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IELTS Mock Test

Latest Paper.
Sri Lanka October,2020

Listening
SECTION 1

Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

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SECTION 2
Question 11 -16
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11 What was Jill surprised to find?

A. Some work to reduce the water usage to her house could be done soon.
B. The house was poorly insulated.
C. She could get financial help.

12 What does Jill say every family can do straight away?

A. Use energy-saving bulbs.
B. Turn down the thermostat.
C. Turn off their appliances completely.

13 What pleased Jill about the energy provider?

A. reduction in price for prompt payment
B. allowing customers to pay online
C. having a reduction in price of the energy-saving sources

14 What difficulty does Jill have with the energy meters?

A. They are difficult to access.
B. The figures are hard to read accurately.
C. She can’t tell whether they’re for electricity or for gas.

15 What kind of energy-saving method is Jill going to take next?

A. Use an energy-saving boiler.
B. Have the walls checked for their insulation level.
C. Install double-glazed windows.

16 Why is Jill doubtful about renewable energy?

A. She thinks it’s unsuitable for her house.
B. She doesn’t understand the technical details.
C. She believes it’s too expensive.

Question 17 - 18

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO water-saving tips does Jill recommend?

A. use more showers than baths
B. keep the washing machine full before using it
C. boil only as much water as you need
D. turn off the taps while you are brushing your teeth
E. repair leaking taps
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Question 19 - 20

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO topics do people most frequently ask about?

A. the ideal temperature setting on the thermostat
B. whether to leave the light on or not
C. whether to use a computer or laptop to watch movies
D. how to work out the operating cost of appliances
E. whether solar panels only work on sunny days

SECTION 3
Questions 21-25

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21 Students may fail the exam if they
A. do not collect primary statistics.
B. copy other people’s work.
C. do not follow the instructions.

22 Why does the man think they should avoid including the pictures of the first
volcano in the presentation?
A. They are not attractive.
B. The time is limited.
C. People have never heard of it.

23 About Mount Fago, a volcano in Mexico or the USA, the man thinks
A. they should not use inaccurate information in the presentation.
B. they should use another example.
C. it does not matter where the volcano is.

24 The woman thinks they should mention Mount Etna since

A. it covers most of the important points.
B. It was formed a long time ago.
C. it has stunning views.

25 They agree to leave out Mount Herton as

A. other students have used it before.
B. it is irrelevant to their topic.
C. there is nothing special about this volcano.
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Question 26 – 30

Which statement applies to each of the following situations?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to
questions 26-30.

A. make a short film

B. lacked his/her own points
C. neglect the positive aspect
D. watch some documentaries
E. did not prepare beforehand
F. identify the differences between them.

26 The woman’s last presentation was criticized because it

27 The tutor suggests for the next presentation the woman should
28 People do not know enough about volcanoes and so they
29 The reason why the man felt very nervous is that he
30 They are researching active and extinct volcanoes to

SECTION 4

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORD ONLY for each answer.

A Chain Store in the UK

Initial expansion
- The company expanded by opening more 31.........to increase market share in
England.
- They could raise capital by reducing the number of branches in southern 32...........

Consultation
- They closed the 33...........of the convenience stores in Oxford.
- Over 200 staff had to be transferred and 34..............
- A new brand image was established to focus on selling 35...........

The future way

- A 36............was assigned to hold each discussion.
- Retail stores should be flexible in making 37..........
- Changes should be introduced in 38............ so that the staff can become
accustomed to the new rules.

Conclusion
- Be open-minded about the 39............for expansion they choose.
- Companies have saved costs by changing the structure of the 40....................of
department stores.
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READING

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading
Passage 1 below.

