Mock Test 1 - 16650680 - 2023 - 04 - 12 - 23 - 53

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1.

An ideal fluid is:


(1) One which obeys Newton's law of viscosity.
(2) Frictionless
(3) incompressible.
(4) Frictionless and viscous.

a) 1 and 2 are correct


b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 4 are correct
d) 3 and 4 are correct

Solution:
Ideal fluid is Incompressible and it has zero value of shear force.
The ideal fluid does not actually exist in nature, but sometimes used for fluid
flow problems.
An ideal fluid is a fluid that has several properties including the fact that it is
:
• Incompressible — the density is constant
• Irrotational — the flow is smooth, no turbulence
• Non viscous — (Inviscid) fluid has no internal friction

2.For a fluid, the shear stress was found to be directly proportional to the rate of angular
deformation. The fluid is classified as
(a) Non-Newtonian fluid
(b) Ideal fluid
(c) Newtonian fluid
(d) Thixotropic fluid
Solution:
Newton's law of viscosity

A fluid is said to be Newtonian fluid if shear stress is directly proportional to the rate of
angular deformation or the rate of shear strain or velocity.

3.When the cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between
fluid and the glass, then the free level of fluid in glass tube dipped in the glass vessel
will be_______ .
(a) Same as the surface of the fluid
(b) Lower than the surface of the fluid
(c) Higher than the surface of the fluid
(d) Dependent on atmospheric pressure
Solution:
When the cohesion between molecules of fluid is greater than the adhesion between
fluid and the glass, then the free level of fluid in glass tube dipped in the glass vessel
will be lower than the surface of the fluid.

4.What is the unit for dynamic viscosity of fluid?


(1) Stoke
(2) Dyne
(3) Pascal second
(4) kg/(m·s).

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

Solution:

Dynamic viscosity.
Unit for Absolute viscosity: N-sec/m2 or Pa-sec
Common unit is poise. 1 poise = 0.1 pa-sec.
5.In a sutro weir, the discharge is proportionalto:
(a) H1/2
(b) H5/2
(c) H3/2
(d) H

Solution:

The discharge equation of weir is generally expressed as Q is directly proportional to H.


A weir with n =1 is called a proportional weir or Sutro weir.

A weir is a concrete masonry structure placed in an open channel over which the flow
occurs. It is generally in the form of a vertical wall with a sharp edge at the top running
all the way across the open channel.

Sutro analytically obtained the relationship for the shape of this weir profile having Q
directly proportional to H

.
6.The size of centrifugal water pump is given by
(a) Horsepower
(b) Impeller diameter
(c) Discharge
(d) Suction and delivery pipe diameter

Ans. (a): The size of centrifugal pump is given by itshorsepower of motor.


 According to high horsepower, it's impeller diameteris also large needed.

7.Net positive suction head is


(a) pressure head + kinetic head
(b) pressure head + vapour pressure + kinetic head
(c) pressure head - vapour pressure + kinetic head
(d) pressure head - vapour pressure - kinetic head

Ans. (c): The net positive suction head is defined aspressure head - vapour pressure +
kinetic head

8. Kaplan turbine is used for


(1) low heads
(2) high discharge
(3) low discharge
(4) high heads
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 4 are correct
d) 3 and 4 are correct

Ans. (a) : Kaplan turbine is suitable for low head, high discharge and it has high specific
speed
9. The unit power Pu of a turbine developing a power P under a head H is equal
to
𝑃
(a) 𝐻 5∕2
𝑃
(b) √𝐻
(c) P.𝐻 3∕2
𝑃
(d) 𝐻 3∕2

Ans. (d) : For turbine-


𝑃
Unit power, PU = 𝐻 3∕2
𝑄
Unit discharge, QU = √𝐻
𝑁
Unit discharge, NU = √𝐻

10.A new design of a valve is to be tested if testedif liquid benzene through the valve,
which ofthe following parameters is most important.
(a) Froude No
(b) Reynolds No
(c) Mach No
(d) Euler No

Ans. (b): A new design of a valve is to be tested ifliquid benzene through the valve,
Reynold no. is mostimportant parameter.
Reynolds Number: Indicates type of flow in pipe orchannel.
Froude Number: Sleping interface exists betweenfluids of different densities
(Gravityforce arepredominant)
Mach No. High speed flow of a gas (effect ofcompressibility is significant)
Weber number: Formation of liquid droplets (surfacetension is predominant).

11.For a given heat flow and for the same thickness, the temperature drop across
the material will be maximum for
a) copper

b) steel

c) glass-wool

d) refractory brick

Answer: e

Clarification: Q = -kA (dT/dx)

Qdx/A=-kdT

therefore, kdT = constant or dT ∞ 1/k.

𝜕2𝑡 𝜕2𝑡 𝜕2𝑡


12.the heat transfer equation 2
+ 2
+ = 0 is known as
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑧 2

a) general heat transfer equation


b) poisson’s equation
c) fourier’s equation
d) Laplace’s Equation
Ans d
𝜕2𝑡 𝜕2𝑡 𝜕2𝑡
the heat transfer equation 2
+ 2
+ = 0 is known as Laplace’s Equation
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑧 2

13.Why fins are provided on a heat transfer surface?

a) Pressure drop of the fluid should be minimized


b) Increase turbulence in flow for enhancing heat transfer
c) Surface area is maximum to promote the rate of heat transfer
d) Increase temperature gradient so as to enhance heat transfer

Answer: c
Explanation: Fins are added to the surface of a heat exchanger to improve heat
transmission by increasing the surface area exposed to the environment

14.The ignition quality of petrol engine fuel is expressed as:

a. sae rating
b. apl gravity
c. octane number
d. cetane number

Octane number, also called octane value or octane rating, is one of the critical
measures of a gasoline's performance. It is a measure of a fuel's resistance to knock
or to ignite prematurely.

