[do not include the following in CPL exams:-

High altitude environment [- ozone, - radiation, - humidity], Co-ordination (multi-crew concepts)

Co-operation{- small group dynamics, - leadership, management styles, - duty and role]
Identification of hazardous attitudes (error proneness), Working concepts]

1
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 2 – THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM REVESION QUESTIONS

1. How is oxygen transported around the body ?

a) By red blood cells combined with carbon dioxide
b) By red blood cells combined with nitrogen and water vapour
c) By red blood cells combined with haemoglobin
d) By red blood cells combined with nitrogen, hormones and plasma

2. How is the rate and depth of breathing controlled ?

a) By the amount of oxy-haemoglobin in the blood and lungs
b) By the amount of haemoglobin in the blood and the lungs
c) By the amount of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the blood and the lungs
d) By the amount of carbonic acid and water vapour/nitrogen mixture in the blood and lungs

3. What is the function of the left and right ventricle ?

a) Left : Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs
Right : Pumps oxygenated blood around the body
b) Left : Pumps oxygenated blood around the body
Right : Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs
c) Left : Pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs
Right : Pumps deoxygenated blood around the body
d) Left : Pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs
Right : Pumps oxygenated blood around the body

4. The factor which most increases the risk of coronary heart disease is:
a) Family history
b) Lack of exercise
c) Obesity
d) Smoking

5. List in descending order the factors that will increase the risk of coronary heart disease.
a) Raised blood pressure, obesity, family history, age, previous history of cardio vascular problems,
smoking, raised blood cholesterol, diabetes.
b) Family history, age, previous history of cardio vascular problems, raised blood pressure, smoking,
raised blood cholesterol, lack of exercise, diabetes.
c) Family history, age, previous history of cardio vascular problems, raised blood pressure, smoking, raised
blood cholesterol, lack of exercise, obesity, diabetes.
d) Raised blood pressure, age, family history, previous history of cardio vascular problems, smoking,
obesity, raised blood cholesterol, diabetes.

6. List in ascending order the factors that will increase the risk of coronary heart disease
a) Diabetes, raised blood cholesterol, smoking, previous history of cardio vascular problems, age, family
history, obesity, raised blood pressure.
b) Diabetes, lack of exercise, raised blood cholesterol, smoking, raised blood pressure, previous history of
cardio vascular problems, age, family history.
c) Diabetes, obesity, lack of exercise, raised blood cholesterol, smoking, raised blood pressure, previous
history of cardio vascular problems, age, family history.
d) Raised blood pressure obesity,. family history, age, diabetes, raised blood cholesterol, smoking, previous
history of cardio vascular problems.

7. List the symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning

a) Ruddy complexion, headache, stomach cramps, nausea, feeling lethargic.
b) Difficulty in breathing, ruddy complexion, headache, stomach cramps, nausea, feeling lethargic.
c) Ruddy complexion, headache, nausea, giddiness, stomach cramps.
d) Ruddy complexion, headache, tightness across the forehead, impaired judgement.

2
8. Why is it essential to ensure that the combustion heaters are serviceable ?
a) To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning and possible fire.
b) To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning , possible fire or explosion.
c) To prevent carbon monoxide poisoning.
d) To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning and possible fire.

9. The effects of smoking, particularly in relation to aviation are:

a) An early onset of hypoxia due to an apparent increase in altitude and a reduction in night vision
b) An early onset of hypoxia due to an apparent increase in altitude.
c) An early onset of hypoxia to an apparent increase in altitude up to a maximum of 40,000 ft.
d) An early onset of hypoxia due to an apparent increase in altitude with a resulting risk of anaemia

10. Will smokers experience hypoxia lower or higher cabin altitude than non-smokers ?
a) At a higher cabin altitude
b) At a lower cabin altitude
c) Both will experience hypoxia at the approximately the same cabin altitude
d) Smoking, although harmful in other ways, lessens the effects of hypoxia.

11. A pilot must wait at least 24 hours before flying after donating blood:
a) True
b) False

12. Where does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide + water vapour take place
a) The arteries
b) The veins
c) The capillaries
d) The pulmonary veins and arteries

13. The normal range of blood pressure is

a) Systolic 120 mm Hg and Diastolic 80 mm HG
b) Systolic 80 mm Hg and Diastolic 120 mm HG
c) Systolic 120 mm Hg and Diastolic 120 mm HG
d) Systolic 80 mm Hg and Diastolic 80 mm HG

14. Do pressoreceptors affect the

a) ECG readings
b) Tightening and relaxation of the blood vessels only
c) EEG readings
d) Tightening and relaxation of the blood vessels and the pulse rate

15. Hypotension is
a) High blood pressure
b) High pulse rate
c) Low blood pressure
d) Low pulse rate

16. Haemoglobin has a preference to carbon monoxide over oxygen by a factor of

a) 100- 120
b) 210-250
c) 200
d) 10-20

17. Treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning should include

a) Immediate descent to MSA
b) Turn up cabin heat
c) Keep the patient's body temperature as low as possible
d) Stop all smoking

3
18. Low blood pressure can lead to
a) Low body temperature
b) Reduced tolerance to G forces
c) Infract
d) Angina

19. Cardiac output (the quantity of blood pumped by the heart in unit time), is the product of
a) Stroke volume and the heart rate ( pulse rate)
b) Stroke volume and viscosity of the blood
c) Pulse rate and strength of the ventricle muscle
d) Pulse rate only

20. Internal Respiration is

a) The brain's control of the pulse rate
b) The exchange of oxygen with carbon dioxide and water in the cells
c) Sighing
d) The retention of breath

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An C D B A B B D C B B A C A D C B D B A B

4
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 3 – OXYGEN AND RESPIRATION REVESION QUESTIONS

1. With an alveolar partial pressure of oxygen of 55 mm Hg., what is the maximum altitude to breathe 100%
oxygen without pressure?
a) 33,700 feet
b) 44,000 feet
c) 10,000 feet
d) 40,000 feet

2. What are the constituents of the atmosphere ?

a) Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 77% Other gases 1
b) Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 78% Other gases 2%
c) Oxygen 21 % Nitrogen 78% Other gases 1
d) Oxygen 22% Nitrogen 77% Other gases 1

3. What is the % of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli at sea level ?
a) 15.5% and 6.6% respectively
b) 16.5% and 7.6% respectively
c) 14.0% and 5.3% respectively
d) 21.0% and 0.5% respectively

4. On a 100% oxygen at 40,000 feet, what height in the atmosphere does the partial pressure of oxygen in the
alveoli equate to ?
a) The same as at 20,000 feet
b) The same as at 10,000 feet
c) The same as at 25,000 feet
d) The same as at 30,000 feet

5. At what height is the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs approximately half that at sea level ?
a) 10,000 feet
b) 25,000 feet
c) 30,000 feet
d) 18,000 feet

6. What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 35 ,000 feet ?

a) 25%
b) 21%
c) 32%
d) Approximately 30%

7. What is one of the initial indications of Hypoxia ?

a) Blue tinge in the lips
b) Stomach cramps
c) Pain in the joints
d) Impaired judgement

8. Why does cold make you more susceptible to Hypoxia ?

a) Heart beats faster which uses up more oxygen
b) More energy is required when shivering therefore more oxygen used
c) Lowers temperature of the body which makes it less efficient
d) Lowers temperature of the body and especially the head which has a debilitating effect on the brain

9. What is the first action that should be taken by the pilot in the event of a cabin decompression above 10,000
feet?
a) Descend as soon as possible
b) Don oxygen mask and check oxygen flow
c) Warn the passengers
d) Descend and check passengers

5
10. In flight someone complains of feeling light-headed, dizzy, tingling at the fingertips and is breathing
rapidly. What may they be suffering from ?
a) Hypoxic Hypoxia or Hyperventilation
b) Formication
c) Cyanosis
d) Hyperventilation

11. The carbon dioxide level of the blood level is higher than normal. Does the brain
a) Increase the rate of breathing and pulse rate
b) Decrease the rate of breathing and pulse rate
c) Increase the pulse rate and decrease rate of breathing
d) Decrease the pulse rate and increase rate of breathing

12. What are the times of useful consciousness at 20,000 ft. (moderate activity)
a) 5 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 10 minutes
d) 30 seconds

13. If the symptoms of hyperventilation occur at an altitude where hypoxia is not a consideration, what is the
correct remedial action ?
a) Descend to MSL
b) Decrease rate and depth of breathing
c) Increase rate of breathing
d) If possible lay flat and help to calm sufferer

14. What increases the risk of DCS occurring in flight ?

a) Scuba diving shortly before flight
b) Snorkle diving shortly before flight
c) Alcohol
d) Smoking

15. What are the restrictions to flying after scuba diving ?

a) No flying within 48 hours if a depth of 40 feet has been exceeded, otherwise the limit is 12 hours.
b) No flying within 48 hours if a depth of 30 feet has been exceeded, otherwise the limit is 24 hours.
c) No flying within 12 hours if a depth of 30 feet has been reached, otherwise the limit is 24 hours.
d) No flying within 24 hours if a depth of 30 feet has been exceeded, otherwise the limit is 12 hours.

16. A pilot has been snorkelling and has exceeded a depth of 30 feet. Are there any restrictions to him/her
flying ?
a) No flying within 12 hours
b) No flying for 12 hours plus 30 minutes for every 10 feet deeper than 30 feet.
c) No
d) No flying within 6 hours

17. Tidal volume is

a) The volume of air inhaled with each normal breath
b) The volume of air exhaled with each normal breath
c) The volume of air breathed when diving
d) The volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each normal breath

18. The altitude that pressure will be half that of MSL in the standard atmosphere is
a) 8,000 ft.
b) 18,000 ft.
c) 34,000 ft.
d) 33,700 ft.

6
19. Henry's Law has application in Human Performance to
a) Otic Baratrauma
b) DCS
c) Carbon Monoxide poisoning
d) Partial pressure in the alveloi

20. Hypoxic Hypoxia effects night vision

a) True
b) False

21. Anaemic Hypoxia can be

a) Brought on by altitude
b) Caused by decompression
c) Caused by smoking
d) Brought on by fatigue

22. In commercial aircraft cabin pressure is normally maintained at

a) Sea level
b) 6,000 - 8,000 ft.
c) 10,000 ft.
d) Below 5,000 ft.

23. In the event of decompression the aircraft must

a) Descend to MSL
b) Descend to 10,000 ft.
c) Land as soon as possible
d) Descend to below 10,000 ft.

24. The "chokes" are associated with

a) NIHL
b) DCS
c) Blockage of the alveoli
d) Oxygen loss

25. Breathing 100% oxygen at 40,000 ft. is equivalent of breathing normally at

a) Sea level
b) 20,000 ft.
c) 40,000 ft.
d) 10,000 ft.

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An D C C B A B D B B D A A B A D C D B B A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An C B C B D

7
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 4 – THE NERVOUS SYSTEM, EAR, HEARING & BALANCE REV. QUESTIONS

1. The outer, middle and inner ear are filled with

a) Air Air Liquid
b) Air Liquid Liquid
c) Liquid Air Air
d) Liquid Liquid Air

2. What is the purpose of the Eustachian tube ?

a) To pass sound waves across the middle ear to the Auditory nerve
b) To allow ambient pressure to equalise on both sides of the ear drum
c) To allow ambient pressure to equalise on the middle ear side of the ear drum
d) To allow ambient pressure to equalise on both sides of the Vestibular apparatus

3. What causes conductive deafness ?

a) Damage to the outer ear
b) Damage to the pinna
c) Damage to the ossicles or the eardrum
d) Damage to the middle ear

4. What is noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) ?

a) Loss of hearing due to damage to the ossicles
b) Loss of hearing due to damage to the Vestibular apparatus
c) Loss of hearing due to damage to the middle ear
d) Loss of hearing due to damage to the cochlea

5. On what does NIHL depend ?

a) Both the intensity and duration of the noise above 100 dbs
b) The duration of the noise above 100 dbs
c) The duration of the noise above 110 dbs
d) Both the intensity and duration of the noise above 90 dbs

6. What is the most important sense for spatial orientation ?

a) Hearing and balance
b) Sight
c) "Seat of the pants"
d) All senses play their part in situation awareness

7. If an aircraft accelerates, what do the otoliths indicate to the brain ?

a) That the aircraft nose is pitching down; this feeling will be re-enforced by an air driven artificial horizon
b) That the aircraft is turning; this feeling will be re-enforced by an air driven artificial horizon
c) That the aircraft is climbing and turning; this feeling will be re-enforced by an air driven artificial
horizon
d) That the aircraft is pitching up; this feeling will be re-enforced by an air driven artificial horizon

8. When can a pilot experience the "leans"

a) In all flight conditions
b) In the climb
c) In the descent
d) In the climb or the descent

9. Which part of the ear senses linear accelerations and decelerations ?

a) The ossicles in the middle ear
b) The otoliths in the middle ear
c) The ossicles in the middle ear
d) The otoliths in the semi-circular canals

8
10. What should a pilot rely on if disorientated in IMC?
a) Vision
b) Turning head to recover from disorientation
c) Sense of balance
d) Instruments

11. The Conductive System consists of

a) The ear drum and ossicles
b) The semi-circular canals and otoliths
c) The cochlea and Eustachian tube
d) The cochlea and the Mitus

12. The frequency band that a healthy young person can hear is
a) 70 - 15,000 cycles per second
b) 80 - 20,000 cycles per second
c) 500 - 15,000 cycles per second
d) 20 - 20,000 cycles per second

13. Decibels increase

a) Linearly
b) In terms of a logarithm
c) In terms of increments
d) In terms of integrals

14. Presbycusis is an impairment of hearing due to

a) Damage to the cochlea
b) Damage to the semi-circular canals
c) Age
d) Smoking

15. The Vegetative System is another name for the

a) CNS
b) NILH
c) Sense Receptors
d) ANS

16. The Vestibular Apparatus detects ..................acceleration acceleration

a) Linear
b) Angular
c) Angular and linear
d) +g

17. Messages are sent in the nervous system by the following means
a) Electrical
b) Chemical
c) Biological
d) Electrical and chemical

18. The otoliths detect and acceleration greater than

a) 0.001 m/s z
b) 0.01 m/s z
c) 0.1 m/s 2
d) 1.0 m/s z
19. If a steady turn is being maintained then a sudden movement (greater than about ................) it may cause a
phenomena known as the Coriolis Effect
a) 4° a second
b) 5 ° a second
c) 3 ° a second
d) 2 ° a second

9
20. Another name for "the leans" is
a) The Oculogravic Effect
b) The Oculogyral Illusion
c) The Somatogravic Illusion
d) Ocular Disorientation

21. Vertigo can be caused by a blocked Eustachian Tube

a) True
, b) False

22. The PNS comprises of

a) The sensory and motor nerves
b) Sensory and reaction nerves
c) Reaction and motor nerves
d) Only reaction nerves

23. The ANS is a biological control system which is neuro-hormonal and, like other, is not self regulating in
normal circumstances.
a) True
b) False

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An A B C D D B D A D D A D B C D C D C C B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An A A B

10
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 5 – THE EYE AND VISION REV. QUESTIONS

1. What part of the eye bends the most light ?

a) The cornea
b) The lens
c) The pupil
d) The retina

2. Which part of the eye has the best visual acuity?

a) The retina
b) The fovea
c) The lens
d) The cornea

3. The resolving power of the fovea decreases rapidly .....................from its centre
a) 5 °
b) 130 to 16 °
c) 3 °
d) 2 ° to 3 °

4. What is "empty field myopia"

a) It is a term used when the eye, if it has nothing on which to focus will tend to focus at infinity.
b) It is a term used when the eye, if it has nothing on which to focus will tend to focus between 4 to 6
metres
c) It is a term used when the eye, if it has nothing on which to focus will tend to focus between 10 to 12
metres
d) It is a term used when the eye, if it has nothing on which to focus will tend to focus between just under 1
to 1.5 metres

5. What causes long or short sightedness?

a) Presbyopia
b) Astigmatism
c) Distortion of the eyeball
d) Distortion of the cornea

6. Is a pilot allowed to fly wearing bi-focal contact lenses?

a) Yes
b) Yes , if cleared to do so by a qualified Aviation Specialist
c) Yes, if cleared to do so by the Authority
d) No

7. What part of the spectrum should sunglasses filter out ?

a) The red and UV end of the spectrum
b) The blue and UV end of the spectrum
c) All high intensity light
d) UV only

8. What four factors effect night vision ?

a) Age, alcohol, altitude and smoking
b) Age, altitude, Instrument lights and smoking
c) Instrument lights, alcohol, altitude and smoking
d) Age, alcohol, altitude and instrument lights

9. Cones detect .................... and are mostly concentrated on .................

a) Black and white fovea
b) Colour fovea
c) Black and white retina
d) Colour entry point

11
10. What is the recommended course of action if encountering an electrical storm during flight`?
a) Pull the visors down
b) Turn the cockpit lights down
c) Turn the cockpit lights to full
d) Put on sunglasses if available

11. Where is the "Blind Spot" ?

a) On the iris
b) On the fovea
c) On the edge of the lens
d) At the entrance to the optic nerve

12. Peripheral vision is looked after by the

a) Rods
B) Cones
c) Rods and cones
d) Fovea

13. Does lack of oxygen affect sight ?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Sometimes
d) It depends on the health of the individual

14. The amount of light allowed to enter the eye is controlled by the
a) Cornea
b) Retina
c) Iris
d) Fovea

15. Accommodation is controlled by the

a) Ciliary muscles
b) Iris
c) Lens
d) Cornea

16. The maximum number of rods are found .................. from the fovea
a) 10°
b) 20°
c) 150
d) 30°

17. Dark adaption takes about .............for the rods and ..................for the cones
a) 30 minutes 7 minutes
b) 7 minutes 30 minutes
c) 15 minutes 20 minutes
d) 25 minutes 45 minutes

18. Stereopsis is associated with

a) Night flying
b) Depth perception
c) Acuity
d) Colour blindness
19. Hypermetropia is caused by a ....................eyeball and is corrected by a ..............lens
a) Elongated Convex
b) Shortened Concave
c) Shortened Convex
d) Elongated Concave

12
20. Astigmatism is normally associated with the
a) Retina
b) Fovea
c) Iris
d) Cornea

21. Glaucoma is caused by

a) An increase in the pressure of the eye
b) A decrease in the pressure of the eye
c) A defect of the cornea
d) A defect of the retina

22. Cataracts are associated with the

a) Retina
b) Tear ducts
c) Iris
d) Lens

23. Does colour blindness affect acuity ?

a) Yes
b) No

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An A B A D C D B A B C D A A C A A A B C D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An A D B

13
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 6 – FLYING AND HEALTH REV. QUESTIONS

1. A pilot is 2 metres tall and weighs 80 kgs, calculate his BMI index
a) 22
b) 24
c) 18
d) 20

2. A pilot has a BMI index of 26 and is 1.75 metres tall, what is his/her weight?
a) 92 kgs
b) 78.5 kgs
c) 85 kgs
d) 79.5 kgs

3. Using the BMI formula, when will pilots be considered overweight ?

a) When they score over 30 for males and 29 for females
b) When they score over 26 for males and 22 for females
c) When they score 30 for males and 29 for females
d) When they score over 25 for males and 24 for females

4. Using the BMI formula, when will a pilot be obese ?

a) When they score over 30 for males and 28 for females
b) When they score over 26 for males and 29 for females
c) When they score over 30 for males and 29 for females
d) When they score over 32 for males and 26 for females

5. What is the weekly level of alcohol consumption that will cause physical damage ?
a) Consuming 22 units for men and 14 units for women
b) Consuming 21 units for men and 15 units for women
c) Consuming 24 units for men and 14 units for women
d) Consuming 21 units for men and 14 units for women

6. What is the World Health Organisation's definition of alcoholism ?

Answer : "When the excessive use of alcohol repeatedly damages a person's physical, mental or social life"

7. At what rate does the body remove alcohol from the system ?
a) Approximately 1.5 units an hour
b) Approximately 2 units an hour
c) Approximately 2.5 units an hour
d) Approximately 1 unit an hour

8. What is the absolute minimum time a pilot should stop drinking before flying ?
a) 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
b) 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
c) 12 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
d) 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

9. Which of the following diseases is one of the world's biggest killer ?

a) Typhoid
b) Malaria
c) Yellow Fever
d) Influenza

10. How much exercise is sufficient to reduce the risk of coronary disease
a) Regular and raise the pulse by 100% for at least 20 minutes 2 times a week
b) Raise the pulse by 100% for at least 20 minutes 3 times a week
c) Raise the pulse by 100% for at least 30 minutes 3 times a week
d) Regular and raise the pulse by 100% for at least 20 minutes 3 times a week

14
11. What causes otic barotrauma and when is it likely to occur ?
a) Blockage in the Eustachian tube which is most likely to occur in the descent
b) Blockage in the Eustachian tube which is most likely to occur in the climb
c) Blockage in the Eustachian tube and around the eardrum which is most likely to occur in the descent
d) Blockage in the Eustachian tube and around the eardrum which is most likely to occur in the climb

12. A prudent pilot should avoid flying for ................ hours having consumed small amounts of alcohol
a) 12 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 6 hours

13. The human body can tolerate a maximum of short duration g force ............in the ...............axis
a) 25G vertical
b) 45G vertical
c) 25G fore/aft
d) -3G fore/aft

14. The most common cause of in-flight incapacitation is

a) Heart Attack
b) Influenza
c) The common cold
d) Gastro-enteritis

15. If a passenger of a helicopter is feeling unwell due to the rotation of the rotors causing a stroboscopic
effect, what is the best course of action ?
a) Move the passenger away from the window
b) Give the passenger oxygen as soon as possible
c) Land and soon as possible and seek medical assistance
d) No action is necessary as the effect is not dangerous

16. The two types of radiation are

a) Galactic and Sun Spots
b) Galactic and Solar
c) High frequency and Low Frequency
d) Solar Flares and Galactic

17. If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be
taken:
a) Ignore and it will go away
b) Descend to 10,000 ft
c) Seek medical advice as soon as possible
d) Descend as quickly as possible to minimise pain

18. To remove mercury spillage .........................must not be used

a) Water
b) White spirits
c) Acid
d) Compressed air

19. The best method for losing weight is

a) The use of appetite suppressants
b) Plenty of exercise
c) Crash diets
d) Eat less

15
20. Hypoglycemia can be caused by
a) Not eating regularly or fasting
b) Too much sugar in the blood
c) Excessive g forces
d) Stress

