MINISTRY OF PUBLIC HEALTH OF UKRAINE

Department of human resources policy, education and science of MPH of

Ukraine
Testing Board

Student ID Last name

Variant ________________

Test items for licensing examination

Krok M
NURSING
 General Instruction
Each of these numbered questions or unfinished statements in this
chapter corresponds to answers or statements endings. Choose the
answer (finished statements) that fits best and fill in the circle with
the corresponding Latin letter on the answer sheet.

Authors of items:

Galiyash N.B., Gorodeckyi V.YE., Krekhovska-Lepyavko O.M., Lokai B.A., Petrenko N.V.,
Rega N.I., Ribalka T.YU., Usinska O.S., Yavorska I.V., Yastremska S.O.

The book includes test items for use at licensing integrated examination “Krok M.
Nursing” and further use in teaching.

The book has been developed for students and academic staff of higher medical
educational establishments, for teaching of nursing.

Approved by Ministry of Public Health of Ukraine as examination and

teaching publication based on expert conclusions.

© Copyright Testing Board.

 Krok M Nursing 2013 1

1. A pebble dropped into a pond causes with dementia from injury?

ripples on the surface of the water. Which
part of the nursing diagnosis is most directly A. Night
related to this concept? B. Evening
C. Morning
A. Etiology D. Afternoon
B. Defi ning characteristics E. -
C. Outcome criteria
D. Goal 7. The nurse is orienting a newly admitted
E. - patient to the hospital. It is most important
for the nurse to teach the patient how to:
2. The patient asks the nurse, "Why
do I have to use mouthwash if I brush A. Notify the nurse when help is needed
my teeth?"The nurse’s best response is, B. Get out of the bed to use the bathroom
Mouthwash: C. Raise and lower the head and foot of the
bed
A. Helps reduce offensive mouth odors D. Use the telephone system to call family
B. Minimizes the formation of cavities members
C. Softens debris that accumulate in the E. -
mouth
D. Destroys pathogens that are found in the 8. The nurse must apply a hospital gown to
oral cavity a patient receiving an intravenous infusion
E. - in the forearm. The nurse should:

3. When providing morning care for a A. Insert the IV bag and tubing through the
patient, the nurse identifies crusty debris sleeve from inside of the gown first
around the patient’s eyes. When cleaning B. Disconnect the IV at the insertion site,
the patient’s eyes, the nurse should: apply the gown, and then reconnect the IV
C. Close the clamp on the IV tubing no
A. Position the client on the same side as more than 15 seconds while putting on the
the eye to be cleaned gown
B. Wear sterile gloves D. Don the gown on the arm without the IV,
C. Use a tear-free baby soap drape the gown over the other shoulder, and
D. Wash the eyes with a cotton ball from the adjust the closure behind the neck
outer canthus to the inner canthus E. -
E. -
9. Which is the first action the home care
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who nurse should employ to prevent falls by an
is experiencing an increase in symptoms older adult living at home?
associated with multiple sclerosis. Whi-
ch term best describes a recurrence of A. Conduct a comprehensive risk
symptoms associated with a chronic di- assessment
sease? B. Encourage the patient to remove throw
rugs in the home
A. Exacerbation C. Suggest installation of adequate lighting
B. Adaptation throughout the home
C. Variance D. Discuss with the patient the expected
D. Remission changes of aging that place one at risk
E. - E. -
5. A patient has dysphagia. Which common 10. There are discharge criteria for patients
nursing action takes priority when feeding in the Post-Anesthesia Care Unit regardless
this patient? of the type of anesthesia used and additi-
onal criteria for specific types of anesthesia.
A. Checking the mouth for emptying The criterion specific for the patient who
between every bite has received spinal anesthesia is:
B. Providing verbal cueing to swallow each
bite A. Motor and sensory function returns
C. Medicating for pain before providing B. Nausea and vomiting are minimal
meals C. Headache is considered tolerable
D. Ensuring that dentures are in place D. Oxygen saturation reaches the presurgi-
E. - cal baseline
E. -
6. Which time of day is of most concern for
the nurse when trying to protect a patient 11. Cardiac development is fairly complete
 Krok M Nursing 2013 2

by how many weeks of gestation? A. A kitchen tablespoon

B. An ordinary teaspoon from the family
A. 8 weeks kitchen
B. 4 weeks C. Kitchen measuring spoons
C. 12 weeks D. A calibrated medication spoon, dropper,
D. 16 weeks or syringe
E. - E. -
12. Adolescents most often lack which of 17. Upon assessment, the nurse identifies
the following types of immunity and need that a pediatric client’s blood pressure is
to be immunized because of the danger 120/76 in the right arm and 92/60 in the
of acquiring this type of infection through right leg. Based upon the assessment findi-
sexual contact? ngs, the nurse suspects which of the followi-
ng conditions?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Chlamydia A. Possible coarctation of the aorta
C. Hepatitis A B. A normal finding in the pediatric client
D. Gonorrhea C. Possible cardiac tamponade
E. - D. Possible systemic venous congestion
E. -
13. You are working on the medical unit at
the hospital. A client says he may have been 18. The nurse is working with a mother who
exposed to diphtheria. The client has a low- is breastfeeding her 2-month-old infant wi-
grade fever and some nasal discharge. In th blood-loss anemia. The blood loss has
order to diagnose or rule out diphtheria in been stopped, and efforts are made to
this client, the physician will order which of increase the infant’s supply of iron. The
the following tests? nurse will advise the mother to:
A. Sputum culture A. Give only mother’s breast milk
B. Gastric analysis B. Feed formula with iron and iron-fortified
C. Nose and throat cultures cereal
D. Blood and stool cultures C. Feed half formula with iron and half
E. - breast milk
D. Switch to a formula high in iron
14. A preschooler is admitted to the pedi- E. -
atric unit with a febrile illness. The nurse is
aware that acetylsalicylic acid should not be 19. The nurse is assigned to work with a chi-
administered to a preschooler, because doi- ld who has a urinary tract infection. The chi-
ng so may result in which of the following ld is having bladder spasms. Which of the
conditions? following interventions would be best initi-
ally to try to relieve the bladder spasms?
A. Renal insufficiency
B. Reye’s syndrome A. Warm, moist heat if it does not increase
C. Raynaud’s disease fever
D. Hepatitis B B. Pain medication
E. - C. Bladder massages
D. Ice packs, provided they do not induce
15. A child recently received the diphtheria, chills
tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP) immunizati- E. -
on. Which of the following would represent
a reaction that would be considered a 20. The family of a baby who has just had
contraindication to receiving the immuni- a surgical repair for esophageal atresia wi-
zation again? th tracheoesophageal fistula asks the nurse
when the oral feedings will begin. The
A. Encephalopathy nurse’s best response is that the feeding
B. Upper respiratory infection usually begins at which of the following ti-
C. Otitis media mes?
D. Emesis and diarrhea
E. - A. About 8 to 10 days after surgery
B. As soon as the anesthesia has worn off
16. The nurse administering liquid medi- C. In 24 hours after surgery
cation to children would teach the caregi- D. As soon as the child can tolerate clear
vers to give the medicine at home using water
which of the following utensils? E. -
 Krok M Nursing 2013 3

