresol
(B) m-Cresol
(C)2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene
(D) Benzyl alcohol
26.Mark the correct increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds with
HBr/HCl.
(A) a < b < c

(B) b < a < c
(C)b < c < a
(D) c < b < a
27.How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary alcohol?

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C)5
(D) 2
28.Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by –

(A) Wurtz reaction
(B) Fittig reaction
(C)Kolbe‘s reaction
(D) Cannizaro reaction
59
29.In the following sequence of reactions, The compound D is–
→ → → →
(A) Butanal
(B) n-Butyl alcohol
(C)n-Propyl alcohol
(D) Propanal
30.In CH3CH2OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytical change most readily is –
(A) C-C
(B) C-O
(C) C-H
(D) O-H
ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 4. (B)
2. (D) 5. (A)
3. (A)
1. (D) 4. (A)
2. (C) 5. (D)
3. (B)
1. (A)
2. (C)
3. (B), C6H5OCH2CH=CH2is allyl phenyl ether.
4. (B)
5. (D), In diphenyl ether, oxygen atom is bonded to phenyl ring and both bonds
are strong. They cannot be cleaved by HI.

1. (A)
2. (A)
3. (B)
4. (C), Ethanol does not react with dilute sodium hydroxide because ethoxide ion
is a stronger base than hydroxide ion..
5. (D), Water is stronger acid than alcohols.
CASE BASED A-R TYPE MCQ – 2

1. (D) 4. (A)
2. (A) 5. (D), Dehydration
3. (B)
6. of alcohols form alkenes.
A – R TYPE MCQ
1. (C), OH group in phenol is activating.
2. (A)
3. (D),With HI, anisole gives phenol and methyliodide
60
4. (A)
5. (C), The reaction occurs through intermediate formation of dichlorocarbene by
chloroform
6. (D), Phenols give o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol on nitration with conc. HNO3
only.
7. (D), 2-pentanol and 3-pentanol can be distinguished by iodoform test.2-
pentanolgives + iodoform test.
8. (B)
9. (A)
10.(B)
MCQ
1. (D) 11.(C) 21.(A)
2. (D) 12.(A) 22.(A)
3. (C) 13.(A) 23.(B)
4. (C) 14.(D) 24.(A)
5. (A) 15.(B) 25.(D)
6. (C) 16.(B) 26.(C)
7. (B) 17.(C) 27.(A)
8. (B) 18.(A) 28.(D)
9. (A) 19.(B) 29.(C)
10.(D) 20.(A) 30.(D)
61
6. Biomolecules
[SECTION- A]
CASE STUDY BASED MCQ-I

I. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:(1×4 = 4)
The basic chemical formula of DNA is now well established. It consists of a very long
chain, the backbone of which is made up of alternate sugar and phosphate groups,
joined together in regular 3‘ 5‘ phosphodiester linkages. To each sugar is attached a
nitrogenous base, only four different kinds of which are commonly found in DNA. Two
of these---adenine and guanine--- are purines, and the other two thymine and
cytosine-are pyrimidines. A fifth base, 5-methyl cytosine, occurs in smaller amounts in
certain organisms, and a sixth, 5-hydroxy-methyl-cytosine, is found instead of
cytosine in the T even phages. It should be noted that the chain is unbranched, a
consequence of the regular internucleotide linkage. On the other hand the sequence of
the different nucleotides is, as far as can be ascertained, completely irregular. Thus,
DNA has some features which are regular, and some which are irregular. A similar
conception of the DNA molecule as a long thin fiber is obtained from physicochemical
analysis involving sedimentation, diffusion, light scattering, and viscosity
measurements. These techniques indicate that DNA is a very asymmetrical structure
approximately 20 A wide and many thousands of angstroms long. Estimates of its
molecular weight currently center between 5 X106 and X107 (approximately 3 X104
nucleotides). Surprisingly each of these measurements tend to suggest that the DNA
is relatively rigid, a puzzling finding in view of the large number of single bonds (5 per
nucleotide) in the phosphate-sugar back bone. Recently these indirect inferences have
been confirmed by electron microscopy.
Q. 1. Purines present in DNA are:
(A) adenine and thymine
(B) guanine and thymine
(C) cytosine and thymine
(D) adenine and guanine
Q. 2. DNA molecule has ___________ inter nucleotide linkage and __________
sequence of the different nucleotides .
(A) regular, regular (B) regular, irregular
(C) irregular, regular (D) irregular, irregular
Q. 3. DNA has a ___________ backbone
(A) phosphate-purine (B) pyrimidines-sugar
(C) phosphate-sugar (D) purine-pyrimidine
Q. 4. Out of the four different kinds of nitrogenous bases which are commonly found
in DNA, ___________ has been replaced in some organisms.
(A) adenine (B) guanine (C) cytosine (D) thymine
CASE STUDY BASED MCQ-II
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:(1×4= 4)
The two monosaccharides are joined together by an oxide linkage formed by the loss
of a water molecule. Such a linkage between two monosaccharide units through
oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage. In disaccharides, if the reducing groups of
monosaccharides i.e., aldehydic or ketonic groups are bonded, these are non-reducing
62
sugars, e.g., sucrose. On the other hand, sugars in which these functional groups are
free, are called reducing sugars, for example, maltose and lactose. A non reducing
disaccharide ‗A‘ on hydrolysis with dilute acid gives an equimolar mixture of D–(+)–
glucose and D-(-)-Fructose.
Q. 1. In the above reaction, reactant ‗A‘ is:
(A) Glucose (B) Sucrose (C) Maltose (D) Fructose
Q. 2. What is the mixture of D-(+) glucose and D-(-) fructose known as ?
(A) Anomers (B) Racemic mixture
(C) Invert sugar (D) Optical mixture
Q. 3. Name the linkage that holds the two units in the disaccharide ?
(A) Nucleoside linkage (B) Glycosidic linkage
(C) Peptide linkage (D) None of the above
Q. 4. Glucose on reaction with acetic acid gives glucose pentaacetate. What does it
suggest about the structure of glucose ?
(A) C-1 is anomeric carbon (B) C-5 is anomeric carbon
(C) 3‘-OH groups are present (D) 5‘-OH groups are present
OR
Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary structures, viz. a-helix
and b-pleated sheet structure. a-helix structure of protein is stabilised by
(A) Peptide bonds (B) van der Waals forces
(C) Hydrogen bonds (D) Dipole-dipole interactions
CASE STUDY BASED MCQ-III
The sequence of bases in m-RNA are read in a serial order in groups of three at a
time. Each triplet of nucleotides (having a specific sequence of bases) is known as
codon. Each codon specifies one amino acid. Many amino acids have more than one
codons. The amino acids are brought to the mRNA by another type of RNA and called
t-RNA. Each amino acid has atleast one corresponding t-RNA. At one end of the t-RNA
molecule is a trinucleotide base sequence that is complementary to some trinucleotide
base sequence on m-RNA.
Q. 1. Which of the following nitrogen bases is not present in RNA?
(A) Thymine (B) Adenine (C) Guanine (D) Cytosine
Q. 2. Each triplet of nucleotides is called:
(A) Anticodon (B) Codon (C) m-RNA (D) t-RNA
Q. 3. Each codon specifies:
(A) 1 amino acid (B) 2 amino acids (C) 3 amino acids (D) None of these
Q. 4. In mRNA, the complementary bases of AAT is:
(A) CCG (B) UUA (C) AUU (D) UUU
OR
The amino acids are brought to the mRNA by:
(A) r-RNA (B) DNA (C) t-RNA (D) None of these.
[SECTION – B]
CASE STUDY BASED (A-R)

