OROMIA EDUCATION BUREAU 2010 E.

C REGIONAL CHEMISTRY MODEL EXAMINATION FOR GRADE 12

DIRECTIONS: THIS EXAMINATION CONTAINS A TOTAL OF 80

ULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. CARFULLY SELECT THE BEST
ANSWER AND BLACKEN ONLY THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE
ON THE SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED.
TIME ALLOWED: 2 ½ HOURS
Notice: you may refer the information given below when you work
on some of the questions.
A) Ideal gas constant, R = 8.314Jmol-1k-1 = 0.0821L.atm mol-1 K-1
B) Avogadro’s number =6.023x1023 mol-1
C) Plank’s constant , h=6.626x10-34 J s
D) Speed of light, C = 3.0x108 m /s
E) Rydberg constant, Rh =2.18x10-18J
F) Faraday’s constant(F) =96500c
G) Natural Logarithm of 2 ,ln2 =0.693
H) Water dissociation constant, Kw =1.0x10-14
I) K f of H2O = 1.860C/m and Kbof H2O = 0.5120C/sm

Elements H Li B C N O F Ne Na Mg Al S Cl Ar K Ca Cu Kr I Au
symbol
Atomic 1 3 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 16 17 18 19 20 29 36 53 79
number(Z)
Atomic 1 7 10 12 14 16 19 20 23 24 27 32 35.5 40 39 40 64 85 127 197
mass(A)

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1. How many electrons can a single orbital hold? s

A. 2n B.2 C. 2l + 1 D. 8
2. Which of the following is NOT a valid set of quantum numbers?
A. n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0, and ms = -1/2
B. n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, and ms = 1/2
C. n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1, and ms = -1/2
D. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 3, and ms = 1/2
3. Which variables are linked in the de Broglie equation?
A. frequency and wavelength of a photon
B .wavelength and momentum of a moving electron
C. energy and frequency of a photon
D. work function and threshold frequency of a metal
4. The minimum energy required to remove an electron from potassium metal
is 3.7x10-19 J. How much kinetic energy does the electron have up on
leaving the metal surface when a blue light with wave length 451nm cause
the photoelectric effect?
A.7.0x10-20J B.4.4x-19J C.3.7x10-19J D. 8.1x10-20 J
5.Round off 0.035 49 to three significant figures is:
A. 0.04 B. 0.036 C. 0.0355 D. 0.035
6. The diameter of the given star is about 3, 500, 000 m. The scientific
notation to represent this diameter is:
A. 3.5 × 105 m B. 35 × 104 m C. 35 × 106 m D. 3.5 × 106 m
7. What are the possible values of n and ml for an electron in a 5d orbital?
A. n = 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 and ml = 2
B. n = 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 and ml = -2,-1, 0, +1, or +2
C. n = 5 and ml = 2
D. n = 5 and ml = -2, -1, 0, +1, or +2
8. Which of the following is NOT a laboratory safety rule?
A. You should never mix acids with bases
B. You should tie back your long hair
C. You should never add water to acid
D. All of the above are valid safety rules
9. In Science an educated guess is called a/an:
A. Observation B. Conclusion C. Hypothesis D. Law
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10. What type of error will be resulted by the expansion of liquid in a

thermometer along the column by increasing working temperature ?
A. Systematic B. Random C. Gross D. Average
11. The intensive physical properties of a substance are important because
they:
A. Allow us to determine how much of the substance is required in a
chemical reaction.
B. Help us to determine how much the resistor is effective.
C. Provide information about the atomic structure of the substance.
D. Help us to identify or characterize the substance.
12. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that:
A. There is an uncertainty in the order of filling the 4s and 3d orbital’s
when writing the electro configurations in the periodic table.
B. There is uncertainty in knowing the position and momentum of the
electron simultaneously.
C. There is an uncertainty in the position of the electron in a 2s orbital
because there is a node.
D. There is an uncertainty in obtaining the wave length of a macroscopic
particle.
13. What type of atomic orbital is shown below?

A. 4s B. 4p C.4dZ2 D. 4f
2 6 1
14. The electron configuration [Ne] 3S 3P 4S is an exited state of:
A. Ca B. Kr C. Al D.K
15. The “plum pudding” model of the atom was devised by:
A. Dalton B. J.J Thomson C. Rutherford D. Bohr
16. How many lone pairs of electrons are on the sulfur atom in sulfite ion,
(SO32-)?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
17. What hybridization change does the carbon atom undergo in the
combustion of methane?
CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) →CO 2 (g) + 2H2O (g)
A. sp→ sp2 B. sp2 → sp3 C. sp3 → sp D. sp2 → sp
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18. The VSEPR theory predicts the molecular geometry of ICl3 as:
A. triangular planar C. triangular pyramidal
B. triangular bi pyramidal D. T -shaped
19. How many sigma and pi bonds are present in the following molecule?
CH3-CH=CH-CH3
A. 11 sigma bonds and 1 pi bond C. 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi bonds
B. 10 sigma bonds and 2 pi bonds D. 8 sigma bonds and 1 pi bond
20. Which is a non-polar molecule containing a non-polar covalent bond?
A.CS2 B. I2 C. CO2 D. BF3
21. If the electronic configuration of an element is 1s 2s 2p 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2,
2 2 6

the four electron involved in chemical bond formation will be_____.