21. The nurse is talking with parents about A. A quiet period of introspection is often
the prevention of otitis media. Which of experienced around the time a woman feels
the following would the nurse identify as her baby move for the first time
preventive measures? B. Sexual desire (libido) is decreased
throughout pregnancy
A. Immunizations and breastfeeding C. A referral for counseling should be
B. Daily vitamin and mineral supplement sought if a woman experiences conflicting
C. Providing the child with adequate calories feelings about her pregnancy especially in
and a balanced diet the first trimester
D. Side-lying position for sleep D. The need to seek safe passage and
E. - prepare for birth begins early in the second
trimester
22. An expectant woman, 40 years old, E. -
undergoes an amniocentesis to detect
the presence of Down syndrome. The 26. Which of the following methods
fetal chromosomes are arranged and of prepared childbirth advocate envi-
photographed to facilitate diagnosis. The ronmental modification?
picture is called a:
A. Bradley method
A. Genotype B. Psychoprophylactic method
B. Phenotype C. Lamaze method
C. Chromosome type D. Grantly Dick-Read method
D. All above E. -
E. -
27. The primary expected outcome of parti-
23. A nurse instructed a female client cipation in childbirth preparation classes
regarding self-examination of the external would be:
genitalia. Which of the statements made by
the client will require further instruction? I A. Enhanced ability to cope with pain and
will: to remain in control
B. Pain-free childbirth
A. Use the examination to determine when C. Family members present to observe the
I should get medications at the pharmacy birth
for yeast infections D. No pharmacologic measures used for
B. Perform this examination at least once a pain relief
month especially if I change sexual partners E. -
or am sexually active
C. Become familiar with how my genitalia 28. Changes occur as a woman progresses
look and feel so that I will be able to detect through labor. Which of the following
changes maternal adaptations would be expected
D. Wash my hands thoroughly before and during labor?
after I examine myself
E. - A. Slight increase in temperature, pulse, and
respiration findings
24. A 50-year-old woman asks the nurse B. Increase in both systolic and diastolic
practitioner about how often she should be blood pressure during uterine contractions
assessed for the common health problems in the first stage of labor
women of her age could experience. The C. Decrease in white blood cell count
nurse would recommend: D. Increase in gastric motility leading to
vomiting especially during the latent and
A. A fecal occult blood test annually active phases of the first stage of labor
B. An endometrial biopsy every 3 to 4 years E. -
C. A mammogram every other year
D. Bone mineral density testing annually 29. Duration of labor varies from woman
E. - to woman and is often influenced by a
woman’s obstetric history including pari-
25. During an early bird prenatal class a ty. An expected duration for a nulliparous
nurse teaches a group of newly diagnosed woman’s stages of labor would be:
pregnant women about their emotional
reactions during pregnancy. Which of the
following should the nurse discuss with the
women?
 Krok M Nursing 2013 4

A. First stage of labor: up to 20 hours for nurse expect the client with liver failure to
full dilatation to be achieved have?
B. Second stage of labor: average of 20
minutes or less A. Prolonged bleeding after IM injections
C. Third stage of labor: 45 to 60 minutes B. Elevated blood pressure from
D. Fourth stage of labor: 6 to 8 hours hypercellularity
E. - C. Increased formation of thromboses in
deep veins
30. The use of ataractics can potentiate the D. Spontaneous bleeding from the gums and
action of analgesics. An ataractic the nurse mucous membranes
could expect to give to a laboring woman E. -
would be:
35. Which statement, made by the client
A. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) daily to
B. Butorphanol tartrate (Stadol) prevent blood clots from forming in deep
C. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) veins, indicates a need for further discussi-
D. Naloxone (Narcan) on regarding this therapy?
E. -
A. "I have been eating more salads and
31. A vaginal examination is performed other green, leafy vegetables to prevent
on a multiparous woman who is in labor. constipation."
The results of the examination were B. "I have two pairs of antiembolic stockings
documented as: 4 cm, 75%, +2, LOT. An so that one pair can be washed each day."
accurate interpretation of this data would C. "Instead of a safety razor, I have been
be: using an electric shaver to shave."
D. "On hot days, I make sure I drink at least
A. Presentation is vertex two quarts of water."
B. Lie is transverse E. -
C. Woman is in the latent phase of the first
stage of labor 36. The client is in atrial fibrillation followi-
D. Station is 2 cm above the ischial spines ng cardiac surgery. Which of the followi-
E. - ng assessment parameters should the nurse
monitor for complications associated with
32. A mucousy baby is being left with the this dysrhythmia?
parents for the first time after delivery. Whi-
ch of the following should the nurse teach A. Assess for shortness of breath
the parents regarding use of the bulb syri- B. Measure urinary output
nge? C. Assess pulse oximetry every hour
D. Measure blood pressure in the lying and
A. Dispose of the drainage in a tissue or a sitting positions
cloth E. -
B. Suction the nostrils before suctioning the
mouth 37. A client is preparing to undergo
C. Make sure to suction the back of the an intravenous cholangiography. What
throat instructions should be given to the client
D. Insert the syringe before compressing the before the procedure?
bulb
E. - A. "You will feel a warm or flushing sensati-
on when the contrast medium is injected."
33. Why are hemoglobin levels in older B. "The entire test will take less than 30
adult clients generally lower than those of minutes."
younger adults? C. "You may feel the urge to defecate during
the procedure."
A. Many older adults have an iron-deficient D. "The examination table will be tilted
diet in several different positions to facilitate
B. Red blood cells are more fragile and passage of the contrast medium."
more easily broken in the older adult client E. -
C. Older adults require less hemoglobin
because they lead more sedentary life styles 38. Which is the priority assessment in the
D. Blood cell volume of older adults is client experiencing regurgitation?
decreased as a result of decreased total body
water
E. -
34. Which hematologic problem would the
 Krok M Nursing 2013 5