The Peal

A. Long known as the “Queen of Gems”, pearls possess a history and allure far
beyond what today's wearer may recognize. Throughout much of recorded
history, a natural pearl necklace comprised of matched spheres was a treasure
of almost incomparable value, in fact the most expensive jewelry in the world.
Before the creation of cultured pearls in the early 1900s, natural pearls were so
rare and expensive that they were reserved almost exclusively for the noble and
very rich. The ancient Egyptians were particularly fond of their pearls. Many
Egyptian leaders treasured pearls so much that they were often buried along
with their cherished pearl collection. In the Orient and Persian Empire, pearls
were ground into costly powders to cure anything from heart disease to
epilepsy, with possible aphrodisiac uses as well. China's long recorded history
also provides ample evidence of the importance of pearls.
B. Pearls usually fall into three categories—natural pearls, cultured pearls and
simulated pearls. A natural pearl forms when an irritant, such as a piece of
sand, works its way into a particular species of oyster, mussel, or clam. As a
defense mechanism, the mollusk secretes a fluid to coat the irritant. Layer upon
layer of this coating is deposited on the irritant until a lustrous pearl is formed.
A cultured pearl undergoes the same process. The only difference between
natural pearls and cultured pearls is that the irritant is a surgically implanted
bead or piece of shell called Mother of Pearl. Often, these shells are ground
oyster shells that are worth significant amounts of money in their own right as
irritant-catalysts for quality pearls. The resulting core is much larger than in a
natural pearl. Imitation pearls are a different story altogether. In most cases, a
glass bead is dipped into a solution made from fish scales. This coating is thin
and may eventually wear off. One can usually tell an imitation by biting on it.
The island of Mallorca in Spain is known for its imitation pearl industry.
C. Regardless of the method used to acquire a pearl, the process usually takes
several years. Mussels must reach a mature age, which can take up to 3 years,
and then be implanted or naturally receive an irritant. Once the irritant is in
place, it can take up to another 3 years for the pearl to reach its full size. Often,
the irritant may be rejected, the pearl will be terrifically misshapen, or the
oyster may simply die from disease or countless other complications. By the
end of a 5 to 10 year cycle, only 50% of the oysters will have survived. And of
the pearls produced, only approximately 5% are of a quality substantial enough
for top jewelry makers.
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D. How can untrained eyes determine a pearl's worth? Luster and size are
generally considered the two main factors to look for. Luster for instance,
depends on the fineness and evenness of the layers. The deeper the glow, the
more perfect the shape and surface, the more valuable they are. Size on the
other hand, has to do with the age of the oyster that created the pearl (the more
mature oysters produce larger pearls) and the location in which the pearl was
cultured. The South Sea waters of Australia tend to produce the larger pearls;
probably because the water along the coast line is supplied with rich nutrients
from the ocean floor. Also, the type of mussel being common to the area seems
to possess a predilection for producing comparatively large pearls.
E. In general, cultured pearls are less valuable than natural pearls, whereas
imitation pearls almost have no value. One way that jewelers can determine
whether a pearl is cultured or natural is to have a gem lab perform an X-ray of
the pearl. If the X-ray reveals a nucleus, the pearl is likely a bead nucleated
saltwater pearl. If no nucleus is present, but irregular and small dark inner spots
indicating a cavity are visible, combined with concentric rings of organic
substance, the pearl is likely a cultured freshwater. Among cultured pearls,
Akoya pearls from Japan are some of the most lustrous. Although imitation
pearls look the part, they do not have the same weight or smoothness as real
pearls, and their luster will also dim greatly.
F. Historically, the world’s best pearls came from the Persian Gulf, especially
around what is now Bahrain. The pearls of the Persian Gulf were naturally
created and collected by breath-hold divers. Unfortunately, the natural pearl
industry of the Persian Gulf ended abruptly in the early 1930’s with the
discovery of large deposits of oil. The water pollution resulting from spilled oil
and indiscriminate over-fishing of oysters essentially ruined the pristine waters
of the Gulf once producing pearls. Still, Bahrain remains one of the foremost
trading centers for high quality pearls. In fact, cultured pearls are banned from
the Bahrain pearl market, in an effort to preserve the location's heritage.
Nowadays, the largest stock of natural pearls probably resides in India.
Ironically, much of India’s stock of natural pearls came originally from
Bahrain. Unlike Bahrain, which has essentially lost its pearl resource,
traditional pearl fishing is still practiced on a small scale in India.
G. Pearls also come in many colours. The most popular colours are white, cream,
and pink. Silver, black, and gold are also gaining increasing interest. In fact, a
deep lustrous black pearl is one of the rarest finds in the pearling industry,
usually only being found in the South Sea near Australia. Thus, they can be one
of the more costly items. Nowadays, pearls predominately come from Japan,
Australia, Indonesia, Myanmar, China, India, the Philippines, and Tahiti.
Japan, however, controls roughly 80% of the world pearl market, with
Australia and China coming in second and third, respectively.
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Questions 1 - 4
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A—G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A—G in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

1 difficulties in cultivating process

2 causes affecting the size of natural pearls
3 ancient customs around pearls
4 distinctions between cultured pearls and natural ones

Questions 5-10
Complete the summary below. Choose letter from A—K for each answer. Write them
in boxes 5-10 on your answer sheet.

Throughout history, people in 5 .....................used pearls for medicine and philtres.

There are essentially three types of pearls: natural, cultured and imitation. Natural and
cultured pearls share a similar growing process, while imitation pearls are different.
And 6 .................... owns the reputation for its imitation pearl industry. The country
7....................usually produces the larger sized pearls due to the favourable
environment along the coast line, while the nation of 8....................manufactures
some of the most listening cultured pearls. In the past, the country 9 ....................in
the Persian Gulf, produced the world’s best pearls. At present, the major remaining
suppliers of natural pearls are in 10.....................

A. America
B. Philippines
C. Australia
D. Bahrain
E. China
F. Japan
G. India
H. Egypt
I. Myanmar
J. Persia
K. Mallorca

Questions 11 - 13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading Passage
1?

In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
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11 A cultured pearl’s centre is often significantly larger than that in a natural pearl.
12 Imitation pearls are usually the same price as natural ones.
13 The size of pearls produced in Japan is surely smaller than those from Australia.

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Questions 14-19
Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraph A—C and from the list of headings
below.

Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings
i The subconscious nature of gestures
ii The example of regional differences
iii The key factors of gestures
iv Sending out important signals
v How a well-known gesture loses its meaning
vi Performance in a specific setting
vii Recent research of Gesture Variant
viii Comparison to an everyday-use object
ix How will conflict be handled
x Individual deviation of cultural norms

14. Paragraph A
15. Paragraph B
16. Paragraph C

Example Answer
Paragraph D i

17. Paragraph E
18. Paragraph F
19. Paragraph G

Gesture

A. gesture is any action that sends a visual signal to an onlooker. To become a gesture,
an act has to be seen by someone else and has to communicate some pieces of
information to them. It can do this either because the gesturer deliberately sets out to
send a signal or it can do it only incidentally. The hand-wave is a Primary
Gesture,because it has no other existence or function. Therefore, to make it a gesture,
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first, it should be clear and unambiguous. Others would be able to understand it

instantly when it is shown to them. Nor may any component of a gesture, its force, its
direction and amplitude of movement, be altered: otherwise, confusion or
misunderstanding may occur.

B. Most people tend to limit their use of the term “gesture” to the primary form the
hand-wave type—but this misses an important point. What matters with gesturing is
not what signals we think we are sending out, but what signals are being received. The
observers of our acts will make no distinction between our intentional primary
gestures and our unintentional, incidental ones. This is why it is preferable to use the
term “gesture” in its wider meaning as an "observed action". This can be compared to
the ring of a telephone. The speed, tone and intensity of a telephone remain the same
for any phone call. Even the length of time before being told that the number you are
dialing is not answering, unless the caller hangs up, is the same.

C. Some gestures people use are universal. The shoulder shrug is a case in point. The
shrug is done by bringing the shoulders up, drawing the head in, and turning the palms
upwards so as to reveal that nothing is hidden. The shoulder shrug can also
demonstrate submission or that what is being said isn’t understood. Another example
is that an angry person usually expresses his rage by waving his clenched fist rapidly
and forcefully. Surprisingly, you may find that people of different cultures will do the
same when they are offended. That is to say, a commonly accepted gesture is shared
by them. But if the way the hand is clenched changes, or the amplitude of force and
the direction the fist is waved alters, the gesture no longer means the same.

D. So, is gesture born with us or is it developed as we grow up? Recent research found
that gesture is more like a spontaneous reaction when we face certain situations. And
we just do that automatically. When people talk, they almost always gesture with their
hands. This expressive movement can be coaxed into a choreographic form if
observed carefully. People can practice spontaneous gesture by forming pairs, then
observing and questioning each other. They then show the group what they have
collected from their partners. It is fun to surprise a group using this technique.
Because spontaneous gestures are often unconscious, people will sometimes be
surprised to have their gestures mirrored back to them, saying “Did I really do that?”

E. The attention of research was also drawn to cultural themes. Researchers

discovered that if a person has a good set of teeth, he or she would be prone to have
a bigger smile than he or she should when good things happen. And if a person
possesses a bad set of teeth, he or she would tend to have his or her mouth shut when
being teased. And people’s reaction to the same joke also varies: some laugh out loud
while others titter. However, this does not cause confusion and it helps to develop our
“behavioural”, which is an important aspect of our identity. It was referred to as a
Gesture Variant, which indicates that individuals’ gesture production is a complex
process, in which speakers’ internal and external factors and interactions could play a
role in multi-modal communication.
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F. During the research, an interesting phenomenon soon caught researchers’

attention. A hand purse gesture, which is formed by straightening the fingers and
thumb of one hand and bringing them together so the tips touch, pointing upwards
and shaping like a cone, carries different meanings in different countries. In Malta, it
means heavy sarcasm: "you may seem good, but you are really bad.”; in Tunisia, it is
against recklessness, saying "slow down”; in Italy, it means “What’s the matter?” or
"What are you trying to say?”; in France, it means "I am afraid". However, this
gesture has no clear meaning in American culture. And of course, the way the gesture
is conducted is similar in different countries.

G. But what will happen if the gestures of different countries confront each other? The
situation is further complicated by the fact that some gestures mean totally different
things in different countries. To take one example, in Saudi Arabia, stupidity can be
signalled by touching the lower eyelid with the tip of the forefinger. But this same
gesture, in various other countries, can mean disbelief, approval, agreement, mistrust,
scepticism, alertness, secrecy, craftiness, danger, or criminality. So people are faced
with two basic problems where certain gestures are concerned: either one meaning
may be signalled by different actions, or several meanings may be signalled by the
same action, as we move from culture to culture. The only solution is to approach
each culture with an open mind and learn their gestures as one would learn their
vocabulary. These all require considerable skill and training and belong in a totally
different world from the familiar gestures we employ in everyday life.

Questions 20 - 22
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write your answers in boxes 20—22 on your answer sheet.

20 According to the passage, which aspect of the ringing of a telephone is compared

with gestures?
A. The length of the ringing.
B. The unchanging sound of the ringing.
C. The telephone ringing intrudes upon our life.
D. The speed of ringing signals the urgency.

21 Which of the diagrams below shows the gesture “Hand Purse”?

22 In which country should the gesture "Hand Purse" be used with caution?
A. Malta
B. Tusinia
C. Italy
D. France

Questions 23 - 25
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 23-25 on your answer sheet, write
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TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

23 Angry people are often in the same age range or group.

24 Personal physical characteristics may affect the gesture used.
25 A Gesture Variant can still be understood by the members of the same culture.

Question 26
According to the passage, what is the writer’s purpose in writing this passage?
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D
Write you answer in box 26 on your answer sheet.

