ME8595 - Thermal Engineering - II MCQ

Department of Mechanical Engineering MCQ for Regulations 2017
3. A nozzle used to send fluid in coherent

stream is called as ________
ME8595 Thermal a) jet
b) high velocity nozzle
Engineering- II c) every nozzle sends fluid in coherent stream
d) none of the mentioned
Mechanical Answer: a
Explanation: A nozzle used to send the fluid
Engineering - Fifth in coherent stream is called as jet.
Semester 4. In fountains the type of nozzle used is

_______
a) none of the mentioned
b) turbulent jet
Regulations - 2017 c) high speed nozzle
d) laminar jet
Answer: d
Explanation: Laminar jet nozzle is used to
convert the fluid in laminar flow.
UNIT I STEAM NOZZLE
5. Nozzles used in blast furnaces are called as
TOPIC 1.1 TYPES AND SHAPES _______
a) jet
OF NOZZLES b) hot blast
c) tuyeres
1. Nozzle is used to control direction or d) none of the mentioned
characteristics of flow.
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: Nozzles used in blast furnaces
are called tuyeres.
Answer: a
Explanation: Nozzle is used to control the 6. If mach number is less than one then its
direction and characteristics of flow. flow is ______________
a) subsonic flow
2. Nozzles are used to control the b) turbulent flow
___________ c) laminar flow
a) temperature d) none of the mentioned
b) rate of flow
c) mass flow rate Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: If M<1 then it is subsonic flow.
Answer: b 7. Nozzle used in rocket engine is

Explanation: Nozzles are used to control the __________
rate, speed, direction of flow. a) convergent nozzle
b) divergent nozzle
www.studymaterialz.in 1
c) convergent – Divergent nozzle 1. The steam leaves the nozzle at a

d) none of the mentioned ____________
a) low pressure and a high velocity
Answer: c b) high pressure and a high velocity
Explanation: In rocket air flows from c) high pressure and a low velocity
convergent section first and then from d) low pressure and a low velocity
divergent section.
Answer: a
8. In rocket engine the flow in the throat of Explanation: The steam leaves the nozzle at
the nozzle is __________ low pressure & a high velocity as the action
a) subsonic of steam is best suited for turbine operations
b) laminar under these conditions.
c) turbulent
d) none of the mentioned 2. When the back pressure of a nozzle is
below the designed value of pressure at exit
Answer: a of nozzle, the nozzle is said to be
Explanation: In the throat of nozzle mach ____________
number is less than one which indicates the a) overdamping
flow is subsonic. b) underdamping
c) chocked
9. When mach number is greater than one the d) none of the mentioned
flow is ________
a) subsonic Answer: b
b) supersonic Explanation: When the back pressure of a
c) laminar nozzle is below the designed value of
d) none of the mentioned pressure at exit of nozzle, the nozzle is said to
be underdamping.
Answer: b
Explanation: When M>1 the flow is 3. De-Laval turbine is a ____________
supersonic. a) multi rotor impulse turbine
b) impulse reaction turbine
10. In rocket engines the amount of expansion c) single rotor impulse turbine
in Nozzle determines the __________ d) none of the mentioned
a) exit temperature
b) exit pressure Answer: c
c) exit temperature & pressure Explanation: A De-Laval turbine is a single
d) none of the mentioned rotor impulse turbine.
Answer: c 4. The supersaturated flow of steam through a

Explanation: When the flow is subsonic, air nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the
in nozzle expands isoentropically and hence available heat drop ____________
exit temperature and exit pressure depends on a) increases
the amount of expansion. b) decreases
c) is unpredictable
TOPIC 1.2 FLOW OF STEAM d) remains same
THROUGH NOZZLES Answer: b
Explanation: The supersaturated flow of
steam through a nozzle as compared to a Answer: b

stable flow, the available heat drop decreases. Explanation: The ratio of the useful heat
drop to the isentropic heat drop is called
5. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge nozzle efficiency.
when the steam leaves the blade tip at
__________ to the direction of the blade 9. Rateau turbine is ____________
motion. a) pressure-velocity compounded turbine
a) 90° b) simple reaction turbine
b) 60° c) velocity compounded turbine
c) 270° d) pressure compounded turbine
d) 180°
Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: A Rateau turbine is a pressure
Explanation: A turbine is said to have an compounded turbine.
axial discharge when the steam leaves the
blade tip at 60° 10. When the cross-section of a nozzle
to the direction of the blade motion. increases continuously from entrance to exit,
it is called a ____________
6. The Parsons’ reaction turbine has a) convergent-divergent nozzle
____________ b) divergent nozzle
a) only moving blades c) convergent nozzle
b) only fixed blades d) none of the mentioned
c) fixed and moving blades of different shape
d) identical fixed and moving blades Answer: b
Explanation: When the cross-section of a
Answer: d nozzle increases continuously from entrance
Explanation: The Parsons’ reaction turbine to exit, it is called a divergent nozzle.
has identical fixed & moving blades.
7. What is the critical pressure ratio for TOPIC 1.3 CRITICAL

initially wet steam? PRESSURE RATIO
a) 0.582
b) 0.546 1. Pressure ratios below 20 are used in
c) 0.577 _____________ engines.
d) 0.601 a) steam turbine
b) aero derivative engines
Answer: a c) heavy frame engines
Explanation: The critical pressure ratio for d) none of the mentioned
initially wet steam is 0.582.
Answer: c
8. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the Explanation: Lower pressure ratios are
isentropic heat drop is called ____________ maintained in heavy frame engines.
a) condenser efficiency
b) nozzle efficiency 2. Heavy frame engines are physically
c) vacuum efficiency ___________
d) boiler efficiency a) medium
b) large
c) small 7. Gas turbines operate at pressures ________

d) none of the mentioned than critical pressure ratio.
a) higher
Answer: b b) lesser
Explanation: Heavy frame engines are c) does not depend on pressure ratio
physically large. d) none of the mentioned
3. Aeroderivative engines have pressure ratios Answer: b

___________ Explanation: Gas turbines operate at
a) greater than 30 pressures less than critical pressure ratio.
b) lesser than 30 and greater than 20
c) greater than 50 8. Critical pressure ratio is ratios of pressures
d) none of the mentioned at _________ discharge.
a) minimum
Answer: a b) none of the mentioned
Explanation: Higher pressure ratios of c) optimum
greater than 30 are used in aeroderivative d) maximum
engines.
Answer: d
4. Aeroderivative engines are used where Explanation: Critical pressure ratio is the
____________ power units are required. ratios of pressure at maximum discharge.
a) larger
b) smaller 9. Ratio of critical pressure to inlet pressure
c) optimum in known as ___________
d) none of the mentioned a) none of the mentioned
b) pressure ratio
Answer: b c) critical pressure ratio
Explanation: Aeroderivative engines are d) isoentropic pressure ratio
used where smaller power units are required.
Answer: c
5. Aeroderivative engines are larger. Explanation: Ratio of critical pressure to
a) True inlet pressure is called as critical pressure
b) False ratio.
Answer: b 10. In De Laval Nozzle critical pressure ratio

Explanation: Aeroderivative engines are is given by (2/y+1)^(y/y-1).
compact and smaller in size. a) True
b) False
6. Aeroderivative engines release higher
emissions. Answer: a
a) True Explanation: Critical pressure ratio of De
b) False Laval nozzle is derived theoretically.
Answer: a
Explanation: Aeroderivative engines are TOPIC 1.4 VARIATION OF MASS
smaller and produce high output as a result of FLOW RATE WITH PRESSURE
which they release higher emissions. RATIO
1. The exit velocity in the nozzle increases as b) Velocity

per __________ c) Momentum
a) Stagnation point d) Heat
b) Continuity equation
c) Prandtl Number Answer: a
d) Newton’s law Explanation: Pumps increase pressure rather
than velocity. During the pumping process, a
Answer: b housing is provided for the pumping
Explanation: In the nozzle, the exit velocity elements. These parts can change the speed.
of the fluid increases as per the continuity Pumps create a passage way that will squirt
equation. Continuity equation is given as Av= the fluid passing through it. Thus, pumping
constant as per the Bernoulli’s equation. It is increases pressure.
essential for an incompressible flow.
5. Which among the following is the formula
2. With the increase in pressure, the exit for volumetric flow rate?
velocity _________ a) Q = v/A
a) Decreases b) Q = Av
b) Increases c) Q = A+v
c) Same d) Q = A-v
d) Independent
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Volumetric flow rate is given
Explanation: Pressure is inversely by Q= A.v. Where v is the flow velocity of
proportional to the velocity. So, with the the fluid, and A is the area of cross section of
increase in pressure, the exit velocity the surface. Area of a surface is also called as
decreases. We know that the pressure is equal the vector area. Thus, the right answer is Q =
to force per unit area, this contradicts the Av.
above statement.
6. Which among the following is the formula
3. The Prandtl Number approximates for mass flow rate?
___________ a) Q = m/p
a) Momentum diffusivity to thermal b) Q = mp
diffusivity c) Q = m + p
b) Thermal diffusivity to momentum d) Q = m – p
diffusivity
c) Shear stress to thermal diffusivity Answer: b
d) Thermal diffusivity to kinematic viscosity Explanation: Mass flow rate is given by
Q=m/p. This is a relation expressed for mass
Answer: a flow rate. When ‘m’ is the mass flow rate.
Explanation: The Prandtl number is a And, p is the density of the fluid flow. They
dimensionless number. It approximates the are expressed in their standard units.
ratio of momentum diffusivity to thermal
diffusivity. It can be expressed as Pr = v/ α(1). 7. Compressible flow is a flow that deals with
Where α= thermal diffusivity and v= ______
momentum diffusivity. a) Fluid temperature
b) Fluid pressure
4. Pumps increase __________ c) Fluid density
a) Pressure d) Fluid geometry
Answer: c TOPIC 1.5 EFFECT OF