21. Trace Elements should be obtained from the

a) Healthy and balanced daily diet
b) Use of supplementary pills
c) High fibre diet
d) High fibre and very low fat diet

22. Food poisoning normally takes effect within ...................of eating contaminated food
a) 30 minutes
b) 60 minutes
c) 90 minutes
d) 120 minutes

23. Alcohol is removed from the body at the rate of ................milligrams per ...............millilitres per hour:
a) 10 50
b) 10 100
c) 10 120
d) 15 100

24. Permanent damage to the body of a man may occur if the consumption of alcohol level is ..............units
daily and ................units weekly.
a) 5 20
b) 5 21
c) 5 22
d) 3 14

25. A pilot's performance can be affected by an intake of caffeine above ............mg and should limit
him/herself to a daily intake of approximately ..................mg
a) 100 100-500
b) 100 100-900
c) 200 250-300
d) 200 200-600

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An D D D C D X D D B B A C A D A B C D D A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An A C D B C

16
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 7 – STRESS REV. QUESTIONS

1. Having successfully overcome a stressful situation once, how will the person react if placed in the same or
similar situation a second time ?
a) There will be little difference
b) He/she will know what is ahead and be already in a stressful condition thus stress will increase
c) He/she will feel more confident and therefore stress will reduce
d) It will depend on the individual

2. How is performance effected by over and under arousal?

a) It is improved
b) There is little difference
c) It is degraded
d) It will depend on the individual

3. What is the purpose of the "sympathetic" nervous system?

a) To control the emotional response under stressful conditions
b) To control the effects of adrenalin
c) To return the body after the "fight or flee" syndrome
d) To prepare the body to "fight or flight"

4. What is the purpose of the "parasympathetic" nervous system ?

a) To prolong the bodies mobilisation and return the body to normal after the "fight or flight" syndrome.
b) To prepare the body to "fight or flee"
c) To direct the adrenalin to the correct organs of the body
d) To return the body to normal after an emotional response under stressful conditions

5. What part of the body is effected with the vibration in the 4 to 10 Hz frequency range?
a) The brain plus there will be a headache
b) The chest plus there will be an abdominal pain
c) The respiration plus pains in the chest d) The pulse rate

6. Which shaped graph shows the relationship between arousal and stress ?
a) A U shaped graph
b) An inverted U shaped graph
c) A straight 45 'line
d) An M shaped graph

7. The three phases of the GAS Syndrome are

a) Alarm, Fear, Resistance
b) Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion
c) Alarm, Fear, Exhaustion
d) Fear, Resistance, Exhaustion

8. Which stressor will cause the most stress ?

a) Home/work interface
b) Divorce
c) Death of a family member
d) Death of a spouse, partner or child

9. During the Resistance phase of the GAS Syndrome ................is released to assist the body to convert fats to
sugar.
a) Adrenaline
b) Glucose
c) White blood cells
d) Cortisol

17
10. Broadly speaking the GAS Syndrome consists of three categories of reactions. These are
a) Somatic, Psychosomatic, Physiological
b) Physiological, Psychosomantic, Psychological
c) Somatic, Physiological, Psychological
d) Somatic, Psychosomatic, Psychological

11. Stress factors are

a) Non-cumulative
b) Cumulative
c) Stress reactions
d) Stress co-actions

12. A comfortable temperature for most people in normal clothing is

a) 25°C
b) 15°C
c) 20°C
d) 30 °C

13. The Autonomic Nervous system comprises of

a) Sympathetic, Neo-sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems
b) Sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems
c) Neo-sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems
d) None of the above

14. Define three methods of coping with stress

a) Action coping, Forced Coping, Symptom Directed Coping
b) Action coping, Cognitive Coping, Symptom Directed coping
c) Slip coping, Cognitive Coping, Symptom Directed coping
d) Slip Coping, Action Coping, Symptom Directed coping

15. Among the five major guidelines to avoid stress in the cockpit and affecting safety are
a) Planned sleep patterns and use all crew resources
b) Planned sleep patterns and Keep It Simple
c) Use all crew resources and keep a good flight deck atmosphere
d) Never give up - there is always a suitable response

16. Most successful weapons against high stress levels are

a) Planning, experience and self-control (fewer unexpected situation)
b) Learning, experience and Anticipation
c) Learning, experience and CRM
d) Planning, experience and CRM

17. Once the blood temperature rises above ..................., the Homeostatic mechanisms within the body can no
longer cope.
a) 40°C
b) 35°C
c) 50°C
d) 41 °C
18. A comfortable humidity for most people in normal clothing is
a) 40%-50%
b) 30%-40%
c) 20%-50%
d) 40%-60%

19. An additional stress factor (stressor) can be

a) A lack of time
b) Homeostatis
c) Sympathetic system
d) Parasympathetic system

18
20. The "Break- point" is when
a) The pilot "over-loads" due to stress
b) The point in time when the pilot is unable to think positively
c) The point in time when the pilot is unable to think rationally
d) The point of optimum performance

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An C C D A B B B D D D B C B B D C D D A D

19
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 8 – INFORMATION PROCESSING, HUMAN ERROR & LEARNING REV. QUESTIONS

1. Where are visual and auditory stimuli initially stored ?

a) They are stored in the short term/working memory for a period of time
b) They are stored in the short term memory for a short time
c) They are stored in the Echoic and Iconic memory
d) They are stored in the Semantic and Episodic memory

2. How long will the iconic memory store information ?

a) l - 2 seconds
b) 2 - 3 seconds
c) 0.5 - 1 second
d) 7 seconds t2 seconds maximum

3. How long will the Echoic memory store information ?

a) 2 - 8 seconds
b) 10 - 15 minutes
c) 10 - 20 seconds
d) Normally up to 15 minutes

4. In sensory memory/stores there is a separate store for each sensory system:

a) True
b) False

5. What is the "cocktail party" effect ?

a) The ability to divide attention when surrounded by many different stimuli
b) The ability to hear, for example, your own name or call sign, whilst concentrating on something else.
c) The ability to divide attention when surrounded by a number of stressors
d) The ability to divide attention when surrounded by noise.

6. On what is our mental model of the world based ?

a) Our perception of the environment surrounding us
b) Our experiences and our sensitivities
c) Our experiences and learning
d) Each of us are different and each models the world individually

7. Having created a mental model, what is the danger ?

a) To only seek information which supports it (Confirmation Bias)
b) Other clues outside do not tie up (Environmental Bias)
c) We need confirmation (Confirmation Bias)
d) We are easily swayed by outside influences (Environmental Bias)
8. How many separate items can be held in the short term memory ?
a) 8±2
b) 9±2
c) 7±2
d) 6±2

9. What is the main feature of a fully developed motor programme ?

a) Skilled based behaviour not easily explained to other people
b) Skilled based behaviour not requiring conscious thought
c) Skilled based behaviour slowly learned
d) Skilled based behaviour quickly learned

10. What is the relationship between arousal and performance ?

a) Performance is increased at high levels of arousal
b) Performance is increased by both low and high arousal levels
c) Performance is degraded by both low and high arousal levels
d) Performance is increased at low levels of arousal

20
11. Define "episodic" memory
a) It is the memory of events which are held in the long-term memory and is influenced by experience
b) It is the memory of events which are held in the short-term memory and is influenced by experience
c) It is the memory of events which are held in the long-term memory and is influenced by meaning
d) It is the memory of events which are held in the short-term memory and is influenced by meaning

12. Define "semantic" memory

a) It is the meaning of words and lasts shorter than episodic memory and is less accurate
b) It is the memory of events which are held in the short-term memory and is influenced by experience
c) It is the meaning of words and lasts longer than episodic memory as well as being more accurate.
d) It is the memory of events which are held in the short-term memory and is influenced by meaning

13. Environmental Capture is associated with

a) Long term memory
b) Working memory
c) Short term memory
d) Motor programmes

14. With reference to human information processing, why is the attention mechanism required ?
a) Because the number of stimuli around us are too many
b) Because the stimuli around us all happen at the same time and we need a filter mechanism of some kind.
c) Because the capacity of the short term memory and the rate of information processing are limited
d) Because the brain needs to prioritise.

15. What is qualitative overload ?

a) When there are too many responses to be made in the time available
b) When the amount of information is perceived to be beyond the attentional capacity and the task is too
difficult
c) When too many responses are required
d) When responses get transposed due to overload of work

16. What are the two types of attention ?

a) Cognitive and Intuitive
b) Intuitive and Behavioural
c) Divided and Intuitive
d) Selective and Divided
17. Two of the factors effecting Long Term Memory are
a) Expectation and Suggestion
b) Repetition and Echoism
c) Amnesia and anxiety
d) Anxiety and concentration.
18. Generally human error can be split into two categories
a) Faults and static errors
b) Static errors and faults
c) Dynamic and static errors
d) Faults and slips

19. Information retention can be increased by the use of:

a) Study and Rote Learning
b) Instinct
c) Mnemonics and Memory Training
d) Tertiary Education

20. An experienced pilot reacting to an engine failure is demonstrating?

a) Imitation learning
b) Operant conditioning learning
c) Skill learning
d) Insight learning

21
Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An C C A A B C A C B C A C D B B D A D C B

22
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 9 – BEHAVIOUR AND MOTIVATION REV. QUESTIONS

1. What behaviour is used to carry out a fire drill ?

a) Skill-based
b) Rule-based
c) Knowledge-based
d) A combination of Rule-based and Knowledge-based

2. Skill-based errors only occur

a) In those with little or no experience
b) In those who are in the learning process
c) In those who have only part-learned a procedure/system
d) In those with experience

3. Rule-based behaviour involves

a) Short term and long term memory
b) Short term and Iconic memory
c) Long term and Episodic memory
d) Short term, long term and Episodic memory

4. With regards to procedures you are advised to

a) Memorise all procedures as carefully as possible
b) Memorise immediate actions and subsequent actions
c) Memorise immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions
d) Rely on the checklist for all procedures

5. Knowledge based behaviour enables people to

a) Deal smoothly and quickly with procedures
b) Deal with situations involving other people and especially with the flight and cabin crews
c) Deal with known situations
d) Deal with unfamiliar and novel situations

6. In evaluating data pilots are influenced by

a) Their technical knowledge
b) Their previous experience
c) Situation awareness
d) Their state of health

7. The reluctance to move away from a theory once formed in spite of evidence to the contrary is called
a) Mind set
b) Mind bias
c) Confirmation bias
d) Decision set

8. Situation awareness is
a) The process that ensures the pilot maintains an accurate model of his/her environment
b) The process that ensures the pilot maintains an accurate model of the situation within the cockpit.
c) The process that ensures the pilot maintains an accurate model of the situation outside the cockpit
d) The process that ensures the pilot maintains an accurate model of the situation on and around the landing point

9. Errors may occur when a pilot believes it is safe to depart from the procedure laid down. Is this:
a) True
b) False
c) True in some circumstances
d) False in some circumstances

10. Once started on a course of action, it is better to

a) Have the courage of your convictions and carry them through
b) Confirm it with your co-pilot or most senior member of the crew
c) Ensure ATC are in the picture from the very start
d) Stop occasionally to take stock

23
11. What is the Jens Rasmussen's Model ?
a) "KRS"
b) "SKR"
c) "SRK"
d) "KSR"

12. Among the most important factors which might interfere with Situational Awareness are a) Weather patterns
b) Inter-personal differences
c) Hopes, wishes and desires
d) Poor instrument layouts

13. We are driven by ....................needs and .....................needs

a) Social basic
b) Physical basic
c) Physiological social
d) Physiological basic

14. The second lowest tier of Maslow's pyramid of needs is

a) Physiological needs
b) Safety and security needs
c) Belonging and affection needs
d) Self-esteem needs

15. Job satisfaction is measurable.

a) True
b) False

16. The two main tools in improving job satisfaction are

a) Job enrichment job enlargement
b) Job enrichment financial considerations
c) Financial considerations good industrial relations
d) Good management good industrial relations

17. Job enlargement can be split into

a) Vertical slant
b) Slant horizontal
c) Slant vertical
d) Vertical horizontal

18. A tendency to ask leading questions is a symptom of

a) Increased awareness
b) Decreased awareness
c) Increased situational awareness
d) Decreased situational awareness

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An B D A C D B C A A D C C C B A A D D A D

24
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 10 – COGNITION IN AVIATION REV. QUESTIONS

1. If a runway slopes downwards, how does this effect the pilots' approach ?
a) It is likely to be too high
b) It is likely to be too low
c) It is likely to be too fast
d) It is likely to be too slow

2. If a runway slopes upwards, how does this effect the pilots' approach ?
a) It is likely to be too high
b) It is likely to be too low
c) It is likely to be too fast
d) It is likely to be too slow

3. What is the likely effect of a runway which is wider than expected ?

a) Flaring too late and damaging the aircraft
b) Flaring too soon and causing a heavy landing
c) Approach speed much too high
d) Approach speed higher than usual

4. What approach conditions cause "black hole effect"

a) Landing at night in sleet or heavy rain
b) Landing at night with a partially lit runway
c) Landing at night with the cockpit instruments turned up too high
d) Landing at night when there are no lights on the approach

5. How does the "black hole effect" alter the pilots' judgement of the approach ?
a) Over-estimation of height
b) Under-estimation of height
c) Tends to make the approach much too fast
d) Tends to make the approach faster than normal

6. What are the main visual cues for rounding-out ?

a) Round-out height and speed
b) Confirmation of Decision Height and closing speed
c) Closing speed and height check
d) Relative speed and texture

7. How do misty/foggy conditions effect the pilots judgement on the approach ?

a) Under-estimating range due to illusionary effect through cockpit glass
b) Under-estimating range due to the lights appearing dim
c) Under-estimating range due to illusionary effect through cockpit glass
d) Over-estimating range due to the lights appearing dim

8. If two aircraft are on a line of constant bearing, what is the likely outcome ?
a) Depends whether by day or by night
b) They will collide
c) There will be a near miss
d) It is quite safe and they will pass well clear of each other

9. How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually?

a) There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision
b) There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft
passes close by
c) There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft
passes above
d) There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft
passes well clear

25
10. What is the duration of a saccade and rest period ?
a) 0.3 seconds
b) 0.5 seconds
c) 0.013 seconds
d) 1 second

11. What visual technique should be used when searching for an aircraft ?
a) Sweep from side to side with the eyes covering the whole field of vision
b) Search the sky portion by portion starting on the left
c) Pinpoint 10° segments of the sky and confirm before passing onto another
d) Use a succession of small and rapid eye movements

12. Refraction, due to rain on the windscreen, makes the approach

a) Steeper
b) Flatter
c) Faster
d) Slower

13. Expectation can affects perception

a) True
b) False

14. The blooming effect of rain makes

a) The runway appear closer
b) The runway appear further away
c) Does not effect runway perception
d) The instruments difficult to read

15. What are the laws that the Gestalt Theory propose ?
a) The laws of Perception
b) The laws of Perceptual Illusions
c) The laws of Perceptual Reception
d) The laws of Perceptual Organisation

16. A visual scan should cover the sky in overlapping sections of

a) 5 °
b) 10°
c) 15°
d) 20°

17. The scanning technique should differ by day and night

a) True
b) False

18. A distant aircraft is identified and remains on a constant relative bearing. You should
a) Wait until the aircraft appears to grow larger before taking avoiding action
b) Take avoiding action if you do not have right of way
c) Take immediate avoiding action
d) Wait two seconds to reidentitfy and then take avoiding action

19. Another name for vertigo is

a) The Somatogyral Illusion
b) The Somatogravic Illusion
c) Motion Sickness
d) Air sickness

26
20. If an illusion is known to be possible at a particular aerodrome, as Captain of the aircraft, you should:
a) Say nothing as it might frighten the crew
b) Ensure you brief the crew
c) Report the fact to operations so that other crews are aware of the danger
d) Report the fact to your Operator so that other crews are aware of the danger

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An A B B D A D D B A A C B A A D B A C A B

27
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 11 – SLEEP & FATIGUE REV. QUESTIONS

1. How long is a free running circadian rhythm ?

a) 24 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 25 hours
d) 29 hours

2. When is the circadian cycle of temperature at its lowest ?

a) At about 0500 hrs
b) At about 0 100 hrs
c) At about 0300 hrs
d) Varies from day to day

3. What does the duration of sleep depend on ?

a) The mental and physical exercise taken prior to sleep
b) The number of hours awake prior to sleep
c) Timing i.e . when the body temperature is falling
d) The quality of the REM sleep

4. What is the maximum number of "sleep credits" that can be accumulated and what is the minimum time to
accumulate them ?
a) 24 credits and it will take 12 hours
b) 8 credits and it will take 16 hours
c) 16 credits and it will take 12 hours
d) 16 credits and it will take 8 hours

5. When does orthodox (slow wave sleep) occur and what does it restore ?
a) It occurs early in the sleep cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it restores the body
b) It occurs early in the sleep cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it restores the brain
c) It occurs early in the sleep cycle - stages 1 & 2 and it restores the body
d) It occurs late in the sleep cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it restores the brain

6. If the sleeper awakes early, how does this effect the next sleep pattern ?
a) The sleeper goes into a "sleep deficit" and will need more sleep
b) The sleeper goes into a "sleep deficit" and will need twice the amount of sleep lost to catch up
c) They will "rebound" so that the current sleep pattern will make up those stages lost in the previous spell
of sleep
d) The sleeper goes into a "sleep deficit" which is carried forward

7. How many stages are there in a sleep cycle ?

a) 3 stages plus REM
b) 4 stages plus REM
c) 3 stages including REM
d) 4 stages including REM

8. How long is a sleep cycle?

a) 90 minutes
b) 120 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 30 minutes

9. What will an EOG trace during REM sleep ?

a) Little activity
b) A lot of activity
c) Intermittent activity
d) No activity

28
10. What is the function of REM sleep ?
a) To refresh the body after exercise
b) To refresh the body and brain following physical and mental activity
c) To assist in the organisation of memory and helping to co-ordinate and assimilate new information
learned
d) To exercise the brain so it is prepared for the next day

11. As a general rule, if a pilot is rostered for a flight which returns within 24 hours, should he adjust his/her
sleep pattern ?
a) Yes
b) Yes - as soon as possible
c) Yes - over the next 48 hours
d) No - stay on U.K. time

12. As a general rule, if a pilot is rostered for a flight which has 24 hours or more in a country where there is a
time zone difference, should he adjust his/her sleep pattern ?
a) Yes and try and arrange it so that the sleep pattern allows 8 hours sleep before "wakeup" call
b) Yes and try and arrange it so that the sleep pattern allows 10 hours sleep before "wakeup" call
c) No - stay on UK time
d) No - not necessary unless he/she stays for over 48 hours

13. How long does it take for the circadian rhythm to re-synchronise to local time after crossing time zones ?
a) Approximately 2 days per 1 to 2 hours of time change
b) Approximately 1 day per 1 to 2 hours of time change
c) Approximately 2 days per 1 to 1'h hours of time change
d) Approximately 1 day per 1 to 1'/2 hours of time change

14. Does it make any difference to the circadian rhythm adjusting to time zone changes if the flight is to the
East or West ?
a) Yes, due to the free running of the circadian rhythm tends to adjust more quickly to West bound flights
b) Yes, due to the free running of the circadian rhythm tends to adjust more quickly to East bound flights
c) No - it make no difference. West or East have the same effect
d) Yes, due to the free running of the circadian rhythm tends to adjust more slowly to West bound flights

15. What effect does drinking alcohol before sleep have to the sleep pattern ?
a) A small amount (one beer or a small whisky) is of help to relax the body prior to sleep and thus enhances
the sleep pattern
b) It lengthens REM sleep and the length of sleep
c) It shortens REM sleep and the length of sleep
d) It has not significant effect on the sleep pattern itself but does effect other systems of the body adversely

16. When suffering from sleep deprivation, will performance be further decreased by altitude ?
a) No
b) Yes
c) Sometimes
d) Under certain circumstances

17. Hypovigilance is akin to a microsleep.

a) True
b) False

18. The two forms of fatigue are

a) Mental and physical
b) Short-term and chronic
c) Mental and body
d) Psychological and physiological

29
19. Insomnia is divided into
a) Psychological and physiological
b) Mental and physical
c) Clinical and situational
d) Clinical and physiological

20. Can you fly suffering from narcolepsy ?

a) Under the strict supervision of an Aviation Medical Specialist
b) Sometimes - it depends on the degree
c) Never
d) By day only

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An C A C D A C B A B C D A D A C B A B C C

30
 HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 12 – INDIVIDUAL DIFF. & INTE PERSONAL REL. REV. QUESTIONS

1. What is the most effective way of analysing personality ?

a) Group therapy
b) Written questionnaires
c) Personal interviews
d) Two Dimensional Model analysis

2. How would a person who is aggressive and changeable be described ?

a) Aggressive extravert
b) Unpredictable extravert
c) Unreliable extravert
d) Anxious extravert

3. What are the personality traits of a good pilot?

a) Reliable and stable
b) Stable and extraverted
c) Reliable and extraverted
d) Reliable, calm and extraverted

4. What characteristics will authoritarian pilots display ?

a) Are autocratic on most occasions
b) Are autocratic with the crew of the aircraft but submissive when dealing with when an emergency or
when under stress
c) Are autocratic when in command and submissive when confronted by someone of higher perceived
status
d) Tend to be authoritarian when dressed in uniform and when dealing with both air and cabin crew

5. What "P" and "G" qualities should a pilot have ?

a) G+P+
b) G++ P++
c) G++P+
d) P+P+

6. How will a person tend to react if they are confronted with a decision from someone they perceive as
having a higher status ?
a) Listen to, believe, and comply with the decision.
b) Avoid confrontation
c) Become introverted
d) Question the decision

7. If an average ability group make a decision, is it likely to be better or worse than one made by the
individual members ?
a) Worse
b) Tends to be either
c) 75% of the time better
d) Better

8. If a group - with someone who has above average ability - makes a decision, is the decision likely to be
better or worse than one made by the above average person on their own ?
a) Unlikely to be better
b) Likely to be better
c) Likely to be worse
d) It depends on the number of the member of the group

31
9. Is a group decision likely to be more or less risky than one made by the individual members ?
a) Less risky
b) Sometimes more risky
c) Sometimes less risky
d) More risky

10. What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision ?

a) Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew
b) Consider all the implications
c) Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion
d) Monitor his motor programme (flying)

11. Body Language is

a) Non-verbal communication
b) Sign Language
c) Aggression
d) Verbal communication which is open to cultural problems

12. Self-discipline is an essential quality of the "ideal" pilot

a) True
b) False

13. Is a constituted crew an advantage in commercial aviation

a) Always
b) Sometimes
c) Depending on the task
d) None of the above

14. What are the three types of Authority Gradients Cockpit

a) Autocratic, Subjective, Synergistic
b) Autocratic, Submissive, Synergistic
c) Laisser-Faire, Subjective, Synergistic
d) Autocratic, Laisser-Faire, Synergistic

15. There is no place at all for authoritarianism in the air

a) True
b) False

16. The Laisser-Faire cockpit may arise when

a) The Captain is suffering from stress
b) The Captain is pre-occupied
c) On a competent co-pilot's leg
d) On an incompetent co-pilot's leg

17. To counter-act an authoritarian cockpit crews should

a) Ensure that they ensure that their opinions are heard in spite of possible confrontation
b) Remain silent and sort it all out on the ground
c) Co-operate in a conciliatory form but the contents of this co-operation is firm
d) Obtain support from another crew member

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
An B D B C A A D A D C A A D D B C C

32
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 13 – COMMUNICATION & CO-OPERATION REV. QUESTIONS

1. CFIT means
a) Controlled Flight in Terminal airspace
b) Controlled Flight into Terrain
c) Controlled Flying in Training
d) Controlled Flying in Taxiways (helicopters)

2. Implicit questions are

a) Is another name for closed questions
b) Require deductions to be made before an answer is possible
c) Does not Require deductions to be made before an answer is possible
d) Require a quick answer

3. Good Synergy is
a) 1+1 = 2
b) l+1 = (2
c) 1 + 1 =(4
d) 1 + 1 =)2

4. Co-ordination is divided into the three following types

a) Redundant Actions, Temporal and Co-action
b) Redundant Actions, General Co-operation and Co-action
c) General Co-operation, Temporal and Co-action
d) Cognitive Co-action, General Co-operation and Temporal

5. Synchronization can be said to be divided into

a) Temporal Synchronization and Rational Synchronization.
b) Cognitive Synchronization, Temporal Synchronization, Rational Synchronization.
c) Cognitive Synchronization and Temporal Synchronization.
d) Cognitive Synchronization and Rational Synchronization.