15. For a practical petrol engine working on Otto cycle, the compression ratio
usually lies in the range of :

A. 3 to 5
B. 6 to 12
C. 10 to 15
D. 16 to 22
Typically, petrol engines have a CR of 6–12, while diesel engines have a CR of
15–20. The CR of petrol engines is limited by the requirement that the fuel burns
uniformly in the cylinder and does not ignite thermally prior to the spark (so-called
'engine knocking').

16. In a four stroke engine, which method is adopted for scavenging :

A. Uni-flow
B. Loop flow
C. Valve over lap
D. Valve timing

Scavenging is the process of replacing the exhaust gas in a cylinder of an internal


combustion engine with the fresh air/fuel mixture (or fresh air, in the case of
direct-injection engines) for the next cycle.
Scavenging is equally important for both two-stroke and four-stroke engines. Most
modern four-stroke engines use crossflow cylinder heads and valve timing overlap
to scavenge the cylinders. Modern two-stroke engines use either Schnuerle
scavenging (also known as "loop scavenging") or uniflow scavenging.

17. The thermodynamic cycle which the petrol engine working is :

1) Stirling cycle
2) Otto cycle
3) Diesel cycle
4) Constant volume cycle
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 4 are correct
d) 3 and 4 are correct

The Otto Cycle, describes how heat engines turn gasoline into motion. Like other
thermodynamic cycles, this cycle turns chemical energy into thermal energy and
then into motion. The Otto cycle describes how internal combustion engines (that
use gasoline) work, like automobiles and lawn mowers.

18. Fuel pump calibration is the balancing of :


A. Quality delivered by all plungers
B. Quantities delivered by all plungers
C. Governor positions
D. All of the above

Fuel pump calibration is the balancing of quantities delivered by all plungers

19.In a diesel engine the pipe carrying fuel from the fuel pump to nozzle is made
of :
A. Rubber
B. Cast iron
C. Steel
D. Aluminium

The pipe is made up of steel to withstand high pressure

20.Which type nozzle having an auxiliary spray hole to assist easy starting under
cold condition :

A. Pintaux type
B. Pintle type
C. Single hole type
D. Delay type
Pintaux Nozzle:
This type of nozzle is a type of Pintle nozzle which has an auxiliary hole drilled in
the nozzle body. It injects a small amount of fuel through this additional hole
which is called pilot injection in upstream direction slightly before the main
injection. The needle valve does not lift fully at low speeds and most of the fuel is
injected through the auxiliary hole. The main advantage of this nozzle is better
cold starting performance. A major drawback of this nozzle is that its injection
characteristics are poorer than the multihole nozzle.
21.The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is the stress induced when the
same load is applied gradually.

(a) equal to

(b) one-half

(c) twice

(d) four times

Ans:(c)

(1)Gradually applied load

W
σ gradual = A

(2)Suddenly Applied load

2W
σ sudden = A

σ sudden =2 σ gradual

(3)Impact load

W 2h
σ impact = A [1 + 1 + δ
22.The relation between modulus of elasticity modulus of rigidity G, bulk modulus K and

poisson's ratio μ is

(a) E=G(μ +1)

(b)E=2G (μ +1)

(c) E=4G(2µ+1)

(d) E=2G (μ -1)

Ans. (b): E = 2G (μ +1)

23.The value of Poisson's ratio for steel varies from:

(a) 0.20 to 0.25

(b) 0.25 to 0.35

(c) 0.35 to 0.40


(d) 0.40 to 0.55

Ans. (b) Poisson's ratio (μ): the ratio of the transverse contraction of a material to the
longitudinal extension strain in the direction of stretching force is the Poisson's ratio of
material.

The value of Poisson's ratio for

Steel (μ)=0.25 to 0.33

Rubber (μ) 0.50

Cork (μ)=0

Aluminium (μ)= 0.32

Concrete (μ) = 0.20

24.If the value of Poisson's ratio is zero then it means that:

1) The material is rigid

2) Young’s modulus of material = 2*Shear modulus

3) There is no longitudinal strain in the material


4) The longitudinal strain in the material is infinite.

a) 1 and 2 are correct

b) 2 and 3 are correct

c) 2 and 4 are correct

d) 3 and 4 are correct

If the value of Poisson's ratio is zero then it means that the material is rigid.
E=2* G (1+μ)

25.Poisson's ratio of perfectly linear material is

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 0.3

(d) 0.5

Ans: (d): Volumetric strain for liner elastic material given by


∆𝑉
𝜖𝑣 = 𝑉

(1−2μ) (σx+σy+σz)
= 𝐸

∆V = 0,

1-2μ=0;

μ =0.5

26.The point of contraflexure is a point, where


1) Shear force changes sign

2) bending moment changes sign

3) shear force is maximum

4) shear force is zero

a) 1 and 2 are correct

b) 2 and 3 are correct

c) 2 and 4 are correct

d) 3 and 4 are correct


Ans. (b) : The point of contraflexure, also known as the point of inflection, is a point
along a beam or structural member where there is zero bending moment. At this point,
the curvature of the beam changes sign, and the bending moment changes from
positive to negative (or vice versa) as you move along the length of the beam.