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason
is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is correct
63
(B)Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
(C)Assertion is correct statements but reason is wrong statement.
(D)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct.
CASE STUDY BASED (A-R)-I

Complete hydrolysis of DNA (or RNA) yields a pentose sugar, phosphoric acid and
nitrogen containing heterocyclic compounds (called bases). In DNA molecules, the
sugar moiety is β-D-2-deoxyribose whereas in RNA molecule, it is β-D-ribose.DNA
contains four bases viz. adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C) and thymine (T). RNA
also contains four bases, the first three bases are same as in DNA but the fourth one
is uracil (U).
A unit formed by the attachment of a base to 1′ position of sugar is known as
nucleoside. In nucleosides, the sugar carbons are numbered as 1′, 2′, 3′, etc. in order
to distinguish these from the bases. When nucleoside is linked to phosphoric acid at
5′-position of sugar moiety, we get a nucleotide. Nucleotides are joined together by
phosphodiester linkage between 5′ and 3′ carbon atoms of the pentose sugar.
Information regarding the sequence of nucleotides in the chain of a nucleic acid is
called its primary structure. Nucleic acids have a secondary structure also. James
Watson and Francis Crick gave a double strand helix structure for DNA. Two nucleic
acid chains are wound about each other and held together by hydrogen bonds
between pairs of bases. The two strands are complementary to each other because
the hydrogen bonds are formed between specific pairs of bases. Adenine forms
hydrogen bonds with thymine whereas cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine.
In secondary structure of RNA single stranded helices is present which sometimes
folds back on itself. RNA molecules are of three types and they perform different
functions. They are named as messenger RNA (m-RNA), ribosomal RNA (r-RNA) and
transfer RNA (t-RNA)
Q. 1. Assertion: On hydrolysis of DNA, the quantity of adenine produced is equal to
that of thymine and similarly, the quantity of cytosine is equal to that of guanine.
Reason: A DNA molecule is double-stranded in which the pairing of bases occurs.
Adenine always pairs with thymine, while cytosine always pairs with guanine.
Q. 2. Assertion: When a nucleotide from the DNA containing thymine is hydrolyzed,
thymine β-D- 2-deoxyribose and phosphoric acid are obtained as products.
Reason: When a nucleotide from the DNA containing thymine is hydrolyzed, β-D- 2-
ribose and phosphoric acid are obtained as products.
Q. 3. Assertion: When RNA is hydrolysed, there is no relationship among the
quantities of different bases obtained.
Reason: when RNA is single-stranded.
Q. 4. Assertion: The two strands of DNA are complementary to each other.
Reason: The two strands of DNA contain covalent bonds formed between specific
pairs of bases.
64
CASE STUDY BASED (A-R)-II
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :(1×4= 4)
When a protein in its native form, is subjected to physical changes like change in
temperature or chemical changes like change in pH, the hydrogen bonds are
disturbed. Due to this, globules unfold and helix gets uncoiled and protein loses its
biological activity. This is called denaturation of protein.
The denaturation causes change in secondary and tertiary structures but primary
structures remains intact.
Examples of denaturation of protein are coagulation of egg white on boiling, curding of
milk, and formation of cheese when an acid is added to milk.
Q. 1. Assertion: Amino acids are known as α-amino acids.
Reason: Amino acids are organic compounds containing an amino group and a
carboxylic group as substituent on the α-carbon.
Q. 2. Assertion: Proteins are a hetero-polymer.
Reason: Dietary proteins are the source of non-essential amino acids.
Q. 3. Assertion: The long protein chain folds upon itself like a hollow ball giving rise
to the tertiary structure.
Reason: Tertiary structure gives a 3-dimensional view of a protein.
Q. 4. Assertion: Amino acids are amphoteric in their function.
Reason: All amino acids are necessary for our body.
[SECTION – C]
Assertion-Reason Questions- (1x10 =10)