A. 3p6 B. 3p6, 4s2 C 3p6, 3d2 D. 3d2, 4s2
22. Which of the following bond angle corresponds to sp2 hybridization?
A.90° B. 120° C. 180° D. 109°
23. Which among the following is paramagnetic?
A. N2 B. N22– C. C2 D. O22–
24. Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT?
A. NaCl being an ionic compound is a good conductor of electricity in the
solid state.
B. ideal geometry and electron set arrangement of the given molecule are
the same.
C. pi- orbital electrons form weaker bonds than sigma orbital electrons.
D. VSEPR theory can explain the square planar geometry of XeF4.
25. What is the bond order of F22- ?
A.1 B.2 C.0 D.3
26. The rat eye possibly can view the light with a wave length of 380nm.What is
the frequency of this light wave?
A. 1.17x1020s-1 B. 1.14x1020s-1 C. 7.9 x1014s-1 D. 3.83x1014s-1
27.Which of the following has the lowest lattice energy?
A. LiF B. NaF C. NaCl D. NaI
28. Which properties are identical for elements from the same period?
A. atomic radius C. the number of electron layers
B. ionization energy D. chemical properties

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29. Consider the following reaction:

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
If the rate of formation of NH3 is 3.0 mL/min. The rate of consumption of
H2 is:
A. 1.5mL/ min B. 4.5mL/min C. 2.0mL/min D. 9.0mL/min
30. An untreated sugar cube does not burn when held over a lighted match. A
sugar cube coated with cigarette ash readily ignites and burns. All of the
cigarette ash remains after the reaction. The factor that caused this change
in rate is the:
A. Nature of reactants. C. Increase in surface area.
B. Increase in concentration D. Presence of a catalyst
31. Consider the following reaction mechanism:
Step1: NO2 + NO2 N2O4
Step2: N2O4 + CO CO2 + NO + NO2
The product in the overall reaction is:
A. NO2 and CO2 C. CO and NO
B. CO2 and NO D. NO2 and NO
32. Consider the reaction: 2A + B → C + 2 D. The rate law for this reaction is
first order in A and also first order in B. If the rate constant at 25 0C is
3.01x102 s-1 .What is the rate of reaction when the concentration of A is
0.47 and the concentration of B is 0.79 M?
A. 112 M2s-1 B. 53M3s-1 C. 71M2s-1 D.
333M2s-1
33. For the reaction: 2A + 3B → 4C + 5D, the rate of the reaction in terms of
Δ [C] would be written as :
A. + Δ[C] /Δt C. + 4 Δ[C] /Δt
B.-1/4 Δ[C] /Δt D. +1/4 Δ[C] /Δt
34. In an electrolysis experiment, a current was passed through two cells
connected in series. The first cell contains AU (NO3)3 solution and the
second cell contains CUSO4 solution. 9.54gm of gold was deposited in the
first cell .What mass of copper is deposited on the cathode in the second
cell?
A. 20.2gm B. 4.7gm C. 6.2gm D. 9.4gm

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Questions 35-36 refers to the following reaction:

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
ΔH° = –198 kJ mol–1. The equilibrium constant for this reaction at
830 °C is 0.25atm–1.

35. Which one of the following is the correct expression for the equilibrium
constant?

A. Kc 
SO3  C. Kc 
SO3 2
SO2 O2  SO2 2 O2 

B. Kc 
SO3 2 T D. Kc 
SO2 2 O2 
SO2 2 O2  SO3 2
36. If the temperature is increased the amount of SO3 (g) produced will:
A. increase C. remains the same.
B. decrease D. increase, then decrease
37. A student adds 6.00 g of a solid to 30.0 mL of water. What is the
concentration of this solution expressed as mass/mass percent? (Assume
the density of water is 1gm/mL).
A. 0.167% (m/m) C. 16.7% (m/m)
B. 0.200% (m/m) D. 20.0% (m/m)
38. The following reaction is at equilibrium:
Cl2 (g) + 3F2 (g) 2ClF3 (g)
How will the system respond if the pressure is decreased at a constant
temperature?
A. The reaction will shift to the left.
B. The reaction will shift to the right.
C. There will be no change to the equilibrium position.
D. The concentration of the product will increase.
39. What is the conjugate base of H2PO4-?
A. OH- B. PO43- C. HPO42- D. H3PO4
40. Consider the following equilibrium: N2 (g) + O2 (g) + Q 2NO (g)
When the temperature is increased, the equilibrium shifts to the
A. left and Keq increases. C. right and Keq decreases
B. left and Keq decreases D. right and Keq increases