In other words, the point of contraflexure is the point where the bending moment
changes from being in tension to being in compression, or vice versa. It is an important
concept in structural engineering, as it helps engineers design structures that are safe
and stable under different loading conditions.

27.A simply supported beam of length / carries a uniformly distributed load of 𝑤 per unit
length. Ii will have maximum bending moment at midpoint of beam and the value will be:

𝑤 𝑙2
(a) 2
𝑤 𝑙2
(b) 4
𝑤 𝑙2
(c) 6
𝑤 𝑙2
(d) 8
𝑤 𝑙2
(c) 16

Ans. (d): We know that

𝑤𝑙
RA = RB =
2

Taking a section x − X from a point A at a distance x. Then taking moment at 𝑥 = 𝑥


𝑥
𝑀𝑠⋅𝑥 = 𝑅𝐴 𝑥 − 𝑤𝑥 ⋅
2
𝑤𝑙 𝑥2
𝑀𝑠⋅𝑥 = 𝑥−𝑤
2 2

For max. bending moment

𝑑𝑀1−𝑠
=0
𝑑𝑥
𝑤𝑙 𝑥
− 2𝑤 = 0
2 2
𝑤𝑙
= 𝑤𝑥
2

1
𝑥=
2

𝑙
At 𝑥 = 2 [at mid] bending moment will be max. so

𝑤𝑙 𝑙 𝑤 × 𝑙 2
𝑀𝑥=1 = × −
2 2 2 4×2
𝑤𝑙 2 𝑤𝑙 2
𝑀1 = −
2 4 8
2
𝑤𝑙
M𝑀2 =
8

28.Shear force is

(a) Rate of change of loading


(b) Sum of bending moments
(c) Rate of change of bending moment
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c): Shear force is rate of change of bending moment.


𝑑𝑀
Shear force (𝑉) = 𝑑𝑥

29.Bending moment at any point on a beam subjected to transverse loading will be


equal to

(a) Algebraic sum of moments of forces and moments of reactions on one side of the
section (point)
(b) Algebraic sum of moments of forces and moments of reaction on both sides of the
section (point)
(c) Algebraic sum of moments of forces on both sides of the section (point)
(d) Algebraic sum of moments of reaction of both sides of the section (point)

Ans. (a) : Bending moment at any point on a beam subjected to transverse loading will
be equal to algebraic sum of moments of forces and moments of reactions on one side
of the section (point).

30.If a beam is subjected to a constant bending moment along its length then the shear
force will

(a) be maximum at the center and zero at the ends


(b) zero at the center and maximum at the ends
(c) be zero at all sections along the beam
(d) has a constant value everywhere along its length

Ans. (c): The shear force will zero along the beam at all section, there is no shear force
only it is a pure bending.
𝑑𝑀
Shear force 𝑉 = 𝑑𝑥

Given, 𝐌 = Constant
dM
so shear force V = 0 ∵ =0
dx
31.Transfer case is a type of………in four-wheel drive vehicles

(a) Crank case


(b) Gear box
(c) Transmission shaft
(d) Differential

A transfer box is a gear system that divides the power between the front and rear axles
of a four-wheel-drive system. It is also called a transfer gear case or transfer gearbox or
transfer box or jockey box or T-case.
32.The ball bearings are provided with a cage to ____

(a) Reduce friction

(b) Facilitate slipping of balls

(c) Prevent the lubricant from flowing out

(d) Maintain the balls at a fixed distance apart

The ball bearings are provided with a cage to maintain the balls at a fixed distance apart

The ball bearings are provided with a cage to hold them in place and prevent them from
rubbing against each other. The cage is typically made of metal or plastic and is
designed to keep the ball bearings evenly spaced and aligned within the bearing
raceways.

Without a cage, the ball bearings could become misaligned or dislodged, causing the
bearing to fail. The cage also helps to distribute the load evenly across the ball
bearings, reducing friction and wear, and increasing the bearing's lifespan.

33.A tapered roller bearing has the ability to handle

A. All loads in any combination

B. Radial loads only

C. Thrust loads only


D. None of the above

A tapered roller bearing is a type of rolling-element bearing that is designed to handle


both radial and axial loads simultaneously. It achieves this by using tapered rollers that
are angled towards each other in a conical shape. The angle of the rollers allows the
bearing to handle both radial and axial loads.

34.The mechanism provided for the relative movement and torque to the rear wheels of
a vehicle which taking a turn is :

A. Clutch
B. Differential
C. Propeller shaft
D. Rear axle

When a car turns a corner, one wheel is on the "inside" of a turning arc, and the
other wheel is on the "outside." Consequently, the outside wheel has to turn faster
than the inside one in order to cover the greater distance in the same amount of
time. Thus, because the two wheels are not driven with the same speed, a
differential is necessary
35.
Statement 1 : The clutch is located between the transmission and theengine
Statement 2 : . The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be Minimum
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) only 2 is correct
c) only 1 is correct
d) both are wrong

The clutch is located between the transmission and the engine


Pintaux Nozzle:

Matter has a property called inertia that makes it resist changes in speed or
direction. Newton's first law of motion says that an object with a certain speed
stays at that speed unless an outside force acts on it. This law is true because matter
has something called "inertia.―

The clutch rotating parts should have minimum inertia. ( Otherwise when clutch
plate is released for gear changing, clutch plate will keep on spinning)
36. Operating pressure angle for involute gear teeth is:

(a) Maximum at engagement of teeth


(b) Minimum at engagement of teeth
(c) Same at all points of contact
(d) Vary uniformly at all points of contact

Ans. (c): Same at all points of contact. -


In involute profile gear tooth pressure angle remains constant

37.The circle passing through the top of the teeth of a gear is known as
(a) Pitch circle
(b) Addendum circle
(c) Dedendum circle
(d) Base circle

Ans. (b): The circle passing through the top of the teeth of a gear is known as
Addendum circle.