In the following questions (Q.1 to Q.10) a statement of assertion followed by a
statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is correct
(B)Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
(C)Assertion is correct statements but reason is wrong statement.
(D)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct.
Q. 1. Assertion (A): D(+)–Glucose is dextrorotatory in nature.
Reason (R): ‗D‘ represents its dextrorotatory nature.
Q. 2. Assertion (A): Deoxyribose, C5H10O4 is not a carbohydrate.
Reason (R): Carbohydrates are optically active polyhydroxy aldehyde or polyhydroxy
ketone or substances which give aldehyde or ketone on hydrolysis.
Q. 3. Assertion (A): Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime and also
adds a molecule of hydrogen cyanide to give cyanohydrin.
Reason (R): The carbonyl group is present in the openchain structure of glucose.
Q. 4. Assertion (A): The two strands of DNA are complementary to each other.
Reason (R): The hydrogen bonds are formed between specific pairs of bases.
Q. 5. Assertion (A): All naturally occurring α- amino acids except glycine are optically
active.
Reason (R): Most naturally occurring α- amino acids have L-configuration.
Q. 6. Assertion (A): Glycine must be taken through diet.
Reason (R): It is non-essential amino acid.
65
Q. 7. Assertion: At isoelectric point, the amino group does not migrate under the
influence of electric field.
Reason: At isoelectric point, amino acid exists as a zwitterion.
Q. 8. Assertion: Acetic acid have the general formula C2(H2O)2 can be considered as a
member of carbohydrates
Reason: Rhamnose is a carbohydrate but do not fit in to the formula C2(H2O)2 .
Q. 9. Assertion: Lactose is a reducing sugar.
Reason: All those carbohydrates which reduce Fehling‘s solution are Reducing Sugars.
Q. 10. Assertion: Sucrose is called an invert sugar.
Reason: On hydrolysis, sucrose bring the change in the sign of rotation from dextro
(+) to laevo(–).
MCQ – (1x30=30)
1.Which of the following statements is not true about glucose?
(A) It is an aldohexose.
(B) On heating with HI it forms n-hexane.
(C) It is present in furanose form.
(D) It does not give 2,4-DNP test.
2. Nucleic acids are the polymers of ______________.
(A) Nucleosides (B) Nucleotides (C) Bases (D) Sugars
3. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides together by phosphodiester
linkage. Between which carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are these
linkages present?
(A) 5' and 3'
(B) 1' and 5'
(C) 5' and 5'
(D) 3' and 3'
4. Each polypeptide in a protein has amino acids linked with each other in a specific
sequence. This sequence of amino acids is said to be ____________.
(A) primary structure of proteins.
(B) secondary structure of proteins.
(C) tertiary structure of proteins.
(D) quaternary structure of proteins.
5. Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary structures viz. alpha-
helix and beeta-pleated sheet structure. α-helix structure of protein is stabilised by:
(A) Peptide bonds
(B) van der Waals forces
(C) Hydrogen bonds
(D) Dipole-dipole interactions
6. DNA and RNA contain four bases each. Which of the following bases is not present
in RNA?
(A) Adenine
(B) Uracil
(C) Thymine
(D) Cytosine
7. Which of the following bases is not present in DNA?
(A) Adenine
(B) Thymine
(C) Cytosine
(D) Uracil
66
8. Which of the following is an example of aldohexose?
(A) Ribose
(B) Fructose
(C) Sucrose
(D) Glucose
9. Which of the following reactions of glucose can be explained only by its cyclic
structure?
(A) Glucose forms pentaacetate.
(B) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime.
(C) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine.
(D) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic acid.
10. Carbohydrates are classified on the basis of their behaviour on hydrolysis and also
as reducing or non-reducing sugar. Sucrose is a __________.
(i) monosaccharide
(ii) disaccharide
(iii) reducing sugar
(iv) non-reducing sugar
(A)(i) and (iii)
(B)(ii) and (iii)
(C)(ii) and (iv)
(D)(i) and (iv)
11. Proteins can be classified into two types on the basis of their molecular shape i.e.,
fibrous proteins and globular proteins. Examples of globular proteins are :
(i) Insulin (ii) Keratin (iii) Albumin (iv) Myosin
(A)(i) and (iii)
(B)(ii) and (iii)
(C)(ii) and (iv)
(D)(i) and (iv)
12. Name the sugar present in milk.
(A)Glucose
(B) Fructose
(C) Lactose
(D)Maltose
13. Glycogen is a branched chain polymer of α-D-glucose units in which chain is
formed by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage whereas branching occurs by the formation of C1-
C6 glycosidic linkage. Structure of glycogen is similar to
(A) amylose
(B) amylopectin
(C) cellulose
(D) glucose
14. Which of the following polymer is stored in the liver of animals?
(A) Amylose
(B) Cellulose
(C) Amylopectin
(D) Glycogen
15. Sucrose (cane sugar) is a disaccharide. One molecule of sucrose on
hydrolysisgives
(A) 2 molecules of glucose
(B) 2 molecules of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose
(C) 1 molecule of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose
67
(D) 2 molecules of fructose
16. Which reagent is used to convert glucose into saccharic acid?
(A) Br2/H2O
(B) Nitric acid
(C) Alkaline solution of iodine
(D) Ammonium hydroxide
17. Which one is the complementary base of cytosine in one strand to that in other
strand of DNA?
(A) Adenine
(B) Guanine
(C) Thymine
(D) Uracil
18. In disaccharides, if the reducing groups of monosaccharides, i.e., aldehydic or
ketonic groups are bonded, these are non-reducing sugars. Which of the following
disaccharide is a non-reducing sugar?
19. Glucose is correctly named as D(+)-glucose. ‗D‘ before the name of glucose
represents
(A) dextrorotatory
(B) configuration
(C) diamagnetic nature
(D) mode of synthesis
20. The bond that joins the two alpha-amino acids is called
(A) glycosidic linkage
(B) peptide linkage
(C) hydrogen bond
(D) ionic bond
21. Identify the correct statement
(A) Cytosine forms hydrogen bond with guanine.
(B) Adenine forms hydrogen bond with guanine.
(C) Cytosine forms hydrogen bond with thymine.
(D) Adenine forms hydrogen bond with Uracil
22. Curdling of milk is an example of:-
(A) breaking of peptide linkage
(B) hydrolysis of lactose
68
(C) breaking of protein into amino acids
(D) denaturation of protein
23. Three cyclic structures of monosaccharides are given below which of these are
anomers.
24. Optical rotations of some compounds along with their structures are given below
which of them have D configuration.
25. Structure of a disaccharide formed by glucose and fructose is given below.

Identify anomeric carbon atoms in monosaccharide units.
26. Three structures are given below in which two glucose units are linked. Which of
these linkages between glucose units are between C1 and C4 and which linkages are
between C1 and C6?
69
27. Carbohydrates are classified on the basis of their behaviour on hydrolysis
and also as reducing or non-reducing sugar. Sucrose is a .
(A) monosaccharide
(B) disaccharide
(C) reducing sugar
(D) None of these
28. Proteins can be classified into two types on the basis of their molecular shape,
i.e., fibrous proteins and globular proteins. Examples of globular proteins are
(A) insulin
(B) keratin
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) myosin
29. In fibrous proteins, polypeptide chains are held together by:-
(A) van der Waals forces
(B) disulphide linkage
(C) both A and B
(D) None of these.
30. DNA fingerprinting is now used :-
(i) in forensic laboratories for identification of criminals.
(ii) to determine paternity of an individual.
(iii) to identify the dead bodies in any accident by comparing the DNA‘s of parents or
children.
(iv) to identify racial groups to rewrite biological evolution.
(A) i,ii,iv
(B) i,ii,iii
(C) ii,iii,iv
(D) All of these
*********************************************
70
ANSWER KEY
SECTION - A
CASE STUDY BASED (MCQ)
CS-1
1. Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. Ans. Option (B) is correct.
3. Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4.Ans. Option (C) is correct.
CS-2
4. Ans. Option (D) is correct. OR Option (C) is correct
CS-3
1. Ans. Option (A) is correct.
4. Ans. Option (B) is correct. OR Option (C) is correct
SECTION - B
CS-1
1. Ans.Option (A) is correct.
CS-2
1. Ans.Option (A) is correct.
SECTION - C
Assertion-Reason Questions
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A
SECTION- D
MCQ
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. D
8. D 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D
15. C 16. B 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. B 21. A
22. D 23. A 24. A 25. C 26. C 27.B 28.A
29. C 30. D
**************************************************
71
Sample Question Paper (CBSE)
2021-22 Term-1
Subject:Chemistry(043)
Time:90 Minutes Max.Marks:35
GeneralInstructions:
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section-A has 25 questions.Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section-B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section-C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

********************************************************************
***************************
SECTIONA
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt
any 20 questions. In case more than desirable number of questions are
attempted,ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Which of the following statements is true:

(a)Melting point of Phosphorous is less than that of Nitrogen
(b)N2 is highly reactive while P4 is inert
(c)Nitrogen shows higher tendency of catenation than P
(d)N-N is weaker than P-P
2. Which of the following is a non-stoichiometric defect?
(a)Frenkel defect
(b)Schottky defect
(c)metal deficiency defect
(d)interstitial defect
3. Identify the law which is stated as:

