PHY 5246: Theoretical Dynamics, Fall 2015

November 16th, 2015

Assignment # 11, Solutions

1 Graded problems
Problem 1
1.a)
The Lagrangian is
1
L = m(ṙ 2 + r 2 θ̇2 + r 2 sin2 θφ̇2 ) − V (r), (1)
2
and the conjugate momenta are
∂L
pr = = mṙ , (2)
∂ ṙ
∂L
pθ = = mr 2 θ̇ ,
∂ θ̇
∂L
pφ = = mr 2 sin2 θφ̇ . (3)
∂ θ̇
By integrating these relations we get
pr
ṙ = , (4)
m
pθ
θ̇ = ,
mr 2
pφ
φ̇ = .
mr sin2 θ
2

Thus the Hamiltonian is

p2θ p2φ
 
1 2
H = pi q̇i − L = p + + + V (r). (5)
2m r r 2 r 2 sin2 θ

Using our class discussion and Goldstein § 8.1 we can find

~a = 0, (6)
   
1 1
T̂ = m  r2  → T̂ −1 = 1  1  ,
r2
m
r 2 sin2 θ 1
r 2 sin2 θ
 
pr
1 T −1
H = p ~ + V with p
~ T̂ p ~ =  pθ  .
2
pφ
Thus we see that
H =T +V =E ,
as expected. Hamilton’s equations of motion are
∂H
= pmr
(
 
r ṙ = ∂pr h p2φ
i (7)
pr ṗr = − ∂H
∂r
= mr1 3 p2θ + sin2 θ
− V ′ (r)
( pθ
∂H
θ̇ = = mr
 
θ ∂pθ 2
p2φ cos θ
pθ ṗθ = − ∂H =
∂θ mr 2 sin3 θ
( pφ
∂H
= = mr2 sin
 
φ φ̇ ∂pφ 3θ

pφ ∂H
ṗφ = − ∂φ = 0

1.b)
If pφ (0) = 0 then pφ (t) = 0 for all times (since ṗφ = 0 from the equations of motion). Then the
equations of motion become
( ( (
ṙ = pmr θ̇ = mr pθ
φ̇ = 0
p2θ
2
(8)
ṗr = mr3 − V (r)
′ ṗθ = 0 ṗφ = 0

Thus if φ(0) = 0 → φ(t) = 0 at all times, and the motion is planar (in the φ = 0 plane) as we
would expect. Given the initial conditions, it will be in the φ = 0 plane. The (r, pr ) and (θ, pθ )
sets of equations reduce to the usual equations for central-force motion:
(
pθ 2
θ̇ = mr 2 −→ pθ = mr θ̇, conserved.
(9)
ṗθ = 0 → ṗθ = 0 → mr(r θ̈ + 2ṙ θ̇) = 0 = maθ = 0.

So we have that pθ = l is the magnitude of the angular momentum, and from ṗθ = 0 we get
Newton’s second law in the θ̂ direction. For the radial part:
(
ṙ = pmr
p2 l2 (10)
ṗr = mrθ3 − V ′ (r) = mr 3 − V (r) .
′

Taking a derivative of the first equation and plugging it into the second equation we find

ṗr l2 V ′ (r)
r̈ = = 2 3− . (11)
m mr m
Thus we can write
l2
ṗr = mr̈ = − V ′ (r) = mr θ̇2 − V ′ (r) , (12)
mr 3
=⇒ m(r̈ − r θ̇2 ) = mar = −V ′ (r) = F (r) . (13)
So we find this set of equations gives us Newton’s 2nd law in the radial direction.
1.c)
~ (r) = − k2 r̂, since this is a
For the specific case of F r
conservative force with no constraint we already know
y that
H =T +U =E ,
m for constant E. From the diagram we see the coordinates
are
~r x = r cos θ
F~ =⇒ v 2 = ṙ 2 + r 2 θ̇2 . (14)
y = r sin θ
The kinetic and potential energy, and the Lagrangian are
x 1
O T = m(ṙ 2 + r 2 θ̇2 ) , (15)
2Z  
k k
U = − − 2 dr = − ,
r r
1 k
L = T − U = m(ṙ 2 + r 2 θ̇2 ) + .
2 r
For the conjugate momenta we have
(
∂L pr
pr = ∂ ṙ
= mṙ → ṙ = m
∂L 2 pθ (16)
pθ = ∂ θ̇
= mr θ̇ → θ̇ = mr 2

Our Hamiltonian is
p2r pθ k
H = ṙpr + θ̇pθ − L = + − =T +U , (17)
2m 2mr 2 r
and E is conserved since
∂H
= 0 → E = constant . (18)
∂t
The Hamiltonian (canonical) equations of motion are
∂H ∂H
∂pr
= ṙ ∂pθ
= θ̇
∂H ∂H (19)
∂r
= −ṗr ∂θ
= −ṗθ
From the equations of motion for (θ, pθ ) we get;
(
∂H pθ
= θ̇ = mr
∂pθ
∂H
2
⇒ pθ = mr 2 θ̇ = constant, (20)
∂θ
= − ṗ θ = 0

which shows the angular momentum is conserved. From the set of equations for (r, pr ), we find
∂H pr
= ṙ = , (21)
∂pr m
∂H p2θ k
= −ṗr = − 3
+ 2
∂r mr r
p2θ k k
⇒ ṗr = mr̈ = 3
− 2 = mr θ̇2 − . (22)
mr r r
Problem 2
2.a)
Our particle moves in 1D, so we use one generalized coordinate x. The potential is given by
integrating the force:
Z
k −t/τ k
F (x, t) = 2 e → U(x, t) = − F (x, t)dx = et/τ + C , (23)
x x
where we assume as x → ∞ that U → 0 so we take C = 0. The kinetic energy and the Lagrangian
are therefore
1
T = mẋ2 , (24)
2
1 k −t/τ
=⇒ L = T − U = mẋ2 − e . (25)
2 x
The conjugate momentum of x is
∂L px
px = = mẋ → ẋ = . (26)
∂ ẋ m
so the Hamiltonian is
1 p2x k −t/τ
H = ẋpx − L = + e =T +U =E . (27)
2m x