A. Auscultation for crackles prepare for?

B. Inspection of the oral cavity
C. Palpation of the cervical lymph nodes A. Computed tomography scan of the head
D. Culture of the throat for bacterial infecti- and dilation of the eyes
on B. Computed tomography scan of the head
E. - and EEG
C. Close monitoring of vital signs
39. Which client response to Bernstein’s test D. X-rays of all long bones
would confirm the diagnosis of esophagitis? E. -
A. The client reports heartburn during the 44. An infant with CHF is receiving digoxin
test to enhance myocardial function. What
B. The client reports dysphagia during the should the nurse assess prior to admini-
test stering the medication?
C. The client reports no symptoms during
the test A. Apical pulse rate
D. The client reports painful swallowing B. Yellow sclera
during the test C. Cough
E. - D. Liver function test
E. -
40. In caring for a client with a rolling
hernia, the nurse should be alert for whi- 45. The nurse is caring for a child with si-
ch potential complication? ckle cell disease who is scheduled to have a
splenectomy. What information should the
A. Obstruction nurse explain to the parents regarding the
B. Reflux reason for a splenectomy?
C. Vomiting
D. Pneumonia A. To prevent splenic sequestration
E. - B. To decrease potential for infection
C. To prevent sickling of red blood cells
41. Which of the following complications D. To prevent sickle cell crisis
would the nurse expect to observe in the E. -
client with progressive dysphagia and a hi-
story of achalasia? 46. Which of the following analgesics is
most effective for a child with sickle cell
A. Weight loss pain crisis?
B. Pneumothorax
C. Esophageal varices A. Morphine
D. Aneurysm B. Demerol
E. - C. Aspirin
D. Excedrin
42. The nurse is working in the pediatric E. -
developmental clinic. Which of the children
requires continued follow-up because of 47. Which of the following laboratory tests
behaviors suspicious of cerebral palsy? will be ordered for an infant whose parent
is human immunodeficiency virus–positive
A. A 6-month-old who always reaches for in order to determine the presence of the
toys with the right hand human immunodeficiency virus antigen?
B. A 1-month-old who demonstrates the
startle reflex when a loud noise is heard A. p24 antigen assay
C. A 14-month-old who has not begun to B. CD4 cell count
walk C. Western blot
D. A 2-year-old who has not yet achieved D. IgG levels
bladder control during waking hours E. -
E. -
48. The nurse is administering Prilosec to a
43. A 2-month-old infant is brought to 3-month-old with gastroesophageal reflux.
the emergency room after experiencing a The child’s parents ask the nurse how the
seizure. The nurse notes that the infant medication works. Select the nurse’s best
appears lethargic with very irregular respi- response.
rations and periods of apnea. The parents
report that the child is no longer interested
in feeding and that, prior to the seizure,
the infant rolled off the couch. What addi-
tional testing should the nurse immediately
 Krok M Nursing 2013 6

A. "Prilosec decreases stomach acid, so it A. The importance of supplemental calcium

will not be as irritating when your child spits in the diet
up." B. How to administer injectable growth
B. "Prilosec is a proton pump inhibitor that hormone
is commonly used for reflux in infants." C. The importance of increasing folic acid in
C. "Prilosec helps food move through the the diet
stomach quicker, so there will be less chance D. How to administer subcutaneous insulin
for reflux." E. -
D. "Prilosec relaxes the pressure of the
lower esophageal sphincter." 53. Select the numbers of inches lateral to
E. - the heel where a crutch should be placed:

49. The nurse is caring for an infant with bi- A. 6 to 8

liary atresia who is scheduled for a Kasai B. 1 to 3
procedure. Which of the following is an C. 4 to 5
accurate description of this surgery? D. 9 to 10
E. -
A. A palliative procedure in which a bile
duct is attached to a loop of bowel to assist 54. A 13-year-old with osteosarcoma is goi-
with bile drainage ng to have an amputation of the affected
B. A curative procedure in which a connecti- limb. Which of the following is most
on is made between a bile duct and a loop important to discuss with a teenage pati-
of bowel to assist with bile drainage ent?
C. A curative procedure in which a bile duct
is banded to prevent bile leakage A. Body image
D. A palliative procedure in which a bile B. Pain
duct is banded to prevent bile leakage C. Spirituality
E. - D. Lack of coping
E. -
50. The school nurse notices that a 14-year-
old who used to be an excellent student and 55. The nurse is circulating on a cesarean
very active in sports is losing weight and delivery of a G5P4004. All of the cli-
acting very nervous. The teen was recently ent’s previous children were delivered via
checked by the primary care provider, who cesarean section. The physician declares
noted the teen had a very low level of TSH. after delivering the placenta that it appears
The nurse recognizes that the teen has whi- that the client has a placenta accreta. Whi-
ch condition? ch of the following maternal complications
would be consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Graves disease
B. Hashimoto thyroid disease A. Blood loss of 2000 mL
C. Hypothyroidism B. Shortened prothrombin time
D. Juvenile autoimmune thyroiditis C. Jaundice skin color
E. - D. Blood pressure of 160/110
E. -
51. The nurse is instructing a family on the
side effects of cortisone. What aspects of 56. A postpartum client has been diagnosed
administering the medication should the with deep vein thrombosis. For which of the
nurse emphasize? following additional complications is this
client high risk?
A. Taking the medication with food to
decrease gastric irritation A. Stroke
B. Weight gain and dietary management B. Hemorrhage
C. Bitterness of the taste of the medication C. Endometritis
D. Excitability and sleepiness resulting from D. Hematoma
the medication E. -
E. - 57. A client is receiving IV heparin for deep
52. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old vein thrombosis. Which of the following
post parathyroidectomy. Discharge teachi- medications should the nurse obtain from
ng should include which of the following? the pharmacy to have on hand in case of
heparin overdose?
 Krok M Nursing 2013 7