A. to clarify the origin of gesture-based communication

B. to promote the worldwide use of gestures
C. to investigate whether gesture use affects information content
D. to explain the concept of gesture

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.
Grimm’s Fairy Tales

The Brothers Grimm, Jacob and Wilhelm, named their story collection Children's and
Household Tales and published the first of its seven editions in Germany in 1812. The
table of contents reads like an A-list of fairy-tale celebrities: Cinderella, Sleeping
Beauty, Snow White, Little Red Riding Hood, Rapunzel, Rumpelstiltskin, Hansel and
Gretel, the Frog King. Drawn mostly from oral narratives, the 210 stories in the
Grimms' collection represent an anthology of fairy tales, animal fables, rustic farces,
and religious allegories that remain unrivalled to this day.

Such lasting fame would have shocked the humble Grimms. During their lifetimes the
collection sold modestly in Germany, at first only a few hundred copies a year. The
early editions were not even aimed at children. The brothers initially refused to
consider illustrations, and scholarly footnotes took up almost as much space as the
tales themselves. Jacob and Wilhelm viewed themselves as patriotic folklorists, not as
entertainers of children. They began their work at a time when Germany had been
overrun by the French under Napoleon, who were intent on suppressing local culture.
As young, workaholic scholars, single and sharing a cramped flat, the Brothers Grimm
undertook the fairy-tale collection with the goal of saving the endangered oral
tradition of Germany.
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For much of the 19th century teachers, parents, and religious figures, particularly in
the United States, depiored the Grimms' collection for its raw, uncivilized content.
Offended adults objected to the gruesome punishments inflicted on the stories'
villains. In the original “Snow White" the evil stepmother is forced to dance in red-hot
iron shoes until she falls down dead. Even today some protective parents shy from the
Grimms' tales because of their reputation for violence.

Despite its sometimes rocky reception, Children's and Household Tales gradually took
root with the public. The brothers had not foreseen that the appearance of their work
would coincide with a great flowering of children's literature in Europe. English
publishers led the way, issuing high-quality picture books such as Jack and the
Beanstalk and handsome folktale collections, all to satisfy a newly literate audience
seeking virtuous material for the nursery. Once the Brothers Grimm sighted this new
public, they set about refining and softening their tales, which had originated centuries
earlier as earthy peasant fare. In the Grimms' hands, cruel mothers became nasty
stepmothers, unmarried lovers were made chaste, and the incestuous father was
recast as the devil.

In the 20th century the Grimms' fairy tales have come to rule the bookshelves of
children's bedrooms. The stories read like dreams come true: handsome lads and
beautiful damsels, armed with magic, triumph over giants and witches and wild
beasts.

They outwit mean, selfish adults. Inevitably the boy and girl fall in love and live
happily ever after. And parents keep reading because they approve of the finger-
wagging lessons inserted into the stories: keep your promises, don't talk to strangers,
work hard, obey your parents. According to the Grimms, the collection served as “a
manual of manners".

Altogether some 40 persons delivered tales to the Grimms. Many of the storytellers
came to the Grimms' house in Kassel. The brothers particularly welcomed the visits of
Dorothea Viehmann, a widow who walked to town to sell produce from her garden.
An innkeeper's daughter, Viehmann had grown up listening to stories from travellers
on the road to Frankfurt. Among her treasures was "Aschenputtel"—Cinderella. Marie
Hassenpflug was a 20-year-old friend of their sister, Charlotte, from a well-bred,
French-speaking family. Marie's wonderful stories blended motifs from the oral
tradition and from Perrault's influential 1697 book, Tales of My Mother Goose, which
contained elaborate versions of "Little Red Riding Hood", "Snow White", and
"Sleeping Beauty", among others. Many of these had been adapted from earlier Italian
fairy tales.

Given that the origins of many of the Grimm fairy tales reach throughout Europe and
into the Middle East and Orient, the question must be asked: How German are the
Grimm tales? Very, says scholar Heinz Rolleke. Love of the underdog, rustic
simplicity, creative energy—these are Teutonic traits. The coarse texture of life during
medieval times in Germany, when many of the tales entered the oral tradition, also
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coloured the narratives. Throughout Europe children were often neglected and
abandoned, like Hansel and Gretel. Accused witches were burned at the stake, like the
evil mother-inlaw in "The Six Swans". "The cruelty in the stories was not the Grimms'
fantasy", Rolleke points out. "It reflected the law-and-order system of the old times".

The editorial fingerprints left by the Grimms betray the specific values of 19th-century
Christian, bourgeois German society. But that has not stopped the tales from being
embraced by almost every culture and nationality in the world. What accounts for this
widespread, enduring popularity? Bernhard Lauer points to the "universal style" of the
writing. "You have no concrete descriptions of the land, or the clothes, or the forest,
or the castles. It makes the stories timeless and placeless." "The tales allow us to
express 'our utopian longings'," says lack Zipes of the University of Minnesota, whose
1987 translation of the complete fairy tales captures the rustic vigour of the original
text. "They show a striving for happiness that none of us knows but that we sense is
possible. We can identify with the heroes of the tales and become in our mind the
masters and mistresses of our own destinies. "

Fairy tales proynde a workout for the unconscious, psychoanalysts maintain. Bruno
Bettelheim famously promoted the therapeutic value of the Grimms' stories, calling
fairy tales the "great comforters". By confronting fears and phobias, symbolized by
witches, heartless stepmothers, and hungry wolves, children find they can master
their anxieties. Bettelheim's theory continues to be hotly debated. But most young
readers aren't interested in exercising their unconsciousness. The Grimm tales in fact
please in an infinite number of ways. Something about them seems to mirror whatever
moods or interests we bring to our reading of them. This flexibility of interpretation
suits them for almost any time and any culture.