6. One BIT of communication is the quantity of information which reduces the uncertainty of the Receiver by
a) 75%-85%
b) 65-75%
c) 55-75%
d) 50%

7. Hypertext
a) Can alter according to the situation
b) Is fixed for all situations
c) Can alter according to the tone
d) Can alter as to the meaning implied

8. The contents of a Transmitter's message will depend on

a) The Receiver's image of the Transmitter
b) The Transmitter's image of the Receiver
c) The Transmitter's image of the situation
d) The Transmitter's image of the perceived situation

9. The following is/are the first to suffer from inter-human conflicts

a) Concentration and focus on the job in hand
b) Situation Awareness
c) Communications and cockpit harmony
d) Communications and quality of work

33
10. Having interrupted your Captain for a sound reason you must
a) Attempt to establish eye contact with him/her
b) Remind him/her of his/her last action before the interruption
c) Make sure there is no ATC traffic on the radio
d) You must never interrupt

11. A briefing should consist of less than

a) 7 ideas
b) 10 ideas
c) 7 sentences
d) 10 sentences

12. Among the rules to improve crew co-operation are

a) Good briefings and awareness of cultural differences
b) Good briefings and a harmonious cockpit atmosphere
c) Use professional language
d) Resist putting your opinion forward first

13. What are the five hazardous attitudes which play a leading role in the inability of an individual to cope with
a potentially dangerous situation ?
a) Anti-authority, Over confident, Invulnerable, Macho and Resigned
b) Anti-authority, Impulsive, Invulnerable, Macho and Resigned
c) Anti-authority, Impulsive, Invulnerable, Macho and Over confident
d) Over confident, Impulsive, Invulnerable, Macho and Resigned

14. Communication in the cockpit is primarily used for what purpose ?

a) It is the main tool to ensure coordination
b) It is the main tool to ensure comprehension
c) It is the main tool to ensure harmony
d) It is the main tool to ensure understanding

15. What is meant by the term "Synergy" ?

a) Synergy is the state where the individual performances exceeds the sum of the group performance
b) Synergy is the state where the group performance exceeds the sum of the individual performances
c) Synergy is the state where the group performance exceeds the sum of the individual performances by
50%
d) Synergy is the state where the individual performances exceeds the sum of the group performance by 5
0%

16. In co-ordinated action what does the term "redundant actions" mean ?
a) The strict duplication of actions by various individuals
b) The strict duplication of actions by two individuals
c) Actions which are in the past
d) Actions which have been covered by the check list

17. What is meant by "co-action" ?

a) Individuals working in the different environments but sharing the same general objectives and working
independently in carrying out their actions
b) An action by the co-pilot
c) The strict duplication of actions by various individuals
d) Individuals working in the same environment and sharing the same general objectives but working
independently in carrying out their actions

18. In communications what is Hypertext ?

a) The set of implicit information contained in a written text or spoken message
b) A recommended layout for checklists
c) The set of implicit information contained in a spoken message
d) A recommended layout for checklists and emergency drills

34
19. What is a dialogue ?
a) A conversation between two people
b) A series of communications on different subjects between a transmitter and receiver
c) A series of communications on the same subject between a transmitter and receiver
d) A communication between two or more people or machines

20. What are the key points of a good briefing ?

a) Individual, understood and simple
b) Individual, clear and simple
c) Individual, understood and short
d) Simple, clear, understood and individual

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An B B D B C D A B D B B C B A B B D A C C

35
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 14 – MAN AND MACHINE REV. QUESTIONS

1. What is anthropometry ?
a) The study of Man's adaption to machines
b) A branch of anthropology
c) The study of human measurement
d) The study of the adaption of machines to Man's needs

2. What percentage of the appropriate population are anthropometric data table measurements taken from ?
a) 80%, ie the tenth to the ninetieth percentile, using contour, dynamic and static data
b) 90%, ie the fifth to the ninety-fifth percentile, using contour, dynamic and static data
c) 50%, ie the twenty-fifth to the seventy-fifth percentile, using contour, dynamic and static data
d) None of the above

3. What is the most common check-list error

a) Action slip
b) Too many capital letters are used
c) Responded to automatically
d) Missing items

4. What is the purpose of the lumbar support ?

a) To allow the most comfortable position for the spine and higher neck bones
b) To allow the most comfortable position for the spine and shoulder bones
c) To allow the most comfortable position for the spine
d) To produce an even pressure of the discs by allowing the lower spine to curve naturally

5. What are the essential characteristics of a cockpit warning ?

a) It should have the best attention-getting qualities as possible
b) It should be attention-getting but not alarming
c) It should have attention-getting qualities which do not compromise a clear indiction to the pilot of the
faulty component/system
d) Must not dazzle or possibly compromise the crew's night vision

6. What is the most important feature of flight deck design ?

a) Escape and emergency exits should be clear of obstructions
b) The Design Eye Point must be clearly marked
c) Important controls must be located in easily reached and unobstructed positions
d) Control and indicators should be standardised

7. What will the pilot lose sight of on the approach if seated below the Design Eye Point ?
a) Some of the undershoot
b) Some of the overshoot
c) Peripheral objects especially at night
d) The Sight View

8. What instrument is best for showing small change ?

a) A digital display
b) An analogue display
c) A mixed digital/analogue display
d) Ultra/high-precision gyro instrument

9. What colour should the `Alert' warning be on a CRT ?

a) Bright red and flashing
b) Steady Red
c) Flashing yellow/amber
d) Steady yellow

36
10. Which Pitot/static instrument is most likely to be misread ?
a) The ASI at night illuminated by a red light
b) The ASI at night illuminated by low intensity white light
c) The three point altimeter
d) The four point altimeter

11. A manually operated valve should be opened by

a) Turning it clockwise
b) Turning it anti-clockwise
c) Turning either way
d) Depends on the system it operates

12. The three types of Anthropometric measurements are

a) Static, Design, Contour
b) Contour, Design, Dynamic
c) Static, Dynamic, Contour
d) Static, Dynamic, Design

13. In the Shell Model L stands for

a) Latent errors
b) Long-termed errors
c) Lengthy errors
d) Liveware

14. System Tolerance can be sub-divided into

a) Protected and semi-protected systems
b) Protected and endangered systems
c) Protected and vulnerable systems
d) Protected and quasi-protected systems

15. A flashing red warning light on a CRT normally indicates

a) There is a fault in a critical system
b) Emergency
c) Alert d) Danger

16. Automation Complacency is

a) Overconfidence in the handling capability of the pilot
b) Overconfidence in the handling capability of the pilot of computers
c) Over-reliance on automation
d) The blind belief in automation

17. Mode error is associated with

a) Automation
b) Hardware
c) INS
d) Software

18. A danger of automation is that

a) There can be greater delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect
b) Delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect are shortened
c) Delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect are not appreciated
d) Delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect have no effect

19. Automation
a) Helps with unusual and unexpected situations
b) May result in a pilot being unaware of important information when dealing with an unusual and
unexpected situation
c) Increases reaction time when dealing with unusual and unexpected situations
d) Decreases reaction time when dealing with unusual and unexpected situations

37
20. Automation can result in
a) Lack of information being passed between crew members
b) Too much information being passed between crew members
c) Confused information being passed between crew members
d) Too much detailed information being passed between crew members

Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An C B C D B B A C B C B C D C B C A A B A

38
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 15 – DECISION MAKING & TASK REV. QUESTIONS

1. What are the categories of risk ?

a) Objective/Sudden and Subjective/Gradual
b) Sudden/Impromptu and Gradual/Planned
c) External/Objective and Internal/Subjective
d) Impromptu/Objective and Planned/Subjective

2. The Commander is ultimately responsible for all decisions made in the cockpit
a) True
b) False

3. There is no difference between "deciding" and "decision-making"

a) True
b) False

4. A decision is "good" when

a) It can be implemented within the available time
b) Time is not an issue. The decision must be correct
c) Time can be an issue but the correct perception is the important factor
d) When other members of the crew agree

5. Preparation is essential for good decision-making when time is an issue

a) True
b) False

6. One of the possible problems of preparation is

a) Action Slip
b) Confirmation Bias
c) Error of Commission
d) Environment Capture

7. If a person will tend to overestimate the frequency of

a) A common but negative occurrence
b) A common but beneficial occurrence
c) A rare but beneficial occurrence
d) A are but negative occurrence

8. Negative events are tended to be overestimated when

a) They are well published
b) Obvious
c) Under published
d) The results are unclear

9. The risk of an Airprox is normally

a) Overestimated
b) Underestimated
c) Discounted
d) Accurately assessed

10. Evaluation of options in the decision-making process involve

a) Positive and negative considerations
b) Values and costs
c) Planned and impromptu considerations
d) Assigning tasks

39
11. People tend to be biased to make a
a) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the former is greater
b) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the former is less
c) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the latter is greater
d) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the latter is far greater

12. "Press-on-tis" is a
a) Common dilemma faced by all pilots
b) Is only experienced by skilled pilots
c) Only happens to inexperienced pilots
d) Is rarely faced by good pilots

13. The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander's decision
a) True
b) False

14. People tend to focus on salient cues

a) True
b) False

15. Fatigue/overload
a) Sometimes affects decision-making
b) Rarely affects decision-making
c) Never affects decision-making
d) Always affects decision-making

16. In the decision-making process, what should follow "Review and feedback" ?
a) Assign Tasks
b) Decide
c) Risk assessment
d) Diagnose and define objective

17. Man is extremely capable of accurate risk assessment

a) True
b) False

18. Input from the crew is an important factor in the decision-making process
a) True
b) False

19. Lack of experience will have the following effect on the decision-making process
a) Will speed it up (leaping in at the deep end
b) Slow it down
c) Have no effect
d) Disrupt the process

20. The decision process should include the crew

a) True
b) False
Answers:
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An C A B A A C C A B B A A B A D D B A B A

40
16 (13-18) REVISION PAPERS HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 1

1. The composition of the atmosphere from sea level to about 70,000ft retains proportions of.
a) 50%Nitrogen, 40%Oxygen, 10%other gases.
b) 78%Oxygen, 21 %Nitrogen, 1 %other gases.
c) 78%Nitrogen, 21 %Oxygen, 1 %other gases.
d) 76%Nitrogen, 14%Oxygen, 10%other gases.
Ans. C

2. Oxygen is required by the human body to:

a) clear the blood of impurities produced in the body.
b) derive energy from food by oxidation.
b) produce Carbon Dioxide to maintain the correct acidity of the blood.
c) to assure the conversion of fats and proteins to Carbohydrates required for tissue regeneration
Ans. B

3. Gas exchange between the air and blood takes place:

a) through the mucous lining of the Trachea and Bronchi.
b) between the interior of the alveoli and the capillaries on the alveoli walls.
c) from the whole surface of the lungs via the fluid in the thoracic cavity.
d) by means of the Pulmonary artery, linking the lungs directly to the heart.
Ans. B

4. Oxygen is transported in the blood:

a) dissolved in the blood plasma.
b) in chemical combination with haemoglobin in the white blood cells.
c) as microscopic bubbles linked to blood platelets.
d) in combination with haemoglobin in the red blood cells.
Ans. D

5. An individual who is short of Oxygen may try to compensate by increasing the rate and depth of breathing. This
process is called:
a) hypoxic compensation.
b) presbycusis.
c) hyperventilation.
d) carbonic dysrhythmia.
Ans. C

6. A free running circadian rhythm exhibits a periodicity of about:

a) 23 hours.
b) 24 hours.
c) 25 hours.
d) 26 hours.
Ans. C

7. Constantly seeking information to anticipate situations and to take the right decisions:
a) can be dangerous, as it may distract attention from flying the aircraft.
b) is impossible for pilots as they can only absorb a limited amount of information at any one time.
c) enables maintenance of situational awareness.
d) always carries the risk of constructing a false mental model.
Ans. C

8. Safety in commercial air transport:

a) is better than road safety, but not as good as rail safety.
b) though effective, lagging behind road and rail safety.
c) increasing each year, due to the increasing automation of modern aircraft.
d) better than road safety and rail safety.

41
Ans. D
9. `Slow wave' sleep occurs:
a) during low voltage high frequency Delta brain wave activity.
b) sleep stages 3 and 4.
c) as an individual first starts to fall asleep.
d) during the dreaming stage of REM sleep.
Ans. B

10. Strengthening and organizing the human memory when learning new tasks is believed to occur in:
a) REM sleep.
b) slow wave sleep.
c) sleep stages 3 and 4.
d) stages 1 and 2 sleep.
Ans. A

11. The most common form of amnesia affects:

a) episodic memory.
b) short term or working memory,
c) semantic memory.
d) echoic and iconic memory.
Ans. A

12. The time of useful consciousness for a pilot, undertaking moderate activity, when exposed to progressive
decompression at 30,000 ft is:
a) 30 minutes.
b) 45 seconds.
c) 12 seconds.
d) 2 to 3 minutes.
Ans. B

13. Required Oxygen for an individual experiencing a moderate workload at 37,000 ft can be provided by breathing:
a) 100% Oxygen under pressure.
b) An Oxygen/Air mixture
c) 100% Oxygen.
d) A mixture of Oxygen and helium to balance the partial pressure in the lungs.
Ans. C

14. The General Adaptation Syndrome has in sequence the following phases:
a) alarm phase - denial phase - acceptance phase.
b) alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phase.
c) stressor - resistance phase - adaptation phase.
d) resistance phase - exhaustion phase - recovery phase.
Ans. B

15. With a large aircraft maintaining a standard 3° approach to a runway, the touchdown point will be:
a) at the visual aiming point.
b) further into the runway than the visual aiming point.
c) short or long from the visual aiming point depending on the runway slope.
d) short of the visual aiming point.
Ans. D

16. `Risky shift' is:

a) a flight or task undertaken at a time when the body's circadian rhythms are at their lowest point of
efficiency.
b) the process by which the central decision-maker will ignore any information which does not fit the
mental model created by the situation.
c) the tendency of a group of individuals to accept a higher risk than any individual member of the group.
d) the natural tendency of the human mind to blame outside agencies for any errors made in an emergency
situation.

42
Ans. C

17. The eye datum or design eye position in the cockpit is established:
a) so that the pilot can maintain an adequate view of all the important displays inside, and of the world
outside with minimum head or body movements.
b) to enable the pilot to see all his flight instruments within minimum scan movements of the head.
c) at the centre of the artificial horizon or flight director indicator.
d) to determine the eventual size of the flight deck and where the window frames will be positioned so as to
give minimum interference to the pilot's field of view.
Ans. A

18. The most dangerous characteristic of a false mental model is that:

a) it will mainly occur under conditions of low arousal.
b) it will mainly occur under conditions of stress.
c) it is extremely resistant to change.
d) it will always be modified to meet the expectations of the individual.
Ans. C

19. Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 hazardous attitudes?

a) Macho.
b) Anti-authority.
c) Impulsivity.
d) Domination.
Ans. D

20. To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long term memory, it is necessary to:
a) learn to store information in a logical way.
b) mentally rehearse information before it is needed.
c) structure the information as much as possible before committing it to memory.
d) avoid pointlessly activating information, which we know will soon be needed.
Ans. B

21. If a stimulus is expected and the response prepared; when an unexpected stimulus is received:
a) the prepared response is likely to be carried out.
b) the mind will `freeze' and will require a reminder a reminder from its data store before actioning the new
demand.
c) the prepared response will be transferred to the long term memory store.
d) the mind will `switch off and ignore the unexpected stimulus.
Ans. A

22. The area on the retina where the optic nerve receives all the information from the light sensitive cells of the
retina is:
a) the blind spot.
b) The fovea.
c) The Rod/Cone intersection point.
d) The most sensitive part of the retina with the highest visual acuity.
Ans. A

23. The eye can adjust to changing light intensities by varying the diameter of the pupil. This can change the
intensity of the light falling on the retina by a factor of:
a) 10:1
b) 2:1
c) 5:1
d) 20:1
Ans. C

43
24. Following a flight that transits numerous time zones, the associated shifting of Zeitgebers helps
resynchronization to the new local time at the average rate of:
a) 2.5 hours per day.
b) 1.5 hours per day.
c) 4 hours per day.
d) 1 hour per day if the flight has been westward and 2 hours per day if the flight has been eastward.
Ans. B

25. A man is considered to be obese if his Body Mass Index (BMI) is over:
a) 18
b) 25
c) 22
d) 30
Ans. D

26. Divided attention:

a) is a fallacy, a pilot can only concentrate on one thing at a time.
b) makes it possible to detect abnormal values for flight parameters even though they are not the pilot's
immediate concern.
c) makes it possible to increase the number of simultaneously managed tasks in safety.
d) makes it possible to carry out several cognitive processes at the same time.
Ans. B

27. The human body can tolerate short duration acceleration forces of up to 45G:
a) in the vertical axis.
b) in the fore and aft axis.
c) in the lateral axis.
d) when suitable anti-G straining techniques are employed.
Ans. B

28. Barotrauma of the cranial sinuses is most likely to occur;

a) during the descent.
b) among elderly passengers.
c) In the climb.
d) In persons with a history of cardio-vascular problems.
Ans. A

29. Motor programmes:

a) are stored as working rules in long term memory.
b) require conscious thought to engage.
c) an be retained for only a few minutes.
d) the behavioural sub routines.
Ans. D

30. During visual scanning the eye movements should be:

a) large and frequent.
b) Small and infrequent.
c) Small and frequent.
d) Large and infrequent.
Ans. C

44
16 (19-24) REVISION PAPERS HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 2

1. The `time of useful consciousness' for an individual experiencing rapid decompression at an altitude of 25,000 ft
is:
a) 45 - 75 seconds.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 2 minutes.
d) 12 seconds.
Ans. C

2. During scanning of both the instruments and the exterior, the approximate duration of a saccade is:
a) 0.1 seconds.
b) 1/3 second.
c) 1.0 second.
d) variable, depending on the angular difference between the two objects to be scanned.
Ans. B

3. Rule based behaviours are stored in the brain:

a) as sets of rules in long term memory.
b) as `bits' in the working memory.
c) as conditioned responses in motor programmes.
d) as rule giving automatic linkage between the semantic and working memories.
Ans. A

4. The cabin pressure in commercial pressurized aircraft is normally maintained at an equivalent atmospheric
pressure:
a) always equivalent to sea level.
b) normally not exceeding 2,000 to 3,000 feet.
c) normally not exceeding 6,000 to 8,000 feet.
d) normally not exceeding 10,000 to 12,000 feet.
Ans. C

5. `Environment capture' is the process whereby:

a) the pilot becomes fixated on the outside environment and neglects to monitor the instruments in the
cockpit.
b) the pilot keeps `head in cockpit' to an extreme degree and may therefore miss vital cues from the external
environment.
c) the pilot is unable to allocate priorities between the exterior and interior environments causing confusion
and the possibility of mistakes.
d) the fact of being at a particular stage of flight may cause an automatic response to checks when the
actions have not actually been completed.
Ans. D

6. At altitude the necessary oxygen requirements may be provided for normal respiration by an oxygen/air mix up
to:
a) 30,800 ft.
b) 40,000 ft.
c) 24,000 ft.
d) 33,700 ft.
Ans. D
7. The partial pressures of various gases in the alveoli differs from those in atmospheric air because:
a) chest muscles and diaphragm raise the lung pressure to above atmospheric pressure.
b) there is a significant increase of carbon dioxide and water vapour in the alveoli.
c) oxygen is removed at a higher rate from alveolar air than carbon dioxide replaces it.
d) the venturi effect of air passing through the trachea and bronchi causes a reduction of pressure in the
alveoli.
Ans. B

45
8. In respiration the functions of the nasal passages are to:
a) enable the detection of possible noxious gases and trigger the body's defences.
b) trap harmful particles and bacteria their mucous membranes so that they will not pass into the very
dedicate lung tissue.
c) filter, warm and humidify air drawn in during inspiration.
d) sample the air to enable the respiratory mechanism to adjust the rate and depth of breathing.
Ans. C

9. Any individual who has been SCUBA diving should avoid flying:
a) within 36 hours of the last dive.
b) within 24 hours or 48 hours if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded.
c) only after consultation with a doctor if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded.
d) within 12 hours, or 24 hours if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded.
Ans. D

10. The major factor in the general population which predisposes an individual to heart attack is:
a) family history.
b) smoking.
c) the amount of saturated fats in the diet.
d) hypertension (high blood pressure).
Ans. A