38.
Statement 1: To maintain the speed of an engine or machine at a constant level.
Statement 2: To regulate the fuel supply to the engine.

a) 1 and 2 are correct


b) only 2 is correct
c) only 1 is correct
d) both are wrong

Functions of governor
To maintain the speed of an engine or machine at a constant level.
To prevent overspeeding of the engine or machine
To regulate the fuel supply to the engine.
To ensure that the engine or machine runs smoothly and efficiently.
To control the output power of the engine or machine.
To provide protection against overloading or over-torque.
To control the speed of a generator or other electrical equipment.
To enable the engine or machine to adapt to changing load conditions.
To maintain a stable and consistent output from the engine or machine.
To ensure the safe operation of the engine or machine.

39. Babbit metal is ___ base alloy

(A) Tin
(B) Copper
(C) Lead
(D) Tungsten

Babbit metal is a type of soft, white metal alloy that is commonly used as a bearing
material due to its low friction and good wear resistance. It is typically composed of
mostly tin, with smaller amounts of copper, antimony, and other elements depending on
the specific application.

40. Hardness of cementite is of the order of ___ BHN

(A) 200
(B) 500
(C) 1400
(D) 1100
Hardness of cementite is of the order of 1400 BHN

41.1kilowatt is equal to:

A. 746HP
B. 4500HP
C. 1.3596HP
D. 735.5HP

Soln
1 kw = 1000w
1HP = 746w

1w= 1/746HP

1Kw= 1/746×1000HP

=1.34HP

42.Engine BHP is measured by:

A. Barometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Odometer
D. Dynamometer

soln
Brake horsepower (bhp) is the power measured using a brake type (load)
dynamometer at a specified location, such as the crankshaft, output shaft of the
transmission, rear axle or rear wheels.
43.The purpose of piston ring is to control:

A. Compression pressure
B. Oil consumption
C. Cylinder wall lubrication
D. All of the above

Piston rings are a crucial component in internal combustion engines, and their main
purpose is to control the flow of oil and gases within the engine. Specifically,
piston rings serve several important functions:

Compression control: Piston rings provide a seal between the piston and the
cylinder wall, preventing gases from escaping during the combustion process and
ensuring that maximum pressure is maintained in the combustion chamber.

Oil control: Piston rings scrape excess oil off the cylinder wall during the piston's
down-stroke, preventing oil from entering the combustion chamber and getting
burned, which can lead to engine damage and increased emissions.
44.The material used for camshaft

A. Cast iron
B. Mild steel
C. Alloy steel
D. High carbon steel

Alloy steel is one of the materials commonly used for making camshafts, but it is
not the only material used. Camshafts can be made from various materials
depending on the specific requirements of the engine, such as strength, durability,
and resistance to wear and corrosion.

45.The ratio of work output of an engine to the fuel energy burnt is called:

A. Mechanical efficiency
B. Volumetric efficiency
C. Thermal efficiency
D. Compression ratio

The ratio of work output of an engine to the fuel energy burnt is called "thermal
efficiency".
Thermal efficiency is a measure of how effectively an engine converts the
chemical energy in the fuel into useful work. It is expressed as a percentage and is
calculated by dividing the amount of work done by the engine by the amount of
energy contained in the fuel.
In other words, the thermal efficiency of an engine is the ratio of the useful work
output to the total energy input (fuel energy). It is an important measure of engine
performance and can be used to compare the efficiency of different engines.

46.The power available at the engine's flywheel is called:

A.indicated horsepower
B. brake horse power
C. Frictional horse power
D. Overall efficiency

The power available at the engine's flywheel is commonly referred to as "brake


horsepower" or "BHP".

Brake horsepower is the measure of the power output of an engine measured at the
output shaft of the engine, typically at the flywheel. It is a measure of the engine's
gross power output, without accounting for any power losses from the transmission
or other engine components.
47.Opening and closing of the valves in relation to the position of piston and
flywheel is called:

A. Valve lead
B. valve lag
C. Valve overlap
D. valve timing

The opening and closing of the engine valves in relation to the position of the
piston and the flywheel is called "valve timing".

Valve timing refers to the precise control of the engine valves, including the intake
and exhaust valves, to ensure that they open and close at the correct times in
relation to the position of the piston in the cylinder. The timing is determined by
the position of the crankshaft and the camshaft(s), which are connected by a timing
belt or chain
Valve timing is critical to the proper functioning of the engine, as it determines the
amount of air and fuel that enters the cylinder and the amount of exhaust gas that is
expelled. It also affects the power output, fuel efficiency, and emissions of the
engine.

48.The type of piston pin generally used in heavy duty diesel engine is:

A.fully floating piston pin


B. semi floating piston pin
C. set screw type piston pin
D. three-quarter type piston pin
Fully floating piston pins are commonly used in heavy-duty diesel engines, as they
provide better durability and reliability under high loads and temperatures.