Questions 27 - 32
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 2 7-32 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say that the writer thinks about this

27 The Grimm brothers believed they would achieve international fame.

28 The Grimm brothers were forced to work in secret.
29 Some parents today still think Grimm’s fairy tales are not suitable for children.
30 The first edition of Grimm’s fairy tales sold more widely in England than in
Germany.

31 Adults like reading Grimm’s fairy tales for reasons different from those of
children.
32 The Grimm brothers based the story “Cinderella” on the life of Dorothea
Viehmann.
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Questions 33 - 35
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write your answers in boxes 33-35 on your answer sheet.

33 In paragraph 4, what changes happened at that time in Europe?

A. Literacy levels of the population increased.
B. The development of printing technology made it easier to publish.
C. Schools were open to children.
D. People were fond of colleting superb picture books.

34 What changes did the Grimm Brothers make in later editions?

A. They made the stories shorter.
B. They used more oral language.
C. The content of the tales became less violent.
D. They found other origins of the tales.

35 What did Marie Hassenpflug contribute to the Grimm’s Fairy tales?

A. She wrote stories.
B. She discussed the stories with them.
C. She translated a popular book for the brothers using her talent for languages.
D. She told the oral stories that were based on traditional Italian stories.

Questions 36 - 40
Complete each sentence with correct ending, A—H, below.
Write the correct letter, A—H, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

36 Heinz Rolleke said the Grimm’s tales are “German” because the tales
37 Heinz Rolleke said the abandoned children in tales
38 Bernhard Lauer said the writing style of the Grimm brothers is universal because
they

39 Jack Zipes said the pursuit of happiness in the tales means they
40 Bruno Bettelheim said the therapeutic value of the tales means that the fairy
tales

A. reflect what life was like at that time.

B. help children deal with their problems.
C. demonstrate the outdated system.
D. tell of the simplicity of life in the German countryside.
E. encourage people to believe that they can do anything.
F. recognize the heroes in the real life.
G. contribute to the belief in nature power.
H. avoid details about characters’ social settings.
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Academic Writing
Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The table below shows the percentage of electronic products used in
UK homes in 2005 and 2008.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features.
And make comparisons where relevant.
You should write at least 150 words.
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Academic Writing Task II

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

Modern society is becoming more concerned about the increase in juvenile

delinquency.

What do you think is the cause of the increase in juvenile delinquency?

What solutions can you suggest?

You should write at least 250 words.

You should use your own idea, knowledge and experience and support your
arguments with examples and relevant evidence.
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General Training Reading

Section 1
This is the first section of the IELTS General Training Reading test. It contains two pieces of
writing. Read each piece and answer the questions.

Questions 1 - 8
Read the following text and answer questions 1-8.

Emergency procedures
Revised July 2011

This applies to all persons on the school campus:

In cases of emergency (e.g. fire), find the nearest teacher who will send a messenger at full
speed to the Office or inform the Office via phone ext. 99.

Procedure for evacuation

1. Warning of an emergency evacuation will be marked by a number of short bell rings.

(In the event of a power failure, this may be a hand-held bell or siren.)
2. All class work will cease immediately.
3. Students will leave their bags, books and other possessions where they are.
4. Teachers will take the class rolls.
5. Classes will vacate the premises using the nearest staircase. If these stairs are
inaccessible, use the nearest alternative staircase. Do not use the lifts. Do not run.
6. Each class, under the teacher’s supervision, will move in a brisk, orderly fashion to
the paved quadrangle area adjacent to the car park.
7. All support staff will do the same.
8. The Marshalling Supervisor, Ms Randall, will be wearing a red cap and she will be
waiting there with the master timetable and staff list in her possession.
9. Students assemble in the quad with their teacher at the time of evacuation. The
teacher will do a head count and check the roll.
10. Each teacher sends a student to the Supervisor to report whether all students have
been accounted for. After checking, students will sit down (in the event of rain or wet
pavement they may remain standing).
11. The Supervisor will inform the Office when all staff and students have been
accounted for.
12. All students, teaching staff and support personnel remain in the evacuation area until
the All Clear signal is given.
13. The All Clear will be a long bell ring or three blasts on the siren.
14. Students will return to class in an orderly manner under teacher guidance.
 18

15. In the event of an emergency occurring during lunch or breaks, students are to
assemble in their home-room groups in the quad and await their home-room teacher.

Questions 1-8
Complete the sentences below. Choose no more than three words from the text for each
answer.

Questions
1) In an emergency, a teacher will either phone the office or ……………….. .
2) The signal for evacuation will normally be several ……………….. .
3) If possible, students should leave the building by the ……………….. .
4) They then walk quickly to the ……………….. .
5) ……………….. will join the teachers and students in the quad.
6) Each class teacher will count up his or her students and mark ……………….. .
7) After the ……………….. , everyone may return to class.
8) If there is an emergency at lunchtime, students gather in the quad in ……………….. and
wait for their teacher.