Explanation: Compressible flow is a branch
of fluid mechanics that deals with different FRICTION
types of flow. Its main significance lies in the
change in fluid density. Thus, the correct 1. The coefficient of kinetic friction is less
option is Fluid density . than the coefficient of static friction.
a) True
8. Compressible flow mainly deals with b) False
_______
a) Solid dynamics Answer: a
b) Liquid dynamics Explanation: The value of kinetic energy is
c) Gas dynamics directly proportional to the normal reaction
d) Solid and liquid dynamics between the two surfaces. Thus the
coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the
Answer: c coefficient of static friction.
Explanation: Compressible flow is a branch
of fluid mechanics that deals with different 2. The coefficient of static friction is
types of flow. Its main significance lies in the ___________
change in fluid density. It deals with gas a) Less than the coefficient of kinetic friction
dynamics. b) Greater than the coefficient of limiting
friction
9. Which among the following is an c) Equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction
assumption of the compressible flow? d) Equal to the tangent of the angle of friction
a) Resistance to flow of object
b) No-slip condition Answer: d
c) Known mass flow rate Explanation: The angle which the resultant
d) Resistance to flow of heat of the limiting friction and the normal
reaction which makes the normal reaction is
Answer: b called the angle of friction. But the tangent of
Explanation: The related assumption of a the angle of friction is equal to the coefficient
compressible fluid flow is No-slip condition. of static friction.
It is assumed that the flow velocity at the
solid surface is equal to the velocity of the 3. Which of the following kinetic friction is
surface itself. It is in direct consequence with smaller?
the continuum flow. a) Limiting friction
b) Static friction
10. What is Mach number? c) Rolling friction
a) Speed of object * speed of sound d) Sliding friction
b) Speed of object /speed of sound
c) Speed of object + speed of sound Answer: c
d) Speed of object- speed of sound Explanation: The force which comes into
play when a body rolls over the surface of
Answer: b another body is called rolling friction. For the
Explanation: Mach number is defined as the same magnitude of a normal reaction, rolling
ratio of the speed of an object to the speed of friction is always greater than the sliding
sound. Mach number is denoted by ‘M’. friction.
Mach number ranges from zero to infinity. It
falls into several flow regimes.
4. A cubical block rests on an inclined plane 7. How is friction due to air reduced?
of μ = 1/√3, determine the angle of a) Streamlining
inclination when the block just slides down b) Lubrication
the inclined plane? c) By using ball bearings
a) 40° d) By polishing
b) 50°
c) 30° Answer: a
d) 20° Explanation: Friction due to air is
considerably reduced by streamlining the
Answer: c shape pf the body moving through air. For
Explanation: When the block just slides example, jets have a streamline shape.
down the inclined plane, the angle of
inclination is equal to the angle of response. 8. Friction can be increased by ___________
tan α = μ= 1/√3 a) Using air cushion
α = 30°. b) Lubricants
c) Using sand
5. A mass of 4kg rests on a horizontal plane. d) Using ball bearings
The plane is gradually inclined until at an
angle θ= 15° with the horizontal, the mass Answer: c
just begins to slide. What is the coefficient of Explanation: By throwing sand the force of
static friction between the block and the friction between the wheels and the track
surface? becomes easier. On rainy days, we throw sand
a) 0.814 on the slippery ground. This increases the
b) 0.27 friction between our feet and the ground and
c) 1.5 reduces the chance of slipping.
d) 3.5
9. When moving along a curved path, he
Answer: b ___________
Explanation: θ = 15° is the angle of a) Leans inwards
response. b) Leans outwards
Coefficient of friction, μ = tan θ = tan 15° = c) Is still
0.27. d) Leans sideways
6. A scooter weighs 120kg f. Brakes are Answer: a

applied so that wheels stop rolling and start Explanation: When a cyclist goes around a
skidding. Find the force of friction if the curved path, a centripetal force is required.
coefficient of friction is 0.4. The force between the tyres and the road is
a) 60kg f small to provide the necessary centripetal
b) 48kg f force. That is why a cyclist going around a
c) 25kg f curve leans inwards because the horizontal
d) 32kg f component of the normal reaction provides
the necessary centripetal force.
Answer: b
Explanation: Weight of the scooter = 120kg f 10. A train has to negotiate a curve of radius
μ = 0.4 400m. By how much should the putter rail be
f = μ×weight of the scooter = 0.4×120 = 48kg raised with respect to inner rail for speed of
f. 48 km/h? The distance between the rails is
1m.
a) 0.20m a) Pressure
b) 0.0454m b) Energy
c) 0.45m c) Displacement
d) 0.020m d) Entropy
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: h = (v2 l)/rg Explanation: Entropy is defined as the
h = 402/32 = 0.0454m. measure of degree of randomness. It is a
thermodynamics quantity. As this nozzle flow
deals with thermodynamics, entropy is the
TOPIC 1.6 METASTABLE FLOW right choice. The other options are not
parameters of entropy.
1. When a gas is pushed through a pipe, the
gaseous molecules are _________ by the 4. In fluid dynamics, the velocity of the fluid
pipe’s walls in the stagnation point is
a) Attracted a) Zero
b) Absorbed b) Infinite
c) Deflected c) Non-existent
d) Dissipated d) Negative
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: This is because there is no Explanation: Stagnant point is a point where
attractive force present in the tube for the there is no movement of the fluid. When there
process of attraction to occur. Also, the is no movement, the velocity will be 0. Hence
surface of pipes is not an absorbing one, the answer is 0.
hence absorption is also ruled out. A pipe is
5. The stagnation state is obtained after a
not capable of dissipation of the molecules.
_____________ to zero velocity.
Hence, the right option is deflected.
a) Accelerating
2. If the speed of sound is much ________ b) Decelerating
than that of the gas, the gas density will stay c) Equilibrium
constant. d) Exponential increase
a) Smaller
Answer: b
b) Larger
Explanation: Initially the flow has a velocity.
c) Equal to
In the stagnant state, the velocity is 0. For this
d) Non-existent
to happen, there should be a deceleration of
Answer: b the velocity. Hence, deceleration is the
Explanation: This is because only with speed answer.
of sound Is larger, it’ll be able to compensate
6. To refrain from separation in subsonic
for the speed of gas. Under such situations,
nozzles, the expansion angle must not be
the gas density will be able to stay constant. If
more than _____
they are equal, density will get compressed.
a) 10 degrees
3. Isentropic nozzle flow states about the b) 20 degrees
movement of a gas or fluid through a narrow c) 30 degrees
orifice without an increase or decrease in d) 40 degrees
___________
Answer: a to area. So in a large chamber, the flow

Explanation: If the angle is more than 10 velocity will be less. It will be negligible.
degrees, there will be a drift amidst the
nozzle. At any angle more than 10 degrees, 10. For a compressible, ideal gas, mass flow
this separation will occur. But the minimum rate depends on parameters such as flow area,
value is 10 degrees. So, the answer is 10 pressure, temperature, properties of the gas,
degrees. and _________
a) Avogardo’s Number
7. Gas flows through the nozzle from an area b) Mach Number
of _____ pressure (called the chamber) to one c) Reynold’s Number
of _____ pressure d) Le-Grange’ Number
a) High, low
b) Low, high Answer: b
c) Same, same Explanation: Mass flow rate should depend
d) Constant, Infinite on the velocity. Here Mach number denotes
the velocity. So, the Mach number gives the
Answer: a right answer.
Explanation: Anything that flows or runs
moves from a region of higher value to lower
value. We can take the example of any
physical parameter like pressure, altitude etc.
Hence, here the gas will flow from high to UNIT II BOILERS
low pressure regions.
8. Converging-diverging nozzle is also known TOPIC 2.1 BOILER TYPES AND

as __________ COMPARISON
a) Pascal nozzle
b) Bernouille’s nozzle 1. On what basis are fire and water tube
c) Toricelli’s nozzle boilers are classified?
d) de Laval’ nozzle a) Depending the combustion products
formed
Answer: d
b) Depending the state of fuel
Explanation: This is because this nozzle was
c) Depending on the steam formation rate
invented by Carl de Laval. So, it is also
d) Depending tubular heating surface
named after him. Hence De-Laval nozzle is
the option. Answer: d
Explanation: Based on the contents of the
9. When the pressure chamber is big, the flow
tubular heating surface, boilers are primarily
velocities are _________
classified as fire tube boiler and water tube
a) Large
boiler. Fire tube boilers those in which
b) Negligible
production of combustion pass through the
c) Constant
tubes and water tube boilers are those in
d) Increasing
which the products of combustion surround
Answer: b the water tubes from outside.
Explanation: When the chamber is large, the
2. Cornish boiler is an example of which type
area is high. Velocity is inversely proportional
of boiler?
a) Fire tube boiler
b) Water tube boiler 5. Which of these is a mobile boiler?