A. Protamine 62. A primary nursing responsibility when

B. Mannitol caring for a woman experiencing an
C. Vitamin E obstetric hemorrhage associated with uteri-
D. Vitamin K ne atony is to:
E. -
A. Fundal massage
58. A nurse massages the atonic uterus of B. Establish venous access
a woman who delivered 1 hour earlier. The C. Catheterize the bladder
nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis: Risk D. Prepare the woman for surgical
for injury related to uterine atony. Which of intervention
the following outcomes indicates that the E. -
client’s condition has improved?
63. A nurse is interviewing a prenatal cli-
A. Moderate lochia flow ent. Which of the following factors in the
B. Fundus above the umbilicus client’s history should the nurse highlight
C. Stable blood pressure for the health care practitioner?
D. Decreased pain level
E. - A. That she owns a cat and a dog
B. That she eats peanut butter every day
59. A woman has just had a low forceps C. That she works as an airline pilot
delivery. For which of the following should D. That she is eighteen years old
the nurse assess the woman during the E. -
immediate postpartum period?
64. Which nursing task can the nurse
A. Heavy lochia delegate to the unlicensed nursing assistant
B. Rectal abrasions (NA)?
C. Bloody urine
D. Infection A. Assist the client to remove clothing and
E. - jewelry
B. Complete the preoperative checklist
60. A nurse is assessing a 1 day-postpartum C. Assess the client’s preoperative vital signs
client who had a spontaneous vaginal deli- D. Teach the client about coughing and deep
very over an intact perineum. The fundus breathing
is firm at the umbilicus, lochia moderate, E. -
and perineum edematous. One hour after
receiving ibuprofen 600 mg po, the client is 65. Which situation demonstrates the
complaining of perineal pain at level 9 on circulating nurse acting as the client’s
a 10 point scale. Based on this informati- advocate?
on, which of the following is an appropriate
conclusion for the nurse to make about the A. Keeps the operating room door closed at
client? all times
B. Plays the client’s favorite audio book
A. She should be assessed by her doctor during surgery
B. She needs a narcotic analgesic C. Keeps the family informed of the findings
C. She may have a hidden laceration of the surgery
D. She should have a sitz bath D. Calls the client by the first name when
E. - the client is recovering
E. -
61. A woman arrives for evaluation of her
symptoms, which include: a missed peri- 66. The client is complaining of left
od, adnexal fullness, tenderness, and dark shoulder pain. Which response would be
red vaginal bleeding. Upon examination, best for the nurse to assess the pain?
the nurse notices an ecchymotic blueness
around the woman’s umbilicus. The nurse A. Request that the client describe the pain
recognizes this assessment finding as: B. Inquire if the pain is intense, throbbing,
or stabbing
A. Cullen’s sign associated with a ruptured C. Ask if the client wants pain medication
ectopic pregnancy D. Instruct the client to complete the pain
B. Normal integumentary changes associ- questionnaire
ated with pregnancy E. -
C. Turner sign associated with appendicitis
D. Chadwick sign associated with early 67. The nurse is discussing cancer statistics
pregnancy with a group from the community. Which
E. - information about death rates from lung
cancer is accurate?
 Krok M Nursing 2013 8

A. The client with fair complexion who

A. Lung cancer is the number-one cause of cannot get a tan
cancer deaths in both men and women B. The African American male who lives in
B. Lung cancer is the number-two cause of the northeast
cancer deaths in both men and women C. The elderly Hispanic female who moved
C. Lung cancer deaths are not significant in from Mexico as a child
relation to other cancers D. The client who has a family history of
D. Lung cancer deaths have continued to basal cell carcinoma
increase in the male population E. -
E. -
72. When assessing the wound of a cli-
68. The nurse is assessing a client wi- ent who had a total hip replacement, the
th complaints of vague upper abdominal nurse finds small, fluid-filled lesions on the
pain that is worse at night but is relieved right side of the dressing. What explanati-
by sitting up and leaning forward. Which on is the most probable rationale for this
assessment question should the nurse ask occurrence?
next?
A. These are blisters from the tape used to
A. "Does the pain get worse when you eat a anchor the dressing
meal or snack?" B. These were caused by the cautery unit in
B. "Have you noticed a yellow haze when the operating room
you look at things?" C. These are papular wheals from herpes
C. "Have you had your amylase and lipase zoster
checked recently?" D. These macular lesions are from a latex
D. "How much weight have you gained allergy
since you saw the HCP?" E. -
E. -
73. When preparing the client for the transi-
69. The nurse is caring for clients in a long- tion to home rehabilitation after having a
term care facility. Which is a modifiable ri- total knee replacement, which informati-
sk factor for the development of pressure on regarding discharge teaching would the
ulcers? nurse include?
A. Constant perineal moisture A. Modify the home for altered mobility
B. Ability of the clients to reposition B. Deep breathe and cough every two (2)
themselves hours
C. Decreased elasticity of the skin C. Procedure for emptying Jackson-Pratt
D. Impaired cardiovascular perfusion of the drainage
periphery D. Burning or frequency of urination is
E. - expected
E. -
70. The client diagnosed with stage IV
infected pressure ulcers on the coccyx is 74. The nurse is caring for the client who
scheduled for a fecal diversion operation. had a total knee replacement (TKR). Whi-
The nurse knows that client teaching has ch data would the nurse observe to determi-
been effective when the client makes which ne if the nursing interventions are effecti-
statement? ve?
A. "Stool will come out an opening in my A. The client participates in self-care activi-
abdomen so it won’t get in the sore." ties
B. “This surgery will create a skin flap to B. The client’s lungs have bilateral crackles
cover my wounds." C. The client’s knee has flexion of 45 degrees
C. "This surgery will get all the old black D. The client’s knee has flexion of 90 degrees
tissue out of the wound so it can heal." E. -
D. "The surgery is important to allow
oxygen to get to the tissue for healing to 75. The nurse is working on an orthopedic
occur." floor. Which client should the nurse assess
E. - first after the change of shift report?
71. Which client is at the greatest risk for
the development of skin cancer?
 Krok M Nursing 2013 9