Questions 9-14
Read the text below and answer questions 9–14.

Community Education

Short Courses:  Business

Business Basics
Gain foundation knowledge for employment in an accounts position with bookkeeping and
business basics through to intermediate level; suitable for anyone requiring knowledge from
the ground up.
Code B/ED011
16th or 24th April 9am–4pm
Cost $420

Bookkeeping

This course will provide students with a comprehensive understanding of bookkeeping and a
great deal of hands-on experience
Code B/ED020
19th April 9am–2.30pm (one session only so advance bookings essential)
Cost $250

New Enterprise Module 

Understand company structures, tax rates, deductions, employer obligations, profit and loss
statements, GST and budgeting for tax.
Code B/ED030
 19

15th or 27th May 6pm–9pm

Cost $105

Social Networking – the Latest Marketing Tool 

This broad overview gives you the opportunity to analyse what web technologies are
available and how they can benefit your organisation.
Code B/ED033
1st or 8th or 15th June 6pm–9pm
Cost $95

Communication 

Take the fear out of talking to large gatherings of people. Gain the public-speaking
experience that will empower you with better communication skills and confidence.
Code B/ED401
12th or 13th or 14th July 6pm–9pm
Cost $90

Questions 9-14
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? Answer True, False
or Not given to questions 9–14.

True if the statement agrees with the information

False if the statement contradicts the information
Not given if there is no information on this

Questions
9) Business Basics is appropriate for beginners.
10) Bookkeeping has no practical component.
11) Bookkeeping is intended for advanced students only.
12) The New Enterprise Module can help your business become more profitable.
13) Social Networking focuses on a specific website to help your business succeed.
14) The Communication class involves speaking in front of an audience.

Section 2
 20

This is the second section of the IELTS General Training Reading test. It contains two pieces
of writing. Read each piece and answer the questions.

Questions 15-21
Read the text below and answer questions 15-21.

Beneficial work practices for the keyboard operator

A) Sensible work practices are an important factor in the prevention of muscular fatigue;
discomfort or pain in the arms, neck, hands or back; or eye strain which can be associated
with constant or regular work at a keyboard and visual display unit (VDU).

B) It is vital that the employer pays attention to the physical setting such as workplace design,
the office environment, and placement of monitors as well as the organisation of the work
and individual work habits. Operators must be able to recognise work-related health problems
and be given the opportunity to participate in the management of these. Operators should take
note of and follow the preventive measures outlined below.

C) The typist must be comfortably accommodated in a chair that is adjustable for height with
a back rest that is also easily adjustable both for angle and height. The back rest and sitting
ledge (with a curved edge) should preferably be cloth-covered to avoid excessive
perspiration.

D) When the keyboard operator is working from a paper file or manuscript, it should be at the
same distance from the eyes as the screen. The most convenient position can be found by
using some sort of holder. Individual arrangement will vary according to whether the operator
spends more time looking at the VDU or the paper – whichever the eyes are focused on for
the majority of time should be put directly in front of the operator.

E) While keying, it is advisable to have frequent but short pauses of around thirty to sixty
seconds to proofread. When doing this, relax your hands. After you have been keying for
sixty minutes, you should have a ten minute change of activity. During this spell it is
important that you do not remain seated but stand up or walk around. This period could be
profitably used to do filing or collect and deliver documents. 

F) Generally, the best position for a VDU is at right angles to the window. If this is not
possible then glare from the window can be controlled by blinds, curtains or movable screens.
Keep the face of the VDU vertical to avoid glare from overhead lighting. 

G) Unsatisfactory work practices or working conditions may result in aches or pain.

Symptoms should be reported to your supervisor early on so that the cause of the trouble can
be corrected and the operator should seek medical attention.

Questions 15–21
 21

The text above has seven sections, A–G. Choose the correct heading for each section from
the list of headings below.

Select the correct number, i–x for questions 15–21.

List of headings
i How can reflection problems be avoided?

ii How long should I work without a break?

iii What if I experience any problems?

iv When is the best time to do filing chores?

v What makes a good seat?

vi What are the common health problems?

vii What is the best kind of lighting to have?

viii What are the roles of management and workers?

ix Why does a VDU create eye fatigue?

x Where should I place the documents?

Questions
15) Section A

16) Section B

17) Section C

18) Section D

19) Section E

20) Section F

21) Section G

Questions 22–28
Read the text below and answer questions 22–28.

Workplace dismissals
 22

Before the dismissal

If an employer wants to dismiss an employee, there is a process to be followed. Instances of
minor misconduct and poor performance must first be addressed through some preliminary
steps. 

Firstly, you should be given an improvement note. This will explain the problem, outline any
necessary changes and offer some assistance in correcting the situation. Then, if your
employer does not think your performance has improved, you may be given a written
warning. The last step is called a final written warning which will inform you that you will be
dismissed unless there are improvements in performance.  If there is no improvement, your
employer can begin the dismissal procedure.