c) Vertical tube boiler a) Lancashire boiler
d) Externally fired boiler b) Stirling boiler
c) Locomotive boiler
Answer: a d) Cochran boiler
Explanation: Cornish boiler is an example of
fire tube boiler and also includes Cochran, Answer: c
Lancashire, and Locomotive and scotch Explanation: The boilers, if they are
marine boilers. Fire tube boilers are those in portable, i.e., if they can be moved from one
which the products of combustion pass place to other place those are known as
through the tubes and water lies around the mobile boilers. Such boilers are used in
outside of tubes. These boilers operate at locomotives and ships to get the engine
moderate pressure (16-20bar) and more moving. And also small units are used for
suitable to generate 3-8 tons of steam per temporary at working sites. Ex: Locomotive
hour which is used in process heating. boiler, Marine boiler etc.
3. Stirling boiler is an example of which type 6. Which type of boiler is it when the furnace
of boiler? is placed in the region of boiling water?
a) Inclined tube boilers a) Internally fired boiler
b) Mobile boiler b) Externally fired boiler
c) Fire tube boiler c) Babcock-Wilcox boiler
d) Water tube boiler d) Stirling boiler
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: Water tube boilers are those in Explanation: If the furnace region is placed
which the products of combustion (Hot flue in the region of boiling water, the boilers are
gas) surround the water tubes from outside. termed as internally fired boilers. Ex:
Cold water enters the tubes and leaves hot. Lancashire boiler. If the furnace is placed
These boilers operate at very high pressures outside the boiling water region, the boilers
and are used for power generation. are known as externally fired boilers. Ex:
Ex: Babcock-Wilcox boiler, Stirling boiler. Babcock-Wilcox boiler.
4. Which of these is a stationary boiler? 7. Are boilers defined on the basis of heat
a) Locomotive boiler source.
b) Marine boiler a) Yes
c) Mobile boiler b) No
d) Babcock-Wilcox boiler
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Boilers can be classified based
Explanation: If the boilers are used at one on fuel used for combustion or heat
place only they are termed as stationary generation source. Various heat sources are:
boilers. These boilers are used for either heat generated by the combustion of fuel in
process heating in industries or for power solid, liquid or gaseous form. Heat generated
generation in steam power plants. These are by hot waste gases as byproducts of other
used at central station utility power plants, for chemical processes. Heat generated by
plant process etc. Ex: Babcock-Wilcox boiler, electrical energy and nuclear energy.
Fluidized Bed Combustion (FBC) boiler.
8. What is the steam pressure limit of natural a) Natural circulation boilers

circulation boilers? b) Fire tube boilers
a) 650bar c) Positive forced circulation boiler
b) 180bar d) Forced circulation boiler
c) 400bar
M
d) 550bar Answer: c
Explanation: In positive forced boilers, water
Answer: b enters the bottom of the tubes and completely
O
Explanation: Water is purely circulated by transforms into steam as it passes through the
density difference with most of the heat from tubes and reaches at the top. Thus, these
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the fuel flame being radiated to the water boilers do not need a steam drum and hence
walls directly. The steam pressure of such often referred as drum-less boilers. These
T.
boilers is limited to about 180bar, with water boilers work at very high pressures.
and steam being separated in the boiler drum.
12. What is the advantage of having smaller
9. Which type of boilers use orifice to control ratio of water to steam space?
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the flow circulation? a) Steam can be generated at a faster even if
a) Natural circulation boilers the boiler is cold
SP
b) Forced convection boilers b) Increases the rate of evaporation
c) Once-through boilers c) Water is made cyclic, i.e., from boiler drum
d) Positive forced circulation boilers to water tube and back to drum
d) Helps in mobilizing the boiler
G
Answer: b
Explanation: In these boilers water is Answer: a
circulated by using an additional pump. These Explanation: Rate of evaporation is more as
LO
boilers often use orifices to control the flow area of heating surface is more due to
circulation. Orifices are located at the bottom presence of large small diameter tubes. Due
of the tubes that ensure even distribution of to that smaller water ratio is allowed to steam
flow through water wall tubes. These boilers space where in the steam can be generated as
.B
can generate steam upto about 200 bar. a faster rate even if the boiler is cold. As the
rate of evaporation is more, it is preferred in
10. Which of the given boilers operate above steam power plants for power generation.
critical pressure?
17
a) Natural circulation boilers 13. Chances of sediments depositing inside

b) Forced circulation boilers the water tubes in the shell is less due to?
c) Once-through boilers a) Low working pressure
d) Water tube boilers b) Natural circulation of water
-R
c) Partial circulation of water

Answer: c d) High working pressure
Explanation: Once-through boilers operate
SE
above critical pressure i.e., above 221.2bar. Answer: d

As the density of water and steam are same Explanation: Due to high working pressure
above the critical pressure there will be no and positive circulation of water, chances of
recirculation. These types of boilers are also sediments depositing inside water tubes in the
called as positive forced circulation boilers. shell is less. This high working pressure of
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boiler in the shell can withstand high

11. Which type of boilers are called drum-less temperature or thermal stresses.
boilers?
14. Out of the given option choose the inside the boiler drum at any given instant.
advantage that supports fire tube boilers? Two water level indicators (one as a standby)
a) Water circulation is cyclic are fitted at the front of the boiler drum. The
b) Used as a mobile boiler boiler operator keeps track of water level in
c) Water circulation is limited inside boiler the drum and operates the feed pump as per
shell the requirement to maintain a constant level
d) Bursting of flue tube does not cause any of water inside the drum.
explosion
2. What is the function of pressure gauge in
Answer: c the boiler?
Explanation: Water circulation is limited a) To indicate steam pressure
inside the boiler shell. Water need not be that b) To indicate water pressure
much pure and needs minimum treatment like c) To indicate Air pressure
passing through a pressure filter. Cleaning d) To indicate Flue gas pressure
and repairing is not easy due to inaccessible
parts, furnace cannot be altered and is used Answer: a
for one fuel only. Explanation: The function of the pressure
gauge is to indicate the steam pressure inside
15. Which are the major types of boilers that the boiler drum in bar or in Kgf in cm2 or in
are operated in world today?
KN/m2 in gauge pressure. If the boiler is
a) Natural circulation boiler
fitted with a superheater, one more pressure
b) Forced circulation boiler
gauge fitted to the superheater header
c) Fire tube boiler
indicates the superheated steam pressure at
d) Once through boiler
any given instant.
Answer: d
3. other than Steam stop valve in the boiler
Explanation: The once through boiler has
which is the other similar type of valve used?
higher load response characteristics due to the
a) Non-reversible valve
fact that it does not have drum and has much
b) Transient valve
lower water inventory. Many times load
c) Reversible valve
change response is dictated by the firing
d) Junction valve
system and its controls rather than the boiler,
per-say. Answer: d
Explanation: Stop valve and junction valve
TOPIC 2.2 MOUNTINGS AND are essentially same. Conventionally stop
ACCESSORIES FOR BOILERS valves are smaller in size whereas, junction
valves are larger. When the valve is mounted
on the top most portion of the steam drum,
1. How many level indicators are there in the normally the valve is called junction valve. If
water level indicator of a boiler? it is connected in the steam pipe to regulate
a) 1 the flow of steam, the valve is known as stop
b) 2 valve.
c) 3
d) 4 4. What type valve is a feed check valve of a
boiler?
Answer: b a) One way valve
Explanation: The function of the water level b) Globe valve
indicator is to indicate the level of water
c) Reversible valve c) To prevent water pressure

d) Disc check valve d) To prevent from rising temperatures
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Feed check valve regulates the Explanation: The function of safety valve is
flow of feed water under pressure to the to prevent the excessive steam pressure inside
boiler drum. It is essentially a one way valve the boiler drum exceeding the design
and allows water to flow only in one direction pressure. When the pressure inside the boiler
i.e., towards the boiler drum. No water flows drum exceeds the rated pressure, safety valve
back to the boiler drum. automatically opens and discharges the steam
to the atmosphere till normal working
5. What is the function of Blow down valve pressure is retained.
of a boiler?
a) To remove sludge 8. How many types of safety valves are used
b) To build sediments in boiler in practice?
c) To remove Flue gas a) 1
d) To remove ash b) 2
c) 3
Answer: a d) 4
Explanation: Blow down valve is also called
as Blow-off-cock. The function of this valve Answer: b
is to remove the sludge or sediments collected Explanation: Two types of safety valves are
at the bottom of the boiler drum from time to used in practice
time. Whenever boiler cleaning and i) Spring loaded safety valve
inspection is due, water inside the tubes and ii) Dead weight safety valve
in the boiler drum can be completely drained
by operating the blow down valve. 9. What happens due to high temperature of
feeds water in the economizer?
6. What is the function of fusible plug in the a) Fuel consumption increases
boiler? b) Fuel mechanical efficiency increases
a) Protect the fire tube c) Fuel consumption decreases
b) To trip on overload d) Fuel mechanical efficiency decreases
c) To act as a junction switch
d) To maintain pressure Answer: c
Explanation: Function of the economizer is
Answer: a to recover a portion of heat of the exhaust
Explanation: The function of the fusible plug gases before the flue gases enter the chimney
is to protect the fire tube from burning due to and discharged to the atmosphere. Due to the
excessive heating. This usually happens when high temperature of feed water, fuel
the water level inside the drum becomes too consumption reduces. This increases the
low and the shell and crown plate are directly overall efficiency of the boiler.
exposed to steam space.
10. What is the function of superheater in the
7. What is the function of safety valves in the boiler?
boiler? a) Increase the temperature of steam
a) To prevent excessive steam pressure b) Reheat the steam
b) To prevent excessive air pressure c) Superheat the feed water
d) To heat the fuel gas
Answer: a 3rpm. The rotor is filled with thin corrugated