11. Loss of hearing due to damage or defects in the eardrum or auditory ossicles is;
a) presbycusis.
b) noise induced hearing loss (NIHL)
c) conductive deafness.
d) middle ear disconnection.
Ans. C

12. The common illusion created by linear acceleration or deceleration is:

a) a false banking sensation due to disturbance in the endolymph of the inner ear.
b) a combined pitch up and banking sensation.
c) a feeling of pitch up when the aircraft decelerates causing an automatic attempt to push the nose of the
aircraft down.
d) a pitch up feeling when the aircraft accelerates.
Ans. D

13. What means can be used to combat human error?

1) Reducing error-prone mechanisms.
2) Improving the way in which error is taken into account in training.
3) Sanctions against the initiators of errors.
4) Improving recovery from error and its consequences.
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 3 and 4.
b) 1 and 2.
c) 2, 3, and 4.
d) l , 2 and 4.
Ans. D

14. A system can be said to be tolerant of error when:

a) its safety system is too subject to error.
b) its safety system has taken into account all statistically probable errors.
c) the consequence of error will not seriously jeopardize safety.
d) latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety.
Ans. C

46
15. The physiological responses to high levels of stress are:
a) fear, anxiety, depression.
b) sweating, dryness of the mouth, breathing difficulties.
c) indecision, inattention, withdrawal.
d) temporary mental confusion, restlessness.
Ans. B

16. The term `atmospheric perspective' in aviation means:

a) a change in the attitude of the aircraft could lead to misinterpretation of the runway length.
b) the tendency for objects to become indistinct with distance.
c) the tendency of objects of certain colours to remain in view for longer periods during differing light
conditions.
d) the presence of a sloping cloud bank may be mistaken for a horizon, causing a pilot who is flying VMC
to bank the aircraft to align it with the cloud bank.
Ans. B

17. The `fight or flight' response occurs when:

a) a normal non-aggressive person suffers stress as result of shock, turns pale, trembles and chooses to flee
rather than fight.
b) in anger a person becomes red in the face, aggressive and chooses to fight rather than flee.
c) the sympathetic nervous system provides an individual with the resources to cope with a new and sudden
source of stress.
d) the parasympathetic nervous system provides extra resources for an individual to cope with a new and
sudden source of stress.
Ans. C
18. The working memory is limited in its capacity to store unrelated items. The number of such items that may be
stored with full attention is:
a) 7±2.
b) 7.
c) 5+2.
d) 4.
Ans. A
19. If information in the working memory is not rehearsed it will be lost in:
a) 1 to 2 minutes.
b) 8 to 12 seconds.
c) 5 to 10 minutes.
d) 10 to 20 seconds.
Ans. D
20. Anthropometry is:
a) the study of human behaviour in response to stress.
b) the study of sleep patterns and circadian rhythms.
c) the study of the relationship between man and his working environment
d) the study of human measurement.
Ans. D

21. In the event of a rapid decompression, the venturi effect of the airflow passing the fuselage may lead to:
a) a restriction of vision due to the sudden pressure drop causing water vapour to condense in the cabin.
b) the cabin altitude being at a higher altitude than the aircraft altitude.
c) a sudden rise in the skin temperature of the fuselage with the danger of igniting any fuel spillage.
d) a decrease in the rate at which the cabin depressurizes as the aircraft speed increases.
Ans. B

22. The generally accepted model for the acquisition of expertise or skill comprises three stages:
a) cognitive, associative and automatic.
b) cognitive, associative and expert.
c) associative, automatic and expert.
d) automatic, cognitive and expert.
Ans. A

47
23. According to Rasmussen's activity model, errors are of the following type in skill-based mode:
a) routine errors.
b) errors of technical knowledge.
c) handling errors.
d) creative errors.
Ans. A

24. Stress may be defined as:

a) a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in capabilities.
b) A psychological phenomenon which affects only fragile personalities.
c) A normal phenomenon that enables an individual to adapt to situations encountered.
d) A human reaction which individuals must manage to eliminate.
Ans. C

25. Which behaviour is most likely to promote a constructive solution to interpersonal conflicts?
a) responding with logical counter arguments.
b) steadfastly maintaining one's own point of view.
c) active listening.
d) surrendering one's own point of view.
Ans. C

26. The speed of any learning process can be increased by:

a) gradually increasing the psychological pressure on the students.
b) punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials
c) reinforcing successful trials.
d) reinforcing errors made during the learning process.
Ans. C

27. Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily:

a) speed of reaction.
b) the distribution of tasks and crew coordination.
c) strong situational awareness.
d) the whole crew to focus on the immediate problem.
Ans. B

28. Sinuses in the skull are required to:

a) act as a reservoir for those fluids necessary to maintain the mucous membranes of the respiratory system
in a healthy state.
b) provide a system that allows any sudden pressure changes to be over the whole skull.
c) act as a drain system to allow cranial fluids to maintain correct pressure during altitude changes.
d) to make the skull lighter and the voice resonant.
Ans. D

29. The red blood cells are produced in the body by:
a) the bone marrow.
b) The spleen when triggered by hormone secretion.
c) The liver and pancreas.
d) The liver and spleen.
Ans. A

30. On the retina of the eye, the rod cells are:

a) used primarily during daylight.
b) highly sensitive to colour changes.
c) sensitive to much lower light levels than the cone cells.
d) concentrated in the area of the fovea.
Ans. C

48
16 (25-30) REVISION PAPERS HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 3

1. The part of the retina with the highest visual acuity is:
a) the optic nerve entry point.
b) the fovea.
c) the retinal optical focus point.
d) the rod/cone balance point.
Ans. B

2. The effect on an individual of smoking 20 cigarettes a day is to increase the experienced altitude by:
a) 2 to 3 thousand feet.
b) 5 to 6 thousand feet.
c) A factor of about 20% of the ambient pressure.
d) 5 to 8 hundred feet.
Ans. B

3. Small amounts of carbon monoxide present in the air causes:

a) an improvement in the ability of the blood to carry oxygen.
b) A reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of the blood due to its blocking action on the diffusion of
oxygen through the walls of the alveoli.
c) A tarring and blackening of the lungs leading to a reduced ability to allow gas passage across the lung
surface.
d) A reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of the blood due to the much greater affinity of haemoglobin to
carbon monoxide than to oxygen.
Ans. D

4. Breathing 100% oxygen will supply sufficient oxygen for normal respiration up to an altitude of:
a) 24,000 ft.
b) 33,700 ft.
c) 10,000 ft.
d) 40,000 ft.
Ans. D

5. The effect of an increasing altitude on the gastro-intestinal tract may cause stretching of the small bowel if gas is
present. This possibility may be reduced by:
a) limiting the amounts of liquids taken during the flight to sufficient to relieve dryness of the mouth.
b) following a lifestyle which leads to regular bowel movement.
c) avoiding before flight the foodstuffs that cause the production of intestinal gases.
d) taking mild antacid tablets when the problem first arises.
Ans. C

6. One of the classes of effects of stress is cognitive stress. Cognitive effects can be identified as:
a) forgetfulness, lack of concentration, difficulty in `switching off
b) sleep disorders, increased heart rate and dry mouth.
c) sweating, mental block, disassociation.
d) fatigue, apathy, anxiety.
Ans. A

7. The composition of the atmosphere at sea level is 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1 % other gases. These proportions
will:
a) remain constant up to the tropopause.
b) remain constant up to about 70,000 feet.
c) vary as the aircraft climbs.
d) remain constant to about 20,000 feet when the proportion of oxygen will reduce considerably as more of
the oxygen will be converted to ozone.
Ans. B

49
8. The capacity of the working memory may be expanded by:
a) constant repetition of the material.
b) `chunking' the material.
c) immediate transfer of the material to the long term memory.
d) practice of the use of mnemonics as memory aids.
Ans. B

9. Professional languages have certain characteristics. They:

1) use a limited vocabulary (a maximum of about 500 words)
2) are rich and adapted to the context which sometimes leads to ambiguities.
3) have technical characteristics allowing them to have a strong syntax.
4) Have a context which provides meaning and reduces the risk of ambiguities.
The correct statement(s) is/are?
a) 4.
b) 1 and 3.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 1 and 4.
Ans. D

10. Discussing private matters in the cockpit:

a) decreases the captains role in leadership
b) should be avoided in flight.
c) Can improve team spirit
d) Is appropriate at any stage of the flight.
Ans. C

11. Co-action is a mode of coordination that involves:

a) working in parallel to achieve individual objectives with independent and unrelated aims.
b) sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight situations.
c) working in parallel to achieve one common objective, with independent but specified aims.
d) the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions.
Ans. C

12. A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should:

a) descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower
level.
b) decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms.
c) continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve pain in the affected site.
d) land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance.
Ans. D

13. A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircraft by:
a) minimising the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible:
b) moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object.
c) maximising the tim spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement.
d) maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft a relying on peripheral vision to detect any
movement from the side.
Ans. A

14. The temperature range of a flight deck to be comfortable should be:

a) 15°C to 30°C with a relative humidity of 40 - 60%
b) l 0°C to 25°C with a relative humidity of 20 - 30%
c) 15°C to 30°C with a relative humidity of 70 - 80%
d) 30°C to 40°C with a relative humidity of 30 - 40%
Ans. A

50
15. Confirmation bias:
a) tends to make the pilot accept information that confirms his diagnosis of a situation and reject
information that does not fit into his theory.
b) Makes the pilot look for the most probable solution to a problem to avoid using the full checklist.
c) Will cause the pilot to believe in a particular solution if the other crew members agree with him.
d) Is the reinforcement of any idea by any past experience of a similar problem.
Ans. A

16. The four primary flight instruments arranged in the standard `T' consists of:
a) ASI, AH/FDI, ALT, T'SLIP.
b) ASI, AH/FDI, DI/RMI, RMI.
c) ASI, AH/FDI, ALT, DI/HIS.
d) ASI, ALT, DI/HIS, RMI.
Ans. C

17. The sunglasses used by a pilot should have a luminance transmittance of:
a) 50 to 60%.
b) 10 to 15%.
c) 20 to 40%.
d) 5 to 8%.
Ans. B

18. The time of useful consciousness when suffering an explosive decompression at 40,000 ft is:
a) 1 minute.
b) 2 to 3 minutes.
c) 45 to 75 seconds.
d) about 12 seconds.
Ans. D

19. The greatest source of incapacitation in flight is:

a) motion sickness.
b) heart attack or circulatory problems.
c) acute gastro-enteritis.
d) spatial disorientation.
Ans. C

20. The heart muscle requires its own blood supply. This is provided by:
a) the pulmonary artery.
b) direct diffusion from the interior of the heart.
c) the aortic arch.
d) the coronary arteries.
Ans. D

21. Raised blood pressure (hypertension) is the main risk factor in the development of:
a) strokes.
b) angina.
c) coronary infarcts.
d) ferric haemoglobin poisoning.
Ans. A

22. A man is considered to be overweight if his Body Mass Index (BMI) is over:
a) 20.
b) 25.
c) 30.
d) 35.
Ans. B

51
23. Physical stimuli received by the sensory organs may be stored for a brief period of time after the input has
ceased. The visual and auditory sensory stores are:
a) visual - echoic memory lasting about o.5 to 1 second. auditory - iconic memory lasting up to 7 seconds.
b) auditory - echoic lasting 2 to 8 seconds. visual - iconic lasting 0.5 to 1 second.
c) visual - iconic lasing 2 to 8 seconds auditory - echoic lasting 0.5 to 1 second.
d) visual - iconic lasting 3 to 4 seconds. auditory - echoic about 3 to 8 seconds.
Ans. B

24. Thinking on human reliability is changing. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive functions of humans and are
generally inescapable.
b) human errors can be avoided. It will however extending one's knowledge and extreme vigilance.
c) the individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view.
d) it is believed that it will be possible to eliminate all errors in the future.
Ans. A

25. How would one interpret the following statement; `one cannot avoid communication'?
a) every situation requires communication.
b) One can not influence one's own communications.
c) Being silent or inactive are also non-verbal behaviour patterns that are meaningful.
d) Differences in language or culture may prevent any meaningful communication.
Ans. C

26. Information in the short term memory:

a) is not affected by the arrival of new information.
b) is only retained for 2 to 3 minutes.
c) can be retained for long periods.
d) must be actively rehearsed to ensure long term retention.
Ans. D

27. The permanent denial of a flying licence will be the be the result of the pilot suffering from:
a) depression.
b) anxiety and phobic states.
c) obsessional disorders.
d) schizophrenia or manic depression.
Ans. D

28. A function of the vestibular apparatus is to:

a) assist in maintaining spatial orientation.
b) control motion sickness.
c) maintain visual orientation.
d) enhance hearing ability, especially at high frequencies.
Ans. A

29. The amount of stress experienced with a particular task is dependent on:
a) the actual demand and the actual ability.
b) the perceived demand and the actual ability.
c) the actual demand and the perceived ability.
d) the perceived demand and the perceived ability.
Ans. D

30. An excessive noise level would increase reaction and performance:

a) during periods of low arousal.
b) during periods of high arousal
c) never.
d) during periods of boredom or fatigue.
Ans. C

52
16 (31-36)REVISION PAPERS HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 4

1. An individual who has consumed a moderate amount of alcohol prior to sleep is likely to have:
a) a longer sleep.
b) less REM sleep.
c) more slow wave sleep.
d) more REM sleep.
Ans. B

2. If a pilot's seat is set too low on the approach, the effect would be to:
a) obscure the overshoot.
b) obscure the flight instruments.
c) obscure the undershoot.
d) all of the above.
Ans. C

3. In the late stages of an approach, ground proximity is judged by:

a) colour and contrast of ground features.
b) position of the aircraft nose relative to the horizon.
c) texture and relative speed of ground features.
d) position of the aircraft nose relative to the visual aiming point.
Ans. C

4. Which of the following graphs represents the relationship between arousal and performance?
a) Inverted "U"
b) "U" shaped
c) Straight line rising at 45° angle
d) Straight line descending at 45° angle
Ans. A

5. An individual's performance is adversely affected by:

a) high arousal state.
b) low arousal state
c) neither high nor low arousal state.
d) both high and low arousal states.
Ans. D

6. Following a sudden decompression at 30,000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be:
a) 2 minutes.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 12 seconds.
d) 4 to 5 minutes.
Ans. B

7. A motor programme is:

a) one that is based on knowledge and experience.
b) the way that a checklist is actioned.
c) one that requires conscious thought throughout its action.
d) one that is learned by practice and repetition and which may be executed without conscious thought.
Ans. D

8. The main factor in the focussing of the human eye is:

a) the cornea.
b) the lens.
c) the iris.
d) the internal fluid in the eyeball.
Ans. A

53
9. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Poor communications are of little significance in incidents and accidents.
b) Coding communication behaviour improves flight safety.
c) Interpersonal communications have little significance in the modern cockpit as all situations are covered
by manuals.
d) Problems in the personal relations between crew members hamper their communication process.
Ans. D

10. In decision making the decision of an average group member is usually:

a) worse than the group decision.
b) better than the group decision.
c) the same as the group decision.
d) excluded from the group decision.
Ans. A

11. Referring to the Body Mass Index, a man weighing 81 kg. Who is 175 cm tall would be:
a) considered to be within the normal weight range.
b) considered to be overweight.
c) considered to be obese.
d) considered to be underweight.
Ans. B

12. Once an individual has made a decision regarding a situation, he is most likely to:
a) give too much weight to information that tends to confirm the original decision.
b) give equal weight to information that confirms or contradicts that decision.
c) give insufficient weight to information that confirms the original decision.
d) give too much weight to information that goes against the original decision
Ans. A

13. An individual's body temperature will be at its lowest at:

a) 0900 body time.
b) 2300 body time.
c) 0500 body time.
d) 1100 body time.
Ans. C

14. Hypertension is:

a) a high level of stress.
b) low blood pressure.
c) a high workload.
d) high blood pressure.
Ans. D

15. A pilot suffering disorientation should:

a) rely on the vestibular apparatus.
b) Rely on his somatosensory system (`seat of the pants').
c) Line up with a visual reference (e.g. horizon).
d) Re-erect the flight instruments.
Ans. C

16. An individual with an introverted personality is likely to be:

a) cautious.
b) Sociable.
c) Uninhibited.
d) Outgoing.
Ans. A

54
17. During a general briefing at the preflight stage the captain should emphasise.
a) the complete delegation of all duties.
b) the importance of crew coordination.
c) the priority of departing on schedule.
d) the avoidance of inadequate handling of controls.
Ans. B

18. Mental training is helpful in improving flying skills:

a) mainly for student pilots.
b) mainly for pilots undertaking instructional duties.
c) at all levels of flying experience.
d) only when the student has reached a certain level of flying experience.
Ans. C

19. The response by the receiver to the sender by confirming the reception of the message is:
a) synchronization.
b) redundancy.
c) transference.
d) feedback.
Ans. D

20. The group of small bones (the ossicles) in the ear:

a) transmit air vibrations from the outer ear to the middle ear.
b) convert vibrations in the inner ear to small electric currents for detection by the auditory nerve.
c) convert air vibrations to vibrations in the liquid of the cochlea.
d) transmit vibrations of the ear drum to the semi-circular canals of the inner ear.
Ans. C

21. Gastro-enteritis would prevent an individual from flying as a crew member:

a) always.
b) possibly, if severe.
c) if not treated by an aviation specialist doctor.
d) never.
Ans. A

22. An ideal leader would be:

a) goal directed and person directed.
b) goal directed only.
c) person directed only.
d) neither goal nor person directed, but moderate and accommodating.
Ans., A

23. The severity of noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is determined by:
a) the volume of noise experienced.
b) the duration of high noise levels experienced.
c) a break down in the conducting system of the ear.
d) the volume and duration of the noise experienced.
Ans. D

24. Which of the following diseases causes the greatest number of deaths each year?
a) Bubonic plague.
b) Malaria.
c) AIDS.
d) Smallpox.
Ans. B

55
25. The time elapsed before flying as crew or passenger after diving using compressed air if a depth of over 30 ft has
been exceeded is:
a) 48 hours.
b) 12 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) No limitation.
Ans. C

26. The major contribution to our perception of orientation is:

a) the visual sense.
b) the vestibular apparatus.
c) our previous experience.
d) the somato-sensory system.
Ans. A

27. An authoritarian individual tends to be:

a) a weak leader and bad underling.
b) a forceful leader and a good underling.
c) a forceful leader and a submissive underling.
d) a weak leader but a good underling.
Ans. C

28. If an individual is awakened after a short sleep, then the next period of sleep will:
a) be a normal sleep pattern.
b) contain a higher than normal amount of REM sleep.
c) contain a greater proportion of slow wave sleep.
d) contain more stages one and two sleep.
Ans. B

29. Human behaviour is determined by which of the following?

a) Biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences.
b) Biological characteristics.
c) The social environment.
d) Cultural influences and heredity.
Ans. A

30. What are the various means which allow for better detection of errors`?
1. Improvement of the man-machine interface.
2. Development of systems for checking the consistency of situations.
3. Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures on the part of crews.
4. Adaptation of visual alarms for all systems.
The correct statements are:
a) 1 and 3.
b) 2,3 and 4.
c) 1,2 and 3.
d) 3 and 4.
Ans. C

56
16 (37-42)REVISION PAPERS HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 5

1. With regard to communication in cockpits, which of the following statements is correct?

a) Communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload element to
be carried out at the same time.
b) Communication uses resources, thus limiting resources allocated to work in progress.
c) Communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit their number.
d) All the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc are stable and
are not much affected changes in workload.
Ans. B

2. The term `attitudes' is used to describe:

a) the predisposition for acting in a particular manner.
b) a synonym for ability.
c) a synonym for behaviour.
d) the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity.
Ans. A

3. Stress management is:

a) the effect on an individual in a managerial, or other responsible, position of the pressures of that job.
b) the stress upon an employee caused by the pressures imposed by the management or his superiors at
work.
c) the process by which individuals adopt systems to assist in coping with stress.
d) the use of a process, such as relaxation techniques, to remove the stress source.
Ans. C

4. Individuals are more likely to comply with a decision made a person who they perceive as:
a) larger than they are.
b) of a higher status.
c) having a better education than themselves.
d) being of a greater age.
Ans. B

5. A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can:

a) continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment.
b) never fly again as an operating pilot.
c) fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot.
d) return to flying duties after a suitable course of treatment is complete.
Ans. D

6. Risky shift is:

a) the tendency for extroverts to take more risks than introverts.
b) the tendency for military pilots to take more risks than civilian pilots.
c) the tendency of a group to make a more risky decision than the average individual within the group.
d) the tendency for individuals to take more risky decisions when transferred to a different aircraft type.
Ans. C

7. Very high ambition and a need for achievement:

a) meets the requirement for stress resistance.
b) disturbs the climate of cooperation.
c) always promotes effective teamwork.
d) makes it easier for an individual to cope with personal failures.
Ans. B
8. Reducing alcohol in an individual's blood:
a) is only achieved by the passage of time.
b) can be accelerated by the use of coffee or other drinks containing caffeine.
c) is more rapid when the individual is a regular alcohol user.
d) can be speeded up by the use of medication.
Ans. A

57
9. Long or short sightedness is normally caused by:
a) distortion of the cornea.
b) the shape of the whole eyeball.
c) distortion of the lens.
d) a malfunction of the iris.
Ans. B

10. Barotrauma caused by the inability of the eustachian tube to equalize external and internal pressure in the
descent will lead to a pressure difference between the outside air and:
a) the inner ear.
b) the vestibular apparatus.
c) the middle ear.
d) the cochlea.
Ans. C

11. `Environment capture' may lead to:

a) errors of rule based behaviour.
b) errors of knowledge based behaviour.
c) errors of semantic memory.
d) errors of skill based behaviour.
Ans. D

12. A runway that slopes downwards when approaching may induce the pilot to:
a) land long into the runway.
b) make a shallow approach.
c) land short.
d) go around.
Ans. A

13. When a pilot has no external visual references, a deceleration in straight and level flight can give the impression
of:
a) the nose of the aircraft pitching up.
b) the nose of the aircraft pitching down.
c) a sudden height loss.
d) a banking of the aircraft.
Ans. B

14. Episodic memory is:

a) a memory of events, held in short term memory.
b) a memory of information, held in short term memory.
c) a memory of information, held in long term memory.
d) a memory of events, held in long term memory.
Ans. D

15. The use of alcohol, drugs or tobacco to counter the effects of stress is an example of:
a) action coping
b) cognitive coping.
c) symptom directed coping.
d) bio-feedback technique.
Ans. C