The dismissal procedure begins with a letter from the employer setting out the charges made
against the employee. The employee will be invited to a meeting to discuss these accusations.
If the employee denies the charges, he is given the opportunity to appear at a formal appeal
hearing in front of a different manager. After this, a decision is made as to whether the
employee will be let go or not. 

Dismissals
Of the various types of dismissal, a fair dismissal is the best kind if an employer wants an
employee out of the workplace. A fair dismissal is legally and contractually strong and it
means all the necessary procedures have been correctly followed. In cases where an
employee’s misconduct has been very serious, however, an employer may not have to follow
all of these procedures. If the employer can prove that the employee’s behaviour was illegal,
dangerous or severely wrong, the employee can be dismissed immediately: a procedure
known as summary dismissal.

Sometimes a dismissal is not considered to have taken place fairly. One of these types is
wrongful dismissal and involves a breach of contract by the employer. This could involve
dismissing an employee without notice or without following proper disciplinary and
dismissal procedures. Another type, unfair dismissal, is when an employee is sacked without
good cause. 

There is another kind of dismissal, known as constructive dismissal, which is slightly peculiar
because the employee is not actually openly dismissed by the employer. In this case the
employee is forced into resigning by an employer who tries to make significant changes to
the original contract. This could mean an employee might have to work night shifts after
originally signing on for day work, or he could be made to work in dangerous conditions.

Questions 22 and 23
Complete the sentences below. Choose no more than three words from the text for each
answer.
 23

Questions
22 If an employee receives a ……………….. , this means he will lose his job if his work does not get
better.

23 If an employee does not accept the reasons for his dismissal, a ……………….. can be arranged.

Questions 24–28
Look at the following descriptions (Questions 24–28) and the list of terms in the box
below. Match each description with the correct term A–E. Choose the appropriate letter A–E
for questions 24–28.

Questions
24) An employee is asked to leave work straight away because he has done something really bad.

25) An employee is pressured to leave his job unless he accepts conditions that are very different
from those agreed to in the beginning.

26) An employer gets rid of an employee without keeping to conditions in the contract.

27) The reason for an employee’s dismissal is not considered good enough.

28) The reasons for an employee’s dismissal are acceptable by law and the terms of the employment
contract.

A Fair dismissal

B Summary dismissal

C Unfair dismissal

D Wrongful dismissal

E Constructive dismissal

Section 3
This is the third section of the IELTS General Training Reading test. It contains one piece of
writing. Read the piece and answer the questions.
 24

Questions 29-40
Read the text below and answer the questions.

Calisthenics

The world’s oldest form of resistance training

A) From the very first caveman to scale a tree or hang from a cliff face, to the mighty armies
of the Greco-Roman empires and the gymnasiums of modern American high schools,
calisthenics has endured and thrived because of its simplicity and utility. Unlike strength
training which involves weights, machines or resistance bands, calisthenics uses only the
body’s own weight for physical development.

B) Calisthenics enters the historical record at around 480 B.C., with Herodotus’ account of
the Battle of Thermopolylae. Herodotus reported that, prior to the battle, the god-king Xerxes
sent a scout party to spy on his Spartan enemies. The scouts informed Xerxes that the
Spartans, under the leadership of King Leonidas, were practicing some kind of bizarre,
synchronised movements akin to a tribal dance. Xerxes was greatly amused. His own army
was comprised of over 120,000 men, while the Spartans had just 300. Leonidas was informed
that he must retreat or face annihilation. The Spartans did not retreat, however, and in the
ensuing battle they managed to hold Xerxes’ enormous army at bay for some time until
reinforcements arrived. It turns out their tribal dance was not a superstitious ritual but a form
of calisthenics by which they were building awe-inspiring physical strength and endurance.

C) The Greeks took calisthenics seriously not only as a form of military discipline and
strength, but also as an artistic expression of movement and an aesthetically ideal physique.
Indeed, the term calisthenics itself is derived from the Greek words for beauty and strength. 
We know from historical records and images from pottery, mosaics and sculptures of the
period that the ancient Olympians took calisthenics training seriously. They were greatly
admired – and still are, today – for their combination of athleticism and physical beauty. You
may have heard a friend whimsically sigh and mention that someone ‘has the body of a Greek
god’. This expression has travelled through centuries and continents, and the source of this
envy and admiration is the calisthenics method.

D) Calisthenics experienced its second golden age in the 1800s. This century saw the birth of
gymnastics, an organised sport that uses a range of bars, rings, vaulting horses and balancing
beams to display physical prowess. This period is also when the phenomena of strongmen
developed. These were people of astounding physical strength and development who forged
nomadic careers by demonstrating outlandish feats of strength to stunned populations. Most
of these men trained using hand balancing and horizontal bars, as modern weight machines
had not yet been invented.

E) In the 1950s, Angelo Siciliano – who went by the stage name Charles Atlas – was
crowned “The World’s Most Perfectly Developed Man”. Atlas’s own approach stemmed
from traditional calisthenics, and through a series of mail order comic books he taught these
methods to hundreds of thousands of children and young adults through the 1960s and 1970s.
But Atlas was the last of a dying breed. The tides were turning, fitness methods were drifting
 25

away from calisthenics, and no widely-regarded proponent of the method would ever succeed
him.