Explanation: Function of the superheater is metal elements. Hot gases pass through one
to increase the temperature of steam above its half of the heater and air through the other
saturation temperature. As heat contained in half. As the rotor turns, the heat storage
unit mass of superheated steam is more than elements transfer the heat absorbed from the
dry saturated or wet steam, it is extensively hot gases to the incoming air.
used in steam power plants.
14. What is the function of the feed water
11. What is the function Air heater in the pump of a boiler?
boiler? a) Pump water at high pressure
a) Preheat the air before entering the boiler b) To pump water at lower pressure
b) Recover the heat from flue gas c) To pull back the water from boiler
c) Heating of economizer tubes d) To convert steam into water after the boiler
d) Reheat the gas coming out of economizer process
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: Function of air preheater is to Explanation: Function of feed water pump is
recover the heat of a portion of exhaust flue to pump water at high pressure to the water
gases before the flue gases enter the chimney. space of the boiler drum. There are many
It is places along the passage of the exhaust types of feed pumps, in which they are
flue gases in between the economizer and the mainly classified into rotary and reciprocating
chimney. pumps.
12. Tubular air preheater of a boiler is also 15. Rotary pumps are driven by _________
called as _________ a) electric motors
a) recuperative air preheater b) batteries
b) elliptical air preheater c) diesel engines
c) ovoid air preheater d) biogas fuel
d) squarish air preheater
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: Rotary pumps are driven by
Explanation: Tubular air preheater is also electric motors. Water is pumped due to
called as recuperative air preheater. This type rotary action of the impeller. Rotary pumps
of air preheater is composed of steel tubes are invented by Charles C Barnes. It is a
through which hot flue gases flow. Air is positive displacement pump. The efficiency
made to circulate over these steel tubes and of these pumps depends on the percentage of
thus gains heat. slip to the total quantity displaced.
13. What does regenerative air preheater

consists of? TOPIC 2.3 FUELS Â€“ SOLID,
a) Rotor LIQUID AND GAS.
b) Skewers PERFORMANCE
c) Propeller CALCULATIONS, BOILER
d) Piston
TRIAL.
Answer: a
Explanation: This type of air preheater 1. Which fuel is produced by slow pyrolysis?
consists of a rotor which turns about 2 to a) Dung cake
b) Coke moulding finely ground coal under pressure

c) Charcoal with or without the addition of binding
d) Briquette material. Most commonly used binding
materials are coal tar, crude oil and clay. By
Answer: c using briquette coal, the fuel loss through
Explanation: Charcoal is produced by slow boiler grates can be avoided.
pyrolysis. It is prepared by heating wood with
limited supply of air below 280°C. It contains 4. Which fuel is produced by powdering low
80-90% of carbon. It is used for domestic grade coal with high ash content?
purpose namely cooking, heating and a) Coke
metallurgical purpose. Charcoal is the light b) Pulverized coal
weight black carbon and ash residue produced c) Charcoal
by removing water and other volatile d) Briquette coal
constituents from animal and vegetation
substances. There are different types of coal Answer: b
namely sugar charcoal, activated charcoal, Explanation: Pulverized coal is prepared by
lump charcoal, etc. powdering low grade coal with high ash
content. Dry coal is pulverized in pulverizing
2. Which fuel is prepared by heating mills. It burns most efficiently when mixed
bituminous coal continuously for 15 to 18 with air and hence it is used in most of the
hours in closed chamber? power plants.
a) Charcoal
b) Anthracite 5. Which is the correct advantage of solid
c) Coke fuels out of the given option?
d) Briquette coal a) They have low ignition temperature
b) They produce small amount of smoke
Answer: c c) They have higher calorific value
Explanation: Coal is prepared by heating d) They do not form any clinker
bituminous coal continuously for 15 to 18
hours in closed chamber in the absence of air Answer: a
500oC to 700oC. During this process the Explanation: They have low ignition
volatile matter is removed from the coal, temperature’. Ignition temperature is the
leaving a dull black color to coke. It is a hard minimum temperature at which a substance
porous structure and smokeless. It contains 85 starts to burn. Different fuels have different
to 95% carbon. When the bituminous coal is ignition temperature. Some fuels have low
ignition temperature and some have high
heated between 900oC to 1000oC, hard coke ignition temperature. The fuels that have low
is produced. It is used in gas producing plants ignition temperature are highly inflammable
and blast furnaces. and burn quickly at the spark of fire. While
3. Which fuel is prepared by moulding finely some fuels that have high ignition
ground coal under pressure? temperature do not burn quickly. They require
a) Coke heating to burn. For e.g., kerosene oil does
b) Charcoal not burn unless it is heated up to its ignition
c) Briquette coal temperature.
d) Lignite 6. Choose the proper disadvantage of solid
fuels out of the given option?
Answer: c
a) They produce lot of smoke
Explanation: Briquette coal is prepared by
b) They have low ignition temperature 9. Which fuel has the lightest liquid
c) They are high in production cost petroleum fraction?
d) They cannot be easily transported a) Diesel
b) Petrol
Answer: a c) Distillate
Explanation: Solid fuels tend to produce lot d) Kerosene
of smoke because they have large percentage
of ash content. They are also brittle in nature Answer: b
and they contain some amount of ash in it Explanation: Petrol has the lightest liquid
when they are in ground. Due to their petroleum fraction and highly volatile in
brittleness, it is common nature of solid fuels nature. It is also called gasoline. It has a
that they break into pieces while mining and specific gravity ranging from 0.70 to 0.78. It
transporting and form ash. is obtained between 65 to 200oC and it is a
mixture of a number of hydrocarbons. It is
7. In what forms are liquid fuels available in light yellow in color and it is used as a fuel in
nature? automobiles and aero planes.
a) Light distillate
b) Petroleum spirit 10. Which fuel is heavier than petrol but less
c) Petroleum naphtha volatile and it is commonly used as domestic
d) Crude petroleum fuel?
a) Diesel
Answer: d b) Distilled fuel
Explanation: Liquid fuels are available in c) Kerosene
nature in the form of crude petroleum. All d) Alcohol
commercial liquid fuels are derived from
crude petroleum or crude oil. The crude oil, Answer: c
as it comes out from oil wells contains 83- Explanation: Kerosene is heavier than
87% carbon, 10-14% hydrogen and small gasoline but less volatile than it. It has a
percentages of sulfur, nitrogen, oxygen and specific gravity ranging from 0.78 to 0.85. It
gases containing mainly ethane and methane.
is obtained between 150 to 300oC. It is
mainly used in aviation gas turbines as jet
8. Name the process used to eliminate
fuel and also in lams and stoves. It is miscible
impurities present in crude oil?
a) Distillation in petroleum solvents but immiscible in
b) Filtration water.
c) Sedimentation 11. Which fuel is slightly heavier than
d) Coagulation
kerosene and is produced in petroleum
Answer: a fractions?
a) Diesel
Explanation: The impurities present in the
b) Crude oil
crude oil are eliminated by the process of
refining oil by distillation. It is based on the c) Gasoline
principle that boiling points of various d) Distillate
hydrocarbons increase with an increase in Answer: d
molecular weight and when distilled, the
Explanation: Distillate is slightly heavier
crude oil is separated into gasoline, kerosene,
than kerosene and is used as fuel and
fuel oil or reduced crude oil.
domestic fuel. It is liquid fuel usually distilled
from crude petroleum and produced in
fractions. Distillate fuel is a type of fuel for Answer: b

internal combustion vehicles with either Explanation: Alcohol is an artificial fuel
mechanical transmissions or electric obtained from vegetable matter by
transmissions. They are used in automobiles fermentation process. It is used in many
locomotives and agricultural machinery as chemical processes. The first four aliphatic
well as space heaters and power generators. alcohols (methanol, propanol, ethanol and
butanol) are of interest as fuels because they
12. Which fuel has higher thermodynamic can be synthesized chemically or biologically.
efficiency in liquid fuels? The general chemical formula for alcohol fuel
a) Diesel is CnH2n+1OH.
b) Petrol
c) Kerosene 15. Which among the following fuels need
d) LPG excess amount of air for complete
combustion?
Answer: a a) Natural fuels
Explanation: Diesel is heavier than kerosene. b) Liquid fuels
It has specific gravity ranging from 0.86 to c) Gaseous fuels
0.95. It is obtained between 200 to 370oC. It d) Artificial solid fuels
is used in diesel engine. Diesel engines have
found broad use as a result of higher Answer: d
thermodynamic efficiency and fuel efficiency. Explanation: Artificial solid fuels need
excess amount of air for complete combustion
13. Which liquid fuel has a wider because they have low calorific value
composition than diesel and used in furnaces compared to liquid fuels and the rate of
of oil fired boiler? combustion of solid fuels cannot be easily
a) Fuel oil controlled. They have tendency to form
b) Petrol clinkers at high temperatures.
c) Distillate
d) Alcohol
Answer: a
Explanation: Fuel oil is similar to diesel but UNIT III STEAM
has wider composition than diesel. It is used
in furnaces of oil fired boilers. Broadly TURBINES
speaking, fuel oil is any liquid fuel that is
burned in furnace or boiler for the generation TOPIC 3.1 TYPES OF STEAM
of power, except oil is having a flash point of
TURBINES
approximately 42oC and oils burned in cotton
or wool-wick burners.
1. Which of the following is not a type of
14. Which is the artificial liquid fuel obtained steam turbine?
by fermentation process? a) Impulse turbine
a) Fuel oil b) Reaction turbine
b) Alcohol c) Pelton wheel turbine
c) Distillate d) Axial flow type turbine
d) Kerosene
Answer: c
Explanation: Pelton wheel turbine is a water
turbine. Impulse and reaction turbines are the b) relatively high RPM and steam expension
steam turbines characterized by the action of over nozzle
steam on moving blades. Axial and radial c) relatively low RPM and steam expension
flow turbine and steam turbines are over rotor blades
characterized by type of flow of steam over d) relatively high RPM and steam expansion
blades. over rotor blades
2. Which statement about impulse turbine is Answer: c

true? Explanation: In reaction turbine steam does
a) Steam expands over blades not expand in nozzle but expands as flows
b) Steam expends completely in stationary over the rotor blades. Reaction turbines are
nozzels characterized by relatively low RPM. As
c) Steam expends partially over nozzle and steam expands over the turbine blades, causes
turbine blades the reaction force over the turbine which
d) Steam expends over blades incompletely rotates the turbine.
Answer: b 5. In condensing turbine what is the back