A. The 64-year-old female who had a left 81. Which laboratory result would require
total knee replacement with confusion immediate intervention by the nurse for the
B. The 84-year-old female with a fractured client scheduled for surgery?
right femoral neck in Buck’s traction
C. The 88-year-old male who had a right A. Potassium 2,4 mEq/L
total hip replacement with an abduction B. Calcium 9,2 mg/dL
pillow C. Bleeding time 2 minutes
D. The 50-year-old postoperative client who D. Hemoglobin 15 gm/dL
has a continuous passive motion (CPM) E. -
device
E. - 82. Which nursing intervention has the hi-
ghest priority when preparing the client for
76. Which intervention has priority for the a surgical procedure?
nurse in the surgical holding area?
A. Apply soft restraint straps to the extremi-
A. Verify the surgical checklist ties
B. Prepare the client’s surgical site B. Pad the client’s elbows and knees
C. Assist the client to the bathroom C. Prepare the client’s incision site
D. Restrain the client on the surgery table D. Document the temperature of the room
E. - E. -
77. Which client problem would be 83. The postoperative client is transferred
appropriate for the client in the from the PACU to the surgical floor. Which
intraoperative phase of the surgery? action should the nurse implement first?
A. Risk for injury A. Assess the client’s vital signs
B. Alteration in comfort B. Apply anti-embolism hose to the client
C. Disuse syndrome C. Attach the drain to 20 cm suction
D. Altered gas exchange D. Listen to the report from the anesthesi-
E. - ologist
E. -
78. The client has been placed in
the lithotomy position during surgery. 84. The client diagnosed with oat cell carci-
Which nursing intervention should be noma of the lung tells the nurse, "I am so
implemented to decrease the risk of tired of all this. I might as well just end
developing hypotension? it all."Which should be the nurse’s first
response?
A. Lower one leg at a time
B. Increase the intravenous fluids A. Find out if the client has a plan to carry
C. Raise the foot of the stretcher out suicide
D. Administer epinephrine, a vasopressor B. Respond by saying, "This must be hard
E. - for you. Would you like to talk?"
C. Tell the HCP of the client’s statement
79. The client’s serum sodium level is 128 D. Refer the client to a social worker or
mEq/L and serum potassium level is 2,8 spiritual advisor
mEq/L. Which hormonal problem is most E. -
likely to have caused this clinical situation?
85. The nurse has been assigned to care for
A. Increased ADH secretion a client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.
B. Increased aldosterone secretion When the nurse is evaluating care, which
C. Decreased aldosterone secretion assessment data require further interventi-
D. Decreased ADH secretion on?
E. -
A. A decrease in systolic BP of 20 mm Hg
80. The client is taking a medication from lying to sitting
for an endocrine problem that inhibits B. Bowel sounds auscultated fifteen (15)
aldosterone secretion and release. For what times in one (1) minute
complications of this therapy should the C. Belching after eating a heavy and fatty
nurse be alert? meal late at night
D. A decreased frequency of distress located
A. Dehydration, hyperkalemia in the epigastric region
B. Dehydration, hypokalemia E. -
C. Overhydration, hyponatremia
D. Overhydration, hypernatremia 86. Which assessment data would indicate
E. - to the nurse that the client’s gastric ulcer
 Krok M Nursing 2013 10

has perforated? A. Check the client’s chart to compare these

findings to the client’s baseline neurologic
A. Rigid, boardlike abdomen with rebound assessment
tenderness B. Raise the head of the bed up to a 30-
B. Complaints of sudden, sharp, substernal degree angle and administer oxygen
pain C. Test the client’s deep tendon reflexes on
C. Frequent, clay-colored, liquid stool all four extremities
D. Complaints of vague abdominal pain in D. Notify the physician and document the
the right upper quadrant finding
E. - E. -
87. The client with a history of peptic ulcer 91. Which client is at greatest risk for respi-
disease has been admitted into the hospital ratory complications after surgery under
intensive care unit with frank gastric bleedi- general anesthesia?
ng. Which priority intervention should the
nurse implement? A. 35-year-old man who smokes two packs
of cigarettes daily
A. Insert a nasogastric tube and begin saline B. 65-year-old woman taking a calcium
lavage channel blocker for hypertension
B. Maintain a strict record of intake and C. 55-year-old man with chronic allergic
output rhinitis
C. Assist the client with keeping a detailed D. 45-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus
calorie count type 1
D. Provide a quite environment to promote E. -
rest
E. - 92. The nurse is transcribing the HCP’s
orders for a client who is scheduled for
88. Five hours after attending a family an emergency appendectomy and who
reunion picnic, three members of a family is being transferred from the emergency
are admitted to an emergency department department (ED) to the surgical unit. Whi-
with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal ch order should the nurse implement first?
cramping. A nurse asks a series of questions
as part of the admission assessment. Which A. Obtain the client’s informed consent
should be the nurse’s priority question? B. Administer IV morphine 2 mg, every 4
hours, prn
A. "What food was served at the reunion?" C. Shave the lower right abdominal quadrant
B. "How many people were at the reunion?" D. Administer the on-call IVPB antibiotic
C. "Was anyone sick when they came to the E. -
reunion?"
D. "What is the relationship of the family 93. The HCP writes an order for the client
members who are sick?" with a fractured right hip to ambulate with
E. - a walker four times per day. Which action
should the nurse implement?
89. Which assessment finding in a
postoperative client indicates to the A. Request a referral to the physical therapy
nurse that the interventions to prevent department
hypovolemia need to be re-evaluated? B. Tell the UAP to ambulate the client with
the walker
A. The urine output decreases from 40 to 10 C. Obtain a walker that is appropriate for
mL/hour the client’s height
B. The blood pressure changes from 136/80 D. Notify the social worker of the HCP’s
to 122/80 mm Hg order for a walker
C. The client cannot count backward from E. -
100 by threes
D. The client’s temperature has changed 94. A client returns from the recovery room
from 100,2o to 100,4o F at 9 am alert and oriented, with an IV
E. - infusing. His pulse is 82, blood pressure is
120/80, respirations are 20, and all are wi-
90. In checking the neurologic status of the thin normal range. At 10 am and at 11 am,
client just admitted to the PACU, the nurse his vital signs are stable. At noon, however,
notes that the right eye pupil is dilated more his pulse rate is 94, blood pressure is 116/74,
than the left pupil. What is the nurse’s best and respirations are 24. What nursing acti-
first action? on is most appropriate?
 Krok M Nursing 2013 11