―For any solution, the partial vapour pressure of each volatile component in the solution is
directly proportional to its molefraction.‖
(a) Henry‘slaw
(b) Raoult‘slaw
(c)Dalton‘slaw
(d)Gay-Lussac'sLaw
72
4. Pink colour of LiCl crystals is due to:
(a) Schottky defect
(b) Frenkel defect
(c) Metal excess defect
(d) Metal deficiency defect
5. Which of the following isomer has the highest melting point:

(a) 1,2-dicholorbenzene
(b) 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(c) 1,4-dicholorbenzene
(d) All isomers have same melting points
6. Which one of the following reactions is not explained by the open chain
Structure of glucose:
(a) Formation of pentaacetate of glucose with aceticanhydride.
(b) Formation of addition product with 2,4DNP reagent
(c) Silver mirror form at ion with Tollen‘s reagent
(d) Existence of alpha and beta forms of glucose.
7. Williamson‘s synthesis of preparing dimethylether is an:

(a) SN1reaction
(b) Elimination reaction
(c) SN2reaction
(d) Nucleophilic addition reaction
8. Chlorine water loses its yellow colour on standing because:

(a) HCl gas is produced,due to the action of sunlight.
(b) A mixture of HOCl and HCl is produced in the presence of light
(c) HOCl and hydrogen gas is produced
(d) A mixture of HCl and ClO3 is produced, due to the action of sunlight
9. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with concentrated H2SO4,

the initiation step is:
(a) Protonation of alcohol molecule
(b) Formation of carbocation
(c) Elimination of water
(d) Formation of an ester
10. Amorphous solids are:

(a)Isotropic
(b) anisotropic
(c) isotopic
(d) isomeric
11. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare salicylaldehyde?
(a) Kolbe‘s reaction
(b) Etard reaction
(c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(d) Stephen‘s reduction.
73
12. Which of the following is an example of a solid solution?
(a) Sea water
(b) sugar solution
(c) Smoke
(d) 22 carat gold
13. The boiling points of alcohols are higher than those of hydrocarbons of comparable
masses due to:
(a)Hydrogen bonding
(b)Ion–dipole interaction
(c) Dipole-dipole interaction
(d) VanderWaal‘s forces.
14. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point:

(a) H2O
(b) H2S
(c) H2Se
(d) H2Te
15. Which of the following statement is correct:

(a)Fibrous proteins are generally soluble in water
(b)Albumin is an example of fibrous proteins
(c)In fibrous proteins, the structure is stabilized by hydrogen bonds and
disulphide bonds
(d)pH does not affect the primary structure of protein.
16. Major product obtained on reaction of 3-Phenylpropene with HBr in

presence of organic peroxide
(a) 3-Phenyl1-bromopropane
(b) 1–Phenyl-3-bromopropane
(c) 1-Phenyl-2-bromopropane
(d) 3-Phenyl-2-bromopropane
17. Which of the following is a correct statement for C2H5Br?

(a) It reacts with metallic Na to give ethane.
(b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous solution of AgNO2
(c) It gives C2H5OH on boiling with alcoholic potash.
(d) It forms diethylthioether on heating with alcoholic KSH.
18. Covalency of nitrogen is restricted to:

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
74
19. Solubility of gases in liquids decreases with rise in temperature because dissolution is
an:
(a)endothermic and reversible process
(b)exothermic and reversible process
(c)endothermic and irreversible process
(d)exothermic and irreversible process
20. All elements of Group 15 show allotropy except:

(a) Nitrogen
(b) Arsenic
(c) Antimony
(d) Bismuth
21. Which of the following is a polysaccharide?

(a) Glucose
(b) Maltose
(c) Glycogen
(d) lactose
22. Substance having the lowest boiling point:

(a)Hydrogen
(b)Oxygen
(c)Nitrogen
(d)Helium
23. Lower molecular mass alcohols are:

(a) miscibleinlimitedamountofwater
(b) miscibleinexcessofwater
(c) miscibleinwaterinallproportions
(d) immiscibleinwater
24. Maximum oxidation state exhibited by Chlorine is:

(a)+1
(b) +3
(c)+5
(d)+7
25. In which of the following cases blood cells will shrink:

(a)when placed in water containing more than 0.9% (mass/volume) NaCl solution.
(b)when placed in water containing less than 0.9% (mass/volume) NaCl solution.
(c)when placed in water containing 0.9% (mass/volume) NaCl solution.
(d)when placed in distilled water.
SECTIONB
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to
attempt any 20 questions. In case more than desirable number of questions
areattempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
75
26. How much ethyl alcohol must be added to 1 litre of water so that the
solution will freeze at– 14°C?(Kf for water =1.86°C/mol)
(a) 7.5 mol
(b)8.5mol
(c)9.5mol
(d)10.5mol
27. Which reagents are required for one step conversion of chlorobenzene to
toluene?
(a) CH3Cl/AlCl3
(b) CH3Cl,Na,Dry ether
(c)CH3Cl/Fe dark
(d) NaNO2/HCl/0-50C
28. On partial hydrolysis,XeF6 gives:

(a) XeO3+4HF
(b) XeO2F+HF
(c) XeOF4+H2
(d) XeO2F2+4HF
29. Which one of the following statement is correct about sucrose:

(a) It can reduce tollen‘s reagent however can not reduce fehling‘s reagent
(b) It undergoes mutarotation like glucose and fructose
(c) It undergoes inversion in the configuration on hydrolysis
(d) It is laevorotatory in nature.
30. Phenol does not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction easily due to:
(a) Acidic nature of phenol
(b) Partial double bond character of C-OH bond
(c) Partial doublebond characterof C-C bond
(d) instability of phenoxide ion
31. Which of the following has highest ionisation enthalpy?
(a) Nitrogen
(b)Phosphorus
(c)Oxygen
(d)Sulphur
32. Metal M ions form a ccp structure. Oxide ions occupy ½ octahedral and
½ tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the oxide?
(a) MO
(b) MO2
(c) MO3
(d) M2O3
33. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives ‗X‘ while the
of toluene with Cl2 in presence of light gives‗Y‘. Thus ‗X‘ and ‗Y‘ are:
(a) X=benzylchloride Y=o and p–chlorotoluene
(b) X=m–chlorotoluene Y=p–chlorotoluene
(c) X=o and p–chlorotoluene Y=trichloromethylbenzene
(d) X=benzylchloride, Y=m-chlorotoluene
76
34. Ozone is a/an molecule and the two O-O bond lengths in ozone
are(i) - and (ii)
(a) linear,110pm;148pm
(b) angular,110pm ; 148 pm (c)
linear, 128pm;128pm
(d) angular,128pm;128pm
35. Water retention or puffiness due to high salt in take occurs due to:
(a)diffusion
(b) vapourpressuredifference
(c) osmosis
(d) (d)reverseosmosis
36. In the following reaction, identify A and B:
C6H12O6 Aceticanhydride A
Conc.nitricacid
(a) A=COOH-(CH2)4-COOH, B= OHC-(CHOCOCH3)4-CH2OCOCH3