Explanation: In an impulse turbine the steam pressure of the turbine?
expands completely in the stationary nozzles. a) Very high
No pressure drop occurs over the moving b) Above atmospheric pressure
Blade Runner. During expansion steam c) Equal to atmospheric pressure
attains a high velocity and impinges against d) Below atmospheric pressure
the blades fixed on the rotor Periphery
resulting in the impulsive force on the Answer: d
moving blades which sets the rotor rotating. Explanation: According to the back pressure
steam turbines are classified into condensing
3. Which statement about reaction turbine is and non condensing turbines. Where there is
false? no use of exhaust steam, turbine is built as a
a) Steam does not expand in nozzle pure condensing type turbine. In condensing
b) Blades acts like nozzles turbine steam is reduced in pressure down to
c) Steam expands as flows over the rotor a vacuum pressure which is in accordance
blades with the cooling water temperature.
d) Steam continuously losses its heat as flows
over the rotor blades 6. The turbine in which steam enters the blade
tip nearest the axis of the wheel and flows
Answer: d towards the circumference is called
Explanation: The expansion of steam in _____________
reaction turbine totally occurs when it flows a) axial flow turbine
over the turbine blades. The expansion of b) radial flow turbine
steam as it flows over the blades is adiabatic c) impulse turbine
any friction losses between the steam and the d) non-condensing turbine
blades are converted into heat which in turn
will reheat the steam. Answer: b
Explanation: According to type of flow of
4. Reaction turbines are characterized by steam the steam turbines used are of two
___________ types namely axial flow turbine and radial
a) relatively low RPM and steam expension flow turbine. In axial flow turbine steam
over nozzle flows over the blades in a direction parallel to
the axis of wheel. In radial flow turbine steam integral rotor the wheels and shaft are formed
enters from blade tip near the axis of wheel from the solid forging. The built-up rotor is
and flows towards the circumference. cheaper and easier to manufacture.
7. Majority of the turbines are axial flow type. 10. In velocity compounding the steam is
a) True expanded from the boiler pressure to
b) False condenser pressure in one set of stationary
blades on nozzle.
Answer: a a) True
Explanation: In axial flow type turbines the b) False
steam flows over the blades in a direction
parallel to the axis of the wheel. In radial flow Answer: a
turbines the blades are arranged radially so Explanation: In compounding a number of
that the steam enters at the blade tip nearest rotors in series, keyed on the same shaft, are
the axis of the wheel and flows towards the employed and the steam pressure or the jet
circumference. velocity is absorbed in steps as it was over the
moving blades. Compounding is necessary
8. Which turbines are employed for driving for obtaining reasonable blade tip speed in
alternator at synchronous speed? turbines.
a) Central Station turbine
b) Reheating turbine
c) Extraction turbine TOPIC 3.2 IMPULSE AND
d) Extraction induction turbine REACTION PRINCIPLES,
VELOCITY DIAGRAMS, WORK
Answer: a DONE AND EFFICIENCY -
Explanation: Central turbines are for driving
the alternator at synchronous speed. In OPTIMAL OPERATING
Reheating turbine steam is returned back to CONDITIONS
the boiler after partial expansion for
superheating and then allowed to expand to 1. Non Condensing steam turbine can also be
back pressure. In extraction turbines steam called as _________
leaves the turbine casing before the exhaust, a) Extraction steam turbine
for feed water heating. b) Back pressure steam turbine
c) Impulse steam turbine
9. Read the statements below. d) None of the mentioned
I. The built up rotor is cheaper and easier to
manufacture. Answer: b
II. The high pressure and intermediate Explanation: The other name for Non
pressure rotors are always of integral type. condensing turbines is back pressure turbines.
a) Only statement I is correct
b) Only statement II is correct 2. Condensing turbine is used for
c) I and II are correct __________
d) I and II are wrong a) central power generation
b) to reduce outlet temperature
Answer: c c) to increase efficiency of steam
Explanation: A built-up rotor consists of a d) none of the mentioned
forged steel shaft on which separate forged
steel discs are shrunk and keyed. In an
Answer: a b) marine purposes

Explanation: Reducing outlet temperatures c) aircraft
and increasing efficiency of the steam are d) none of the mentioned
required for every turbine irrespective of its
use. So condensing turbines are used for Answer: b
central power generation. Explanation: Astern turbines are those
classified based on exhaust conditions and are
3. Steam turbine is classified on basis of used for marine purposes.
__________
a) type of blades 7. In condensing turbines vacuum is obtained
b) exhausting condition by ____________
c) type of Steam flow a) sudden pressure drop
d) all of the mentioned b) removal of non condensable gases
c) sudden drop in pressure and by removal of
Answer: d non condensable gases
Explanation: Steam turbines are classified by d) none of the mentioned
type of blades, exhausting condition, type of
steam flow, division of steam flow, type of Answer: c
compounding. Explanation: Due to sudden drop in pressure
vacuum appears and the remaining non
4. High pressure turbine is a Non-Condensing condensable gases are removed from the
turbine due to __________ steam in order to maintain the vacuum.
a) exhaust conditions
b) axial flow of the steam 8. Cross compound steam turbines are once
c) pressure-velocity compounding used in _____________
d) velocity compounding a) generation of electricity
b) marine ships
Answer: a c) automobiles
Explanation: For high pressure turbines d) none of the mentioned
exhaust conditions are controlled by
regulating valve which makes them to come Answer: b
under the category of Non-Condensing Explanation: Cross compound turbines are
turbines. once used in marine ships before two stroke
diesel engines.
5. Impulse blades are in the shape of
__________ 9. When steam reaches turbine blades the
a) Rain drop type of force responsible for moving turbine
b) Circular blades are _____________
c) Half moon a) Axial force
d) None of the mentioned b) Shear force
c) Longitudinal force
Answer: c d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Blades used in impulse turbines
are half moon shaped because as steam enters Answer: a
the moving blade it pushes the blade forward. Explanation: Axial force pushes the turbine
blade forward and causes movement in
6. Astern turbines are used in _________ turbine blade.
a) power generation
10. Reaction turbine works with the force Answer: b

obtained from change in pressure energy. Explanation: Even at low speeds velocity
a) True wastage is prevented and hence efficiency is
b) False increased.
Answer: a 4. In pressure compounded turbines moving

Explanation: Reaction turbine runs with the nozzles are followed by turbine blades.
force obtained from change in pressure a) True
energy. b) False
Answer: b
TOPIC 3.3 MULTI-STAGING, Explanation: In pressure compounding fixed
COMPOUNDING AND nozzles are followed by moving blades.
GOVERNING.
5. In pressure compounded turbines flow
passage is from ______________
1. A turbine having alternate blades and
a) moving nozzles to fixed blades
nozzles is called as _______________
b) fixed nozzles to moving blades
a) Impulse turbine
c) fixed blades to moving nozzles
b) Reaction turbine
c) Impulse & Reaction turbine
d) None of the mentioned Answer: b
Explanation: In pressure compounded
Answer: a
turbines pressure drop is reduced into stages
Explanation: When blades and nozzles are
reducing the pressure loss and hence
arranged in alternate manner pressure loss can
increasing the efficiency. Hence in pressure
be reduced and hence it is called an impulse
compounded turbines flow passage if from
turbine.
fixed nozzles to moving blades.
2. Multi stage arrangement of turbines is
6. In velocity compounded turbines flow
called as __________
passage is from ____________
a) Impulse turbine
a) moving blades to fixed nozzles
b) Reaction turbine
b) fixed nozzles to moving blades
c) Compounding
c) fixed blades to moving nozzles
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Answer: d
Explanation: Multi stage arrangement of
Explanation: In velocity compounded
turbines reduces the pressure loss and
turbines velocity drop is maintained in stages
velocity losses and hence it is called as
and hence reducing velocity loses. Hence in
compounding.
velocity compounded turbines flow passage is
3. Compounding __________ efficiency at from fixed nozzles to multiple rows of
low speed. moving blades alternating with fixed blades.
a) decrease
7. A velocity compounded impulse turbine is
b) increase
also called as __________
c) maximizes
a) Curtis wheel
b) Pressure compounded
c) Curtis wheel & Pressure compounded