A. Take his vital signs again in 15 minutes A. Ask the UAP to transfer the client from
B. Take his vital signs again in an hour the ICU to the medical unit
C. Place the patient in shock position B. Change the surgical dressing on the client
D. Notify his physician with a Syme amputation
E. - C. Request the UAP to double check a unit
of blood that is being hung
95. A student nurse is assigned to a client D. Instruct the UAP to empty the client’s
who has a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis. chest tube drainage
Which action by this team member is most E. -
appropriate?
100. A client with burns on the chest has
A. Instruct the client about the need for bed periodic episodes of dyspnea. The position
rest that would provide for the greatest respi-
B. Apply a heating pad to the involved site ratory capacity would be the:
C. Elevate the client’s legs 90 degrees
D. Provide active range-of-motion exercises A. Orthopneic position
to both legs at least twice every shift B. Semi-fowler’s position
E. - C. Sims’ position
D. Supine position
96. On discharge, the nurse teaches the E. -
patient to observe for signs of surgically
induced hypothyroidism. The nurse would 101. Forty-eight hours after a burn injury,
know that the patient understands the the physician orders for the client 2 liters of
teaching when she states she should noti- IV fluid to be administered q12 h. The drop
fy the MD if she develops: factor of the tubing is 10 gtt/ml. The nurse
should set the flow to provide:
A. Progressive weight gain
B. Insomnia and excitability A. 28 gtt/min
C. Dry skin and fatigue B. 18 gtt/min
D. Intolerance to heat C. 32 gtt/min
E. - D. 36 gtt/min
E. -
97. If a client has severe bums on the
upper torso, which item would be a primary 102. The client diagnosed with liver failure
concern? is experiencing pruritus secondary to severe
jaundice. Which action by the unlicensed
A. Frequently observing for hoarseness, assistant warrants intervention by the pri-
stridor, and dyspnea mary nurse?
B. Establishing a patent IV line for fluid
replacement A. Assisting the client to take a hot soapy
C. Administering antibiotics shower
D. Debriding and covering the wounds B. Applying an emollient to the client’s legs
E. - and back
C. Patting the client’s skin dry with a clean
98. Contractures are among the most seri- towel
ous long-term complications of severe D. Putting mittens on both hands of the
burns. If a burn is located on the upper client
torso, which nursing measure would be E. -
least effective to help prevent contractures?
103. A nurse completes a difficult day at
A. Helping the client to rest in the position work and feels satisfaction in performi-
of maximal comfort ng well and helping others. According to
B. Avoiding the use of a pillow for Freud, this feeling of satisfaction is associ-
sleep, or placing the head in a position ated with what part of the personality?
of hyperextension
C. Encouraging the client to chew gum and A. Libido
blow up balloons B. Ego
D. Changing the location of the bed or the C. Fixation
TV set, or both, daily D. Superego
E. - E. -
99. The nurse is caring for clients in the 104. The nurse identifies that the behavi-
ICU. Which task would be most appropri- or in an adult that indicates an unresolved
ate for the nurse to delegate to a UAP? developmental conflict associated with
adolescence is:
 Krok M Nursing 2013 12

A. Sedatives are not well tolerated by older

A. Failing to set goals in life adults
B. Being overly concerned about following B. Antianxiety drugs are the least helpful to
daily routines support sleep
C. Requiring excessive attention from others C. Effectiveness of hypnotics increases with
D. Relying on oneself rather than others prolonged use
E. - D. Melatonin is the drug of choice for
long-term use in sleep disorders
105. The nurse is providing dietary teachi- E. -
ng to a group of adolescents recently di-
agnosed with diabetes mellitus. The nurse 110. Which concept should the nurse
understands that many foods are ingested understand is reflective of Erikson’s Theory
by the adolescent because of: of Personality Development?
A. Pressure A. Achievement of developmental goals is
B. Taste affected by the social environment
C. Routine B. Defense mechanisms help to cope with
D. Preference anxiety
E. - C. Moral maturity is a central theme in all
stages of development
106. When the nurse assesses patients D. Two continual processes, assimilation
in the following age groups, the nurse and accommodation, stimulate intellectual
understands that the age group that has the growth
greatest potential to demonstrate regressi- E. -
on when ill is:
111. A resident in a nursing home remi-
A. Toddlers nisces about past-life events. The nurse
B. Infants identifies that according to Erikson, the
C. Adolescents patient is in which stage of psychosocial
D. Young adults development?
E. -
A. Ego Integrity versus Despair
107. Which patient should the nurse identi- B. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt
fy is at the greatest risk when taking a drug C. Identity versus Role Confusion
that has a high teratogenic potential? D. Generativity versus Stagnation
E. -
A. Pregnant woman
B. Older adult man 112. The nurse working in a nursing home
C. Four-year-old child is providing care to a group of older adults.
D. One-month-old baby The decline in which system in the older
E. - adult most often influences the ability to
maintain safety?
108. The nurse identifies which word as bei-
ng unrelated to principles of growth and A. Sensory
development? B. Respiratory
C. Integumentary
A. Unpredictable D. Cardiovascular
B. Sequential E. -
C. Integrated
D. Complex 113. Which psychodynamic theorist beli-
E. - eved that 10-year-old children gain pleasure
from accomplishments?
109. A patient tells the nurse about experi-
encing problems with sleep and requests A. Erik Erikson
sleeping medication. Which concept associ- B. Lawrence Kohlberg
ated with drug therapy and quality of sleep C. Berry Brazelton
is important for the nurse to understand D. Sigmund Freud
when planning nursing care for this pati- E. -
ent?
114. One of the participants attending a
parenting class asks the teacher, "What is
the leading cause of death during the first
year of life?"Besides exploring the person’s
concerns, the nurse should respond:
 Krok M Nursing 2013 13

A. Congenital anomalies 119. Which technique should the nurse use

B. Preterm birth to collect a sputum specimen for culture?
C. Sudden infant death syndrome
D. Unintentional injuries A. Cap on the Lukens tube, lower
E. - attachment to the suction catheter, upper
attachment to the suction source
115. The nurse identifies that the person at B. Lukens tube, lower attachment to the
greatest risk for problems with regulating suction source, upper attachment to the
body temperature is the: suction catheter
C. Cap off the Lukens tube, lower
A. Older adult attachment to the suction source, upper
B. Toddler attachment to the suction catheter
C. Teenager D. Cap off the Lukens tube, lower
D. School-aged child attachment to the suction catheter, upper
E. - attachment to the suction source
116. The nurse understands that an indi- E. -
vidual who is preoccupied with work and 120. The client who has had repeated epi-
the drive to succeed at the expense of sodes of pneumonia is attempting to stop
emotionally committing to others reflects cigarette smoking with the use of a nicotine
a negative resolution of which stage of Eri- patch. What specific instructions regarding
kson’s Stages of Development? this therapy should the nurse tell the client?
A. Intimacy versus Isolation A. "Smoking while using this patch increases
B. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt the risk for a heart attack."
C. Identify versus Role Confusion B. "Smoking while using this patch increases
D. Ego Integrity versus Despair the risk for pneumonia."
E. - C. "Abruptly discontinuing this patch can
117. The client, a 70-year-old woman who cause nausea and vomiting."
has mild congestive heart failure, asks when D. "Abruptly discontinuing this patch can
she should get a flu shot. What is the nurse’s cause high blood pressure."
best response? E. -