F) In the 1960s and 1970s calisthenics and the goal of functional strength combined with
physical beauty was replaced by an emphasis on huge muscles at any cost. This became the
sport of body building. Although body building’s pioneers were drawn from the calisthenics
tradition, the sole goal soon became an increase in muscle size. Body building icons, people
such as Arnold Schwarzenegger and Sergio Oliva were called mass monsters because of their
imposing physiques. Physical development of this nature was only attainable through the use
of anabolic steroids, synthetic hormones which boosted muscle development while harming
overall health. These body builders also relied on free weights and machines, which allowed
them to target and bloat the size of individual muscles rather than develop a naturally
proportioned body. Calisthenics, with its emphasis on physical beauty and a balance in
proportions, had little to offer the mass monsters.

G) In this “bigger is better” climate, calisthenics was relegated to groups perceived to be

vulnerable, such as women, people recuperating from injuries and school students. Although
some of the strongest and most physically developed human beings ever to have lived
acquired their abilities through the use of sophisticated calisthenics, a great deal of this
knowledge was discarded and the method was reduced to nothing more than an easily
accessible and readily available activity. Those who mastered the rudimentary skills of
calisthenics could expect to graduate to weight training rather than advanced calisthenics.

H) In recent years, however, fitness trends have been shifting back toward the use of
calisthenics. Bodybuilding approaches that promote excessive muscle development
frequently lead to joint pain, injuries, unbalanced physiques and weak cardiovascular health.
As a result, many of the newest and most popular gyms and programmes emphasise
calisthenics-based methods instead. Modern practices often combine elements from a number
of related traditions such as yoga, Pilates, kettle-ball training, gymnastics and traditional
Greco-Roman calisthenics. Many people are keen to recover the original Greek vision of
physical beauty and strength and harmony of the mind-body connection.

Questions 29–35
The text has eight paragraphs, A–H. Which paragraph contains the following
information? Choose the correct letter for questions 29–35.

Questions
29) the origin of the word ‘calisthenics’

30) the last popular supporter of calisthenics

31) the first use of calisthenics as a training method

32) a multidisciplinary approach to all-round health and strength

33) reasons for the survival of calisthenics throughout the ages

34) medical substance to increase muscle mass and strength

 26

35) a reference to travelling showmen who displayed their strength for audiences

Questions 36–40
Complete the summary below. Choose no more than two words from the text for each
answer.

Questions
During the sixties and seventies, attaining huge muscles became more important than

(36) ……………….. or having an attractive-looking body. The first people to take up this
new sport of body building had a background in calisthenics but the most famous
practitioners became known as (37) ……………….. on account of the impressive size of
their muscles. Drugs and mechanical devices were used to develop individual muscles to a
monstrous size.

Calisthenics then became the domain of ‘weaker’ people: females, children and those
recovering from (38) ……………….. . Much of the advanced knowledge about calisthenics
was lost and the method was subsequently downgraded to the status of a simple, user-friendly
activity. Once a person became skilled at this, he would progress to (39)……………….. .

Currently a revival of calisthenics is under way as extreme muscle building can harm the
body leaving it sore, out of balance, and in poor (40) ……………….. .

General Training Task 1

You should spend 20 minutes on this task.
 27

Write in 150 words.

General Writing Task II

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

Modern society is becoming more concerned about the increase in juvenile

delinquency.

What do you think is the cause of the increase in juvenile delinquency?

What solutions can you suggest?

You should write at least 250 words.

You should use your own idea, knowledge and experience and support your
arguments with examples and relevant evidence.

Answers

Listening 5 candles 10 singer

1 Children 6 Tuesday 11 A
24 7 donation 12 C
3 radio 8 piano 13 B
4 Evening 9 discount 14 B
 28

15 C 9D 3. nearest staircase/stairs
16 A 10 G 4. (paved) quadrangle (area)/quad
17&18 IN EITHER ORDER 11 TRUE 5. (all) support staff/personnel
17 C 12 FALSE 6. the (class) roll
18 E 13 NOT GIVEN 7. all clear (signal)
19&20 IN EITHER ORDER 14 iii 8. (their) home-room groups
19 A 15 viii 9. TRUE
20 C 16 v 10. FALSE
21 B 17 x 11. NOT GIVEN
22 A 18 ii 12. NOT GIVEN
23 A 19 ix 13. FALSE
24 C 20 B 14. TRUE
25 B 21 C 15. vi
26 B 22 A 16. viii
27 A 23 NOT GIVEN 17. v
28 C 24 TRUE 18. x
29 E 25 TRUE 19. ii
30 F 26 D 20. i
31 petrol stations 27 NO 21. iii
32 Scotland 28 NOT GIVEN 22. final written warning
33 head office 29 YES 23. formal appeal hearing
34 retrained 30 NOT GIVEN 24. B
35 fresh food 31 YES 25. E
36 manager 32 NO 26. D
37 profits 33 A 27. C
38 stages 34 C 28. A
39 strategies 35 D 29. C
40 organisation 36 D 30. E
Reading 37 A 31. B
38 H 32. H
1C 39 E 33. A
2D 40 B 34. F
3A 35. D
4B 36. functional strength
5J General training reading answers 37. mass monsters
6K 38. injuries
7C 39. weight training
1. send a messenger
8F 40. cardiovascular health
2. short bell rings