16. A cockpit warning of an emergency should:

a) startle to gain attention.
b) illuminate a flashing red light.
c) make a noise symptomatic of the problem
d) be attention getting without being startling.
Ans. D

58
17. In processing information an attentional mechanism is required because:
a) working memory has a limited capacity.
b) processing capacity is limited.
c) echoic and iconic memories have a very short retention time.
d) it will activate a selection from episodic or semantic memory.
Ans. B

18. The function of slow wave sleep is believed to be:

a) a period of rest to allow restoration of the body tissues.
b) a period to rest and refresh the mind.
c) a period when vivid dreams can take place.
d) help in the learning process especially if a new or difficult procedures have been learned during the day.
Ans. A

19. A pilot is rostered for the following duty period:

Awake 0700 UTC
Depart 1000 UTC
Leg time10 hours
Local time UTC + 7 hours
Off duty 24 hours
Next leg 10 hours
The best rest pattern for time on the ground would be:
a) keep in time with UTC during stop for sleep times and nap for 2 - 3 hours before call.
b) do not sleep until 8 - 9 hours before call.
c) stay awake for 2 to 3 hours after landing, sleep for 3 to 4 hours then stay awake until 8 hours before call.
d) after 1 hours unwind time sleep for 8 hours then ensure 3 - 4 hours sleep prior to call.
Ans. C

20. The iconic memory is the visual store of the short term memory. It will hold information for:
a) 5 to 8 seconds.
b) 0.5 to 1 minute.
c) 10 to 15 seconds.
d) 0.5 to 1 second.
Ans. D

21. Oxygen is carried in the blood:

a) in combination with haemoglobin in the white blood cells.
b) dissolved in the plasma.
c) as microscopic bubbles attached to blood platelets.
d) within the red blood cells.
Ans. D

22. Anthropomorphic data table measurements should be taken from:

a) a large selection of the general population static and dynamic measurements.
b) a specific population using static measurements.
c) a large selection of the general population using static measurements.
d) a specific population using dynamic and static measurements.
Ans. D

23. Situational insomnia is:

a) an inability to sleep in normal favourable conditions.
b) a condition which may be eased by taking many short naps.
c) an inability to sleep due to circadian disrhythmia.
d) an inability to sleep due to environmental noise.
Ans. C

59
24. Sleep apnoea:
a) occurs more often in older individuals.
b) occurs when an individual cannot prevent falling asleep even when in sleep credit.
c) most often occur during REM sleep.
d) is a cessation of breathing whilst asleep.
Ans. D

25. If colours are used in a cockpit display, yellow should signify:

a) it is acceptable to proceed to the next stage of a process.
b) advisory information.
c) non-critical functions.
d) an alert.
Ans. B

26. In standardised controls a handle used to open a valve should:

a) always rotate in an anti-clockwise direction.
b) only rotate anti-clockwise if placed on an overhead panel.
c) rotate clockwise if used from the left hand seat and anti-clockwise if used from the right hand seat.
d) always rotate clockwise.
Ans. A

27. `Body language' on the flight deck should:

a) not be used.
b) be restricted to non-aggressive facial expressions.
c) used to supplement oral communication.
d) never used to touch an individual.
Ans. C

28. A circular instrument with a fixed pointer and a moving scale is:
a) an analogue display.
b) Ideal for displaying range information.
c) Ideal for displaying bearing information.
d) A digital display instrument.
Ans. A

29. A pilot is permitted to use bi-focal contact lenses:

a) only during the cruise stage of the flight.
b) never when flying.
c) only when a pair of bi-focal spectacles are carried for emergency use.
d) only when flying in daylight hours in VNIC conditions.
Ans. B

30. Donating blood by an operating flight deck crew member is:

a) permitted, subject to at least 24 hours elapsing before one's next flight.
b) not permitted for aircrew who are actively flying.
c) only permitted within 12 hours of one's next flight when cleared by a qualified aviation doctor.
d ) allowable with no restrictions on subsequent flying.
Ans. A

60
16 (43-48)REVISION PAPERS HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 6

1. Hyperventilation:
a) is unlikely below 2000 feet.
b) is likely to result in death if not corrected.
c) may be caused by having too little carbon dioxide in the blood.
d) can result from an inadequate partial pressure of oxygen.
Ans. C

2. Following the donation of bone marrow a pilot may not operate an aircraft for:
a) 72 hours.
b) 48 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) 12 hours.
Ans. B

3. The bronchi:
a) split from the trachea to the left and right lungs.
b) are easily damaged during rapid decompression.
c) are thin sacs which allow the passage of gases from the lungs to the blood.
d) connect the middle ear to the nose/throat to allow pressure equalization during climb and descent.
Ans. A

4. On the retina of the eye, the rod cells are:

a) used primarily during daylight.
b) highly sensitive to colour changes particularly those at the blue end of the spectrum.
c) sensitive to much lower light levels than the cone cells.
d) concentrated in the area of the fovea.
Ans. C

5. Light levels at high altitude may be considered dangerous because:

a) they cause the pupil to contract thereby reducing peripheral vision.
b) they will cause excessive glare in the windscreen reflections.
c) the associated closing of the iris will tend to focus the light on to the optic nerve.
d) they contain more high energy blue and ultra violet light.
Ans. D

6. Long sightedness is normally caused by:

a) the eyeball being shorter than normal.
b) the retina being too concave.
c) the eyeball being longer than normal.
d) the retina being too convex.
Ans. A

7. The most obvious sign of an individual suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning is:
a) muscular impairment.
b) cyanosis of the lips and fingernails.
c) sensory loss, particularly tunneling of vision.
d) cherry red lips and flushed cheeks.
Ans. D

8. Decompression sickness is caused by:

a) lack of oxygen at high cabin altitudes.
b) the presence of carbon monoxide from leaking exhausts.
c) nitrogen bubbles coming out of solution in the blood to form bubbles in the body tissues.
d) overbreathing, thereby exceeding the breathing rate needed to maintain the correct amount of carbon-
dioxide in the blood.
Ans. C

61
9. When on a collision course with an aircraft on a reciprocal track, the apparent size of the approaching aircraft:
a) does not change.
b) increases only slowly and moves only slowly across the windscreen.
c) is easier to detect if the pilot continually moves his/her head.
d) increases very rapidly just prior to impact.
Ans. D

10. The body's internal biological clocks take longer to adjust to local time when flying:
a) East.
b) West.
c) North.
d) South.
Ans. A

11. A blocked Eustachian tube:

a) can cause severe pain in the descent.
b) is not a problem when flying in a modern pressurized aircraft.
c) normally only causes severe pain during the climb.
d) can cause problems with balancing the pressures the inner ear and the outside air.
Ans. A

12. A function of the vestibular apparatus is to:

a) enhance hearing ability, especially at high frequencies.
b) control motion sickness.
c) maintain spatial awareness.
d) maintain visual orientation.
Ans. C

13. The permanent denial of a flying licence will be the result of a pilot suffering from:
a) anxiety and phobic states.
b) schizophrenia and manic depression.
c) obsessional disorders.
d) depression.
Ans. B

14. A trained pilot, observing an aircraft accident, will, in comparison to a lay observer:
a) have a much better recollection of the events.
b) be a reliable expert witness at any accident inquiry.
c) have stronger expectations about likely set of events.
d) automatically discount any any previous accident experience.
Ans. C

15. During visual glide slope maintenance the pilot selects an aiming point on the runway. He will know he is
maintaining the correct path if:
a) the texture flow is parallel to the point and the visual angle between the point and the horizon remains
constant.
b) there is no texture flow in the vicinity of the point and the visual angle remains constant.
c) the texture flow is away from the point and the visual angle remains constant.
d) the texture flow is towards the aiming point and the visual angle remains constant.
Ans. C

16. The amount of stress experienced with a particular task is dependent on:
a) the actual demands of the task and the pilot's perception of his ability.
b) the perceived demands of the task and the pilot's actual ability.
c) the actual demands of the task and the pilot's actual ability.
d) the perceived demands of the task and the pilot's perception of his ability.
Ans. D

62
17. The alerting system for an important system failure should be fulfilled by:
a) an audio warning.
b) a flashing red light.
c) a large dolls-eye indicator.
d) a steady bright red light.
Ans. A

18. The cycle of REM sleep and stages 1 to 4 sleep occurs:

a) about every hour.
b) about every 90 minutes with REM sleep and slow wave sleep equally balanced in each cycle.
c) about every 90 minutes with the majority of REM sleep taking place in the early cycles.
d) about every 90 minutes with the majority of slow wave sleep taking place in the first two cycles.
Ans. D

19. One of the problems encountered when using a routine checklist is:
a) the use of coloured pages to highlight emergency information is rendered useless in low light conditions.
b) the use of mixed upper and lower case characters makes the checklist difficult to read in turbulent
conditions.
c) too much information in the lists removes the need for pilots to know their immediate actions.
d) individual responses may become automatic rather than diligent.
Ans. D

20. Situational awareness may well be inhibited by the introduction of:

a) computer generated checklists.
b) `intelligent' flight decks.
c) pre-recorded voice warnings.
d) moving tape displays.
Ans. B

21. The elapsed time to be allowed before flying, when one has been diving using compressed air to a depth of 20
feet, is:
a) no restriction.
b) 12 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) 36 hours.
Ans. B

22. During visual search the duration of an eye movement/rest cycle (saccade) is:
a) 1 second.
b) 0.2 seconds.
c) 0.33 seconds.
d) 0.75 seconds.
Ans. C

23. The normal reaction time for a simple response to a single stimulus is about:
a) 1 second.
b) 0.5 second.
c) 0.2 seconds.
d) 0.75 seconds.
Ans. C

24. With no visual references outside the cockpit the human eye will normally adjust to a focal length of:
a) infinity.
b) less than 2 metres.
c) about 5 metres.
d) a few centimetres.
Ans. B

63
25. The greatest source of incapacitation in flight is:
a) acute gastro-enteritis.
b) angina.
c) malaria.
d) heart attack.
Ans. A

26. Presbycusis is:

a) the deterioration of hearing as the result of the normal aging process.
b) loss of hearing due to excessive noise levels.
c) deterioration of vision due to the normal aging process.
d) deterioration in vision due to the formation of cataracts in the cornea.
Ans. A

27. Low blood pressure (hypotension) can have the following harmful effect:
a) it can increase the chances of developing a stroke.
b) It can be a major factor in the development of a heart attack.
c) It can reduce the ability of an individual to withstand high positive G forces.
d) It encourages the formation of cholesterol within the blood.
Ans. C

28. At sea level the percentage of oxygen within the alveoli of the lungs is about:
a) 78%.
b) 40%.
c) 21%.
d) 14%.
Ans. D

29. In communications one `bit' is the quantity of information which.

a) can be contained in one sentence.
b) can be transmitted by verbal communication only
c) reduces the uncertainty of the receiver by 50%.
d) can be transferred by non-verbal communication only.
Ans. C

30. The term `Synergy' is the state:

a) where the individual performance exceeds the performance of the group.
b) where the group performance exceeds the sum of the individual performances.
c) where the group performance is dependent on the leadership style of individuals within the group.
d) of increase in reasoning power when extra oxygen is supplied at a time of emergency.
Ans. B

64
17 (1- 47) HUMAN PERFORMANCE SPECIMEN QUESTIONS
SPECIMEN QUESTIONS

1. Which instrument, which was introduced in the 1980's, led to the greatest reduction of accidents ?
a. SSR
b. DME
c. GPWS
d. TCAS
Ans. C

2. Accidents are caused by lack of

a. good judgment
b. safe maintenance of aircraft
c. interpersonal relations
d. physical and mental skills
Ans. A

3. Who is responsible for Air Safety

a. Aircrew and Ground Crew
b. Aircrew, Groundcrew and Management
c. Everyone involved
d. Aircrew only
Ans. C

4. Human factors have been statistically proved to contribute approximately

a. 50% of aircraft accidents
b. 70% of aircraft accidents
c. 90% of aircraft accidents
d. Have not played a significant role in aircraft accidents
Ans. B

5. Having given blood a pilot should see a doctor because of the increased susceptibility to
a. Hypoxia
b. Low blood pressure
c. Hyperventilation
d. DCS
Ans. A

6. The body get its energy from

1. Minerals
2. Carbohydrates
3. Protein
4. Vitamins
a. 1 & 4 only
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 1,2 & 4
d. 3 & 4 only
Ans. B

7. Haemoglobin is
a. Dissolved in the blood
b. In red blood cells
c. In white cells of the blood
d. In the platelets
Ans. B

65
8. A pilot should consult an Aviation Medicine specialist before donating blood because:
a. Donation may lead to a rise in blood pressure (Hypertension)
b. Donation may lead to a lowering of blood pressure (Hyperension)
c. Donation may lead to a reduced tolerance of altitude
d. Donation may lead to a lowering of the body temperature causing unpredictable sleepiness
Ans. C

9. With a pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml, what is the cardiac output ?
a. 8 litres a minute
b. 6 litres a minute
c. 5 litres a minute
d. 7 litres a minute
Ans. C

10. Having donated blood aircrew should

a. rest supine for at least 1 hour, drink plenty of fluids and not fly for 48 hours
b. rest supine for about 15 - 20 minutes, drink plenty of fluids and not fly for 24 hours
c. Aircrew are prohibited from donating blood
d. Aircrew are not encouraged to give blood
Ans. B

11. Blood from the pulmonary artery is ?

a. Rich in Oxygen and low in carbon dioxide
b. Rich in Oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide
c. Low in Oxygen and low in carbon dioxide
d. Low in Oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide
Ans. D

12. Smoking reduces the blood's ability to carry oxygen because

a. The inspiratory tract becomes obstructed
b. CO2 takes a larger lung volume
c. Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for CO
d. CO gets trapped in the alveoli and restricts internal respiration
Ans. C

13. A person is suffering from anaemia when

a. Lacking haemoglobin
b Lacking platelets
c. Lacking blood plasma
d. Lacking white blood cells
Ans. A

14. The average heart beat is

a. 30 - 50 beats a minute
b. 70 - 80 beats a minute
c 90 - 95 beats a minute
d. 100 - 1 10 beats a minute
Ans. B

15. When blood pressure is measured during an aviation medical examination, the pressure is
a. The venous pressure
b. The pressure of 02 in the blood
c. The pressure in all of the blood vessels, being representative of the pressure over the whole body
d. Arterial pressure in the upper arm, being equivalent to that of the heart
Ans. D

66
16. If someone is hyperventilating, the blood contains too much
a. acid
b. alkaline
c. CO1
d. haemoglobin
Ans. A

17. What is the carcinogenic substance in cigarettes that can modify cells and cause cancer
a. Tar
b. Nicotine
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Lead
Ans. A

18. As a result of hyperventilation the blood becomes

a. More acid
b. More alkaline
c. More saturated with CO2
d. Less saturated with oxygen
Ans. B

19. The blood of the pulmonary artery is

a. rich in oxygen and lacking in CO2
b. rich in oxygen and rich in CO2
c. lacking in oxygen and rich in CO2
d. lacking in oxygen and lacking in CO2
Ans. C

20. The oxygen-carrying capacity of a smoker who smokes 20 to 30 cigarettes a day is reduced by approximately
a. 8 - 10%
b. 12 - 18%
c. 20 - 25%
d. 0.2 - 2%
Ans. A

21. The effects of carbon monoxide

a. increases with altitude
b. decreases with altitude
c. increases with increase of density
d. decreases with pressure loss
Ans. A

22. What happens to the Systolic blood pressure if peripheral resistance is increased ?
a. Systolic blood pressure rises
b. Systolic blood pressure decreases
c. Systolic blood pressure is unaffected
d. Systolic blood pressure initially decreases and then increases
Ans. A

23. The walls of the capillaries of the lungs are permeable to

a. vitamins
b. proteins
c. gases
d. red blood cells
Ans. C

67
24. An increase in the pulse rate can be caused by
1. stress and fear
2. vitamin D
3. physical exercise
4. shortage of oxygen in the early stages of hypoxia
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
Ans. B

25. What is the main factor concerning smoking that reduces the red bloods cells' capability to carry oxygen ?
a. nicotine
b. tar
c. carbon Monoxide
d. carbon Dioxide
Ans. C

26. The rate of breathing is controlled by

a. the amount of CO2 in the blood
b. partial pressure
c. differential of concentration levels
d. the heart rate
Ans. A

27. The pressoreceptors have signalled low blood pressure. The body's response is to :
1. increase rate of breathing
2. increase cardiac output
3. increase heart rate
4. relaxation of the blood vessels
5. decrease heart rate
6. tightening of the blood vessels
a. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4
b. 2 , 3 and 6
c. 4 and 5 only
d. 1 , 3 and 4
Ans. B

28. Circulation of the blood is for :

1. Transportation of oxygen to the cells of the body
2. Withdrawal of the waste products from the cells
3. Convey nutrients to the cells
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 , 2 and 3
Ans. D

29. Which is the following actions is the most efficient to accelerate the release of Carbon Monoxide from the blood
?
a. Inhalation of pressurized oxygen
b. Inhalation of a mixture of unpressurized oxygen and air
c. Inhalation of pressurized carbon dioxide
d. Inhalation of a mixture of unpressurised carbon dioxide and air
Ans. A

68
30. Which of the following s correct concerning O2 and blood is correct ?
a. The resistance and the efficiency of the cells
b. Cardiac input and the resistance of the capillaries
c. Cell output and the thinness of the blood
d. Cardiac output and the resistance of the capillaries
Ans. D

31. Which of the following is correct concerning O2 and blood is correct ?

a. Arterial blood is darker than venous blood
b. Blood plasma is oxygenated at the heart
c. Diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli to the dependent on the partial pressure
d. Diffusion from the blood to the cells is dependent on the partial pressure of oxygen (diffusion at the
tissue and alveolar levels is related to partial pressure)
Ans. D

32. DCS is caused by

a. Oxygen coming out of solution
b. Carbon dioxide coming out of solution
c. Nitrogen coming out of solution
d. Carbon Monoxide coming out of solution
Ans. C

33. What law governs the oxygen transfer at the alveoli ?

a. Boyle's
b. Charles's
c. Henry's
d. Gas Diffusion Law - Fick's Law
Ans. D

34. Which of the following symptoms marks the beginning of hyperventilation ?

a. Slow heart beat
b. Cyanosis
c. Dizzy feeling
d. Slow rate of breath
Ans. C

35. Which of the following is true with respect to the cause of DCS
a. Altitudes above 18,000 ft in an unpressurised aircraft
b. Altitudes above 5,000 ft
c. Climbing at more than 500 ft/min to altitude greater than 18,000 ft.
d. Temperatures greater than 24-C at altitudes of over 2,000 ft.
Ans. A

36. Dalton's Law is associated with

a. DCS
b. Bends
c. Creeps
d. Hypoxia
Ans. D

37. Carbon Monoxide

a. Can have a severe affect on a pilot's abilities when receiving exposure for a relatively short period of
time
b. Does not have an effect when the body becomes used to the gas over a long period of time
c. Has no affect on the human body
d. Is not toxic
Ans. A

69
38. What is the normal tidal volume ?
a. 750 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 150 m1
d. 250 m1
Ans. B

39. The contents of exhaled air contains

a. less water vapour than the inhaled air
b. more nitrogen than the inhaled air
c. more oxygen than the inhaled air
d. more C02 than the inhaled air
Ans. D

4O. Boyle's Law has a role to play in

a. Hypoxia with increased altitude
b. DCS
c. Gastro-Intestinal Tract Barotrauma
d. Night vision
Ans. C

41. A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by
a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around
b. Land regardless of the weather
c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
d. Declare a Mayday
Ans. C

42. What chemical substance in tobacco causes addiction ?

a. Tar and nicotine
b. Tar and carbon monoxide
c. Nicotine and carbon monoxide
d. Nicotine
Ans. D

43. The composition of the atmosphere at 21,000 ft is approximately

a. 78% He, 21% O2 and 1 % CO
b. 78% He, 21 % O, and 0.003% CO, + traces
c. 78% N, 21 % O2 and 1 % CO2 + traces
d. 78% N, 21 % O2 and 1 % CO + traces
Ans. C

44. Which of the following factors decrease resistance to DCS ?

1. Body height
2. Scuba diving
3. Obesity
4. Age
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. l, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
Ans. D

70
45. Among the symptoms of hypoxia are
1. Impaired judgment
2. Fast and heavy breathing
3. Impairment of vision
4. Muscular impairment
a. 1&3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. D

46. A few hours after landing a pilot feels pain in his/her joints. The correct action is
a. Take exercise which will cause the pain to disappear
b. Take physiotherapy
c. See an Aviation Medical Specialist as soon as possible
d. Ignore it since is probably due to common after-effect of height
Ans. C

47. TUC following loss of pressurization at 35,000 ft is

a. 3 - 4 minutes
b. 5 minutes upwards
c. 30 - 60 seconds
d. 10 - 15 seconds
Ans. C

48. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct

1. Euphoria is a possible result of hypoxia
2. Euphoria can lead to degraded decisions in flight
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. Neither
Ans. A

49. Which of the following are defined in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere ?
1. Pressure
2. Temperature
3. Density
4. Humidity
a. 1, 2 & 4
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 , 3 & 4
d. 1 , 2 & 3
Ans. D

50. 100% oxygen without pressure can be used up to:

a. 50,000 ft
b. 40,000 ft
c. 60,000 ft
d. 70,000 ft
Ans. B

71
51. Which of the following statements are correct ? DCS can be avoided by:
1. Staying below 18000 ft
2. Maintaining cabin pressure below 8000 ft
3. Breathing 100% oxygen 30 minutes prior to and during flight
4. Exercising before and during flight
a. All correct
b. 1, 2 & 3 correct
c. All wrong
d. 2, 3 & 4 correct
Ans. B

52. At what altitude is pressure half that at MSL

a. 8000 ft
b. 10000 ft
c. 18000 ft
d. 36000 ft
Ans. C

53. On expiration there is

a. Higher C02 content than on intake
b. More oxygen content than on intake
c. Less water vapour content than on intake
d. The same C02 content as on intake
Ans. A

54. The Critical Zone of hypoxia begins at

a. 18,000 ft
b. 20,000 ft
c. 23,000 ft
d. 3,600 ft
Ans. B

55. TUC is dependent upon

1. Rate of decompression
2. Altitude of the occurrence
3. Type of aircraft
4. Activity of the pilot
5. Personal health
a. 1 , 2 & 3
b. All of the above
c. All except 3
d. 2 , 3 & 5
Ans. C

