TEST 4 + Key - PET 4

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Test 4

TEST 4

PAPER 1: READING AND WRITING (1 hour 30 minutes)


READING
PART 1
Questions 1 – 5
 Look at the text in each question.
 What does it say?
 Mark the letter next to the correct question – A, B or C – on your answer sheet.
Example:

0
A. Do not leave your bicycle touching
the window.
NO BICYCLES B. Broken glass may damage your
AGAINST GLASS
bicycle.
PLEASE
C. Your bicycle may not be safe here

Example answer: Part 1


0 A B C

If red light shows, your A The red light goes on if the drinks
machine is out of order.
drink unavailable – B If the red light shows, you must wait
before you decide on a drink.
please make another C If the red light is on, you must
choice. choose a different drink.

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Test 4

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A Contact your doctor if you wish to
continue using this medicine after one
Do not use this week.
medicine for B Doctors can only supply enough
more than seven medicine for one week at a time.
days without C You cannot keep this medicine for
your doctor’s more than seven days.
advice

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From: Sunflowers Health Club
A Sunflower is selling exercise
To: All members Sent: 15 April equipment to members at a special price.
Subject: Special Offer B You will qualify for a gift if you
persuade a friend to join Sunflower.
Introduce a friend to this club and receive C Your annual fee for Sunflower
free exercise equipment! This offer is Health Club must be paid now.
open to existing members: your friend
must pay full 12 - month fee.

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Please don’t park within 3 A You should not part near here
metres of this vehicle – because it is an exit for vehicles.
space needed for unloading B This parking space is reserved of the
vehicle’s owner.
C You are requested not to park any
closer than 3 metres to this vehicle.

5 What did Kenny like about the tower?

This tower’s in wonderful A The view it gave from the top


green stone, with 497 steps B The material used to build it
– stupidly, I climbed to the C The number of steps it has
top! The view’s supposed
to be brilliant but yesterday
was cloudy.
Kenny

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Test 4

PART 2
Question 6 – 10
 The people below all want to see some live entertainment.
 On the opposite page there are descriptions of eight festival performances.
 Decide which performance (letters A-H) would be the most suitable for each person.
 For each of these numbers mark the correct answer on your answer sheet.

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David enjoys walking but he has injured his knee and
cannot climb up hills. He would like to spend a couple of
hours on a quiet walk with well-marked paths.

7
Luigi likes to get as much exercise as possible and
particularly likes climbing steep hills to get a good view.
He wants to do a walk that is difficult and offers a ranger
of scenery.

8
Yannis has two sons of 8 and 10. He would like to
take them to see some animals in the countryside. He
wants to be able to buy some refreshment.

9
Amanda has had an operation and needs plenty of fresh air
to help her recover. She wants to find a short, quiet walk
with a beautiful place to visit on the route.

10
Claudia’s grandparents are staying with her. They are very
fit and enjoy walking. They would like to visit some of the
local villages and need a clearly-marked route so they don’t
lose their way.

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WALKS FOR EVERYONE


A MILL LANE B SEA PATH
You’ll see lots of animals on this walk, This walk starts at the village of Nye Flats
because there is nothing to disturb them. and the excellent signposts lead you through
Walkers often say they meet no-one. There local streets, fields and pretty neighbouring
are places where you can join or finish the villages. Although it will take you half a
day, there are no hills at all. You can breathe
walk but these are not well signposted and it the sea air and enjoy watching traditional
is easy to get lost life in busy villages.

C CUTTERS WAY D PADDOCK WAY


This walk can take anything from 30 This is really a short track across a
minutes to two hours. It’s not a good walk working farm. There are plenty of
for hill-lovers as the ground is completely chickens and sheep to see, and the farmer
flat, but it has good signposts and simple has turned some of the buildings into an
facilities for the hungry or thirsty walker. A educational centre with a café. Not a walk
few places or things to see would improve for those who like peace and quiet, but
this walk, which can be a little dull. good fun.

E HURDLES F NEVERLAND
This is a route for the experienced walker. It This is a walk to take if you have a whole
crosses two rivers and includes hills of up to day to spare and want to escape from other
500 metres, from which you can see the sea. people. It follows a narrow track which is
There are several rocky paths that are clearly marked and has different routes for
unsuitable for children or older people and different types of walker. There are hills to
there are no shops so take plenty of water. climb but views are limited because of thick
forest.