(b) A=COOH-(CH2)4-CHO , B= OHC-(CHOCOCH3)4-CH2OCOCH3
(c) A=OHC-(CHOCOCH3)3-CH2OCOCH3B=COOH-(CH2)4-CHO,
(d) A=OHC-(CHOCOCH3)4-CH2OCOCH3B=COOH-(CH2)4-COOH
37. In lake test for Al3+ ions, there is the formation of coloured ‗floatinglake‘ . It
is due to:
(a)Absorption of litmus by [Al(OH)4]-
(b)Absorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
(c) Adsorption of litmus by [Al(OH)4]-
(d)Adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
38. A unit cell of NaCl has 4 formula units. Its edgelength is 0.50 nm. Calculate
the density if molar massof NaCl=58.5g/mol.
(a)1g/cm3
(b)2g/cm3
(c)3g/cm3
(d)4g/cm3
39. Which one of the following are correctly arranged on the basis of the property
indicated:
(a) I2<Br2<F2<Cl2[increasing bond dissociation enthalpy]
(b) H2O>H2S<H2Te<H2Se [increasing acidic strength]
(c) NH3<N2O<NH2OH<N2O5 [increasing oxidation state]
(d) BiH3<SbH3<AsH3<PH3<NH3[increasing bond angle]+
77
40. What would be the reactant and reagent used to obtain 2,4-dimethylpentan-3-
ol?
(a) Propanal and propylmagnesiumbromide
(b) 3-methylbutanal and 2-methylmagnesiumiodide
(c) 2-dimethylpropanone and methylmagnesiumiodide
(d) 2-methylpropanal and isopropylmagnesiumiodide
41. o-hydroxybenzyl alcohol when reacted with PCl3 gives the productas
(IUPACname)
(a) o-hydroxybenzylchloride
(b) 2-chloromethylphenol
(c) o-chloromethylchlorobenzene
(d) 4-hydroxymethylphenol
42. Which of the following statements is true:

(a) Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent and the strongest base among
Group15 hydrides.
(b) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent as well as the strongest base
among Group15 hydrides.
(c) Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent as well as the weakest base
among Group 15 hydrides.
(d) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent and the weakest base among Group
15 hydrides.
43. Identify the secondary alcohols from the following set: (i)CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
(ii)(C2H5)3COH
(iii)
(iv)
(a)(i) and (iv)

(b)(i) and (iii)
(c)(i) and (ii)
(d)(i), (iii) and (iv)
44. Alkenes decolourise bromine water in presence of CCl4 due to formation of:
(a)allylbromide
(b)vinylbromide
(c)bromoform
(d)vicinaldibromide
78
45. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason(R)
Assertion(A): Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of Flourine but
greater than Nitrogen.
Reason(R): Ionisation enthalpies of the elements follow the order
Nitrogen>Oxygen>Fluorine
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation o fA.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
46. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
Assertion(A):Alkyl halides are in soluble in water.
Reason(R):Alkyl halides have halogen attached to sp3 hybrid carbon.
Assertion(A): Molarity of a solution changes with temperature.
Reason(R):Molarity is a colligativeproperty.
Assertion(A):SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an oxidising agent.
Reason(R):Reducing property of dioxide decreases from SO2 to TeO2.
Assertion(A):Cryoscopic constant depends on nature of solvent.
Reason(R):Cryoscopic constant is a universal constant.
Selectthemostappropriateanswerfromtheoptionsgivenbelow:
79
SECTIONC
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to
attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number of questions are attempted,
ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. Matchthefollowing:
I II
(i)Aminoacids (A)protein
(ii)Thymine (B)Nucleicacid
(iii)Insulin (C)DNA
(iv)phosphodiesterlinkage (D)Zwitterion
(v)Uracil
Which of the following is the best matched options?
(a) i-A,v-D,iii-C,iv-B
(b) i-D,ii-C,iii-A,iv-B
(c) i-D,v-D,iii-A,iv-B
(d) i-A,ii-C,iii-D,iv-B
51. Which of the following analogies is correct:

(a) Nitrogen:1s22s22p3::Argon:1s22s22p6
(b) Carbon:maximum compounds::Xenon:no compounds
(c) XeF2:Linear::ClF3:Trigonal planar
(d) Helium:meteorological observations :: Argon:metallurgical processes
52. Complete the following analogy:

Same molecular formula but different structures : A :: Non super imposable mirror
images : B
(a)A:Isomers B:Enantiomer
(b)A:Enantiomers B:Racemic mixture
(c) A:Sterio isomers B:Retention
(d)A:Isomers B:Sterioisomers
CASE1: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
53-55
Early crystallographers had trouble solving the structures of inorganic solids using X-
ray diffraction because some of the mathematical tools for analyzing the data had not
yet been developed. Once at rial structure was proposed, it was relatively easy to
calculate the diffraction pattern, but it was difficult to go the other way (from the
diffraction pattern to the structure) if nothing was known apriori about the
arrangement of atoms in the unit cell. It was important to develop some guidelines for
guessing the coordination numbers and bonding geometries of atoms in crystals. The
first such rules were proposed by Linus Pauling, who considered how one might pack
together oppositely charged spheres of different radii.
Pauling proposed from geometric considerations that the quality of the "fit" depended
on the radius ratio of the anion and the cation.
80
If the anion is considered as the packing atom in the crystal, then the smaller
cation fills interstitialsites ("holes"). Cations will find arrangements in which they
can contact the largest number of anions. If the cation can touch all of its
nearest neighbour anions then the fit is good. If the cation is too small for a
given site, that coordination number will be unstable and it will prefer a lower
coordination structure. The table below gives the ranges of cation/anion radius
ratios that give the best fit for a given coordination geometry.
Coordination Geometry ρ=rcation / ranion

number
2 linear 0-0.155
3 triangular 0.155-0.225
4 tetrahedral 0.225-0.414
4 squareplanar 0.414-0.732
6 octahedral 0.414-0.732
8 cubic 0.732-1.0
12 cuboctahedral 1.0
(Source: Ionic Radii and Radius Ratios. (2021,June8). Retrieved June29,2021, from
https://chem.libretexts.org/@go/page/183346)
Q53.The radius of Ag+ ion is 126 pm and of I-ion is 216 pm. The coordination number
of Ag+ion is:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 8
Q54. A solid AB has square planar structure. If the radius of cation A+ is 120 pm,
calculate the maximum possible value of anion B-
(a)240pm
(b)270pm
(c)280pm
(d)290pm
Q55. A ―good fit‖ is considered to be one where the cation can touch:
(a) All of its nearest neighbour anions.
(b) Most of its nearest neighbour anions.
(c) Some of its nearest neighbour anions.
(d) None of its nearest neighbour anions.
81
CHEMISTRY(043)
MarkingScheme
SECTIONA
1.(d)N-N is weaker than P-P

other statements as incorrect as Phosphorus has a higher melting point due to
bigger size than Nitrogen.Nitrogen is inert due to formation of triple bonds and
has a lower covalence due to non- availability of d –orbitals
2. (c)metal deficiency defect (anion is missing from latticesite)