56. Under normal conditions which gas diffuses from the blood to the alveoli ?
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon Dioxide
c. Carbon Monoxide
d. Nitrogen
Ans. B

57. Under normal conditions, external respiration is a subconscious process that occurs at a rate of
a. 20 to 30 breaths/min, averaging 25 breaths/minute
b. 30 to 40 breaths/min, averaging 35 breaths/minute
c. 15 to 25 breaths/min, averaging 20 breaths/minute
d. 12 to 20 breaths/min, averaging 16 breaths/minute
Ans. D

72
58. A person who smokes is
1. More likely to develop coronary heart disease
2. Has an increased physiological altitude
3. More likely to develop lung cancer
a. 3 only
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 1 & 3 only
d. 1 , 2 & 3
Ans. D

59. At what height does the Critical Zone of hypoxia start ?

a. 38,000 ft
b. 23,000 ft
c. 18,000 ft
d. 20,000 ft
Ans. D

60. In an ascent, where is the greatest pressure differential ?

a. 0 - 5,000 ft
b. 5,000 - 10,000 ft
c. 10,000 - 15,000 ft
d. 40,000 - 45,000 ft
Ans. A

61. Short-term memory impairment occurs at what height ?

a. 8,000 ft
b. 12,000 ft
c. 15,000 ft
d. 18,000 ft
Ans. B

62. Concerning hypoxia, why is it more hazardous if flying solo ?

a. The effects are increased
b. It is difficult to recognize the first symptoms of hypoxia for a pilot in initial training
c. It is more difficult to manage the oxygen systems on your own
d. There is no one to take control once the symptoms of hypoxia appear
Ans. B

63. DCS symptoms can occur :

a. When flying from an area if high pressure to an area of low pressure in an unpressurised aircraft
b. When cabin pressure surges below 18,000 ft.
c. Following loss of cabin pressure at altitudes higher than 18,000 ft
d. Emergency descent following decompression below 10,000 ft
Ans. C

64. You have been scuba diving below I Om. When can you next fly
a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 48 hours
d. Whenever you wish
Ans. B

65. As the body ascends, the partial pressure of oxygen within the lungs
a. decreases at a rate of 3 times the atmospheric rate
b. decreases at the same rate as that of the atmosphere
c. stays the same
d. increases
Ans. B

73
66. The following are features of hypoxia
1. Blue discolouration of the lips and fingernails.
2. Shortness of breath and light-headedness.
3. Flatulence.
4. Impaired night vision.
a. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans. B

67. TUC at 25,000 with moderate activity and rapid decompression is approximately
a. 2 minutes
b. 30 seconds to 5 minutes
c. 2.5 minutes to 6 minutes
d. 5 to 10 minutes
Ans. A

68. Hyperventilation can cause

a. too much oxygen to the brain
b. spasms in the muscles and possible unconsciousness
c. bluish tinge under the nails of the fingers and the lobes of the ears
d. a feeling of euphoria
Ans. B

69. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the lungs is

a. lower than the partial pressure of C02 in the atmosphere
b. higher than the pressure of C02 in the blood
c. lower than the pressure of C02 in the blood
d. almost equal to the pressure of C02 in the atmosphere
Ans. C

70. Which Law is relevant to DCS

a. Boyle's Law
b. Henry's Law
c. The Combined Gas Law
d. Dalton's Law
Ans. B

71. How much air is inhaled and exhaled in one breath ?

a. 70 mls
b. 150 mls
c. 350 mls
d. 500 mls
Ans. D

72. If you are suffering from hyperventilation, what should you do

a. close your eyes and relax
b. breathe 100% oxygen
c. talk through the procedure out loud and simultaneously control rate and depth of breathing
d. make an immediate landing
Ans. C

73. Hyperventilation can, after a long period of time, lead to unconsciousness due to
a. high level of carbon dioxide due to hypoxia
b. low partial pressure of oxygen to the brain
c. the body compensates for low partial pressure of oxygen
d. prolonged anxiety/stress
Ans. B

74
74. A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may become unconscious. Hyperventilation is
likely to occur when
a. The pilot is stressed or anxious
b. There is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood due to hypoxia
c. Flying a tight turn
d. There is an increased blood flow to the brain.
Ans. A

75. Hyperventilation is likely to occur as a result of

a. The body attempting to compensate for a drop in partial oxygen pressure
b. An accelerated heart frequency caused by an increase in blood pressure
c. Over-breathing, leading to too much carbon dioxide in the blood
d. A reduction of partial oxygen pressure to the brain
Ans. A

76. What can cause hypoxia

a. Anaemia
b. high intake of nitrogen
c. high solar radiation
d. because of the lower percentage of oxygen at height
Ans. A

77. What is the percentage of oxygen at 18,000 ft ?

a. 5 %
b. 10%
C. 7%
d. 21%
Ans. D

78. One of the results of DCS is the "Chokes". The chokes causes problems in the
a. joints
b. lungs
c. brain
d. heart
Ans. B

79. If suffering from Hypoxia you should

1. descent to below 10,000ft.
2. climb above 10,000ft.
3. go onto 100% oxygen
4. reduce activity
a. 1 only
b. 1 , 3 & 4
c. 4 only
d. 2 ,3 & 4
Ans. B

80. Which of the following is a correct statement with regards to carbon monoxide'!
a. Breathing pure oxygen reduces the effects of carbon monoxide
b. Haemoglobin has an affinity to carbon monoxide over oxygen of 5 times
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning can result from nicotine
d. Carbon monoxide increases the altitude at which hypoxia is experienced prevalent
Ans. A

75
81. Flight for pilots following scuba diving, using compressed air, to a depth of 10m is...............
a. forbidden
b. not advisable due to risk of hypoxia
c. is acceptable if you stay below 38,000 ft
d. acceptable as long as you take exercise before flying
Ans. B

82. Which of the following can cause hypoxia ?

1. Ascent to altitudes over 10,000 feet
2. Failure of the oxygen system
3. Rapid decompression above 10,000 feet
a. All 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
Ans. A

83. Bubbles in the lungs cause

a. Leans
b. Bends
c. Pain in the joints
d. Chokes
Ans. D

84. Which of the following equals the sum total of the volume of the lungs ?
a. Tidal volume
b. Inspiratory reserve volume
c. Expiratory reserve volume
d. Reserve volume
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. D

85. Hypoxic Hypoxia

a. can occur at any altitude.
b. only occurs at altitudes over approximately 10,000 ft. in the case of a healthy individual
c. is caused by the inability of the blood to carry sufficient oxygen
d. is not affected by smoking
Ans. A

86. One of the outcomes of rapid decompression is

a. Regression
b. A collapse of the of the middle ear
c. Cyanosis
d. Fogging/Misting
Ans. D

87. Hypoxia
a. has no effect on cardiac output
b. causes cardiac output to decrease
c. causes cardiac output to increase
d. causes a small decrease in cardiac output initially and at approximately 15,000 feet cardiac output
remains steady
Ans. C

76
88. Hypoxia is caused by
1. a decrease in the saturation of oxygen in the blood due to intake of carbon monoxide
2. an inability of the body to metabolize oxygen
3. the effects of Gz due to inertia and pooling of the blood
4. low partial pressure of oxygen at high altitudes without supplemental oxygen
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 4 only
c. 1, 2 3 and 4
d. 1 & 4 only
Ans. C

89. Which gas diffuses from the blood to the lungs during external respiration ?
a. Nitrogen
b. Air
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen
Ans. C

90. Generally a healthy person can compensate for the lack of oxygen with altitude up to
a. 15,000 ft
b. 20,000 ft
c. 10,000 - 12,000 ft
d. 10,000 ft
Ans. C

91. When flying at 8,000 ft a male passenger is observed to be hyperventilating.

a. He should be treated for hypoxia because without treatment he may die
b. He should be treated for hypoxia since this is the safest course of action
c. Hyperventilation may be assumed and the patient should be so treated
d. He should be treated for hypoxia since both hyperventilation and hypoxia demand similar treatment
Ans. C

92. TUC for progressive decompression at 30,000 ft is

a. 1 - 2 minutes
b. 3 - 5 minutes
c. 5 - 10 minutes
d. 15 - 20 minutes
Ans. A

93. Which does not match ?

a. The Bends
b. The Creeps
c. The Chokes
d. The Leans
Ans. D

94. The ossicles (the malleus, incus and stapes) are situated in
a. The inner ear
b. Middle ear
c. Outer ear
d. Semi-circular canals
Ans. B
95. Vertigo causes the illusion when flying of
a. Flying straight while in a spin
b. Climbing while turning
c. A tumbling or turning sensation associated sometimes with dizziness
d. Descending with a decrease of speed
Ans. A

77
96. While turning the aircraft the pilots moves his/her head. What effect might the pilot be exposed to
a. Coriolis Effect
b. Somatogravic Effect
c. Flicker Effect
d. Oculogravic Effect
Ans. A

97. On initiating recovery from a spin, the pilot may have a strong sensation of turning
a. In a direction opposite to that of the spin
b. In a direction the same as the spin
c. Slowly upwards
d. Quickly upwards
Ans. A

98. If a pilot picks up a pen from the floor of the cockpit while in a turn, he/she may suffer from
a. Coriolis Effect
b. Hypoxic hypoxia
c. Barotrauma
d. Pressure Vertigo
Ans. A

99. Presbycusis causes loss of

a. High tones
b. Low tones
c. Both equally
d. Can be prevented by ear plugs
Ans. A

100. What would be the effect if in a tight turn one bends down to pick up a pencil?
a. Coriolis effect
b. Barotrauma
c. Vertigo
d. Inversion Illusion
Ans. A

101. To prevent Vertigo in flight one should:

a. Use the Valsalva manoeuvre
b. Look to one side while turning
c. Avoid moving ones head whilst turning
d. Breathe deeply, but control frequency of breathing
Ans. C

102. Presbycusis is loss of hearing due to age and which effects

a. high tones first
b. low tones first
c. medium tones first
d. the whole spectrum of tones at the same time
Ans. A

103. What detects hearing ?

a. Cochlea
b. Semi-circular canals
c. Saccules
d. Pinna
Ans. A

78
104. Excessive wax in the ear is classed as
a. NIHL
b. Conductive Deafness
c. Presbycusis
d. Physical Deafness
Ans. B

105. Disorientation is most likely to occur when

1. flying IMC
2. the pilot is distracted (using FMS for example)
3. flying from IMC to VMC
4. the pilot is unwell or fatigued
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2and 4
d. 2,3 & 4
Ans. C

106. Perceptual conflict between the Vestibular Apparatus and the visual sensory inputs
1. can occur when flying IMC and may be compelling
2. can cause attitude misinformation
3 may occur when taking off bank following a sustained turn
4. can occur when decelerating
a. 1 , 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. D

107. What actions should a pilot take if suffering from vertigo ?

1. check and cross-check the aircraft instruments
2. accept and ignore illusions
3. keep head movements to a minimum
4. believe the aircraft instruments
a. 1 , 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. D

108. What is a stereotype and involuntary reaction to a stimulation ?

a. data control
b. a reflex
c. stimulation control
d. automatic stimulation
Ans. B

109. What is an stereotyped and involuntary reaction to a stimulus ?

a. Data control
b. A reflex
c. Stimulation Control
d. Automatic Stimulation
Ans. B

79
110. Which of the following will result from a conflict between visual input and the Vestibular Apparatus ?
1. a sense of turning when you are not
2. a sense of a light moving outside the aircraft
3. a sense of flying too fast towards the bright lights of a runway
4. a sense of tumbling in a turn
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 only
d. 3 and 4 only
Ans. A

111. How many semi-circular canals are contained in the ear ?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Ans. C

112. Vertigo can be associated with

a. The Coriolis Effect
b. Autokenesis
c. sweating
d. shivering
Ans. A

113. Hearing through bone conduction

a. by-passes the inner ear
b. by-passes the outer ear
c. by-passes outer and the middle ear
d. is no different from the normal hearing process
Ans. C

114. With regards to the harmful effects of intensive noise on human performance
a. High frequency cause more harm than low frequency
b. Low frequency cause more harm than high frequency
c. Medium cause more harm than high frequency
d. Frequency is not important
Ans. A

115. Ordinarily, levels of noise

a. Increase the number of human errors but do not reduce the speed at which work is done
b. Increase the number of human errors and reduce the speed at which work is done
c. Decrease the number of human errors but do not reduce the speed at which work is done
d. Decrease the number of human errors and reduce the speed at which work is done
Ans. A

116. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by

a. The Central Nervous System
b. The Peripheral Nervous System
c. The Autonomic (Vegetative) Nervous System
d. The Secondary Nervous System
Ans. C

117. When turning in MIC, head movements should be kept to a minimum to prevent :
a. autokinesis
b. the occulogyiral illusion
c. vertigo
d. Coriolis effect
Ans. D

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118. Spatial disorientation is when :
a. The pilot’s seat harness is too tight not allowing the pilot to sense the aircraft’s attitude changes
b. There is a mis-match between the information received from the vestibular apparatus and the instruments
c. The pilot is ignoring illusions
d. Information from the vestibular apparatus is ignored
Ans. B

119. Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is :

1. flying in IMC
2. frequently changing between inside and outside references
3. flying from IMC into VMC
4. approaching over still water at night
a. 1 , 2 & 3 only are correct
b. 1 , 2 & 4 only are correct
c. 1 , 2 , 3 & 4 are correct
d. 1 only is correct
Ans. B

120. A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are
symptons of :
a. The Occulogyral Effect
b. Flicker-vertigo
c. Pilot’s Vertigo
d. Nystagmus
Ans. C

121. When a pilot looks at a near object , the :

a. Lens flattens
b. Pupil becomes smaller
c. Cornea becomes more curved
d. Cornea changes shape
Ans. B

122. Which light sensitive cells of the eye are used for night vision ?
a. Cones
b. Rods
c. Cones and Rods
d. None of the above
Ans. B

123. Sunglasses
a. Supply protection for UV and IR
b. Should possess reasonable luminance
c. Absorb colour
d. Straighten the light beams
Ans. B
124. With reference to the following , which are true regarding flash blindness in a thunderstorm with lightning ?
1. Turn up the cockpit lights
2. Look inside the cockpit
3. Wear sunglasses
4. Wear face blinds or use face curtains if installed
a. 1 + 2
b. 1+2+3
c. All
d. 3+ 4
Ans. C

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125. Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B & C are chemical factors and essential to good night vision
1. Vitamin deficiency may decrease night vision performance
2. An excess intake of vitamins A will improve night vision performance significantly
3. Pilots should be careful to take a balanced diet containing sufficient vitamin A
4. Vitamin deficiency may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but not in scotopic vision
a. All are correct
b. 1 & 3 are false. 2 & 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 & 3 are correct. 4 is false
d. 1 & 3 are correct. 2 & 4 are false
Ans. D

126. Sunglasses with variable transmission light sensitive Photochromic lenses

a. can be disadvantageous when used in the cockpit due to their dependence on UV light which is screened
by the cockpit glass
b. are advantageous for pilots
c. are generally forbidden for use in flight
d. are ideal as long as they are polarized
Ans. C

127. In the indifferent zone altitude band, night vision is affected

a. up to 3,000m
b. 3,000m - 5,000m
c. 5,000m - 7,000m
d. up to 5,000m
Ans. A

128. The eye can adjust to:

a. High levels of illumination in 10 minutes and darkness in 30 minutes
b. High levels of illumination in 10 seconds and darkness in 30 minutes
c. High levels of illumination in 30 minutes and darkness in 10 minutes
d. High levels of illumination in 30 minutes and darkness in 10 seconds
Ans. B

129. When the visual image is focused in front of the retina the condition is:
a. Myopia
b. Hypermetropia
c. Presbycusis
d. Astigmatism
Ans. A

130. A person suffering from Glaucoma will have

a. cloudiness of the lens
b. cloudiness of the cornea
c. increased pressure of the eye
d. colour blindness
Ans. C
131. The function of the retina is to
a. convert light images into meaningful information
b. transport electrical impulses to the brain
c. convert light signals into electrical impulses
d. convert light signals into chemical impulses
Ans. C

132. Night flying at 10,000 you find that your acuity decreases. What can you do about it to improve your acuity ?
a. Use your peripheral vision
b. Go onto oxygen
c. Turn up the instrument lights
d. Switch on or turn up the cabin heat
Ans. B

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133. Glaucoma is caused by
a. excess pressure within the eye
b. a clouding of the lens
c. damage to the cornea
d. damage to the retina
Ans. A

134. Good quality sunglasses provide

a. the ability to react to varying light levels automatically.
b. good luminance characteristics, avoidance of glare and harsh shadows, protection against UV and IR and
equal absorption of colours.
c. for the pilot's individual needs.
d. no distortion of aircraft windscreens.
Ans. D

135. The part of the retina which has the highest visual acuity is
a. the optic nerve entry point
b. the retinal optic focus point
c. the fovea
d. the outer sections of the retina
Ans. C

136. How many muscles control the eye ?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
Ans. D

137. The Rods and Cones of the eye converts light energy to
a. Electrical nerve signals
b. Chemical nerve signals
c. Chemical and motor nerve signals
d. Chemical and sensory nerve signals
Ans. A

138. Which of the following does not affect the photo-sensitive cells of the eye ?
1. Rapid acceleration
2. High speed flight
3. Toxic influence (smoking„ alcohol, carbon monoxide etc)
4. Lack of oxygen
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 3 & 4 only
Ans. C

139. What is essential for seeing colour ?

1. Correct light levels
2. Time to adjust
3. Looking 15° to one side of the object
4. No white lights
a. 1 only
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 3 only
Ans. A

83
140. Depth perception when objects are close (less than 1 metre) is achieved by
a. Visual memory
b. Binocular vision
c. The blind spot on the retina
d. Comparison of object sizes
Ans. B

141. As light decreases, the colour sensitivity of the eye

a. increases
b. decreases
c. is not affected
d. magnified
Ans. B

142. The retina

a. receives electromagnetic energy and, through photochemical reactions, coverts it into photochemical
signals
b. receives light and, through electrical reactions, coverts it into electrical signals
c. receives light and, through electromagnetic reactions, coverts it into photochemical signals
d. receives light signals and, through photochemical reactions coverts them into chemical signals in the
form of pulses
Ans. B

143. Accommodation is triggered by the

a. The Secondary Nervous System
b. The Peripheral Nervous System
c. The Central Nervous System
d. The Autonomic (Vegetative) Nervous System
Ans. D

144. Scotopic vision is vision via the

a. cones
b. rods
c. cones and the rods
d. cornea and the lens
Ans. B

145. What part or parts of the eye is/are responsible for night vision ?
a. The cones
b. The rods
e. The rods and cones
d. The cornea
Ans. B

146. When being affected by the Flicker Effect, the pilot should
a. Turn off the strobe lights
b. Dim the cockpit lights
c. Switch the autopilot on.
d. Fly straight and level and avoiding the turning of the head
Ans. A

147. What is the worse type of incapacitation on finals

a. Sudden
b. Severe
c. Intensive
d. Gradual
Ans. D

84
148. The most dangerous type of incapacitation is
a. Acute
b. Rapid
c. Insidious
d. None of the above
Ans. C

149. The metabolism of alcohol is

a. Influenced by time
b. Accelerated by drinking coffee
c. Quicker when the body gets used to alcohol
d. Improved by the use of easy-to-get medication.
Ans. A

150. Should a pilot fly with a bad cold he/she could suffer from
a. Chokes
b. Bends
c. Sinus pain
d. Blurred vision
Ans. C

151. If a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft suffers from severe flatulence in flight. He/she should
a. Climb
b. Descend
c. Pressure breathe oxygen
d. Descend rapidly and seek medical advice
Ans. B

152. If a pilot experiences negative acceleration (-Gz) what is the effect on the pilot's inertia ?
a. In transverse to the right
b. In transverse to the left
c. Downwards and vertical
d. Upwards and vertical
Ans. D

153. Even with a small ingestion of alcohol

a. the brain will be stimulated thereby increasing the resistance to hypoxia
b. the brain functions will be increased and thereby increasing performance at high altitudes
c. the pilot will remain unaffected
d. the pilot will be more susceptible to hypoxia
Ans. D

154. Which of the following are correct ?

1. Scuba diving imposes no restriction on flying
2. Use of some medication can affect flying
3. One should drink sufficient water during flight to prevent dehydration
4. Diet does not have an effect on health
a. 2&3
b. 1,2&3
c. 2,3&4
d. 1,2,3&4
Ans. A

155. Greyout can result from G forces greater than:

a. +3G y
b. +3G z
c. -3G z
d. +3G x

85
Ans. B

156. What is the blood alcohol concentration associated with a highly significant increase in errors associated with
both experienced and inexperienced pilots even in a simple aircraft ?
a. 20 milligrams per 100 milliliters
b. 40 milligrams per 100 milliliters
c. 60 milligrams per 100 milliliters
d. 80 milligrams per 100 milliliters
Ans. B

157. JAR-OPS specifies a maximum blood alcohol limit. What is it ?

a. 20 milligrams per 100 milliliters
b. 40 milligrams per 100 milliliters
c. 60 milligrams per 100 milliliters
d. 80 milligrams per 100 milliliters
Ans. A

158. Pain in the cavities of the skull which accompanies a change of altitude is known as
a. Staggers
b. Bends
c. Barotrauma
d. Creeps
Ans. C

159. With regard to alcohol

a. Does not effect performance
b. Even a small amount will effect performance
c. Drinking coffee with alcohol reduces the effects
d. It effects Orthodox sleep
Ans. D

160. A passenger complains if an inflated stomach at 8,000 ft. What action would you advised the passenger to take
?
1. Unbuckle the seat belt and rub the stomach
2. Avoid eating food with fermentation qualities and/or carbonated drinks.
3. Stand up and expel the gases from the intestines
4. Drink large amounts of water
a. 1 & 4
b. 2 & 4
c. 4 only
d. 1 , 2 & 3
Ans. B

161. If you switch on the anti-collision light in IMC, what are the likely effects ?
a. Depth perception increases
b. You can suffer from dizziness and disorientation
c. You can suffer from Colour Illusion
d. Binocular vision is affected
Ans. B

162. While carrying out a spin in an aircraft the pilot will experience
a. Angular acceleration
b. Radial acceleration
c. Negative acceleration
d. Static acceleration
Ans. B

86
163. Most ozone is found in the
a. Thermosphere
b. Ionosphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Troposphere
Ans. C