A fully floating piston pin is not fixed in the connecting rod or the piston, but is
allowed to move freely within both components. This reduces the stresses on the
piston pin, connecting rod, and piston, which can be particularly important in high-
load and high-temperature applications.

49.Stoichiometric ratio is :

A. Chemically correct air fuel ratio by weight


B. Chemically correct air fuel ratio by volume
C.Actual air fuel ratio for maximum efficiency
D.None of the above

Soln
The stoichiometric ratio is the exact ratio between air and flammable gas or vapor
at which complete combustion takes place or it is Chemically correct air fuel ratio
by volume

50.The difference of level Of tip of main nozzle and fuel level in float chamber of
a simple carburetor is called:

A. Nozzle lip
B. Throttle lip
C. Throttle dip
D. . Nozzle dip
The difference of level of tip of main nozzle and fuel level in float chamber of a
simple carburetor is called. Nozzle lip.

51.The number of points at which the engine-clutch gear box unit is supported on
the chassis frame is :

A. One B. Two

C. Three D. Four

The gearbox is attached at three strategic points.


One at the center of the torsion tube
beneath the nose of the gearbox that provided the coupling for the gear lever
change rod
The other two on removable support bolted transversely across the very ends
52.The frame may get distorted to a parallelogram shape due to :

A. Weight of vehicle B. Weight of passengers

C. Cornering force D. Wheel impact with road obstacle

53.The process of body repairing and refinishing in automobile is termed as :

A. De-coking B. Denting

C. De-greasing D. Paint inspection

Denting is the process of body repair followed by refinishing so as to bring the


body to its original look. It mainly involves sheet metal work on the damaged body
panels and fenders.
54.Flat frame is another name for....frame :

A. Tubular B. Double cradle

C. Backbone D. Ladder

Flat frame is another name for Ladder frame

55.cowl is a part of:

A. Body panel B. Indicator


C. Engine D. Transmission

cowl is a part of body panel

56.The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is :

A. High boiling point


B. Low viscosity
C. Compatibility with rubber and metal parts
D. All of these
The main characteristics are: • High boiling point, • Low viscosity at -40 ° C, •
Minimum swelling on rubber surfaces, • Anti-corrosive properties on all metals, •
High lubricant power, • Good chemical stability. A critical aspect of the brake
fluids is their hygroscopicity.
57.Process of eliminating air out of hydraulic breaking system of an automobile is
called :

A. Bleeding B. Compensating

C. Flushing D. Relining

The process of removing air from the hydraulic brake system is called bleeding.
Air is compressible, and any air in the system will be compressed during brake
application, causing a spongy pedal. When bleeding brakes, using the proper
sequence is recommended. It saves time and ensures that the entire system is bled.

58.In air brake system.......is provided to relieve the compressor of the pumping
load when normal operating air pressure has reached in air tank :

A. Slack adjuster B. Brake chamber

C. Unloader valve D. Brake valve

A compressor unloader valve is a small part, typically measuring approximately 4-


5 inches in length and width. It performs the critical function of releasing trapped
air inside the tank, enabling the motor to restart. An unloader valve malfunction is
one of the more common air compressor issues.
59.The component of pressure spring type single plate clutch system which
disengage from fly wheel when pressing clutch pedal is:

A. Pressure plate B. Clutch cover

C. Clutch disc D. Release bearing

Disc: The clutch disc is located between the pressure plate and the flywheel. It has
friction surfaces, something like a brake pad, that makes and break contact with the
flywheel and the pressure plate

60.A clutch spring compressor 'compresses ---of the clutch while disengaging

A. Cushioning springs B. Thrust springs

C. Anti-rattling springs D. Torsional springs

A clutch spring compressor 'compresses thrust springs


of the clutch while dismantling
61.In case of front engine rear wheel drive cars the drive shaft has:

A. Minimum one universal joint B. Maximum two universal joint

C. Minimum two universal joint D. Two slip joints

The universal joints are used to connect the transmission output shaft to the
differential input shaft, allowing the drive shaft to transmit torque to the rear
wheels. Because the drive shaft has to be able to move up and down as the
suspension compresses and rebounds, as well as rotate with the transmission and
differential, universal joints are necessary to allow for this movement while still
transmitting power. The number of universal joints can vary depending on the
specific design of the vehicle and the length of the drive shaft.
62.Pick the odd one out:

A. Half shaft B. Clutch shaft

C. Main shaft D. Lay shaft

Half shafts, otherwise known as axle shafts, are fitted in rear-wheel-drive cars only
The inner end of the shaft is supported and driven by the differential , and the outer
end is supported in bearings between shaft and axle housing .
A transmission has three specific shafts: the input shaft, counter shaft, and main
shaft. The so-called clutch gear is an integral part of the transmission’s input shaft
and always rotates with input shaft. The input shaft itself is connected to the engine
and takes power in a 1 on 1 proportion. It is by pressing the clutch pedal in our car,
that we disconnect the input shaft from the engine so that we can change gears on
the main shaft.
63.A transfer case is used in :

A. all automobiles B. vehicles with automatic


transmission

C. four wheel drive vehicles D. rear wheel drive


Vehicles

Transfer cases exist in modern vehicles to transfer power from the transmission to
all four wheels. Transfer cases are only used in four-wheel drives.
64.Which of the following axle shaft has to take full load?