In Frenkel defect the smaller ion occupies the interstitial sites and Schottky defect
equal numberof cations and anions are missing. Interstitial defect an atom or
molecule occupies intestinal sites so in these three defects the ratio of positive and
negative ions (Stoichiometric) of a solid is not disturbed in these three
3. (b)Raoult‘slaw
4. (c)Metal excess defect (formation of F-centres)
5. (c)1,4-dicholorbenzene(para isomers are more symmetric than ortho and meta)
6. (d) existence of alpha and beta forms of glucose.
7. (c)S2 reaction(alkoxide ion reacts with primary alkyl halide in a single step to form
ether )
8. (b) a mixture of HOCl and HCl is produced in the presence of

sunlight Cl2(g)+H2O(l) → HCl (g) +HOCl(aq)
9. (a)protonation of alcohol molecule
10. Amorphous solids are:

(a) isotropic (the value of any physical property is same along any direction)
11. (c) Reimer- Tiemann reaction( Kolbe‘s reaction is used to prepare salicylic
acid, Etard reaction for benzaldehyde, Reimer- Tiemann reaction for
salicylaldehyde and Stephen‘s reduction for aldehyde)
82
12. (d)22 carat gold (it is an alloy so solid in solid solution)
13. (a)Hydrogen bonding (alcohols form intermolecular hydrogenbonds)
14. (b)H2S(boilingpointincreasesdownthegroupbutwaterformsstronghydrogenbond
ssohashigher boiling pointthan H2S)
15. (d)pHdoesnotaffecttheprimarystructureofprotein(pHeffectsthetertiarystructure)
16. (b)1–Phenyl-3-bromopropane
((C6H5)CH2CH=CH2 + HBr (organic peroxide) → (C6H5)CH2CH2CH2Br
anti-Markovnikov addition)
17. (b)It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous solution of AgNO2

18. (c) 4 (Covalency of nitrogen is restricted to 4 due to non availability of d
orbitals)
19. (b)exothermic and reversible process (according to Le -Chatlier principle
Solubility of gases in liquids decreases with rise in temperature)
20. (a)Nitrogen (due to small size and high electronegativity N-N is weak)
21. (c) glycogen(It is a polymer of glucose)

22.(d)Helium (He is monoatomic and has low atomic mass)
23.(c) miscible in water in all proportions Lower molecular mass alcohols are
able to form hydrogen bonds with water
24.(d)+7(Cl:1s22s22p63s23p5)
25.(a)When placed in water containing more than 0.9% (mass/ volume) NaCl
solution because fluid inside blood cells is isotonic with 0.9% NaCl solution
83
SECTIONB
26.(a) 7.5mol
ΔTf=Kfm
ΔTf= Kfn2x 1000
w1
14= 1.86 x n2x 1000
1000
n2=7.5 mol
27. (b)CH3Cl,Na,Dry ether
28. (d)XeO2F2+4HF
XeF4+H2O→XeO2F2+4HF
29. (c)It undergoes inversion in the configuration on hydrolysis
30. (b)partial double bond character of C-OH bond
31. (a)Nitrogen (High IE of N is because of smallest size in the group and completely
half – filled p sub-shell)
32.(d)M2O3
33. c)X=o and p– chlorotoluene, Y=trichloromethylbenzene
34. (d)angular,128pm;128pm(Ozone is a resonance hybrid of two equivalent
structures)
35. (c)Osmosis
36. d)A=OHC-(CHOCOCH3)4-CH2OCOCH3 B=COOH-(CH2)4-COOH
37. (d)Adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3

38.(c)3g/cm3
39. (d) BiH3<SbH3<AsH3<PH3<NH3[increasing bond angle]correct order
40. (d)2-methylpropanal and isopropylmagnesiumiodide
84
41. (b)2-chloromethylphenol
42. (a)Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent and the strongest base among
Group 15 hydrides.The reducing character of hydrides increases down the group
due to decrease in bond dissociation enthalpy.
43 (a)(i) and (iv)

(i)CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3(secondary)(ii)(C2H5)3COH(tertiary)
(iii) (iv)
Phenolnotan alcohol secondary
44.(d)vicinaldibromide
CH2=CH2+Br2→BrCH2-CH2Br
45. (c)
Assertion: Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of Flourine but
greater than Nitrogen.(correct)
Reason: Ionisation enthalpies of the elements follow the order Nitrogen >Oxygen >
Fluorine (incorrect)
Ionisation enthalpies of the elements follow the order Fluorine>Nitrogen>Oxygen
46. (b)Assertion:Alkylhalides are insoluble in water.(correct)

Reason:Alkyl halides have halogen attached to sp3 hybrid carbon.(correct)
Alkyl halides are insoluble in water because they are unable to form hydrogen
bonds with water or break pre-existing hydrogen bonds.
47. (c)Assertion: Molarity of a solution changes with temperature. (correct)
Reason:Molarity is a colligative property.(incorrect)
Molarity is a means to express concentration. It is not a physical property.
48. (a)Assertion:SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an oxidising agent.(correct)

Reason:Reducing property of dioxide decreases from SO2to TeO2 (correct and
reason for Assertion)
85
49. (c)Assertion:Cryoscopic constant depends on nature of solvent.(correct)
Reason: Cryoscopic constant is a universal constant (incorrect)
Cryoscopic constant various with type of solvent
SECTIONC
50. (b)i-D,ii-C,iii-A,iv-B
Amino acids form proteins and exist as zwitter ion , Thymine is a nitrogenous base
in DNA,Insulin is a protein, phosphodiester linkage is found in nucleic acids so also
in DNA and Uracil is nitrogenous base found in RNA which is a nucleic acid.
51. (d)Helium: meteorological observations :: Argon: metallurgical processes