164. You suffer pain in an ear on a descent. Should you

a. Put one hand over the effected ear
b. Level off and, if necessary, climb to the level where it first occurred
c. Increase the rate of descent
d. Keep the head still and continue descending at a slower rate
Ans. B

165. The metabolism of alcohol

a. is affected by time
b. can be affected by caffeine
c. is reduced by readily available drugs
d. does not occur in the human body
Ans. A

166. If feeling unwell before a flight should you ?

1. Take over-the-counter medicine and consult an Aviation Specialist doctor at the return of the flight
2. Assess your own fitness and, if necessary, consult an Aviation
3. If in any doubt about your fitness, do not fly
4. Turn the cockpit temperature down and drink water before you are thirsty to avoid dehydration
a. 2 and 3 only
b. ,,1 only
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 3 and 4 only
Ans. A

167. What is the first symptom of high radial acceleration ?

a. Grey out
b. Unconsciousness
c. Red out
d. Black out
Ans. A

168. What are the physiological systems which are involved with motion sickness
1. Auditory
2. Vestibular
3. Visual
4. Proprioceptive
5. Gastro-intestinal
a. 2 , 3 & 4
b. 1 , 3 & 5
c. 1 , 2 & 5
d. 2, 3 , 4 & 5
Ans. A

169. In tropical regions you should

a. Ensure you put ice into all cold drinks
b. Drink only from sealed containers
c. Eat raw vegetables whenever possible
d. Ensure you eat unpeeled fruit because of possible vitamin loss
Ans. B

87
170. Which of the following are among the symptoms of Otic Barotrauma in one or both ears?
a. Noise
b. Increase of pressure in the ear causing pain
c. Dizziness
d. The Bends
Ans. B

171. To avoid hypoglycemia

a. A pilot should not eat a meal
b. A pilot should not eat sugar or sweets
c. A pilot should eat regularly and ensure a balanced diet
d. A pilot should eat peanuts because they produce high energy levels
Ans. C

172. Alcohol is a
a. Peripheral Nervous System stimulant
b. Central Nervous System stimulant
c. Central Nervous system depressant
d. Vegetative System stimulant
Ans. C

173. The Flicker Effect

a. rarely causes spatial disorientation in pilots
b. is one of the main causes of spatial disorientation in pilots
c. can result in severe degradation of visual adaption
d. can result in severe degradation of sensory adaption
Ans. A

174. Ozone in a pressurized cabin can be eliminated by

a. Spraying detergents
b. Climbing to an altitude above 45,000 ft
c. Avoiding flights above the equator
d. Using ozone-converters
Ans. D

175. The first effect on the human being subjected to gradual exposure of high positive radial acceleration is
a. loss of consciousness
b. black-out
c. red-out
d. grey-out
Ans. D

176. What is the order of symptoms that can be expected due to sustained positive g forces
a. unconsciousness, black-out, grey-out, and tunnel vision
b. unconsciousness, grey-out, black-out and tunnel vision
c. black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness
d. grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness
Ans. D

177. Concerning barotrauma which of the following statements is true ?

a. Baratrauma is associated with a sink rate which is greater than the ability of the body to balance its
internal pressures
b. Baratrauma is caused by pressure differentials between the ambient pressure and the gases in the cavities
of the body
c. Baratrauma is more likely to happen in the ascent than the descent
d. Baratrauma is caused by a decrease in altitude associated with an increase in the partial pressure of
oxygen
Ans. B

88
178. Anxiety affects
1. Judgement
2. Attention
3. Memory
4. Concentration
a. 1 & 2 only
b. 1 only
c. 1 , 2 & 4
d. All
Ans. D

179. Hypothermia causes a

a. Decrease in the demand for oxygen
b. Increase in the demand for oxygen and eventually lends to unconsciousness
c. Increase in the demand for oxygen
d. None of the above
Ans. B

180. Which , if any, of the following is/are true ?

1. Psychosomatic refers to the interrelationships of mind and body
2. Psychosomatic refers to a psychological reaction to an outside stimulus causing physiological
change/changes
3. Psychosomatic problems are not common among the pilot community due to the high standard of
selection
4. Psychosomatic problems can be cured by conseling
a. 1 and 3
b. None are correct
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2
Ans. D

181. With reference to Humidity :

1. 40-60% is optional
2. Cabin humidity is normally 5% - 15%
3. Dehydration will affect crew performance
4. Humidity has no effect on crew performance
a. 1 & 4 are correct
b. 1 , 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 & 4 are correct
d. Only 3 is correct
Ans. B

182. Above and below what body temperatures will there be there be a degradation of mental and physical
capabilities ?
a. Above 38oC Below 35oC
b. Above 36oC Below 35oC
c. Above 38oC Below 27oC
d. Above 36oC Below 25oC
Ans. A

183. When faced with a problem a pilot should :

a. Take as much time as he/she needs within the available time to make up his/her mind
b. Make up his/her mind as quickly as possible to give as much spare time as possible
c. Make up his/her mind before consulting other crew members
d. Wait until the last minute to make up his/her mind
Ans. A

89
184. Which of the following statements are correct ? :
1. Psychosomatic stress causes physiological symptoms to have psychological effects
2. Psychosomatic stress hardly affects aviation because of good crew selection procedures
a. 1 & 2
b. Neither
c. 1 only
d. 2 only
Ans. B

185. Stressors are

a. External factors only
b. Internal factors only
c. Both external and internal factors
d. Neither external nor internal factors
Ans. C

186. Performance can be increased by

a. putting a student pilot under stress
b. a moderate amount of stress
c. no stress at all if possible
d. ignoring stress as all good pilots leave stress on the ground
Ans. B

187. The sequence of GAS is.

a. Alarm Resistance Exhaustion
b. Resistance Exhaustion Alarm
c. Alarm Flight Exhaustion
d. Exhau Resistance Alarm
Ans. A stion

188. A person suffering from extreme cold will stop shivering and thereafter become colder and colder when the
internal body falls to about
a. 20°C
b. 25°C
c. 30°C
d. 35°C
Ans. D

189. At height cockpit humidity can be between

a. 20-25%
b. 40-60%
c. 30-60%
d. 5-15%
Ans. D
190. Tuned resonance of the body parts, distressing the individual can be caused by
a. Acceleration along the horizontal flight path
b. Resonance between 150 - 250 Hz
c. Resonance between 16 - 18 Ghz
d. Resonance between 1 - 100 Hz
Ans. D

191. If in a state of stress which is impossible to overcome, the pilot will be in a state of
a. Eustress
b. Hypertension
c. Distress
d. Regression
Ans. C

90
192. What will happen to the body when in situations of extreme heat ?
1. Shivering
2. Vascoconstriction of the exterior blood vessels
3. Sweating
4. Vascodilation of the exterior blood vessels
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 3 and 4 only
Ans. D

193. A person that is exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:
a. Distress
b. Eustress
c. Coping stress
d. Stressors
Ans. A

194. What is the relationship between stress and performance when plotted on a graph ?
a. The relationship is linear
b. The relationship is exponential
c. There is no relationship
d. The relationship is in the shape of an inverted U
Ans. D

195. What is the relationship between stress and fatigue ?

a. No stress and no fatigue is good
b. All stress and fatigue is good
c. Stress can be good, fatigue is always bad
d. No stress and some fatigue is good
Ans. C

196. The body loses water via

a. The skin, lungs and kidneys
b. The skin
c. The skin, lungs and liver
d. The skin, liver and kidneys
Ans. A

197. Extreme cold may be associated with

a. Aggression
b. Aggression and anxiety
c. Anxiety
d. Contentment or apathy
Ans. D

198. According to the "General Adaptation Syndrome" which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. During the alarm phase adrenalin will cause a large release of glucose into the blood, a raised heartbeat
and blood pressure plus an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system released cortisol helping in the conversion of fat
into sugar.
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have
been generated excessively
a. 1 & 2 only are correct
b. 2 & 3 only are correct
c. 1, 2 & 3 are correct
d. only 1 is correct
Ans. C

91
199. An individual's perception of stress
a. depends on the current situation only
b. is the objective evaluation of a situation and the perceived ability to cope with it
c. is the subjective evaluation of a situation and the perceived ability to cope with it
d. depends on the individual's arousal
Ans. C

200. Which of the following alternatives is an example of "Negative Habit Transfer" or "Habit Reversion" ?
a. A pilot who is very experienced on one type of aircraft in which the fuel control is selected forward for
the ON position may select this control to the incorrect position when flying a new aircraft in which the ON position
is selected to the rear.
b. Predicting ATC instructions
c. Turning the aircraft in one direction when intending to turn it in the opposite direction
d. Missing out an item in a check list
Ans. A

201. Stress Management strategies normally involve

a. Only the prevention of stress
b. Only the removal of stress
c. the use of drugs
d. the prevention and the removal of stress
Ans. D

202. What is the duration of short-term memory (working memory) ?

a. 1 - 2 hours
b. 1 - 2 days
c. 1 - 2 months
d. 10 - 20 seconds
Ans. D

203. If the sensory threshold is increased

a. Selectivity is increased
b. Selectivity is decreased
c. Sensitivity is reduced
d. Sensitivity is increased
Ans. C

204. Which of the following is correct

a. Hearing is the most important sense for man
b. 'The Kinestatic channel is the most important channel in flying
c. 70% of information processed by man enters the visual channel
d. 40% of information processed by man enters the visual channel
Ans. C

205. The learning process can be facilitated by

a. Reinforcing successful endeavours
b. Punishing errors
c. Increasing psychological pressure on the student
d. Encouraging the student to make mistakes
Ans. A

206. Motor programmes

a. are stored as rules in the long term memory
b. are behavioural sub-routines
c. require conscious though to engage
d. are natural reactions
Ans. B

92
207. What error rate can be expected to be given reasonable training ?
a. 1 in 100,000
b. 1 in 10,000
c. 1 in 1,000
d. 1 in 100
Ans. C

208. What human error rate is considered to be the norm ?

a. 1 in 10
b. 1 in 100
c. 1 in 1,000
d. 1 in 10,000
Ans. B

209. If you have an incorrect mental model, it is

1. easy to change
2. easy to comprehend
3. easy recognise
4. resistance to correction
a. 1 , 2 and 3
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 4 only
d. 1 only
Ans. C
210. Which of the following can you do simultaneously without mutually affecting the other ?
a. Manually maintaining straight and level flight and solving a complex problem.
b. Reading and listening attentively.
c. Talking and entering frequencies into the Working Memory.
d. Talking and solving a complex problem.
Ans. A
211. Age
a. generally decreases pilot's performance
b. generally increases pilot's performance
c. generally has little effect on pilots' performance since it is compensated for by experience
d. generally increases performance until approximately the age of 32 and therefore generally decreases
performance
Ans. C
212. Errors that occur during a highly automated action may result from
1. Capture of a poor action sub-programme
2. A mistake in the decision-making process
3. Implication of a poor rule
4. an action mode error
a. 2 , 3 and 4
b. 1 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 & 4
Ans. B

213. Which statement concerning LTM is true ?

1. Information is stored as Episodic and Semantic memory
2. The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which it is used
3. It is never influenced by our expectations of what should have happened
4. Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow reduction in access time
a. 1 and 4 are correct
b. 2 & 4 are correct
c. 2, 3 & 4 are correct
d. 1 & 2 are correct
Ans. D

93
214. The thinking concerning human error has changed recently to
a. Human error is inherent and inescapable
b. It has been accepted that human error will always be made but can be decreased by training and
technology.
c. Error can be eliminated completely in the future
d. Human error can be avoided through vigilance and expansion of knowledge
Ans. B

215. Over learning

a. improves the chance of recall and makes the performance of a task more resistance to stress and is an
important concept of aviation training
b. is a process which is discouraged in the aviation training as it may lead to "Regression" in times of acute
stress
c. is a process in training which is usually adopted in order to pass complicated concepts to a recipient of
limited capabilities
d. is the process whereby information is layered and linked with previously learned facts and is an
important tool to improve Short-term Memory
Ans. A

216. Environmental capture is

1. Obtaining environmental skills
2. performing a skill in an environment commonly flown in, even if it is incorrect to do so.
3. the performance of a skill previously learnt in a different aircraft even f it incorrect to do so.
4. The way behaviour changes in different social situations.
a. 1 & 2 are correct
b. all are correct
c. 1 only
d. 2 & 3 are correct
Ans. D

217. With regard to automation of behaviour and the attention mechanism

a. The less behaviour is automated, the less attention is required and the more are resources available.
b. The more behaviour is automated, the more attention is required and the more are resources available
c. The more behaviour is automated, the more attention is required and the less resources available
d. The more behaviour is automated, the less attention is required and the more are resources available.
Ans. D

218. Mental models of the world are based on

a. past experiences and sensory information
b. past xperiences only
c. past experiences and motor programmes (skills)
d. only sensory information
Ans. A

219. A pilot becomes skilled when he/she

1. trains or practices regularly
2. knows how to manage him/herself
3. possesses all the knowledge associated with his/her aircraft
4. knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
a. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b. all are correct
c. 1 & 2 only are correct
d. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans. A

94
220. Mental models are based upon
a. entirely on past experiences
b. past experiences and motor programmes
c. sensory information only
d. past experiences and sensory information received
Ans. D

221. Once a mental model is constructed, there is a tendency to give

a. undue weight to information that contradicts the model
b. equal weight to information that contradicts and confirms the mental model
c. frequent alterations to the mental model
d. undue weight to information that confirms the model
Ans. D

222. Motor programmes save resources and therefore attention however they may result in
a. errors in selecting the correct plan of action
b. errors in decision-making
c. routine errors
d. istakes
Ans. C

223. Mental rehearsal is useful for

a. all pilots
b. instructor pilots only
c. only for pilots with a specific level of experience
d. student pilots only
Ans. A

224. Which of the following statements are correct ?

1. The first information determines how subsequent information will evaluated
2. If an individual has made up his/her mind, contradictory information may not receive the attention it needs
3. With increasing stress, attention tends to become limited and reduce the flow of information to the Central
Decision Maker

a. 1, 2 & 3 are correct

b. 2 & 3 only are correct
c. 1 & 2 only are correct
d. 1 & 3 only are correct
Ans. A

225. When problem-solving, what determines the transition from rule-based activities to knowledge-based activities
a. Knowledge of rules that apply for the problem
b. Unsuitability of automated actions
c. Unsuitability of known rules for the problem posed
d. Lack of knowledge of the rules
Ans. C

226. Which of the following are included in Maslow's hierarchy of needs

1. Self-fulfilment through expression of capacities and talents
2. Self-esteem through self respect
3. Safety through avoidance of danger
4. Achievement through group efforts
5. Self-esteem through a job

a. All of the above

b. 1, 2 & 4 only
c. 1 & 5 only
d. 1,3 &5 only
Ans. D

95
227. When do we change from Rule Based Behaviour to Knowledge Based Behaviour ?
a. When we choose to do so
b. When we do not know the rules
c. When rules do not apply
d. When we become highly experienced
Ans. C

228. Which of the following can be said to be true ?

a. Motivation can substitute for a lack of knowledge
b. Motivation is only a psychological phenomenon
c. Motivation can lead to trying to attain an unrealistic goal which will cause stress and which will lead to a
reduction in performance
d. Motivation is only intrinsic
Ans. C

229. Very high ambition and drive for success can lead to
a. conflict in the cockpit
b. improved performance
c. a "laiser faire" cockpit situation
d. improved cohesion and mutual consideration
Ans. A

230. With respect to Maslow's hierarchy of needs (1943) he expounded that

a. Motives lower in the hierarchy are aroused first and must be satisfied first
b. Motives higher in the hierarchy are aroused first and must be satisfied first
c. Motives in the middle of the hierarchy are aroused first and must be satisfied first
d. Any level may be aroused and there is no significance as to which must be satisfied first
Ans. A

231. With respect to the subcutaneous pressure receptors, they sense

a. The condition of the body
b. Spatial orientation of the body
c. Pressure on the body indicating true vertical
d. Environmental conditions
Ans. B

232. A pilot is accustomed to a runway with a width of 27m and lands on an unfamiliar runway with a width of
42m. The pilot will tend to
a. Fly a too high an approach and overshoot
b. Fly a too low an approach and overshoot
c. Fly a too high an approach and undershoot
d. Fly a too low an approach and undershoot
Ans. A

233. The Gestalt Theory relates to

a. Motivation
b. Perception and organisation
c. Personality traits
d. Faults and slips
Ans. B

234. When staring at an isolated light at night, the light may appear to
a. vary in size
b. move
c. vary in colour
d. vary in intensity
Ans. B

96
235. Illusions that pilots experience in conditions of fog, snow or mist are that
a. Objects appear further away than they really are
b. Objects appear closer than they really are
c. Objects appear to move slower than they really do
d. Objects appear to move faster than they really do
Ans. A

236. Cognitive illusions are caused by:

a. Poor interpretation of cockpit instruments
b. Lack of external reference points
c. Conflict between different senses
d. Erroneous mental model resulting from a misinterpretation of sensory inputs
Ans. D

237. What should you do if disorientated at night:

a. Ignore your instruments
b. Look at the horizon
c. Descend
d. Rely on your instruments
Ans. D

238. Where are the Pressoreceptors located ?

a. In the heart
b. In the skin
c. In the carotid sinus
d. In the intestines
Ans. C

239. The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too fast can be caused by
a. Snow and a tailwind
b. Snow and a tail wind
c. Rain and a headwind
d. A unaccustomed high distance of the cockpit from the ground
Ans. C

240. Errors in the judgment of height on an approach are more likely over
a. snow
b. mountains
c. jungle
d. rough seas
Ans. A

241. To cure Autokinesis

a. First focus on the light with the right eye and then the left
b. Shake the head and turn down the cockpit lights
c. Look at the light out of the corner of your eye
d. Look for other references inside and outside the cockpit and use peripheral vision
Ans. D

242. The Seat-of -the-Pants sensation emanates from receptors in the

a. Utricles and Saccules
b. Semi-circular canals
c. muscles and joints sensitive to the movement and position of the body
d. skin
Ans. C

97
243. What is the illusion when an aircraft is flying in fog, snow or haze ?
a. Objects appear to be further away than they actually are
b. Objects appear to be closer than they actually are
c. Objects appear to move faster than they actually are
d. Objects appear to be larger than they actually are
Ans. A

244. What is the normal illusion for a pilot undertaking an approach on an up- sloping runway ?
a. The aircraft is too high
b. The aircraft is too low
c. The aircraft is too fast
d. The aircraft is too slow
Ans. A

245. On an approach at night in rain onto a runway with approach lighting it is it not unusual for the approach to
appear
a. Slower than it actually is
b. Faster than it actually is
c. normal
d. curved
Ans. B

246. Flying by the "seat of one's pants"

a. gives a feeling of coming up and out of your seat
b. Is not reliable and does not indicate spatial orientation
c. Is reliable and indicates spatial orientation
d. Is not reliable and indicates spatial orientation
Ans. B

247. Input for orientation is through

1. Eyes
2. Utricles & Saccules
3. Semi-circular canals
4. Seat-of -the-pants receptors

a. 2 & 3 only
b. 3 & 4 only
c. 1, 2 & 4 only
d. 1,2,3&4
Ans. D

248. 1. Paradoxic sleep refreshes the brain, memory and body.