d) None of the mentioned
RESIDUAL HEAT
RECOVERY
Answer: a
Explanation: Velocity compounded turbines
are invented by a scientist called Curtis and TOPIC 4.1 COGENERATION
hence it is named after his name. PRINCIPLES, CYCLE
ANALYSIS, APPLICATIONS,
8. Reaction turbine is also called as
SOURCE AND UTILISATION OF
_________
a) Impulse turbine RESIDUAL HEAT.
b) Curtis wheel
c) Parsons turbine 1. Having two separate units for process heat
d) None of the mentioned and power is?
a) useful
Answer: c b) useless
Explanation: Reaction turbine was invented c) pollution reducing
by a scientist names Parson and hence it was d) none of the mentioned
named after his name.
Answer: b
9. A turbine comprising of fixed blades and Explanation: Having two separate units for
moving nozzles is called as reaction turbines. process heat & power is wasteful, for of the
a) True total heat supplied to the steam generator for
b) False power purposes, a greater part will normally
be carried away by the cooling water in the
Answer: a condenser.
Explanation: In reaction turbines the reaction
produced when steam hits the turbine is also 2. A plant producing both, electrical power &
utilized to produce power output. process heat simultaneously is?
a) Cogenital plant
10. Compounding is used for _________ b) Cogenerial plant
power applications. c) Cogeneration plant
a) low d) Conglomerate plant
b) high
c) medium Answer: c
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: Cogeneration plant is defined
as a plant which produces electrical power
Answer: b and processes heat simultaneously.
Explanation: In compounding high powers
are produced at low speeds also. Hence for 3. In a back pressure turbine _____________
low power production compounding need not a) pressure at the exhaust from the turbine is
be used. the saturation pressure corresponding to the
temperature desired in the process
b) pressure at the entrance of the turbine is
the saturation pressure corresponding to the
temperature desired in the process
UNIT IV c) pressure at the exhaust from the turbine is
COGENERATION AND the saturation pressure corresponding to the
pressure desired in the process usually small with respect to their power
d) none of the mentioned output because they have no great volume of
exhaust to cope with, the density being high.
Answer: a They are usually single cylinder and hence,
Explanation: The name back pressure turbine usually cheaper in terms of cost per MW.
is given because pressure at the exhaust from
the turbine is the saturation pressure 7. Which of these is not an application of
corresponding to the temperature desired in back pressure turbine?
the process. a) desalination of sea water
b) filtration of water
4. In a by-product power cycle? c) process industries
a) the power is produced initially d) petrochemical installations
b) power production is in the middle stages of
the cycle Answer: b
c) power production is after the cycle has Explanation: The applications of back
ended pressure turbine are desalination of sea water,
d) none of the mentioned process industries, petrochemical
installations, district heating and also for
Answer: c driving compressors and feed pumps.
Explanation: When the process steam is the
basic need, and the power is produced 8. Back pressure turbine is placed between
incidentally as a by-product, the cycle is often ____________
called as the by-product power cycle. a) Turbine & Pump
b) Boiler & Pump
5. Back pressure turbines are usually c) Turbine & Heat Exchanger
_________________ with respect to their d) Boiler & Turbine
power output.
a) large Answer: d
b) small Explanation: In a cogeneration plant, the
c) very large back pressure turbine is placed between the
d) very small boiler & turbine.
Answer: b 9. Which of the following is a good medium

Explanation: Back pressure turbines are for constant temperature heating?
usually small with respect to their power a) Water
output because they have no great volume of b) Steam
exhaust to cope with, the density being high. c) Coolant
d) Diesel
6. In terms of cost per MW compared to
condensing sets of the same power, the back Answer: b
pressure turbines are? Explanation: For constant temperature
a) more expensive heating (or drying), steam is a very good
b) cheaper medium since isothermal condition can be
c) costly maintained by allowing saturated steam to
d) none of the mentioned condense at that temperature and utilising the
latent heat released for heating purposes.
Answer: b
Explanation: Back pressure turbines are
10. The cogeneration plant efficiency nCO if energy output is given by?
WT, Qi, QH represents turbine work, heat (1 / m) + ((1 – e) / n).
input, heat output respectively is given by?
13. Pass-out turbines are used in which of
a) nCO = (WT + Qi) / QH
these cases?
M
b) nCO = (WT – Qi) / QH a) relatively high back pressure
c) nCO = (WT + QH) / Qi b) small heating requirement
c) only relatively low back pressure
O
d) nCO = (WT + QH) / Qi
d) both relatively high back pressure and
Answer: d small heating requirement
C
Explanation: The cogeneration plant
Answer: d
efficiency nCO if WT, Qi, QH represents
T.
Explanation: Pass-out turbines are used in
turbine work, heat input, heat output cases of relatively high back pressure and
respectively is, small heating requirements. They are used in
nCO = (WT + QH) / Qi. cases where a certain quantity of steam is
O
continuously extracted from the turbine at an
11. The electricity fraction of total energy intermediate stage for heating purposes at the
SP
output if W1 and Q1 represents the turbine desired temperature and pressure.
work and heat output is given by?
a) W1 / (W1 + Q1) 14. Which of these is not considered
b) W1 / (W1 – Q1) economical for cogeneration?
G
a) a high fraction of electric to total energy
c) W1 / (W1Q1)
b) a low fraction of electric to total energy
d) W1 / Q1 c) a low fraction of total energy to electric
LO
energy
Answer: a d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: The electricity fraction of total
energy output if W1 and Q1 represents the Answer: b
.B
turbine work and heat output is, Explanation: A low fraction of electric to
W1 / (W1 + Q1). total energy is considered as an economical
condition for cogeneration. Cogeneration
plant is defined as a plant which produces
17
12. If e is the electricity fraction of the total

energy output, m is the electric plant electrical power and processes heat
efficiency and n is the steam generator simultaneously.
efficiency; the heat added per unit total
-R
energy output is given by? TOPIC 4.2 HEAT PIPES, HEAT

a) (1 / m) + ((1 – e) / n) PUMPS, RECUPERATIVE AND
b) (1 / n) + ((1 – e) / m)
c) (1 / m) + ((1 + e) / n) REGENERATIVE HEAT
SE
d) (1 / n) + ((1 – e) / m) EXCHANGERS. ECONOMIC

ASPECTS.
Answer: a
Explanation: If e is the electricity fraction of
1. Some examples of heat exchanger are
C
the total energy output, m is the electric plant

(i) Condensers and evaporators in
efficiency and n is the steam generator
refrigeration units
efficiency; the heat added per unit total
(ii) Evaporator of an ice plant and milk chiller
of a pasteurizing plant there is a simultaneous transfer of heat and

(iii) Automobile radiators and oil coolers of mass.
heat engines
Identify the correct answer 5. Which type of flow arrangement is this?
a) i only
b) ii and iii
c) i, ii and iii
d) i and ii
Answer: c
Explanation: All are the examples of heat
exchanger.
a) Counter flow
2. Heat exchangers are classified into how
b) Parallel flow
many categories?
c) Regenerator
a) 1
d) Shell and tube
b) 2
c) 3 Answer: b
d) 4 Explanation: In this type of arrangement, the
fluids enter the unit from the same side, flow
Answer: d in the same direction and leave from the same
Explanation: Nature of heat exchange side.
process, relative direction of motion of fluid,
mechanical design of heat exchange surface 6. Which of the following is not an example
and physical state of heat exchanging fluids. of recuperators type heat exchanger?
a) Automobile radiators
3. Based upon the nature of heat exchange b) Condensers
process, the heat exchangers are classified c) Chemical factories
into how many categories d) Oil heaters for an aero plane
a) 1
b) 2 Answer: c
c) 3 Explanation: Recuperators are not used in
d) 4 chemical factories.
Answer: c 7. In how many categories heat exchangers
Explanation: Direct contact, regenerators and are classified on the basis of direction of flow
recuperators. of fluids?
a) 4 categories
4. The energy transfer between the hot fluid
b) 3 categories
and cold fluids is brought about by their c) 2 categories
complete physical mixing in d) 1 categories
a) Direct contact heat exchanger
b) Regenerators Answer: b
c) Recuperators Explanation: Parallel, counter and cross
d) Boilers flow.
Answer: a 8. In how many categories heat exchangers
Explanation: In this type of heat exchanger, are classified on the basis of mechanical
design of heat exchanger surface?