Nitrogen: 1s22s22p3:: Argon:1s22s22p6 is configuration of Neon not Argon Carbon:
maximum compounds :: Xenon : no compounds, Xenon forms compounds XeF2:
Linear :: ClF3: Trigonalplanar,ClF3is T-shaped not Trigonal planar
52. (a)A:Isomers B: Enantiomer Isomers have Same molecular formula but different
structure Enantiomers are Non superimposable mirror images
Q53.(c)6
The radius of Ag+ ion is 126 pm and of I- ion is 216 pm.The coordination number of
Ag+ ion is:
ρ=rcation/ranion= 126/216=0.58
Radius ratio lies in the range 0.414 – 0.732, so has coordination number 6 or 4
according to the table.
Since none of the options is 4,so the answer is 6
Q54. (d)290 pm
Square planar means ratio ratio is between 0.414–0.732
If radius of cation is 120 pm then anion should be in the range ρ
= rcation/ranion 0.414 = 120/x so x = 289.8 = 290 pm
0.732 = 120/x so x = 163.9 = 164 pm
Q55.(a)all of its nearest neighbour anions
86
PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER Term 1
Subject: Chemistry (043)
Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 35
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.
SECTION A
This section consists of 25multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt
any 20 questions. In case more than desirable number of questions are
attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1 XeF2 is iso structural with:
A. BaCl2
B. ICl2-
C. TeF2
D. SbCl3
2 A substance Ax By, CRYSTALLISES IN A fcc lattice in which atoms A occupy each
corner of the cube & atoms B occupy the centres of each face of the cube.
Identify the correct composition of the substance Ax By.
A.AB3
B. A4B3
C.A3B
3 Which of the following is unit less?
A. Molality
B. Molarity
C. Mole fraction
D. Mass percentage
4 The correct statement regarding defects in solids is
A. Frenkel defect is favoured by small difference in the sizes of cation & anion.
B. Frenkel defect is a non-stoichiometric defect.
C. Trapping of electron in the lattice lead to formation of F-centre.
D. Schottky defect has no effect on the physical property of solids.
The one extensive use of piezoelectric material is
5 Identify the following compounds as primary halide:
A. 1-Bromobut-2-ene
B. 4-Bromopent-2-ene
C. 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane
D.t-butyl bromide
6 Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Cellulose
D. Ribose
7 Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by SN2
mechanism because of
A. insolubility
B. instability
C. inductive effect
D. steric hindrance
87
8 A greenish yellow gas with pungent smell which when dissolved in water forms a
bleaching agent is-
A. Cl2
B. F2
C. Br2
D. I2
9 Which of the following compounds will give butanone on oxidation with alkaline
KMnO4 solution?
A. Butan-1-ol
B. Butan-2-ol
C. Both of these
D. None of these
10 Metal M exist as M+2 & M+3 in its oxide (M0.98O). fraction of metal in M+3 form is
A. 4.08%
B. 6.05%
C. 5.08%
D. 7.01%
11 Which of the following reactions is used to prepare salicylaldehyde?
A. Kolbe‘s reaction
B. Etard reaction
C. Reimer- Tiemann reaction
D. Stephen‘s reduction.
12 To avoid bends, the tanks used by scuba divers are filled with air diuted with
A. Helium gas
B. Argon gas
C. Krypton gas
D. None of the above
13 The boiling points of alcohols are higher than those of hydrocarbons of
comparable
masses due to:
A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Ion – dipole interaction
C. Dipole- dipole interaction
D. Van der Waal‘s forces.
14 Sulphur shows paramagnetic behaviour in which state

A. S8
B. S2
C. S6
D. S4
15 Peptide upon hydrolysis gives –

A. Amine
B. Amino acid
C. Ammonia
D. Amide
16 C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene in comparison to C-Cl bond in in methyl chloride is
A. Longer & weaker
B. Shorter & weaker
C. Shorter & stronger
D. Longer & stronger
88
17 The synthesis of alkyl fluoride is best accomplished by –
A. Finkelstein reaction
B. Swartz reaction
C. Free radical fluorination
D. Sandmeyer‘s reaction
18 Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?
A. nitrogen
B. bismuth
C. antimony
D. arsenic
19 Value of Henry‘s constant KH
A. increases with increase in temperature
B. decreases with increase in temperature
C. remains constant
D. ) first increases, then decreases
20 Conc. HNO3 turn brown, on standing due to formation of
A.NO
B.NO2
C.N2O
D.N2O4
21 Name the linkage that holds the two units in the disaccharide ?
A. Nucleoside linkage
B. Glycosidic linkage
C. Peptide linkage
22 Which is the incorrect statement?
A. O3 is a allotrope of oxygen.
B. O3 is pale blue gas.
C. O3 protects us from IR rays of sun.
D. O3 depletion is due to CFCs.
23 The compound which does not undergo hydrolysis by SN1 mechanism is
A. CH2=CHCH2Cl
B. C6H5Cl
C. C6H5CH2Cl
D. C6H5CH (CH3) Cl
24 Which of the following does not exist?
A. XeO3
B. XeOF4
C.XeF6
D.NeF2
25 An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickles shrivels
because
A. it gains water due to osmosis

B. it loses water due to reverse osmosis
C. it gains water due to reverse osmosis
D. it loses water due to osmosis
SECTION B
This section consists of 24multiple choice questions with overall choice
to attempt any 20questions. In case more than desirable number of
questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
89
26 If 2 gm of NaOH is present is 200 ml of its solution, its molarity will be
A. 0.025
B. 0.5
C. 5
27 Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing SN2 reactivity?

(A) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
(B) R3CX > R2CHX >RCH2X
(C) R2CHX >R3CX > RCH2X
(D) RCH2X >R3CX >R2CHX
28 Which group 16 element is the most electronegative?

A. Sulphur
B. Polonium
C. Oxygen
D. Selenium
29 Glucose on reaction with acetic acid gives glucose pentaacetate. What does it
suggest about the structure of glucose ?
A. C-1 is anomeric carbon
B. C-5 is anomeric carbon
C. 3 -OH groups are present
D. 5 -OH groups are present
30 The alcohol which does not react with Lucas reagent is –

A. isobutyl alcohol
B. n-butanol
C. tert-butyl alcohol
D. sec-butyl alcohol
31 What is the correct order of enthalpy of dissociation of halogens?

A . F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
B.Cl2> Br2 >F2 >I2
C. Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
D. F2 > Br2 > Cl2 > I2
32 Which of the following is not a crystalline solid?

A. KCl
B. CsCl
C. Glass
D. Rhombic S
33 Which of the following compounds will form when Bromo ethane reacts with Mg
in presence of dry ether
A CH3-CH3
B CH3-CH2MgBr
C CH3MgBr
D(CH3)2MgBr
90
34 When XeF6 is partially hydrolysed, it yields
A. XeSO3
B. XeOF2
C. XeOF4
D. XeF2
35 The osmotic pressure is expressed in the units of-

A. MeV
B. Calories
C. atmosphere
D. cm/sec
36 Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary structures, viz. a-
helix and b-pleated sheet structure. a-helix structure of protein is stabilised by
A. Peptide bonds
B. van der Waals forces
C. Hydrogen bonds
D. Dipole-dipole interactions
37 Which of the following bases is not present in DNA?

A. Adenine
B. Thymine
C. Cytosine
D. Uracil
38 The packing efficiency of a metal crystal for simple cubic lattice is

A. 52.4%
B. 65%
C. 60%
D. 54.5%
39 The shape of XeF4 is

A. tetrahedral
B. square planar
C. pyramidal
D. linear
40 Phenol reacts with Br2 in CS2 at low temperature to give –

A. o-Bromophenol
B. o-and p-Bromophenols
C. p-Bromophenol
D.2, 4, 6 –Tribromophenol
91
41 Acetone reacts with Grignard reagent to form –
A. 3° alcohol
B 2° alcohol
C Ether
D No reaction
42 Which of the following halogen exists as a solid at room temperature?