2. Paradoxic sleep decreases during the night Which is correct
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. Neither
Ans. D

249. Which of the following statements are correct ? Hypovigilance is increased by:
1. Lack of stimulation
2. Tiredness
3. Monotony 4. Stress
a. 1,2&3
b. 1,2&4
c. 1 & 3
d. l & 4
Ans. A

98
250. Which of the following are correct with regard to Circadian Disrhymthmia ?
1. The effects are worse when travelling from East to West
2. The effects are worse when travelling from West to East
3. Varies little between individuals
4. Varies substantially between individuals

a. 2 & 4 only
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 2 only
d. l, 3 and 4 only
Ans. A

251. The characteristics of Paradoxic Sleep are

1. efreshes body and muscle tone
2. REM
3. Decreases during the night
4. Brain activity similar to that of being awake

a. all are correct

b. 1,2&3
c. 2&4
d. 1 & 2
Ans. C

252. A pilot flies to Moscow (2 hours ahead of home time) with a 4 day stop-over. After 3 days his/her circadian
rhythm corresponds to
a. Local time
b. Home time
c. Central Europe time
d. UTC
Ans. A

253. What is the maximum number of sleep "credits" for the normal person
a. 24
b. 48
c. 16
d. 72
Ans. C

254. What would disrupt the biological clock ?

1. A night flight from New York to Amsterdam
2. A day flight from Amsterdam to New York
3. A day flight from Amsterdam to Johannesburg
4. A poor night's sleep

a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b. 1 and 2 only are correct
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 & 4 only
Ans. B

255. What characterizes a self-centered cockpit ?

a. Autocratic Captain assures a synergistic cockpit
b. Crew member tends to do their own jobs independently without keeping other informed
c. A synergistic cockpit
d. A non-synergistic cockpit in which the Captain tends to be authoritarian
Ans. B

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256. Attitude is
a. a synonym of behaviour
b. a genetic predisposition to be biased either positively or negatively
c. acting and thinking subjectively
d. How a person responds to another person, situation or organisation either positively or negatively
Ans. D

257. Personality is based on:

1. Heredity
2. Childhood
3. Upbringing
4. Experience

a. None of the above

b. 1, 2, and 4.
C. All of the above
D. 2, 3 and 4
Ans. C
258. During the pre-flight brief the aircraft commander should:
a. Delegate all duties to all crew members for the entire flight
b. Emphasise that he/she is in charge
c. Emphasise areas requiring good crew co-ordination
d. Ensure all points are covered for the flight to avoid repetition in the cockpit?
Ans. C
259. Attitude is
a. part of personality and cannot be changed in an adult
b. a person's response to a situation, person or object
c. the same as behaviour
d. stable and cannot be changed in an adult
Ans. B

260. Leadership qualities should include

1. A dominant style
2. Laiser Faire
3. Technical competency
4. Good communications
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 & 4 only
Ans. D

261. During the cruise, the Captain of an aircraft starts to smoke a cigarette. The co-pilot is a nonsmoker and asks
him to stop. The Captain ignores his request saying "That's your problem". What the co-pilot do about the situation ?
a. He should call one of the cabin crew and ask him/her to arbitrate
b. He should argue with the Captain pointing out the potential dangers
c. He must accept his Captain's behaviour since it is the Captain who is responsible.
d. He should stop discussion and return to the issue during the debrief at the end of the flight.
Ans. D

262. What characteristics are most frequently and least appropriately displayed by a co-pilot when under command
of a highly autocratic Captain'?
1. Self assertion
2. Scapegoat feeling
3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies 4. Disengagement
a. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 2 are correct

100
Ans. A

263. Which of the following statements is correct ?

a. Personality is easily changed
b. Attitudes do not change in the long-term
c. Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude
d. Attitude is the outward result of behaviour and personality
Ans. C

264. Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal inter-actions are correct ?
1. If the sender believes that the receiver is competent, he/she tends to reduce the verbal redundancy of his /her
sentence
2. If the interlocutor is of non-native tongue, the sender will use more difficult words so as to optimise
understanding
3. If the sender believes that the receiver does not understand, he/she will simplify the contents of the sentence
4. By making check-lists simpler, for crews that know each other, this is the root cause of interpersonal conflict.

a. 1 & 2 are only correct

b. I & 3 are only correct
c. 2 & 4 are only correct
d. 3 & 4 are only correct
Ans. B

265. Metacommunications:
a. are of no importance in the cockpit
b. are shortcuts
c. are barriers to intea-conflict
d. compliment verbal communications
Ans. D

266. What is not a useful element of good feedback ?

a. Tailor to the individual
b. Enable response and discussion
c. Specifically target each individual's failings
d. Should be understood by all
Ans. C

267. What constitutes effective communications ?

a. Speaking in a variety of mother tongues
b. Using different context which would be understood by the receiver
c. Considering cultural differences
d. Using commonly understood context, language and metacommunications
Ans. D

268. What is the main purpose of pre-flight briefings ?

a. To allow the Captain to assert his/her authority
b. To allow individual crew member to prepare their own responses to likely or problematic events
c. They form general information about the flight but they contain no specific reference to likely or
problematic events
d. They form information about the flight and allocate responsibilities and reactions to likely or problematic
events
Ans. D

269. Pilots should

a. have a good command of the English language
b. have at least a limited English vocabulary
c. be able to understand key words and phases only since these are sufficient to sufficiently impart meaning
d. be able to have a command of a local language since this is sufficient and legal in an emergency
Ans. A

101
270. To resolve conflict you should :
1. Actively listen
2. Talk on an emotional level
3. Be aware of prejudice
4. The leader should not offer his/her thoughts at the start
a. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4
b. 1 & 2 only
c. 2 , 3 and 4
d. 1 & 3 only
Ans. D

271. Which of the following elements of communications is most likely to lead o misunderstanding ?
a. Coding and decoding a message
b. The Receiver’s mood
c. Expectation (What you expect to hear )
d. The Sender’s nationality
Ans. C

272. Choose is/are the correct statement/s with regards to communications :

1. If the transmitter considers the reciptient competent , he/she cut down the verbal redundancy of
sentences
2. If the transmitter considers the recipient incompetent , sentences tend to be simplified
3. If the interlocutor is a non-native language, the transmitter will emphasise points by using more
complicated sentences to optimize understanding
4. Crew who know each other well tend to simplify check lists when conflict takes place
a. 1 and 3 are correct
b. 1 only is correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 2 are correct
Ans. D

273. In communication which element shows that information has been received and understood ?
a. Encoding
b. Decoding
c. Feedback
d. Synchronization
Ans. C

274. With regards to anticipation, which of the following would most likely to result in the occurrence of a
hazardous situation ?
a. mishearing the contents of an air traffic controller's non-standard clearance when a standard procedure
was anticipated.
b. anticipation of a check list
c. anticipation of weather
d. anticipation of a longer flight time than expected
Ans. A

275. Which of the following represent a solution to conflict ?

1. Seeking arbitration
2. Active listening
3. Moving the conversation onto an emotional level
4. Awareness of cultural differences
a. 1,2and3
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 4
Ans. D

102
276. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to automation ?
a. Automation increases Situational Awareness
b. Enables the pilot to respond to unusual situations better since there is no need to monitor automatics.
c. Reduces pilot's attention since they can be out of the loop
d. Saves time
Ans. C

277. Co-action is a form of co-operation that involves:

a. Working in parallel towards a common goal
b. Working in parallel towards separate goals
c. Working independently
d. Duplicating actions
Ans. A

278. A latent error

1. will show itself in time
2. will not be foreseen by programmers
3. lies dormant
4. only becomes apparent under certain conditions
5. will easily be recognised by operators

a. 1,4&5
b. 1,2,3,&4
c. 3 only
d. 1,3,4&5
Ans. B

279. Murphy's Law states that

a. Even if a system can be designed correctly, it will always be mis-used
b. If a system can be operated incorrectly, sooner or later it will be
c. If a system can be operated incorrectly it should be guarded
d. If a system can be operated incorrectly it should be backed up by a second system
Ans. B

280. The alerting system for an important system failure should be

a. a flashing visual signal - preferably red
b. a doll's eye indicator
c. an audio warning
d. a steady visual signal - preferably red
Ans. C

281. Between which components of the SHELL Concept would create a mismatch when reading a 3 point altimeter
?
a. L and E
b. L and S
c. L and L
d. L and H
Ans. D

282. The introduction of automation and improvements in glass cockpit designs

a. can sometimes be detrimental to performance as some systems provide poor quality feedback to pilots
b. give better communications in the cockpit, as pilots have more time to communicate
c. improve man/machine interface due to artificial intelligence in modern FMS
d. almost completely remove the need to communicate with ATC
Ans. A

103
283. What would be the priority aim in the design of man/machine interface in combating the occurrence of Human
Error ?
a. To eliminate latent errors
b. To minimize the consequences of the appearance or non-appearance of errors with respect to safety
c. To systematically analyze the occurrences of errors to improve the future design of systems and
ergonomics
d. To generate clear warnings and alerts
Ans. C

284. Between which stage will a human error be induced in the interface of a warning system ?
a. L-H
b. E-L
c. L-S
d. L-L
Ans. A

285. Check lists are most important when

a. flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before.
b. flying an aircraft with which you are not familiar and when under stress
c. conducting a long flight
d. flying an aircraft in which you are current
Ans. B

286. Errors resulting from a bad indexing system in a checklist or manual are related to a mismatch between
a. Software to Hardware
b. Liveware to Software
c. Liveware to Environment
d. Liveware to Liveware
Ans. B

287. Which of the following are performed better by Man than machine ?
1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
2. Detection of unusual conditions such as smell or noise
3. Qualitative decision-making
4. Monitoring of systems
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 and 4 only
Ans. B

288. SOP's in the cockpit must

a. only be tailored to the type of aircraft regardless of current MCC procedures
b. follow implicitly the manufacturer's suggestions and not reflect the Operator's cockpit procedures
c. be shared by the members of the crew and modified/updated so as to maintain as much synergy as
possible
d. be tailored to the individual pilot's needs and requirements
Ans. C

289. The term `complacency' means

a. to query and double-check possible solutions
b. synergy between the co-pilot and the Commander emanating from CRM procedures
c. physiological problems resulting from the fear of flying
d. unjustified self-confidence resulting in careless negligence
Ans. D

104
290. One of the negative aspects of automation is
a. It can lead to complacency of the aircrew
b. Pilots tend to be overloaded when trying to monitor the equipment
c. Crews become less experienced because the ease of control
d. Pilots tend to disregard the equipment
Ans. A

291. With reference to decision-making, it is

a. An automatic function
b. Conscious and voluntary after assessing the options
c. An arbitrary decision
d. A systematic and analytical process
Ans. D

292. A efficient flight deck crew is one which

a. respect each other's decision and views
b. is a constituted crew
c. respect each other's political and religious persuasions
d. is laiser faire
Ans. A

293. Confirmation Bias of the decision-making process is

a. To ignore information which indicates that a hypothesis or decision is poor
b. Not to seek information which confirms the decision
c. Not to look for information which would reassure the correct decision
d. To look for facts that confirm expectations before making a decision
Ans. A

105
17 (51-61) HUMAN PERFORMANCE SPECIMEN QUESTIONS
SPECIMEN EXAMINATION PAPER

1. Which of the following statements is correct ? The cones of the eye

a. Detect colour and are more sensitive to low light levels and to movement than the rods
b. Detect colour and are less sensitive to low light levels but more sensitive to movement than the rods
c. Detect colour and are less sensitive to low light levels and to movement than the rods
d. Detect colour and are more sensitive to low light levels but less sensitive to movement than the rods
Ans. C

2. The semi-circular canals react to

a. Linear acceleration
b. Heat
c. Temperature
d. Angular acceleration
Ans. D

3. Paradoxical Sleep refreshes the

a. body and cell tissues
b. mind and body
c. homeoneural systems of the body only
d. brain and memory
Ans. D

4. With what is "Mode Error" associated ?

a. Leadership
b. Motivation
c. Automation
d. Homeostasis
Ans. C

5. The brain controls breathing rate based upon the

a. The amount of oxygen required at the capillaries
b. The acidity of the blood
c. Pulse rate
d. Sweat glands
Ans. B

6. Why is it essential to ensure that the combustion heater is serviceable in an aircraft ?

a. To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning and possible fire
b. To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning, possible fire or explosion
c. To prevent carbon dioxide poisoning
d. To prevent carbon monoxide poisoning
Ans. D

7. Short term memory (Working Memory) can be improved through

a. practice and retrieval
b. chunking and association
c. rehearsal and practice
d. rehearsal and retrieval
Ans. B

8. The Systolic pressure is higher than the Diastolic pressure and the normal reading for a healthy person is 120/80.
High blood pressure can lead to strokes.
a. True
b. The above is false as the Diastolic pressure is higher than the Systolic pressure
c. The above is false as the normal reading is 250/90
d. The above is false since high blood pressure can lead to heart attacks
Ans. A

106
9. The factor which most increases the risk of coronary heart disease is
a. Family history
b. Lack of exercise
c. Obesity
d. Smoking
Ans. A

10. Tidal Volume is the volume of air

a. remaining in the lungs after the most forceful expiration
b that can still be exhaled by forceful expiration after the normal tidal expiration
c. that can still be inhaled over and beyond the normal breath
d. inhaled and exhaled with cacli normal breath
Ans. D

11. If you have an incorrect mental model, it is

1. easy to change
2. easy to comprehend
3. easy to recognise
4. resistant to correction

a. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct

b. 4 only is correct
c. 2 & 3 only are correct
d. 1 only is correct
Ans. B

12. Approximately ..............% of all accidents are caused by Human factors

a. 50
b. 95
c. 20
d. 70
Ans. D

13. Linear acceleration may give a false impression of a

a. Climb
b. Descent
c. Turn
d. Spin
Ans. A

14. The altitudes in the Standard atmosphere that pressure will be 1/4 , ''/z , and '/4 of MSL pressure is
approximately
a. 20,000 ft 10,000 ft 5,000 ft
b. 5,000 ft 10,000 ft 20,000 ft
c. 36,000 ft 18,000 ft 8,000 ft
d. 8,000 ft 18,000 ft 36,000 ft

Ans. D

15. The law that states "Providing the temperature is constant, the volume of gas is inversely proportional to its
pressure" is
a. The Combined Gas Law
b. Henry's Law
c. Dalton's Law
d. Boyle's Law
Ans. D

107
16. The Time of useful consciousness (TUC) at 43,000 ft in the event of progressive decompression for sitting and
moderate activity is
a. 30 and 15 seconds
b. 30 and 25 seconds
c. 18 and 12 seconds
d. 40 and 20 seconds
Ans. C

17. When suffering from Hypoxic Hypoxia short-term memory impairment starts at approximately
a. 10,000 ft
b. 12,000 ft
c. 14,000 ft
d. 16,000 ft
Ans. B

18. DCS is normally associated with ascent to altitudes over

a. 10,000 ft
b. 25,000 ft
c. 33,700 ft
d. 40,000 ft
Ans. B

19. A free running circadian rhythm exhibits a periodicity of approximately

a) 23 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 25 hours
d) 26 hours
Ans. C

20. Messages are sent through the nervous systems by ......................means

a. Chemical and hormonal
b. Electrical and chemical
c. Electrical and hormonal
d. Chemical only
Ans. B

21. What is the relationship between personality, attitude and behaviour

a. Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude
b. Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude
c. Attitude is the outward result of personality and behaviour
d. There is no relationship. Personality is derived from genes whereas behaviour and attitude are learnt
Ans. A

22. The nose

a. Warms, dries and filters the air
b. Cools, dries and filters the air
c. Cools, moistens and filters the air
d. Warm, moistens and filters the air
Ans. D

23. Rain on the windscreen at night tends to lead to

a. Too steep an approach and the threshold appears to be more distant than it is in fact
b. Too shallow an approach and the threshold appears to be more distant than it is in fact
c. Too steep an approach and the threshold appears to be closer than it is in fact
d. Too shallow an approach and the threshold appears to be closer than it is in fact
Ans. D

108
24. One of the causes of Noise Induced Hearing Loss NIHL is
a. Long exposure to levels of noise in excess of 90 dbs
b. Age
c. A blow to the head with subsequent damage to the ossicles
d. Hypertension
Ans. A

25. The Vestibular Apparatus consists of the

a. Cochlea and the auditory nerve
b. Eustachian tube and the semi-circular canals
c. Semi-circular canals and the otoliths
d. Eustachian tube and the pinna
Ans. C

26. The `Leans' or Somatogyral illusion can be caused by

a. entering a turn too quickly
b. bunting the aircraft
c. leveling or reducing bank following a prolonged turn
d. a carrier take-off
Ans. C

27. To overcome disorientation in IMC conditions it is advised to

a. Look out at the horizon
b. Believe the instruments
c. Keep the head as still as possible
d. Get relief from look-out duties
Ans. B

28. Our primary source of spatial orientation is

a. Sight
b. The ears
c. The Cortex
d. The Cerebellum
Ans. A

29. Co-action is a form of co-operation that can be defined as

a. working in parallel towards a common goal
b. working in parallel towards separate goals
c. working independently
d. duplicating actions
Ans. A
30. When moving from high to low levels of light the Cones detect ................... and adapt in approximately
....................whereas the Rods detect................... and adapt in approximately
a. Black and white? minutes Colour 30 minutes
b. Black and white30 minutes Colour 7 minutes
c. Colour 7 minutes lack and white 30 minutes
d. Colour 30 minutes lack and white 7 minutes
Ans. C

31. Which of the following statements is true ?

a. Circadian Disrhythmia is usually worse when traveling from West to East and 1 day's recovery is
required for every 1 hour of Circadian Disrhythmia
b. Circadian Disrhythmia is usually worse when traveling from East to West and 1 day's recovery is
required for every 90 minutes of Circadian Disrhythmia
c. Circadian Disrhythmia is usually worse when traveling from West to East and 1 day's recovery is
required for every 12 hours of Circadian Disrhythmia
d. Circadian Disrhythmia is usually worse when traveling from West to East and 2 day's recovery is
required for every 1 hour of Circadian Disrhythmia
Ans. B

109
32. Among the factors which affect night vision are
a. Age, cabin altitudes above 8,000 ft, age, smoking and alcohol
b. Age, cabin altitudes above 8,000 ft, age, smoking and lack of vitamin C
c. Age, cabin altitudes above 8,000 ft, age, smoking and lack of vitamin D
d. Age, cabin altitudes above 8,000 ft, age, smoking and lack of vitamin B
Ans. A

33. The twin objectives of Human Performance are

a. Knowledge of the limitations of the body and their significance in aviation
b. Flight Safety and self-awareness
c. The safety and efficiency of the operation and the well-being of the individual
d. Physical fitness and good decision-making
Ans. C

34. Haemoglobin is manufactured mainly in the

a. Liver
b. Heart
c. Bone Marrow
d. Capillaries
Ans. C

35. Which of the following statements is correct ?

a. Automation always improves Situational Awareness
b. It has been shown that approximately 80% of all communications is achieved by metacommunications
c. The Black Hole Effect generally leads to a steep approach
d. A mix of status and role is the best way to constitute a flight crew
Ans. B

36. Normal cabin pressure is

a. 10,000 ft.
b. 5,000 ft
c. 3,000 ft - 4,000 ft
d. 6,000 ft - 8,000 ft
Ans. D

37. To be restorative a nap must last for at least

a. 5 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 2 hours
Ans. B

38. The function of the Eustachian tube is to

a. Equalise the pressure between the outer and middle ear
b. Equalise the pressure between the outer and inner ear
c. Equalise the pressure between the inner and middle ear
d. Equalise the pressure between the tympanum and the inner ear
Ans. A

39. If you wear contact lenses while flying, you must also
a. Inform the company aviation medical specialist of your condition
b. Make sure that they are correctly oiled, cleaned and maintained
c. Take a spare pair of contact lenses with you and ensure they are immediately available
d. Take a pair of ordinary corrective spectacles with you and have them immediately available
Ans. D

110
40. Generally the most common cause of accidents to aircraft is
a. CFIT
b. MAYDY
c. RADA
d. EMERG
Ans. A

41. Iconic memory lasts for approximately

a. 0.5 - 1.0 second
b. 2 - 8 seconds
c. 10 - 20 seconds
d. Normally over 20 seconds
Ans. A

42. Stimuli must be of a certain strength for the receptors to pick them up. This is called
a. Sensory threshold
b. Sensory filter
c. Sensory strength
d. Sensory volume
Ans. A

43. The main limitation of the Central Decision-maker is

a. It is dual channelled processing
b. It is single channelled processing
c. It is slow
d. It multi channelled processing
Ans. B

44. The Cocktail Party Effect is an example of

a. Selective attention
b. Divided attention
c. Selective Communication
d. Divided Communication
Ans. A

45. A latent error

I . will show itself in time
2 . will not be foreseen by programmers
3. lies dormant
4. only becomes apparent under certain conditions
5 will easily be recognised programmers

a. 1, 2, 3 & 4 only are correct

b. only 3 is correct
c. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only are correct
d. 1, 4 & 5 only are correct
Ans. A

46. What 2 factors will bring a person temporarily from the Automatic phase stage of a motor programme into the
Associative stage ?
a. Fatigue and stress
b. Lack of practice and stress
c. Loss of Situational Awareness and fear
d. Anxiety and fatigue
Ans. B

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47. What are the 3 reactions of the GAS syndrome ?
a. Alarm, Resistance and Exhaustion
b. Alert, Resistance and Exhaustion
c. Temporal, Cognitive and Resultant
d. Psychological, Psychosomatic and Somatic
Ans. D

48. A smoker travelling in a non-pressurised aircraft to a height of over 10,000ft will suffer from:
a. Hypoxic hypoxia only
b. Anaemic hypoxia only
c. Anaemic and hypoxic hypoxia
d. The Coriolis effect
Ans. C

49. With a pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml, what is the cardiac output ?
a. 8 litres a minute
b. 6 litres a minute
c. 5 litres a minute
d. 7 litres a minute
Ans. C

50. What are the physiological systems which are involved with motion sickness ?
1. Auditory
2. Vestibular
3. Visual
4. Proprioceptive 5. Gastro-intestinal
a. 2,3&4
b. 1,3&5
c. 1,2&5
d. 2,3,4&5

Ans. A

51. Anxiety affects

1. Judgement
2. Attention
3. Memory
4. Concentration

a. 1 & 2 only
b. 1 only
c. 1,2&4
d. All
Ans. D

52. Which, if any, of the following statements is/are true ?

1. Psychosomatic refers to the interrelationships of mind and body
2. Psychosomatic refers to a psychological reaction to an outside stimulus causing physiological
change/changes
3. Psychosomatic problems are not common among the pilot community due to the high standard of selection
4. Psychosomatic problems can be cured by counseling

a. 1 and 3
b. None are correct
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2
Ans. D

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53. If the sensory threshold is increased
a. Selectivity is increased
b. Selectivity is decreased
c. Sensitivity is reduced
d. Sensitivity is increased
Ans. C

54. If you have an incorrect mental model, it is

1. easy to change
2. easy to comprehend
3. easy recognise
4. resistance to correction
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 4 only
d. 1 only
Ans. C

55. Overlearning
a. improves the chance of recall and makes the performance of a task more resistance to stress and is an
important concept of aviation training
b. is a process which is discouraged in the aviation training as it may lead to "Regression" in times of acute
stress
c. is a process in training which is usually adopted in order to pass complicated concepts to a recipient of
limited capabilities
d. is the process whereby information is layered and linked with previously learned facts and is an
important tool to improve Short-term Memory
Ans. A

56. What happens to the Systolic blood pressure if peripheral resistance is increased ?
a. Systolic blood pressure rises
b. Systolic blood pressure decreases
c. Systolic blood pressure is unaffected
d. Systolic blood pressure initially decreases and then increases
Ans. A

57. The pressoreceptors have signalled low blood pressure. The body's response is to
1. increase rate of breathing
2. increase cardiac output
3. increase heart rate
4. relaxation of the blood vessels
5. decrease heart rate
6. tightening of the blood vessels

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 6
c. 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 3 and 4
Ans. B

58. On expiration there is

a. Higher C02 content than on intake
b. More oxygen content than on intake
c. Less water vapour content than on intake
d. The same C02 content as on intake
Ans. A

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59. TUC is dependent upon
1. Rate of decompression
2. Altitude of the occurrence
3. Type of aircraft
4.Activity of the pilot
5. Personal health

a.1, 2 & 3 only are correct

b. All of the above are correct
c. All are correct except 3 which is incorrect
d. 2, 3 & 5 only are correct
Ans. C

60.Hearing through bone conduction

a. by-passes the inner ear
b. by-passes the outer ear
c. by-passes outer and the middle ear
d. is no different from the normal hearing process
Ans. C

61. What is the ideal personality for a pilot ?

a. G+ P+
b. A team player
c. Stable Extravert
d. Synergistic
Ans. C

62. Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is:

1. flying in IMC
2. frequently changing between inside and outside references
3.flying from IMC into VMC
4. approaching over still water at night

a. 1, 2 & 3 only are correct

b.1, 2 & 4 only are correct
c.1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct
d. 1 only is correct
Ans. B

63. A pilot becomes skilled when he/she

1. trains or practices regularly
2. knows how to manage him/herself
3. possesses all the knowledge associated with his/her aircraft
4. knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected

a. 1, 2 and 4 are correct

b. all are correct
c. 1 & 2 only are correct
d. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans. A

64. Once a mental model is constructed, there is a tendency to give

a. undue weight to information that contradicts the model
b. equal weight to information that contradicts and confirms the mental model
c frequent alterations to the mental model
d. undue weight to information that confirms the model
Ans. D

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65. A pilot inputting information from an altimeter can be expressed in terms of the SHELL Concept as
a. L-H
b. S-L
c. P - R
d. H-E
Ans. A

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