TOPIC 5.1 VAPOUR
a) 2
b) 4 COMPRESSION
c) 1 REFRIGERATION CYCLE,
d) 3 EFFECT OF SUPERHEAT AND
SUB-COOLING,
Answer: d
Explanation: Concentric tubes, shell and tube PERFORMANCE
and multiple shell. CALCULATIONS
9. In how many categories heat exchangers 1. In vapour refrigeration cycle, which of the
are classified on the basis of physical state of following is used for expansion?
heat exchanging fluids? a) expansion engine
a) 1 b) throttling valve or capillary tube
b) 2 c) both of the mentioned
c) 3 d) none of the mentioned
d) 4
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: This is because in expansion
Explanation: Condenser and evaporator. engine, power recovery is small and hence its
cost is not justified.
10. Many types of heat exchangers have been
developed to meet the widely varying 2. Which of the following operations occur in
applications. Based upon their a vapour refrigeration cycle?
(i) Operating principle a) compression
(ii) Arrangement of flow path b) cooling and condensing
(iii) Design c) expansion and evaporation
Identify the correct statements d) all of the mentioned
a) i, ii and iii
b) i and ii Answer: d
c) ii and iii Explanation: These are the processes which
d) i and iii constitute the vapour refrigeration cycle.
Answer: a 3. Compression can be
Explanation: Heat exchanger is a process a) dry compression
equipment designed for the effective transfer b) wet compression
of heat energy between two fluids. c) both of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Dry compression starts with
UNIT V REFRIGERATION saturated vapour and wet compression starts
AND AIR â€“ with wet vapour.
CONDITIONING 4. Wet compression is preferred over dry
compression.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b c) adiabatic throttling process

Explanation: Dry compression is always d) reversible adiabatic process
preferred.
Answer: b
5. Why is wet compression not preferred? Explanation: This is the last process and it
a) the liquid refrigerant can be trapped in the completes the cycle.
head of cylinder
b) this may damage the valves or cylinder 9. The evaporator produces the cooling or
head refrigerating effect.
c) liquid refrigerant can wash away the a) true
lubricating oil thus accelerating wear b) false
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: It absorbs heat from the
Explanation: These are the reasons why dry surroundings by evaporation.
compression is preferred over wet
compression. 10. In the expansion process, which of the
following remains constant?
6. In the cooling and condensing, correct a) work done
sequence of processes is b) heat supplied
a) desuperheated->condensed->saturated c) internal energy
liquid d) enthalpy
b) desuperheated->saturated liquid-
>condensed Answer: d
c) condensed->desuperheated->saturated Explanation: The expansion is an adiabatic
liquid throttling process in which enthalpy remains
d) saturated liquid->condensed- unchanged.
>desuperheated
11. The COP of cycle is given by(Q2=heat
Answer: a absorbed by evaporator and Wc=work done
Explanation: This is the correct sequence of by compressor)
processes and heat is transferred out. a) 1- (Q2/Wc)
b) 1- (Wc/Q2)
7. The expansion process is c) Q2/Wc
a) isentropic d) Wc/Q2
b) reversible
c) adiabatic Answer: c
d) all of the mentioned Explanation: This is the COP of vapour
refrigeration cycle.
Answer: c
Explanation: The expansion process is 12. One tonne of refrigeration is given as the
adiabatic but not isentropic and is rate of heat removal from surroundings
irreversible. equivalent to heat required for melting one
tonne of ice in a day.
8. The evaporation process is a a) true
a) constant volume reversible process b) false
b) constant pressure reversible process
Answer: a
Explanation: This is the definition of “one
tonne of refrigeration”. b) absorbent

c) both of the mentioned
13. Which of the following is recommended d) none of the mentioned
in a refrigeration cycle?
a) superheating of vapour Answer: c
M
b) subcooling of liquid Explanation: Both refrigerant and absorbent
c) both of the mentioned are used in absorption refrigeration cycle.
O
2. In absorption system, compressor in vapour
Answer: c compression cycle is replaced by absorber-
C
Explanation: The superheating of vapour is generator assembly.
done at evaporator outlet and subcooling of a) true
T.
liquid occurs at condenser outlet. b) false
14. Superheating of vapour and subcooling of Answer: a

liquid ____ the refrigerating effect. Explanation: The absorber-generator
O
a) decreases assembly involves less mechanical work.
b) increases
SP
c) no change 3. In the aqua-ammonia absorption system,
d) none of the mentioned a) water is the refrigerant and ammonia is the
absorbent
Answer: b b) ammonia is the refrigerant and water is the
Explanation: The refrigerating effect is absorbent
G
increased by using these techniques. c) both ammonia and water can be used as
refrigerant or absorbent
LO
15. A condenser must ____ and then ____ the d) none of the mentioned
compressed refrigerant.
a) superheat, evaporate Answer: b
b) desuperheat, evaporate Explanation: This is the basic absorption
c) superheat, condense refrigeration cycle.
.B
d) desuperheat, condense
4. Which of the following statement is true?
Answer: d a) ammonia vapour is absorbed in water
17
Explanation: This is the function of a b) boiling point of ammonia is more than that
condenser. of water
c) both of the mentioned
TOPIC 5.2 WORKING
-R
PRINCIPLE OF AIR CYCLE, Answer: a

VAPOUR ABSORPTION Explanation: The boiling point of ammonia
SYSTEM, AND is less than that of water.
SE
THERMOELECTRIC 5. why is an analyser-rectifier combination is

REFRIGERATION. used in absorption refrigeration cycle?
a) to increase the amount of water vapour in
C
1. In absorption refrigeration cycle, which of ammonia vapour

the following is used? b) to decrease the amount of water vapour in
a) refrigerant ammonia vapour
c) to eliminate the water vapour from Answer: b

ammonia vapour Explanation: The reason is that water cannot
d) all of the mentioned be cooled below 0 degree Celsius.
Answer: c 10. The COP of absorption refrigeration
M
Explanation: This is done to prevent the system is
blocking of expansion valve because of a) low
frozen ice. b) high
O
c) equal to that of vapour compression
6. Which of the following condenses first? refrigeration system
C
a) ammonia vapour d) none of the mentioned
b) water vapour
T.
c) both condense at same temperature Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: The Cop of absorption
refrigeration system is low.
Answer: b
O
Explanation: The saturation temperature of
water is higher than ammonia at any given TOPIC 5.3 AIR CONDITIONING
SYSTEMS, CONCEPT OF RSHF,
SP
pressure.
GSHF AND ESHF, COOLING
7. The vapour going to condenser is ____ in LOAD CALCULATIONS.
temperature and ____ in ammonia.
a) higher, less
G
b) higher, richer 1. Room air conditioners and packaged units
c) lower, less are examples of _________
LO
d) lower, richer a) Direct expansion systems

b) Indirect expansion systems
Answer: d c) Chilled water systems
Explanation: When passing through analyser, d) Indirect contraction systems
the vapour is cooled and enriched by
.B
ammonia. Answer: a
Explanation: Air conditioning systems are
8. Lithium bromide-water vapour is another classified into two categories. These are
17
absorption refrigeration system. direct expansion systems and chilled water

a) true systems. Room air conditioners and packaged
b) false units are examples of direct expansion
systems.
-R
Answer: a
Explanation: In this, water is the refrigerant 2. Which of the following is not a component
and solution of lithium bromide in water is of packaged air conditioners?
the absorbent. a) Compressor
SE
b) Condenser
9. Water is used as a ____ in air conditioning c) Chiller
units. d) Evaporator
a) absorbent
C
b) refrigerant Answer: c
c) absorbent and refrigerant Explanation: Packaged air conditioners
d) none of the mentioned consist of a compressor, condenser,
evaporator and a fan. Unlike packaged air
conditioners, chilled water system consists of Answer: d

an additional item called the chiller. Explanation: The filters in the air
conditioning system should be capable of
3. In a chilled water system, the refrigerant is removing dust particles from the incoming
used to cool the air directly while in the direct air. They should afford easy cleaning and
expansion system, a secondary medium like should offer low frictional resistance to the
water is used to cool the air. airflow.
a) True
b) False 6. Viscous type filters are made of screens of
spilt wire and coated with non-drying viscous
Answer: b oil in order to catch and remove the dust
Explanation: In the direct expansion system, particles from the incoming air.
the refrigerant is used to cool the air directly a) True
while in the chilled water system, a secondary b) False
medium like water is used to cool the air. In
the chilled water system, the refrigerant first Answer: a
cools the water and then the water cools the Explanation: Viscous type filters are made of
air. screens of spilt wire and coated with non-
drying viscous oil in order to catch and
4. In which component of the chilled water remove the dust particles from the incoming
system, the return air and the fresh air air. They can be of two types – unit type or
mixture is filtered? automatic type.
a) Fan coil unit
b) Ducting grill 7. Which of the following types of filters used
c) Compressor in the air conditioning system is made of
d) Evaporator cloth that is discarded on getting dirty?
a) Viscous type filters
Answer: a b) Dry filter
Explanation: In the chilled water system, the c) Spray washers
return air and the fresh air mixture is filtered d) Electric precipitators
in the fan coil unit. Here, in addition to
filtration, the mixture is cooled and Answer: b
dehumidified. After this, it is distributed to Explanation: Filters used in air conditioning
the conditioned space through ducting and system are of various types. There are viscous
grills. type filters, dry filters, spray washers and
electric precipitators. A dry filter is made of
5. Which of the following qualities is not cloth such as flannel, that is discarded on
possessed by the filters in the air conditioning getting dirty.
system?
a) They should be capable of removing dust 8. Which of the following statements about
particles from the incoming air electric precipitators is false?
b) They should afford easy cleaning a) They are used to remove dust by providing
c) They should offer low frictional resistance a strong electric field
to the airflow b) Their initial installation cost is high
d) They should offer high frictional resistance c) Their operational cost is low
to the airflow d) Dust particles get attached to the positive
electrode
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: Electric precipitators are used Explanation: Open system is also called as
to remove dust by providing a strong electric once through system, in this system the water
field. In an electric precipitator, the dust is drawn directly from the upstream side of
particles get attached to the negative the river pumped through the condenser and
electrode. Their initial installation cost is high discharged to the downstream side of the
but their operational cost is low. river at temperature 5 to 10°C in excess of
inlet temperature.
9. The process of extraction of the certain
required amount of water from air is known 2. How many number of spray nozzle does
as ___________ each module on spray pond cooling system
a) Heating contains?
b) Cooling a) 1
c) Humidification b) 2
d) Dehumidification c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: The process of extraction of a Answer: d
certain required amount of water from air is Explanation: Modules in spray pond cooling
known as dehumidification. This can be system contain 4 spray nozzles. The surface
achieved by condensation or desiccation. area of contact of water is increased when it
Humidification is the addition of water to air. is sprayed in air. Cooling occurs due to the
evaporation of water vapours as the spray
10. Which of the following is capable of propels upwards and falls down to the
absorbing excess moisture from the air? surface.
a) Silica gel
b) Charcoal 3. Which of the following is the simplest
c) Salts of calcium or ammonia method of cooling the condenser water?
d) Activated alumina a) Spray cooling pond
b) Cooling tower
Answer: c c) Indirect air cooling
Explanation: Absorbents like salts of d) Hyperbolic cooling tower
calcium or ammonia are capable of absorbing
excess moisture from the air. However, the Answer: a
adsorbents like silica gel and activated Explanation: Spray cooling pond is the
alumina allow moisture to stay only at the simplest method of all. The hot water coming
surface. out of the condenser is sprayed through the
nozzles to expose maximum surface area of
water to air for effective cooling. The spray
TOPIC 5.4 COOLING TOWERS - ponds are surrounded with wooden walls to
CONCEPT AND TYPES. prevent the wind from carrying the water
particles.
1. Open cooling system is also called as
____________ 4. In which type of cooling pond system are
a) parallel system nozzles arranged on same elevation?
b) once through system a) Single deck system
c) air based system b) Double deck system
d) non-reversible system
c) Natural Flow system c) There is no control over the temperature of