G OVERHILL H GOLD-DIG-GETS END


This sounds like a difficult walk but it’s really You won’t find any gold on this
easy, although it could be better signposted. If peaceful walk, but you will find plenty
you’re a local person, you’re almost certain to of other things to see including a lovely
meet someone you know on the walk. It’s a garden which is open to the public. It’s a
couple of kilometres outside the village of half-hour walk with a couple of small
cafés on the way.
Overhill, with fields full of rabbits!

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Test 4

PART 3
Questions 11 – 20
 Look at the sentences below about a theatre.
 Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
 If it is correct, mark B on your answer sheet.
 If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

11 If a performance begins at 8 p.m., the Goddington Theatre Ticket Office re-opens at 7.30 that
evening.

12 Bookings by credit card cost more.

13 You must pay for tickets when your reserve them.

14 Wheelchairs area allowed in front of row A.

15 The public can use the university car park at certain times only.

16 The university is on the same side of the road as the library.

17 The car park is in front of the university building.

18 You need to drive away quickly after putting your money in the car park machine.

19 The railway station nearer the university than the bus station.

20 Taxi drivers refuse to pick up customers inside the car park.

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GODDINGTON THEATRE
The Goddington Theatre Ticket Office is open from 12 noon until 4 p.m. Monday to Friday,
and for half an hour in the evening before the advertised start time of each performance.

Telephone bookings
• Your tickets are held at the Ticket Office for you to collect or, if you prefer, a charge of
35p is made to post them to you. No extra charge is made for bookings by credit card.
• Reservations are held for up to four days, allowing time to call in to pay for the tickets
or to send payments in the post.

Postal bookings
• You can write to the Ticket Office requesting tickets, or to confirm a reservation.

Information for the disabled


• The theatre has space for up to five wheelchairs at a performance, as the seats in
positions 12—16 of row A can be removed.
• If you have difficulty with stairs, please let us know when booking.

Where to find Goddington Theatre

Goddington Theatre can be found within the Goddington University site, next to the car park,
which is available for public use after S p.m. on weekdays and all day at weekends.

If travelling by car

Coming from the south end of Princes Street, you will see the library on your right. The next
building on your right is Goddington University — there is a pedestrian crossing outside the
front entrance. Take the next turning on the right after the crossing (into Broad Street) which
takes you along the side of Goddington University — then first right into the car park. Drive
up to the car park gate straight ahead of you, stopping as close as possible to the orange
machine. Put a £1 coin in the machine and the gate will rise. (Note: Do not try to put a coin
in the machine by getting out of your car — it is likely that by the time you get back in your
car the gate will already be closed again!)
Other car parks are shown on the map. There is an hourly charge. You may find a free
parking place on one of the side streets.

If travelling by train
You will need to allow 30 minutes to walk from the station. Taxis are available from the
front of the station.

If travelling by bus/coach
The University is a S to 10-minute walk from the main bus station.

Taxis
When ordering a taxi from the theatre, ask to be picked up at the bottom of North Street.
Taxis will not come into the car park because of the entrance charge.

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Test 4

PART 4
Questions 21—25
 Read the text and questions below.
 For each question, mark the letter next to the correct answer — A, B, C or D —on your
answer sheet.

Orbis is an organisation which helps blind people everywhere. It has built an eye hospital
inside an aeroplane and flown it all over the world with an international medical team.
Samantha Graham, a fourteen-year-old schoolgirl from England, went with the plane to
Mongolia. Samantha tells the story of Eukhtuul, a young Mongolian girl.
‘Last year, when Eukhtuul was walking home from school, she was attacked by boys with
sticks and her eyes were badly damaged. Dr. Duffey, an Orbis doctor, said that without
an operation she would never see again. I thought about all the everyday things I do that
she couldn’t, things like reading schoolbooks, watching television, seeing friends, and I
realised how lucky I am.’
‘The Orbis team agreed to operate on Eukhtuul and I was allowed to watch, together with
some Mongolian medical students. I prayed the operation would be successful. The next
day I waited nervously with Eukhtuul while Dr Duffey removed her bandages. “In six
months your sight will be back to normal,” he said. Eukhtuul smiled, her mother cried,
and I had to wipe away some tears, too!’
‘Now Eukhtuul wants to study hard to become a doctor. Her whole future has changed,
thanks to a simple operation. We should all think more about how much our sight means
to us.’