A. "You should get a flu shot early in the fall 121. Which observation indicates to you
so that you make enough antibodies before that your client with COPD is effectively
the flu season arrives." using interventions for airway clearance?
B. "If you got a flu shot last year, you need A. The oxygen saturation is consistently
to make sure that you get the new shot above 88%
exactly 1 year later." B. The client consistently uses "pursed-
C. "Since we don’t know if the flu will come lip"breathing
this year, you should wait until an outbreak C. The serum albumin level is within the
of flu in our area is reported." normal range
D. "Because flu shots are good for five years D. The client’s cough is nonproductive
at a time, if you got a flu shot last year you E. -
do not need to get another one this year."
E. - 122. Which statement made by the client
taking methotrexate (Folex) weekly for
118. The chest tube drainage system of the pulmonary fibrosis indicates understandi-
client 36 hours after a pneumonectomy ng of the side effects of this therapy?
has continuous bubbling in the water seal
chamber (chamber 2). When you clamp the A. "I will not drink wine within two days of
chest tube close to the client’s dressing, the taking the methotrexate."
bubbling stops. What is your interpretation B. "I will reduce my oxygen flow rate while
of this finding? taking the methotrexate."
C. "I will be sure to drink at least 4 liters
A. An air leak is present at the chest tube of fluids on the days I actually take the
insertion site or in the thoracic cavity methotrexate."
B. An air leak is present somewhere in the D. "I will avoid drinking coffee or any other
drainage system caffeinated beverages within two days of
C. The suction pressure applied to the taking the methotrexate."
system is too high E. -
D. The suction pressure applied to the
system is too low 123. The client is 12 hours postoperative
E. - after a thoracotomy for lung cancer. Duri-
 Krok M Nursing 2013 14

ng a portable chest x-ray at the bedside, should the nurse ask this client in attempti-
the lower chest tube tubing is accidentally ng to establish a cause?
pulled out. What is your best first action?
A. "Have you had any type of infection
A. Cover the insertion site with sterile gauze within the last 2 weeks?"
B. Clamp the tubing with padded clamps B. "Has anyone in your family had chronic
C. Clamp and close the skin at the insertion kidney problems?"
site C. "Do you have pain or burning on urinati-
D. Reinsert the chest tube, using sterile on?"
technique D. "Are you sexually active?"
E. - E. -
124. Which clinical manifestation in a cli- 129. The client with acute glomerular
ent with renal impairment is associated wi- nephritis has periorbital edema. What addi-
th polycystic kidney disease rather than an tional assessment should the nurse obtain
infectious process? or perform with this client?
A. Enlarged or protruding abdomen A. Auscultate breath sounds
B. Bloody and cloudy urine B. Check blood glucose levels
C. Periorbital edema C. Measure deep tendon reflexes
D. Flank pain D. Test urine for the presence of protein
E. - E. -
125. The client with polycystic kidney di- 130. What clinical manifestation indicates
sease and hypertension is prescribed to take to the nurse that the client with glomerular
a diuretic for blood pressure control. Whi- nephritis being treated in the community
ch of the following statements by the client is responding as expected to the prescribed
indicates a need for clarification regarding treatment?
this management?
A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past
A. "I will drink only 1 L of fluid each day." 10 days
B. "I will avoid aspirin and aspirin- B. The client is thirsty
containing drugs." C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine
C. "I will weigh myself every day." D. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048
D. "I will avoid nonsteroidal anti- E. -
inflammatory drugs."
E. - 131. With which of the following clients,
all of whom are experiencing the clinical
126. What dietary modifications should the manifestations of a urinary tract infection,
nurse teach the client with polycystic ki- should the nurse suspect a fungal infection?
dney disease?
A. 48-year-old man with diabetes mellitus
A. Increased fiber intake, decreased sodium B. 22-year-old woman who is sexually active
intake C. 60-year-old man with an enlarged
B. Decreased fluid intake, increased prostate gland
magnesium intake D. 40-year-old woman with systemic lupus
C. Increased protein intake, decreased erythematosus
potassium intake E. -
D. Decreased calcium intake, increased
chloride intake 132. Which personal factor in a client di-
E. - agnosed with bladder cancer is most contri-
butory to this problem?
127. Which clinical manifestation in a cli-
ent with a urinary tract infection alerts A. A 50 pack-year cigarette smoking history
the nurse to the possibility of acute B. Numerous episodes of bacterial cystitis
pyelonephritis? C. History of gonorrhea
D. Has worked in a lumber yard for 10 years
A. Fever and chills E. -
B. Hematuria
C. Cloudy, dark urine 133. What intervention should the nurse
D. Burning on urination suggest to the diabetic client who self-
E. - injects insulin to prevent or limit local irri-
tation at the injection site?
128. The client has just been diagnosed with
acute glomerular nephritis. Which question
 Krok M Nursing 2013 15

A. "Allow the insulin to warm to room 139. The client with right heart failure asks
temperature before injection." the nurse to explain the necessity of taking
B. "Try to make the injection deep enough a daily weight. What would be the nurse’s
to enter muscle." best response?
C. "Massage the site for 1 full minute after
injection." A. "Weight is the best indication that you
D. "Do not reuse needles." are gaining or losing fluid."
E. - B. "Weighing you every day will help us
adjust your medication."
134. Which nutritional group should the C. "It is required that all inpatients be
nurse teach the diabetic client with normal weighed daily."
renal function to rigidly control to reduce D. "Being overweight contributes to heart
the complications of diabetes? failure."
E. -
A. Fats
B. Carbohydrates 140. Which nursing diagnosis would be
C. Fiber considered a priority for the client with
D. Proteins heart failure?
E. -
A. Impaired Gas Exchange
135. Which joints are most frequently B. Altered Comfort
affected by osteoarthritis? C. Anxiety related to hospitalization
D. Altered Health Maintenance
A. Hips and knees E. -
B. Elbows and shoulders
C. Neck and wrists 141. The client with heart failure is prescri-
D. Jaw and ankles bed to take enalapril, an angiotensin-
E. - converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which
of the following precautions or instructions
136. Which physical change in the cli- should the nurse teach this client regarding
ent with osteoarthritis indicates disease drug therapy?
advancement?
A. Avoid salt substitutes
A. The hip shows subluxation B. Be sure to take this medication with food
B. Hip involvement is bilateral C. Avoid aspirin or aspirin-containing
C. The client is older than 65 years products while on this medication
D. The hands are involved D. Do not take this medication if your pulse
E. - rate is below 74 beats/min
137. What precaution is most important to E. -
teach the client with rheumatoid arthritis 142. The client with heart failure is bei-
who will be taking 20 mg of prednisone dai- ng treated with digoxin and has developed
ly? hypokalemia. What action should the nurse
A. "Avoid crowds and anyone who is ill." prepare to take?
B. "Wash your face 3 times per day with an A. Monitor the client for toxic effects that
antibacterial soap." can occur at normal doses
C. "Drink at least 3 liters of fluid per day." B. Administer digoxin twice daily
D. "Take this drug at bedtime." C. Reduce the digoxin dose to every other
E. - day
138. During auscultation of the heart of a D. Administer an intravenous bolus of
client with left ventricular failure, the nurse potassium
notes the presence of a third heart sound E. -
(S3) gallop. What can the nurse infer from 143. Which client is at greatest risk for the
this finding? development of a pulmonary embolism?
A. Left ventricular pressure is increased
B. There is a decrease in ventricular compli-
ance
C. The client has been noncompliant with
the medication regimen
D. The client should be prepared for transfer
to the intensive care unit
E. -
 Krok M Nursing 2013 16