d) Direct flow system cooled water
d) The cooling efficiency is low compared
Answer: a with cooling water
Explanation: In a single deck system spray
nozzles are arranged at the same elevation. Its Answer: c
effective cooling effect is less than double Explanation: The cooling effect is reduced
deck system. Hot water is sprayed through the with the decrease in wind velocity and if the
spray nozzle in air. Cooling occurs due to the load on the plant increases, the pond does not
evaporation of water vapors at the spray respond to the requirement. When the
propels and falls down the surface. maximum cooling is required during
increased load, it provides minimum cooling
5. In which type of cooling system are in absence of wind flow.
nozzles arranged on different elevation?
a) Single deck system 8. What type of cooling system is used in the
b) Double deck system large power plants?
c) Natural Flow system a) Cooling ponds
d) Direct flow system b) Natural flow system
c) Cooling towers
Answer: b d) Single deck system
Explanation: In double system of cooling
ponds the spray nozzles are arranged at Answer: c
different elevations. Cooling effect is more Explanation: In large power plants cooling
than single deck cooling system as water towers are used in the place of cooling ponds.
comes in contact with air at lower A cooling tower is a wooden or metallic
temperatures. rectangular structure, with packed baffling
devices. The hot water is delivered to the top
6. What are used in the direct flow system to of tower and is made to fall down the tower
transverse the pond before uniting at intake? and is broken into small particles while
a) Separators passing over the baffling devices.
b) Filters
c) Baffle walls 9. How does outside air enter into the wet
d) Porous pipes cooling system?
a) Air vents
Answer: c b) Louvers
Explanation: In direct flow system the hot c) Tuyeres
water coming out of the condenser enters the d) Vacuum
middle channel. On reaching the far end it is
divided into two currents being directed by Answer: b
the baffle walls so as to transverse the pond Explanation: Air and water are thoroughly
several times before uniting at intake point. mixed by fill as water splashes down from
one fill level to the next due to gravity outside
7. Select the disadvantage of cooling pond out air enters the tower through louvers from the
of the given? side of the tower. The heat and mass transfer
a) The area required of cooling in a cooling between water and air is enhanced due to
pond is small intimate mixing.
b) Spray losses due to evaporation and
windage run high
10. How is water circulated throughout the outside air and humid inside air
dry cooling tower system? b) Variation in pressure of both cold outside
a) Finned tubes air and humid inside air
b) Metal pipes c) Due to the given air vents and vacuum
c) Porous tubes ports
d) Swirling tubes d) Because of difference in the volume of
both the of airs
Answer: a
Explanation: In dry cooling tower circulating Answer: a
water is passed through finned tubes over Explanation: In natural draught cooling
which cooling air is passed. Heat is rejected tower, the flow of air occurs due to the
to air in the form of sensible heat. A dry natural pressure head caused by density
cooling tower may be either natural draft type difference between the cold outside air and
or forced draft type. These types are cheap hot humid air inside. The disadvantage of
than wet types of cooling tower. natural draught cooling system is that, to
produce to produce large draught the tower
11. Why is exhaust steam coming out of should be very high.
turbine is admitted to a steam header?
a) To increase the pressure 14. How is air produced in mechanical
b) To decrease the velocity draught cooling tower?
c) To decrease the pressure drop a) Air Tuyeres
d) To control the pollution b) Propeller fans
c) Air blowers
Answer: c d) Louvre
Explanation: Exhaust steam from turbine is
admitted to a steam header in order to Answer: b
minimize the pressure drop. Steam gets Explanation: In mechanical draught cooling
condensed as it passes down through the tower the draught of air id produced
finned tubes arranged in parallel rows. mechanically by means of propeller fans.
This increases the cooling rate by increasing
12. In which system is Cooling of hot water is the air velocity over the wet surfaces and
done on tray as step by? through the tower. These two towers give
a) Mechanical draught cooling system higher efficiency; reduce spray and windage
b) Hyperbolic cooling tower losses and less ground area.
c) Atmospheric cooling tower
d) Wet cooling tower 15. Why is induced draught considered better
than the forced draught?
Answer: c a) Because power requirement is high for
Explanation: In atmospheric cooling tower, forced draught
the hot water is delivered at the top most trays b) Maintenance of induced draught fan is
and it falls down from one tray to another costlier
until it reaches the tank below the tower. The c) Forced draught is less efficient
water is cooled by air flowing across the d) Forced draught produces less amount of
tower. speed of air
13. How does the flow of air occur in natural Answer: a

draught cooling towers? Explanation: Induced draught is considered
a) Natural pressure head density between cold to be better than forced draught because, the
power requirement is high for forced draught fan drives are placed at the top of the tower,
and the maintenance of fan is costlier. The the cooling effect is distributed across the
induced draught occupies less space ass the entire cross section of the tower.

ME8595 - Thermal Engineering - II MCQ

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Department of Mechanical Engineering MCQ for Regulations 2017

3. A nozzle used to send fluid in coherent

Semester 4. In fountains the type of nozzle used is

Answer: b 7. Nozzle used in rocket engine is

c) convergent – Divergent nozzle 1. The steam leaves the nozzle at a

Answer: c 4. The supersaturated flow of steam through a

steam through a nozzle as compared to a Answer: b

7. What is the critical pressure ratio for TOPIC 1.3 CRITICAL

c) small 7. Gas turbines operate at pressures ________

3. Aeroderivative engines have pressure ratios Answer: b

Answer: b 10. In De Laval Nozzle critical pressure ratio

1. The exit velocity in the nozzle increases as b) Velocity

Answer: c TOPIC 1.5 EFFECT OF

6. A scooter weighs 120kg f. Brakes are Answer: a

Answer: a to area. So in a large chamber, the flow

8. Converging-diverging nozzle is also known TOPIC 2.1 BOILER TYPES AND

b) Water tube boiler 5. Which of these is a mobile boiler?

8. What is the steam pressure limit of natural a) Natural circulation boilers

a) Natural circulation boilers 13. Chances of sediments depositing inside

c) Partial circulation of water

above critical pressure i.e., above 221.2bar. Answer: d

boiler in the shell can withstand high

c) Reversible valve c) To prevent water pressure

Answer: a 3rpm. The rotor is filled with thin corrugated

13. What does regenerative air preheater

b) Coke moulding finely ground coal under pressure

fractions. Distillate fuel is a type of fuel for Answer: b

2. Which statement about impulse turbine is Answer: c

Answer: b 5. In condensing turbine what is the back

Answer: a b) marine purposes

10. Reaction turbine works with the force Answer: b

Answer: a 4. In pressure compounded turbines moving

c) Curtis wheel & Pressure compounded

Answer: b 9. Which of the following is a good medium

12. If e is the electricity fraction of the total

energy output is given by? TOPIC 4.2 HEAT PIPES, HEAT

d) (1 / n) + ((1 – e) / m) EXCHANGERS. ECONOMIC

the total energy output, m is the electric plant

of a pasteurizing plant there is a simultaneous transfer of heat and

design of heat exchanger surface?

Answer: b c) adiabatic throttling process

tonne of refrigeration”. b) absorbent

14. Superheating of vapour and subcooling of Answer: a

PRINCIPLE OF AIR CYCLE, Answer: a

THERMOELECTRIC 5. why is an analyser-rectifier combination is

1. In absorption refrigeration cycle, which of ammonia vapour

c) to eliminate the water vapour from Answer: b

Answer: c 10. The COP of absorption refrigeration

d) lower, richer a) Direct expansion systems

absorption refrigeration system. direct expansion systems and chilled water

conditioners, chilled water system consists of Answer: d

c) Natural Flow system c) There is no control over the temperature of

13. How does the flow of air occur in natural Answer: a

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