21 What is the writer’s main purpose in writing this text?


A to describe a dangerous trip
B to report a patient’s cure
C to explain how sight can be lost
D to warn against playing with sticks

22 What can a reader learn about in this text?

A the life of schoolchildren in Mongolia


B the difficulties for blind travellers
C the international work of some eye doctors
D the best way of studying medicine
A

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23 After meeting Eukhtuul, Samantha felt


A grateful for her own sight.
B proud of the doctor’s skill.
C surprised by Eukhtuul courage.
D angry about Eukhtuul’s experience.
24 What is the result of Eukhtuul’s operation?
A She can already see perfectly again.
B After some time she will see as well as before.
C She can see better but she will never have normal eyes.
D Before she recovers, she will need another operation.
25 Which is the postcard Samantha wrote to an English friend?
A B
I’ve visited a Mongolian You may have to fly a long
way to have the operation
hospital and watched local
you need, but the journey

doctors do an operation. will be worth it.

C D
I’m staying with my friend Make sure you take care of
your eyes because they’re
Eukhtuul, while I’m
more valuable than you
sightseeing in Mongolia.
realise!

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Test 4

PART 5
Questions 26—35
 Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.
 For each question, mark the letter next to the correct word — A, B, C or D — on your
answer sheet.
Example answer:
A B C D
0

The History of Film


The world’s first film was shown in 1895 (0)....two French brothers, Louis and
Auguste Lumière. Although it only (26)............of short, simple scenes, people loved
it and films have (27).........................................popular ever since. The first films
were silent, with titles on the screen to (28).......…………the story.
Soon the public had (29) .................................. favourite actors and actresses and, in this
(30) …………………., the first film stars appeared. In 1927, the first ’talkie’, a film
with sound, was shown and from then on, the public (31) …………..only accept this
kind of film.
Further improvements continued, particularly in America, (32)..produced 95% of all
films. With the arrival of television in the 1950s, (33) .................... people went to see
films, but in (34)................................................................................years cinema
audiences have grown again. More countries have started to produce films that
influence film-making and there are currently (35) …………………… national film
industries.

0 A by B in C from D at

26 A consisted B contained C belonged D held


27 A gone B been C made D kept
28 A join B read C explain D perform
29 A your B his C our D their
30 A reason B way C method D result
31 A should B would C might D will
32 A who B where C when D which
33 A other B each C fewer D any
34 A recent B now C modern D present
35 A many B lots C much D plenty

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Test 4

WR ITING
PART 1
Questions 1—5
 Here are some sentences about visiting a zoo.
 For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first, using
no more than three words.
 Write only the missing words on your answer sheet.
Example: I was taken to the zoo by friend Maria.
My friend Maria took me to the zoo.

1 We had a map but it was difficult to find the zoo.


Although we had a map, we............................find the zoo easily.

2 The car park was outside the main entrance.


There was somewhere.....................................................outside the main entrance.

3 We wore sun hats because it was very hot.


I was ............. ...................................... that we wore sun hats.

4 Maria suggested going to see the monkeys.


Maria said, ‘Why don’t we .................................................... the monkeys?’

5 The elephants were my favourite animals.


I liked the elephants .................................................... any other animals.

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Test 4

PART 2
Question 6
Some English friends are going to visit your capital city and have asked you to
recommend a hotel there.

Write an email to your friends. In your email, you should


• say which hotel your friends should book
• explain why you are recommending the hotel
• suggest what they could do near the hotel.

Write 35—45 words on your answer sheet.

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Test 4

PART 3
Answer one of the following questions (7 or 8).

Question 7
 You have to write a story for your English homework.
 Your story must begin with this sentence:

The empty house


 Write your story in about100 words on your answer sheet.

Question 8
 This is part of a letter you receive from an Australia friend.

I want to earn some money at the weekends so


I’m looking for a part – time job in café or a
shop. Which do you think would be more fun?
Write soon – I need your advice!

 Now write a letter giving your friend some advice.


 Write your letter in about 100 words on your answer sheet.

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Test 4

PAPER 2 LISTENING TEST about 35 minutes

(including 6 minutes transfer time)

PART 1
Questions 1-7

 There are seven questions in this part.


 For each question there are three pictures and a short recording.
 Choose the correct picture and put a tick () in the box below it.

Example: Where did the man leave his camera?