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41. The equilibrium of the reaction: N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) will shift to
product side when:
A. Kp >1 B. Q < Kp C. Q = Kp D. Q = 2Kp
42. What will happen during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4 in
the presence of Cu electrodes?
A. Hydrogen gas will evolve at cathode.
B. Copper will dissolve at anode
C. Oxygen gas will be released at anode.
D. Copper will deposit at anode.
43. Vulcanization makes rubber ______________
A. more elastic C. soluble in inorganic solvent
B. crystalline D. stiffer
44. Which of the following is addition polymer?
A. Nylon B. Polyester C. Bakelite D.Polystyrene
45. Polyethylene has which of the following monomers?
A. CH2 B. C2H4 C. CH4 D. C2H6
46. Which of the following is needed in order for a condensation polymer to be
networked?
A. at least one of the starting molecules must be di functional.
B. at least one of the starting molecules must be tri functional.
C. both starting materials must be di functional
D. both starting materials must only be mono functional.
47. A 0.010M acid solution has a pH of 2.00. The acid could be
A. HNO3 B. H2SO3 C. HCOOH D. CH3COOH
48. Which of the following salts dissolves in water to produce a basic aqueous
solution?
A. KClO4 B. MgSO4 C. NH4NO3 D. LiF
49. A buffer solution can be formed by dissolving equal moles of
A. KBr and Na3PO4 C. HCl and NaOH
B.HF and NaF D. CH3COOH and NaCl
50. Consider the following: PO43-, HPO42-, H2PO4-, H3PO4.The term
amphiprotic can be used to describe:
A. PO43-only C. HPO42-and H2PO4-only
B. PO43-, HPO42-, H2PO4-only D.HPO42-, H2PO4-, H3PO4 only
51. What volume of 0.300 M HNO3 is needed to neutralize completely 25.0 mL
of 0.250 M Sr(OH)2?
A. 10.4 mL B. 15.0 mL C. 20.8 mL D. 41.7 mL
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52 .What is the net ionic equation for the neutralization reaction of 2HF(aq) with
Sr(OH)2(aq).
A. HF (aq) + OH-(aq) -
→H2O (l) +F (aq)

B. HF (aq) + H2O (l) → H3O+ (aq) +F-(aq)

C. 2HF(aq) + Sr(OH)2(aq) → SrF2(aq) + 2H2O(l)
D. 2H+(aq) + 2F-(aq)+ Sr2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) → SrF2(aq) + 2H2O(l)
53. The indicator phenolphthalein can be described by the following
equilibrium equation:
HIn + H2O H3O++ In-
Colorless pink

HCl is added to a slightly pink sample of this indicator. After equilibrium

has been re- established, how do the [H3O+] and the color of the solution
compare with the original equilibrium?
A. [H3O+] decreases, Color of Solution turn pinker
B. [H3O+] decreases, Color of Solution turns colorless
C. [H3O+] increase, Color of Solution turns pinker
D. [H3O+] increase, Color of Solution turns colorless
54. Which molecule is a fatty acid?
A. (CH3)2CH (CH2)3COOH C. CH2CHCOOH
B. CH3 (CH2)7CH = CH (CH2)7COOH D. CH3COOH
55. An ester has the structural formula: CH3CH2COOCH(CH3)2
on hydrolysis, the ester would produce:
A. ethanoic acid and propan-1-ol.
B. propanoic acid and propan-1-ol.
C. ethanoic acid and propan-2-ol.
D. propanoic acid and propan-2-ol
56. Oils are generally ____ at room temperature and are obtained from ______.
A. solids, animals C. liquids, plants
B. liquids, animals D. solids, plants
57. In chemical terms, soaps can best be described as:
A. mixed esters of fatty acids. C. simple esters of fatty acids.
B. salts of long chain fatty acids. D. long chain acids.
58. What is the concentration of Li+ in 200.0 mL of 1.5 M Li2SO42-solution?
A. 0.30 M B. 0.60 M C. 1.5 M D. 3.0 M