A. 40-year-old woman who has used oral 147. Which intervention should the nurse
contraceptives for the past 15 years and who suggest for the client going home after a
had abdominal surgery yesterday for cancer pulmonary embolism to reduce the risk for
B. 30-year-old athlete who lifts weights recurrence of a pulmonary embolism?
and was diagnosed with a pneumothorax
yesterday A. "Avoid prolonged sitting or standing."
C. 60-year-old man who caught his right B. "Use an incentive spirometer every 2
hand in a piece of machinery and has five hours while awake."
broken fingers, with extensive soft tissue C. "Avoid bending over at the waist."
damage D. "Apply ice immediately to any site of
D. 50-year-old woman who has fragile injury."
capillaries and bruises very easily E. -
E. -
148. The client with a pulmonary embolism
144. Which diagnostic test most specifi- is receiving an intravenous heparin drip.
cally confirms the presence of a pulmonary The nurse should make certain which agent
embolism? is readily available?
A. Pulmonary angiography A. Protamine sulfate
B. Ventilation-perfusion lung scan B. Cryoprecipitate
C. Arterial blood gases C. Vitamin K
D. Chest x-ray D. Fresh-frozen plasma
E. - E. -
145. Which set of arterial blood gases would 149. Which of the following clients could be
the nurse expect to find in a client who expected to require mechanical ventilation
developed a pulmonary embolism 15 mi- longterm?
nutes ago?
A. 24-year-old with muscular dystrophy
A. pH 7,47, HCO3
23 mEq/L, P CO2 25 mm B. 65-year-old with bilateral bacterial
Hg, P O2 82 mm Hg pneumonia
B. pH 7,30, HCO3
28 mEq/L, P CO2 65 mm C. 45-year-old with morphine overdose
Hg, P O2 75 mm Hg D. 27-year-old with status asthmaticus
C. pH 7,38, HCO3
22 mEq/L, P CO2 45 mm E. -
Hg, P O2 96 mm Hg
D. pH 7,30, HCO3
22 mEq/L, P CO2 60 mm 150. The pressure reading on the ventilator
Hg, P O2 66 mm Hg of a client receiving mechanical ventilati-
E. - on is fluctuating widely. What is the correct
action to take for this problem?
146. The client with a massive pulmonary
embolism is receiving alteplase (Activase). A. Assess the client’s oxygen saturation to
What is the priority nursing diagnosis or determine the adequacy of oxygenation
collaborative problem for this client? B. Disconnect the ventilator from the client
and use a manual resuscitation bag until the
A. Risk for Injury (Bleeding) machine has been checked
B. Potential for Anaphylaxis C. Increase the tidal volume by at least 100
C. Ineffective Breathing Pattern mL or by the client’s weight in kg
D. Risk for Impaired Adjustment D. Determine whether there is an air leak in
E. - the client’s endotracheal tube cuff
E. -
 INSTRUCTIONAL BOOK
Testing Board

TEST ITEMS FOR LICENSING EXAMINATION: KROK M. NURSING.

Kyiv. Testing Board.

(English language).

Approved to print 22.04/№149. Paper size 60х84 1/8

Offset paper. Typeface. Times New Roman Cyr. Offset print.
Conditional print pages 16. Accounting publishing pages 20.
Issue. 42 copies
List of abbreviations

A/G Albumin/globulin ratio HR Heart rate

A-ANON Alcoholics anonymous IDDM Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
ACT Abdominal computed tomography IFA Immunofluorescence assay
ADP Adenosine diphosphate IHD Ischemic heart disease
ALT Alanin aminotranspherase IU International unit
AMP Adenosine monophosphate LDH Lactate dehydrogenase
AP Action potential MSEC Medical and sanitary expert committee
ARF Acute renal failure NAD Nicotine amide adenine dinucleotide
AST Aspartat aminotranspherase NADPH Nicotine amide adenine dinucleotide
ATP Adenosine triphosphate phosphate restored
BP Blood pressure NIDDM Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
bpm Beats per minute PAC Polyunsaturated aromatic carbohydrates
C.I. Color Index PAS Periodic acid & shiff reaction
CBC Complete blood count pCO2 CO2 partial pressure
CHF Chronic heart failure pO2 CO2 partial pressure
CT Computer tomography pm Per minute
DIC Disseminated intravascular coagualtion Ps Pulse rate
DCC Doctoral controlling committee r roentgen
DM-2 Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus RBC Red blood count
DTP Anti diphtheria-tetanus vaccine RDHA Reverse direct hemagglutination assay
ECG Electrocardiogram Rh Rhesus
ESR Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (R)CFT Reiter's complement fixation test
FC Function class RIHA Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay
FAD Flavin adenine dinucleotide RNA Ribonucleic acid
FADH2 Flavin adenine dinucleotide restored RR Respiratory rate
FEGDS Fibro-esphago-gastro-duodenoscopy S1 Heart sound 1
FMNH2 Flavin mononucleotide restored S2 Heart sound 2
GIT Gastrointestinal tract TU Tuberculin unit
GMP Guanosine monophosphate U Unit
Hb Hemoglobin USI Ultrasound investigation
HbA1c Glycosylated hemoglobin V/f Vision field
Hct Hematocrit WBC White blood count
HIV Human immunodeficiency virus X-ray Roentgenogram