A B C

1 Where will the woman go first after work?

A B C

2 What can festival visitors see every day?

A B C

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Test 4

3 Why souvenir will the boy’s mother bring?

A B C

4 What time will the woman’s hair appointment?

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A B C

5 Where’s the TV guide?

A B C

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Test 4

6 What does the man decide to take Tracy?

A B C

7 Which sport has the man just started?

A B C

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PART 2
Question 8 -13
 You will hear a man called John Dalin talking about the travel progammes he makes for
television.
 For each question, put a tick () in the correct box.

8 For his most recent television progamme, John


A drove from the North to the South
Pole.
B filmed relaxing beach holidays.
C Went to the Pacific Ocean for a year.
9 John is giving up very long trips because
A he’s too old now.
B he’s been everywhere.
C they’re too tiring.
10 John says his next television series might be about
A farms in Scotland.
B old ruins in Wales.
C cycling tours in France.
11 John wants to encourage other people to
A be brave about travelling to new
place.
B lose their fear of flying.
C make more trips alone.

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Test 4

12 Why does John want to spend more time near home?


A His family might need him.
B His wife misses him.
C He has very young children.
13 John has already written some
A Newspaper articles.
B Travel books.
C Poems.

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Test 4

PART 3
Question 14 – 19
 You will hear a woman talking on the radio about an exhibition of food and cooking.
 For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

The Good Food Show


atshow,
At the theyouCapital
can Exhibition Centre
Buy Jane Adam’s new book about making (14) ……………
Get advice about buying (15) …………………
Watch how to cook lunch just with (16) …………………
Learn how to make a dessert in less than (17) …………………
Taste food from many different countries – the food from (18)
………………… is especially recommended.
The show finishes on (19) …………………

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Test 4

PART 4
Questions 20-25
 Look at the six sentences for this part.
 You will hear a conversation between teenage girl called Anna and he father about a party.
 Decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
 If it is correct, put a tick () in the box under A for YES. If it is not correct, put a tick () in
the box under B for NO.

A B
YES NO

20 Anna begins by asking her father to collect her from the party.

21 The party is to celebrate Tom’s birthday.

22 Some of Tom’s relations will be at the party.

23 Anna’s father is worried about her attending the party.

24 Anna’s father will take them to the party before the film starts.

25 Anna’s father insists that she leaves the party at 12.00.

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Test 4

About the Speaking test


The Speaking test lasts about 10 to 12 minutes. You take the test with another
candidate. There are two examiners in the room. One examiner talks to you and the
other examiner listens to you. Both the examiners give you marks.
Part 1
The examiners introduce themselves and then one examiner asks you and your
partner to say your names and spell them. This examiner then asks you questions
about yourself, your daily life, interests, etc.
Part 2
The examiner asks you to talk about something together and gives you a drawing
to help you.
Part 3
You each have a chance to talk by yourselves. The examiner gives you a colour
photograph to look at and asks you to talk about it. When you have finished
talking, the examiner gives your partner a different photograph to look at and to
talk about.
Part 4
The examiner asks you and your partner to say more about the subject of the
photographs in Part 3. You may be asked to give your opinion or to talk about
something that has happened to you.

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Test 4

Key
PAPER 1 READING AND WRITING
READING
Part 1 1C 2A 3B 4C 5B

Part 2 6C 7E 8D 9H 10B

Part 3 11A 12B 13B 14B 15A 16A 17B 18A 19B 20A

Part 4 21B 22C 23A 24b 25D

Part 5 26A 27B 28C 29D 30B 31B 33C 34A 35A

WRITING
Part 1
1 We had a map but it was difficult to find the zoo.

Although we had a map, couldn’t / could not / didn’t / did find the zoo
we not easily.

2 The car park was outside the main entrance.

There was somewhere to park outside the main entrance.

3 We wore sun hats because it was very hot.

It was so (very) hot/sunny that we wore sun hats.

4 Maria suggested going to see the monkeys.

Maria said, ‘Why don’t we go to/and see the monkeys?’

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Test 4

5 The elephants were my favourite animals.

I liked the elephants more/better than any other animal.

PAPER 2 LISTENING
Part 11B 2B 3C 4A 5C 6B 7C
Part 2 8C 9C 10B 11A 12A 13B
Part 3
14 cakes
15 (fresh) fish
16 vegetables
17 15/fifteen minutes
18 Canada
19 23 March

Part 4 20B 21B 22A 23B 24B 25A

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