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59. The base-dissociation constant, Kb , for pyridine, C5H5N, is 1.4 x 10-9. The
acid-dissociation constant, Ka , for the pyridinium ion, C5H5NH+, is _____.
A. 7.1x10-6 B. 1.4 x 10-5 C. 1.0 x 10-7 D. 1.4 x 10-23
60. What is the freezing point of solution prepared by dissolving 90gm of
C6H12O6 in 200gm of water?
A. 00C B. -2.10C C. -1.80C D. 2.10C
61. Which of the following is an extensive property of a system?
A. Surface tension C. Viscosity
B. refractive index D. internal energy
62. Zinc blend is:
A. ZnS B. ZnO C. Zn2SiO4 D. ZnO.Fe2O3
63. Zone refining is a method Used to obtain:
A. Very high temperature C. Ultra-pure Germanium
B. Ultra-pure aluminum D. Ultra-pure oxides
64. The equilibrium constants for each of the following reactions are given:
N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g), Kc1 = 4.3 x 10-25
2NO (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g), Kc2 = 6.4 x 109
What is Kc for the combined reaction?
N2 (g) + 2O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g)
A. 3.7 x 10-13 B. 6.1 x 10-14 C. 2.8 x 10-15 D. 8.9 x 10-16
65. What is the [H3O+] at the equivalence point for the titration between HBr
and KOH?
A. 1.0x10-9 M B. 1.0x10-7 M C. 1.0x10-5 M D. 0.0 M
66. How many calories are required to increase the temperature of 6 g of
alcohol from 110C to 210C? (The specific heat of alcohol is 0.60cal/g 0C)
A. 70.0cal B. 36.0cal C. 76.0cal D. 119.0cal
67. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT?
A. ∆G is zero for a reversible reaction.
B. ∆G is negative for a spontaneous reaction.
C. ∆G is positive for a spontaneous reaction.
D. ∆G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction.

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68. When the net ionic equations: Fe2+ + Cr2O72-→ Cr3+ + Fe3+ is balanced by
ion electro method in acidic medium , the coefficient of :
Fe2+, Cr2 O72 , Cr3+, Fe3+ become respectively:
A. 6, 1, 2, 6 B.3, 1, 2, 3 C.5, 1, 2, 5 D. 1, 1, 2, 1
69. A solution that has the maximum solute can it dissolves in the solvent is
called
A. limiting reagent C. super saturated
B. excess reagent D. saturated
70. What is the oxidation number of chromium in the ionic compound
ammonium dichromate, (NH4)2Cr2O7?
A. +3 B. +6 C. +4 D. +7
71. The following reaction occurs in basic solution. Identify the oxidizing agent.
H2O (l) + Zn(s) + NO3--(aq) + OH–(aq) → Zn (OH) 42-(aq) + NH3 (aq)
A. Zn(s) C. H2O (l)
B. NO3–(aq) D. NH3 (aq)
72. Which of the following statements about electrochemical cells is true?
A. Reduction occurs at the anode
B. An element with a high love for electrons is likely to be easily oxidized
C. Anode is used as an oxidizing agent.
D. Only oxidation half–reactions are useful
73. Given the electrochemical reaction shown below , if the standard reduction
potential of Ag+/Ag is +0.80 V, and the standard reduction potential of
Cu2+/Cu is +0.34V, what is E˚cell for the following cell notation?
Cu / Cu 2+
(aq) // Ag+ (aq) / Ag
A. +1.26 V B. +0.85 V C. +0.46 V D.-0.37 V
74. While discharging the lead storage battery ______________.
A. PbSO4 is reduced to Pb. C. Pb is reduced to PbSO4.
B. PbSO4 is oxidized to PbO2. D. PbO2 is reduced to PbSO4.
75. How many grams of aluminum metal can be produced by the electrolysis of
Al2O3 passing a current of 6 amperes for 96,500s through the cell?
A. 54gm B. 0.67gm C. 0.02gm D. 162gm

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76. When equal volumes of the following four 0.1mol dm-3 aqueous solutions
are arranged in order of increasing PH value, what is the correct order?
A. CH3COOH <HNO3< CH3CH2NH2< KOH
B. HNO3<CH3COOH< CH3CH2NH2< KOH
C. CH3CH2NH2<HNO3<CH3COOH< KOH
D. KOH < CH3CH2NH2<CH3COOH<HNO3
77.What is ∆H for the following reaction?
C2H4 (g) + H2 (g) → C2H6 (g) , When:
(∆Hf 0 for C2H4(g) = 52.5 kJ/mol and ∆Hf0 for C2H6 (g) = –84.7 kJ/mol)
A. –137.2 kJ B. 32.2 kJ C. –32.2 kJ D. 137.2 kJ
78. Which of the following ores contains CO3-2?
A. Bauxite B. Dolomite C. Epsomite D. Cassiterite
79. If a laboratory assistant dilute 5 mL of 0.15 M NaCl solution to a final
volume of 5 L, what is the final concentration of NaCl solution?
A. 15000 M B. 0.0015 M C. 0.00015M D. 0.150M
80. Tin does not react with:
A. dilute perchloric acid C. concentrated nitric acid
B. chlorine gas D. cold water

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