A.Chlorine
B. Fluorine
C. Iodine
D. Bromine
43 The compound which gives the most stable carbonium ion on dehydration is –
A. (CH3)2CHCH2OH
B. (CH3)3COH
C. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
D. CH3CH OH CH2 CH3
44
A primary alkyl halide would prefer to undergo _____________.
A. SN1 reaction
B. SN2 reaction
C. α–Elimination
D. Racemisation
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as

Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
45 Assertion:-N2 is less reactive than P4

Reason:-Nitrogen has more electron gain enthalpy than phosphorus.
46 Assertion: It is difficult to replace chlorine by –OH i chlorobenzene in

comparison to that in chloroethane.
Reason: C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene has a partial double bond character due to
resonance.
47 Assertion : Molarity of a solution in liquid state change with temperature.

Reason: The volume of the solution changes with change in temperature.
48 Assertion: XeF2 has linear geometry

Reason:-The molecule has two lone pair of electron.
92
49 Assertion : Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M urea solution is less than that of 0.01 M
NaCl solution.
Reason: Osmotic pressure is not a colligative property.
SECTION C
This section consists of 6multiple choice questions with an overall choice
attempt any 5. In case more than desirable number of questions are
attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50 Proteins can be classified into two types on the basis of their molecular shape
i.e., fibrous proteins and globular proteins. Examples of globular proteins are :
(i) Insulin (ii) Keratin (iii) Albumin (iv) Myosin
A.(i) and (iii)
B.(ii) and (iii)
C.(ii) and (iv)
D.(i) and (iv)
51 Out of (i) XeO3 (ii) XeOF4 and (iii) XeF6 , the molecules having the samenumber
of lone pairs on Xe are
A.(i) and (ii) only

B.(i) and (iii) only
C.(ii) and (iii) only
D(i) , (ii) and (iii)
52 Which reagent will you use for the following reaction ?
A. Cl2/UV light
B. NaCl + H2SO4
C. Cl2 gas in dark
D. Cl2 gas in the presence of iron in dark
CASE 1 Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions 53-55
An ideally perfect crystal is one which has the same unit cell and contains the
same lattice points throughout the crystal. The term imperfection or defect is
generally used to describe any deviation of the ideally perfect crystal from the
periodic arrangement of its constituents.
If the deviation occurs because of missing atoms, displaced atoms or extra
atoms, the imperfection is named as a point defect.
Such defects can be the result of imperfect packing during the original
crystallisation or they may arise from thermal vibrations of atoms at elevated
temperatures because with increase in thermal energy there is increased
probability of individual atoms jumping out of their positions of lowest energy.
Type of point defects – point defects in a crystal may be classified into three
types
93
1.Stoichiometric defects
2.Non – stoichiometry defects
3. Impurity defects
53 Which of the following defects is not a type of Stoichiometry defects ?
A. Vacancy defect
B. Interstitial Defect
C. Schottky defect
D. Metal excess defect
54 In which of the following defects equal number of anions and cations are missing
from
lattice site?
A. Vacancy defect
B. Interstitial defect
C. Schottky defect
D. Frenkel Defect
55 Which of the following compounds does not show metal deficiency defect?
A. FeO
B. FeS
C. NiO
D. NaCl
94
ANSWER KEY
SECTION A SECTION B SECTION C
Q. No Correct Option Q. No Correct Option Q. No Correct Option
1 B 26 A 51 D
2 A 27 A 52 A
3 C 28 C 53 D
4 C 29 D 54 C
5 A 30 B 55 D
6 C 31 B
7 D 32 C
8 A 33 B
9 B 34 C
10 A 35 C
11 C 36 C
12 A 37 D
13 A 38 A
14 B 39 B
15 B 40 B
16 C 41 A
17 B 42 C
18 A 43 B
19 A 44 A
20 B 45 C
21 B 46 A
22 C 47 A
23 C 48 C
24 D 49 C
25 D 50 A
95

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STUDENT SUPPORT MATERIAL

Dr. JAIDEEP DAS,

UNDER THE SUPERVISION OF

PHYSICAL ORGANIC INORGANIC QUESTION

CONTENT DEVELOPEMENT TEAM

CHAPTERS NAME NAME OF TEACHER NAME OF SCHOOL

1. SOLID STATE MRS ANJU BALA KV NO-1,SHAHIBAUG AHMEDABAD

2. SOLUTIONS MRS REENA TIWARI KV CRPF GANDHINAGAR

3. p-BLOCK ELEMENTS SH. S. C. YADAV KV ONGC ANKLESHWAR

7. QUESTION PAPER SH. J L AGARWAL KV SHAHIBAUG AHMEDABAD

1 SYLLABUS THEORY TERM-1 2-3

2 SYLLABUS PRACTICAL TERM-1 4

3 THE SOLID STATE 5-14

5 THE p- BLOCK ELEMENTS 24-34

6 HALOALKANES &HALOARENES 35-47

7 ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS &ETHERS 48-58

9 CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 69-84

10 SAMPLE PAPER 85-93

Solutions: Types of solutions, expression of concentration of solutions of solids in

p Block Elements: Group -15 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration,

HaloalkanesandHaloarenes: Haloalkanes: Nomenclature, nature of C–X bond,

Biomolecules: Carbohydrates - Classification (aldoses and ketoses), monosaccahrides

S.No Practical Marks

Determination of concentration / molarity of KMnO4 solution by titrating it against a

(2) Salt analysis (Qualitative analysis) (4 marks)

The crystalline solids are further classified as:

Q.3 Which of the following statements regarding covalent solids is incorrect?

2.Non – stoichiometry defects

(C) Schottky defect

(D) Metal excess defect

(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Q.1 Assertion:The packing efficiency is maximum for the fcc structure.

Metal Excess Defect

Metal Deficiency Defect

Metal Excess Defect occurs in two ways:

(A) Frenkel Defect

Q.7. Graphite is an example of-

The empirical formula of the compound is-

(II) Case study based (A/R) type )

(III) A/R Type questions:

(IV) MCQ Type questions:

Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer:

5. Calculate concentration of urea having 6.022x1020 molecules in 100 ml Urea (NH2CONH2)

In following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is

Reason: isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure.

CASE STUDY BASED-MULTIPLOE CHOICE QUESTIONS (I)

CASE STUDY BASED-MULTIPLOE CHOICE QUESTIONS (III)

CASE STUDY BASED-ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS (II)

ASSSERTION REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS

In the following questions 1 TO 10 a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

Case study based question PART-I(MCQ)

iii) The nucleophilic substitution of vinylchloride is difficult than ethyl chloride.Because

iv) Which of the following is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution

[SECTION -B] :CASE BASED A/R QUESTIONS-I

Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

(ii) Assertion : is less reactive than towards nucleophilic substitution

(iii) Assertion: Chlorobenzene is more reactive than p-chloroanisole to nucleophilic