2.b)
From above we see H = E, since there are no constraints and U is not a function of ẋ. However,
since U = U(x, t) (explicitly depends on time!), the energy of the system is not conserved:

dE dH ∂H
= = 6= 0 . (28)
dt dt ∂t

Problem 3
3.a)
~ r ) = B0 ẑ, and we can verify that the vector potential
The magnetic field is given to us as B(~
~ 1 ~
r) = 2 B × ~
A(~ ~ ~ ~
r satisfies B = ∇ × A in the following way:
 
~ ~ 1
(∇ × A)i = ǫijk ∂j Ak = ǫijk ∂j ǫklm Bl xm (29)
2
1
= ǫijk ǫklm Bl δlm
2
1 1
= ǫijk ǫklj Bl = 2δil Bl = Bi .
2 2
This implies exactly that
~ = 1 B0 ẑ × ~
A
1
r = B0 (xŷ − y x̂) . (30)
2 2
3.b)
The Lagrangian is
˙ 1 ˙ 2 q˙ ~
L(~r,~r) = m~r + ~r · A(~ r) (31)
2 c
1 q
= m(ẋ2 + ẏ 2 + ż 2 ) + (ẋAx + ẏAy + żAz )
2 c
1 qB0
= m(ẋ2 + ẏ 2 + ż 2 ) + (−y ẋ + xẏ) .
2 2c
The conjugate momenta are
 
∂L qB0 1 qB0
px = = mẋ − y → ẋ = y + px (32)
∂ ẋ 2c m 2c
 
∂L qB0 1 qB0
py = = mẏ + x → ẏ = − + py
∂ ẏ 2c m 2c
∂L pz
pz = = mż → ż = .
∂ ż m
Thus the Hamiltonian is
H = px ẋ + py ẏ + pz ż − L (33)
2 2
p2 py py
 
qB0 qB0 1 2 qB0 qB0 2 qB0 2
= px y + x − py x + + − (px + p2y + p2z ) − − y − x
2mc m 2mc m m 2m 2mc 4c 4c
 
1 2 2 2 qB0 qB0 2 qB0 2
= (p + py + pz ) − − y − px y − x + py x
2m x 2mc 4c 4c
 2  2
1 qB0 1 qB0 1
= px + y + py − x + p2z .
2m 2c 2m 2c m

3.c)
The mechanical momenta are ( π = mẋ = p + qB0 y
x x 2c
πy = mẏ = py − qB 2c
0
x (34)
πz = mż
So we have (using Landau’s definition of Poisson’s bracket, as also given in this problem),
 
qB0 qB0
{πx , πy } = px + y, py − x (35)
2c 2c
 2
qB0 qB0 qB0
= {px , py } + {y, py } − {px , x} − {y, x}
2c 2c 2c
 
qB0 qB0
= − 2=− ,
2c c
where we have used that {px , py } = 0 and {y, x} = 0. Similarly we have
 
qB0
{πy , πz } = py − , pz = 0 , (36)
2cx
 
qB0
{πz , πx } = pz , px + y =0.
2c
(3.d)
In terms of the mechanical momenta:
πx2 πy2 π2
H= + + z . (37)
2m 2m 2m
Now using
π
d~
= {H, ~
π} , (38)
dt
we get
( π̇ = {H, π } = 1 {π 2 , π } = qB0 π ,
x x 2m y x mc y
π̇y = {H, πy } = 2m {πx , πy } = − qB
1 2 0
mc x
π , (39)
π̇z = {H, πz } = 0 .
The last expression implies πz (t) = constant = πz (0). Taking a derivative of the first expression
and plugging in the second gives
 2
qB0 qB0
π̈x = π̇y = − πx = −ω 2 πx =⇒ π̈x + ω 2 πx . (40)
mc mc

The solution to this is

πx (t) = A cos(ωt) + B sin(ωt), (41)
while for πy we have

1
πy (t) = (−Aω sin(ωt) + Bω cos(ωt)) = −A sin(ωt) + B cos(ωt). (42)
ω
With the initial conditions
πx (0) = A, πy (0) = B , (43)
we can write ( π (t) = π (0) cos(ωt) + π (0) sin(ωt)
x x y
πy (t) = −πx (0) sin(ωt) + πy (0) cos(ωt) (44)
πz (t) = πz (0).
From Newton’s 2nd law we would get
v
d~ π
d~ q ~ = qB0 ~
a=m
m~ = = ~v×B π × ẑ . (45)
dt dt c mc
qB0
This means that ~ π moves precessing about the z-axis with frequency ω = mc
, as we have found
in the explicit expression for πx , πy , and πz above. Also note that, since

qB0
{H, ~
π} = π × ẑ ,
~ (46)
mc
we have also found (38).