A. Three quarter floating B. Full floating

C. Semi floating D. Both a and b

The correct answer is B. Full floating axle shafts have to take the full load, while
the other types of axles have a portion of the load shared by other components.

In a full floating axle design, the axle shaft only transmits torque from the
differential to the wheel, while the weight of the vehicle is supported by the hub
and the bearings mounted on the axle housing. This means that the axle shaft is
only subjected to torsional forces, and not to the bending forces caused by the
weight of the vehicle. As a result, the axle shaft in a full floating design is
generally stronger and more durable than those in other designs.
65.A slip joint permits changes in:

A. Wheel base B. Wheel track

C. Wheel alignment D. None

A slip joint is a mechanical construction allowing extension and compression in a


linear structure
66.Which gear will not revolve when the vehicle is moving on straight path?

A. planetary gear B. Sun gear

C. Crown wheel D. Pinion

Working of differential unit when Running Straight:


When the vehicle moves in a straight line, the power comes from the propeller
shaft to the bevel pinion which drives the crown wheel. Then it is carried to the
differential cage in which a set of planet pinions and sun gears are located. From
the sun gear it is transmitted to the road wheels through-axle half shafts. In this
case, the crown wheel, differential cage, planet pinions, and sun gears all turn as a
single unit and there is no relative motion between the sun gear and planet pinion.
The planet pinions do not rotate about their own axis. The road wheels, half shafts,
and sun wheels offer the same resistance to being turned and the differential
gearing does not therefore operate. Both the road wheels turn at the same
67.The rear axle thrust acting on rear axle casting is transferred to frame by:

A. Pan hard rods B. Radius rods

C. Tie rods D. Torque tubes

A radius rod is a suspension component that connects the axle or wheel carrier to
the chassis. It works to absorb and control the vehicle's wheel movement in a linear
direction. The rear axle thrust acting on rear axle casting is transferred to frame by
radius rods

68.Gear clash during shifting may be caused by any one of the following except

A. Defective synchronizer B. Incorrect pedal play

C. Too low idle speed D. Unadjusted shift mechanism


Problem: Gear Clash When Shifting
Possible Causes: The most common cause is a worn or defective synchronizer.
Gear clash can also occur if the clutch does not fully engage and if a gear sticks on
the mainshaft. A worn or dry pilot bearing or bushing can cause clutch drag, which
prevents the clutch from disengaging easily in a certain gear. This is typically
accompanied by a loud noise and rough shifting. Finally, low lubricant levels can
lead to gear clash.

69.The slip joint permits a change in the:


A. Angle of drive B. Rotation of the shaft

C. Speed of the shaft D. Length of the shaft

Slip joint is a necessary component of a propeller shaft to be used along with.


Operating under continuous torsion and Shear stress, the propeller shaft gets heated
up resulting in extension of the length. To accommodate this change of length, slip
joint is provided.

70.In an automobile gear transmission the counter shaft drive gear is meshed with
the gear on the:

A. Clutch shaft B. main shaft

C. Axle shaft D. Propeller shaft

In an automobile gear transmission the counter shaft drive gear is meshed with the
gear on the main shaft
71.In CRDI system of diesel engine the injection of injector is controlled by :

A. ECU B. FIP C. ACC D. EGR

The term CRDi stands for Common Rail Direct Injection. The technology directly
injects fuel into the cylinders of a diesel engine through a single, common line,
known as the common rail. The common rail is connected to all the fuel injectors.

Regular diesel direct fuel-injection systems have to build up pressure for every
new injection cycle. Engines featuring the new common rail (line) maintains a
constant pressure regardless of the injection sequence. This pressure is said to be
permanently available throughout the fuel line. Instant atomization takes place and
this spray is very fine and evenly distributed aiding efficiency and power delivery.
Also the injectors can inject up to 5 times per combustion cycle which gives a
more uniform and controlled combustion and helps extract maximum energy from
the combustion cycle. Technologically the engine's electronic timing regulates
injection pressure according to engine speed and load. The electronic control unit
(ECU) modifies the injection pressure with precision which is in relation to the
data obtained from sensors on the cam and crankshafts.

72.. The clearance between the barrel and plunger in fuel injection pump is :

A. 0.02mm B. 0.25mm
C. 0.025mm D. 0.0025mm

The clearance between the barrel and plunger in fuel injection pump is
0.0025mm
73.In the mechanical pump the lever is driven by eccentric cam in the cam shaft
and is connected to :

A. Diaphragm springs B. Diaphragm spindle


C. Diaphragm D. Valve body

The cam shaft rotates and pushes the lever, which in turn moves the diaphragm up
and down. The diaphragm is connected to a flexible hose, which is connected to
the pump body.

As the diaphragm moves up and down, it creates pressure and vacuum alternately
in the pump body, which in turn moves the liquid from the inlet to the outlet. The
liquid enters the pump body through the inlet and is pushed out through the outlet
as the diaphragm moves upward.

When the diaphragm moves downward, it creates a vacuum in the pump body,
which pulls the liquid back into the pump. This cycle of movement of the
diaphragm continues as the cam shaft rotates, leading to continuous pumping
action

74.Which is not a part of fuel system in diesel engines :

A. FIP B. Injector
C. Heater plug D. Filter

part of fuel system in diesel engines


FIP (fuel injection pump)
Injector
Filter
Not heater plug

75.The function of FIP governor is :

A. To maintain constant load at varying speed


B. To decrease the speed of engine at no load
C. To maintain constant speed at varying loads
D. To maintain the speed of the engine at full load

Governor regulates the engine speed by varying the fuel flow as per the load
conditions. Engine speed tends to overshoot to hazardous values on reduction of
load and also to very low speed (almost on the stage of engine halt) on increase in
sudden and unexpected load application. To avoid such conditions, the engine
speed is controlled by regulating the fuel supply by using engine governor. All
injection pumps operate in conjunction with the governor. Generally, when the
engine speed increases, the air intake decreases and hence results in more injection
of fuel. On the other hand, at idling speed (no load conditions) or when the engine
speed is relatively low, the fuel supply is also minimum. A governor is, therefore, a
necessity to control the fuel injected to ensure optimum conditions at all speeds
and loads within the range specified

76.The temperature below which the oil will not flowis:

A. Fire point B. Flashpoint


C. Pour point D. Flowpoint
Pour point is defined as the lowest temperature at which the test fluid can be
poured under the prescribed test conditions. It is one of the properties that
determine the low temperature fluidity of a lubricating oil.

77.What is the maximum penalty for driving without a valid license under the
Motor Vehicles Act?
a) Rs. 500
b) Rs. 1,000
c) Rs. 2,000
d) Rs. 5,000

Answer: d) Rs. 5,000

Explanation: As per Section 181 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the maximum
penalty for driving without a valid license is Rs. 5,000. Additionally, if a person is
caught driving without a valid license for the second or subsequent time, the
penalty may extend to imprisonment for up to three months or with a fine of up to
Rs. 10,000, or both.

78.What is the maximum speed limit for a goods vehicle in a city area under the
Motor Vehicles Act?
a) 30 km/hr
b) 40 km/hr
c) 50 km/hr
d) 60 km/hr
Answer: b) 40 km/hr
Explanation: As per Rule 100 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, the
maximum speed limit for a goods vehicle in a city area is 40 km/hr. The speed
limit for other types of vehicles may vary depending on the area, road condition,
and other factors.

79.Which section of the Motor Vehicles Act deals with the offence of driving
under the influence of alcohol or drugs?
a) Section 184
b) Section 185
c) Section 186
d) Section 190
Answer: b) Section 185

Explanation: Section 185 of the Motor Vehicles Act deals with the offence of
driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs. If a person is caught driving under
the influence of alcohol or drugs for the first time, the penalty may extend to
imprisonment for up to six months or with a fine of up to Rs. 10,000, or both. For
subsequent offences, the penalty may be more severe.

80.What is the maximum weight allowed for a goods vehicle under the Motor
Vehicles Act?
a) 2,500 kg
b) 5,000 kg
c) 7,500 kg
d) 10,000 kg
Answer: c) 7,500 kg

Explanation: As per Rule 93 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, the
maximum weight allowed for a goods vehicle is 7,500 kg. The weight limit for
other types of vehicles may vary depending on their category, purpose, and other
factors.

81.According to the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the


minimum age for obtaining a license for a commercial vehicle?
a) 18 years
b) 21 years
c) 25 years
d) 30 years
Answer: b) 21 years

Explanation: According to Regulation 4(2) of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)


Regulations, 2017, the minimum age for obtaining a license to drive a commercial
vehicle is 21 years.

82. What is the maximum number of passengers allowed in a taxi as per the Motor
Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: b) 4

Explanation: According to Regulation 15(1) of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)


Regulations, 2017, the maximum number of passengers allowed in a taxi is four,
excluding the driver.
83.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the maximum
permissible blood alcohol level for a driver of a commercial vehicle?
a) 0.01%
b) 0.02%
c) 0.03%
d) 0.04%

Answer: a) 0.01%

Explanation: According to Regulation 17(3) of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)


Regulations, 2017, the maximum permissible blood alcohol level for a driver of a
commercial vehicle is 0.01%.

84.According to the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the


maximum speed limit for a school bus?
a) 30 km/hr
b) 40 km/hr
c) 50 km/hr
d) 60 km/hr
Answer: a) 30 km/hr

Explanation: According to Regulation 15(4) of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)


Regulations, 2017, the maximum speed limit for a school bus is 30 km/hr.

85.As per the Motor Vehicles (Driving) Regulations, 2017, what is the maximum
weight allowed for a transport vehicle in a city or town?
a) 7,500 kg
b) 10,000 kg
c) 12,000 kg
d) 15,000 kg
Answer: a) 7,500 kg

Explanation: According to Regulation 14(2) of the Motor Vehicles (Driving)


Regulations, 2017, the maximum weight allowed for a transport vehicle in a city or
town is 7,500 kg. The weight limit for other types of vehicles may vary depending
on their category, purpose, and other factors.

86.What is the validity period of a driving license issued in India?


a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years
Answer: c) 5 years

Explanation: As per Rule 16 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, the
validity period of a driving license issued in India is 5 years. After this period, the
license holder must renew their license by taking a driving test or undergoing a
medical examination, depending on the type of license.

87.What is the minimum educational qualification required for obtaining a driving


license in India?
a) 8th pass
b) 10th pass
c) 12th pass
d) Graduate
Answer: a) 8th pass

Explanation: There is no minimum educational qualification required for obtaining


a driving license in India. However, the applicant must be able to read and write in
the language specified by the state transport department and must pass a written
test on traffic rules and regulations.

88.Which authority is responsible for issuing driving licenses in India?


a) Regional Transport Office (RTO)
b) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
c) National Highways Authority of India
d) State Police Department
Answer: a) Regional Transport Office (RTO)

Explanation: The Regional Transport Office (RTO) or the State Transport


Department is responsible for issuing driving licenses in India. The RTO also
conducts driving tests and enforces traffic rules and regulations.

89.What is the penalty for driving a vehicle without a valid driving license under
the Motor Vehicles Act?
a) Rs. 500
b) Rs. 1,000
c) Rs. 2,000
d) Rs. 5,000
Answer: b) Rs. 1,000

Explanation: As per Section 181 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the penalty for
driving a vehicle without a valid driving license is Rs. 1,000. Additionally, if a
person is caught driving without a valid license for the second or subsequent time,
the penalty may extend to imprisonment for up to three months or with a fine of up
to Rs. 10,000, or both.

90.Which type of driving license is required to operate a transport vehicle with a


gross vehicle weight of more than 7,500 kg?
a) Non-transport license
b) Transport license
c) Both non-transport and transport license
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Transport license

Explanation: As per Rule 5 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, a transport
license is required to operate a transport vehicle with a gross vehicle weight of
more than 7,500 kg. This license is issued only after the applicant has passed the
relevant driving test and meets the other requirements such as age and educational
qualifications. The transport license also has a different fee structure than the non-
transport license.

91.Which section of the Kerala Motor Vehicles Act deals with the duty of the
driver to take certain precautions at unguarded railway level crossings?
A) Section 109
B) Section 129
C) Section 133
D) Section 134

Answer: B) Section 129. This section deals with the duty of the driver to wear
protective headgear.
92.Which section of the Kerala Motor Vehicles Act deals with the recall of motor
vehicles?
A) Section 110A
B) Section 112
C) Section 114
D) Section 120

Answer: A) Section 110A. This section deals with the recall of motor vehicles.

93.Which section of the Kerala Motor Vehicles Act deals with the duty of the
driver in case of an accident and injury to a person?
A) Section 134A
B) Section 126
C) Section 133
D) Section 134

Answer: D) Section 134. This section deals with the duty of the driver in case of an
accident and injury to a person.

94.Which section of the Kerala Motor Vehicles Act deals with leaving a vehicle in
a dangerous position?
A) Section 110B
B) Section 120
C) Section 122
D) Section 128
Answer: C) Section 122. This section deals with leaving a vehicle in a dangerous
position.

95.Which section of the Kerala Motor Vehicles Act deals with the inspection of
vehicles involved in an accident?
A) Section 136
B) Section 128
C) Section 126
D) Section 129

Answer: A) Section 136. This section deals with the inspection of vehicles
involved in an accident.

96.What is the penalty for travelling without a pass or ticket and for dereliction of
duty on the part of a conductor under the Kerala Motor Vehicles Act?
A. Imprisonment for up to 6 months and/or a fine of up to Rs. 1000
B. Imprisonment for up to 3 months and/or a fine of up to Rs. 500
C. Imprisonment for up to 1 year and/or a fine of up to Rs. 2000
D. Imprisonment for up to 2 years and/or a fine of up to Rs. 5000

Answer: B. Imprisonment for up to 3 months and/or a fine of up to Rs. 500.


Section 178 of the Kerala Motor Vehicles Act provides for the penalty for
travelling without a pass or ticket and for dereliction of duty on the part of a
conductor. The penalty for this offence is imprisonment for up to 3 months and/or
a fine of up to Rs. 500.

97.What is the punishment for disobeying orders, obstructing, and refusing to


provide information under the Kerala Motor Vehicles Act?
A. Imprisonment for up to 1 year and/or a fine of up to Rs. 5000
B. Imprisonment for up to 6 months and/or a fine of up to Rs. 2000
C. Imprisonment for up to 3 months and/or a fine of up to Rs. 1000
D. Imprisonment for up to 2 years and/or a fine of up to Rs. 5000

Answer: C. Imprisonment for up to 3 months and/or a fine of up to Rs. 1000.


Section 179 of the Kerala Motor Vehicles Act provides for the punishment for
disobedience of orders, obstruction, and refusal to provide information. The
punishment for this offence is imprisonment for up to 3 months and/or a fine of up
to Rs. 1000.

98.Which section of The Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 deals with
"Escaped assessment"?
a) Section 3
b) Section 7
c) Section 13
d) Section 26
Answer: d) Section 26

Explanation: Section 26 of The Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 deals
with "Escaped assessment" and states that if the assessing authority has reason to
believe that any motor vehicle has escaped assessment, it may assess the tax
payable in respect of such motor vehicle at any time within six years from the end
of the year to which such tax relates.

99.Which section of The Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 deals with the
"Levy of tax"?
a) Section 2(e)
b) Section 3
c) Section 5
d) Section 10
Answer: b) Section 3

Explanation: Section 3 of The Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 deals
with the "Levy of tax" and states that every motor vehicle, other than those
exempted under section 5, shall be liable to pay tax at the rates specified in the
Schedule.

100.Which section of The Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 deals with
the "Levy of Green Tax"?
a) Section 2(e)
b) Section 3
c) Section 3A
d) Section 10
Answer: c) Section 3A

Explanation: Section 3A of The Kerala Motor Vehicles Taxation Act, 1976 deals
with the "Levy of Green Tax" and states that a green tax shall be levied on motor
vehicles which are more than 15 years old and the rate of tax shall be as specified
in the Schedule.

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