QualifyingExamProblemPhysicsUnivOfWashington 1992 2000
QualifyingExamProblemPhysicsUnivOfWashington 1992 2000
QualifyingExamProblemPhysicsUnivOfWashington 1992 2000
Physi
s
Fall 1998 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1 Capa
itors
(30 pts.) A parallel plate
apa
itor is
harged from a battery. The spa
e between the plates of the
apa
itor
is lled with air. After the
harging is
omplete, the swit
h is opened.
Referen
es: Capa
itors are dis
ussed in any basi
physi
s text, for example Halliday and Resni
k. This
problem is similar to the examples in Introdu
tion to Ele
trodynami
s, GriÆths, Se
tion 4.4.
1.1
(10 pts.) A pie
e of a diele
tri
(whi
h ts exa
tly in the spa
e between the plates) is pla
ed at the edge
of the
apa
itor. Explain whether the diele
tri
is repelled, attra
ted, or left unae
ted if released. Negle
t
the ee
t of air resistan
e and of the gravitational eld.
Solution: You need to know the energy stored in a
apa
itor. The system wants to lose energy, so the
diele
tri
will move to lower the energy stored in the
apa
itor. The rst formula you may remember is
U = 21 CV 2 . However, we have just dis
onne
ted the battery, so the potential V will not remain
onstant.
So it is more prudent to use U = Q2 =2C , be
ause the
harge on the
apa
itor will remain
onstant. When
adding a diele
tri
, the
apa
itan
e goes as C = 0 C0 , so it in
reases in this
ase. So the energy is lower
with the diele
tri
, and it will get su
ked into the
apa
itor.
1.2
(10 pts.) Repla
e in the previous question the diele
tri
with a metalli
pie
e of a smaller width than the
distan
e between the plates. Explain and des
ribe what happens in this
ase.
Solution: You need to realize that the work metalli
means a good
ondu
tor, and we will ee
tively
have a new
ir
uit
ontaining two
apa
itors in series. We know that C1 = C11 + C12 and that for a parallel
plate
apa
itor, C = 0 A=d. Sin
e the pie
e of metal has some nite thi
kness, the total separation between
the plates of our new, ee
tive
apa
itors is less than the original separation distan
e. So we see that the
new
apa
itan
e is greater than the original. This is the same situation as the previous question, so we give
the same answer: the metalli
pie
e is su
ked in.
1.3
(10 pts.) Explain and des
ribe what would happen in the rst question if the swit
h remains
losed, and
al
ulate how mu
h work the battery does during this part of the pro
ess.
Solution: You need to now the energy stored in a battery, U = QV . Sin
e the battery remains
onne
ted, we
an use equations that assume V is held xed. Also remember the basi
equation for
apa
itors,
Q = V C . So for the system before we introdu
e the diele
tri
we have
1 2 2 1 2 1 2
U = Q0 V +
C V = C0 V + C0 V = C V
2 0 2 2 0
When we introdu
e the diele
tri
, the
harge and
apa
itan
e
hanges, and we get
1 2 1 2
U
0
= 0
QV C V =
+ 0 0
C V
2 2
Sin
e C 0
= 0 C0 > C0 , the energy is again lower with the diele
tri
, so it gets su
ked in.
1
2 Mean Free Path
(10 pts.)
The mean free path is dened as the average distan
e traveled by a mole
ule between two
onse
utive
ollisions with other mole
ules. Assume that the absolute temperature of air in
reases by a fa
tor of two,
while the air pressure remains the same. Does the mean free path
hange? If yes, by how mu
h? If not,
why?
Solution: You need to know an expression for the mean free path. This expression was taken from
Halliday and Resni
k: = d12 where the radius of the parti
les is d and the number density (N=V ) is .
The form is valid for non-spheri
al parti
les: just repla
e d2 by something with the units of area. So we
assume air is approximately an ideal gas, and P V = N kB T holds. The temperature doubles, but pressure
stays
onstant, so the number density is halved.
! 21 ) ! 2
3 Classi
al Me
hani
s
(60 pts.) A material point moves without fri
tion on the interior surfa
e of a
ir
ular
one. The symmetry
axis (^z) is exa
tly verti
al. The angle between the verti
al and the
one surfa
e is . The initial velo
ity is
tangent to the
one surfa
e and in the horizontal plane ~v = v0 x^. See the gure on the original question.
3.1
3.2
(10 pts.) Show that the z -
omponent of the angular momentum is
onserved and
al
ulate it.
Solution: We are given the hint to work in
ylindri
al
oordinates, where = z tan . So,
3.3
(10 pts.) Des
ribe in words the motion of the material point.
Solution: You need to be good at visualization. The point mass will move in a
oni
se
tion. For most
initial velo
ities, it will move in an ellipse, going up and down along a sli
e through the
one. If the velo
ity
is small, the starting point will be the highest point on the traje
tory, and for large velo
ities, it will be the
lowest point. For one value of the initial velo
ity, the point mass will move in a perfe
t
ir
le.
2
3.4
(25 pts.) Determine the highest and lowest value of the
oordinate z rea
hed by the material point during
its motion.
Solution: You need to be able to solve the right equations. We know that the initial point will be either
the lowest or highest, depending on the initial velo
ity, so it is the other
riti
al point we are looking for.
First, get an expression for the total energy, in
ylindri
al
oordinates. Remember that there
an be motion
radially, azimuthally, and along the z -axis.
1
m(_ + _ + z_ ) + mgz
E =T +V = 2 2 2 2
2
Now you need to remember the tri
k of writing the energy in terms of the angular momentum, to get an
ee
tive potential. This is a
ommon tri
k in systems with some sort of radial symmetry.
1 L2z 1
E = m(_ 2 + 2 2 + z_ 2 ) + mgz = m(_ 2 + z_ 2 ) + Ve ()
2 m 2
Where, using the fa
t that we are
onstrained to the
one, z = = tan ,
L2z mg
Ve () = +
2m2 tan
The angular momentum bit is the familiar
entrifugal barrier. At the
riti
al points we are looking for, there
is no radial or z -axis velo
ity. So we
an write, using the initial point and velo
ity as one of the
riti
al
points
L2z L2
2 + mgz0 = z 2 + mgz
2m0 2m
where we want to solve for or z (they are equivalent be
ause we are
onstrained to the
one). Use the
value for Lz we obtained previously, and we get
mv02 mv02 20
+ mgz0 = + mgz
2 2 2
Move it around, and nally swit
h to the z
oordinate (you
an do it using either or z , but the questions
asks for the height, so we use z here).
mv02 z02 z0
(1 ) = mgz (1 )
2 z2 z
3
Basi
Physi
s
Fall 1999 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1 Pendulums
(50 pts.) You are given a thin rod of length L with uniform mass density and uniform
ross se
tion A L2 .
Let M denote the mass of the rod. This rod is equipped with two movable massless pivots so that it
an be
used as a physi
al pendulum with an adjustable period about either of two positions. Let h1 and h2 (both
taken as positive numbers) denote the displa
ement of the pivots with respe
t to the
enter of mass of the
rod. Let g denote the gravitational a
eleration due to the Earth.
(10 pts.) Cal
ulate the moment of inertia about either pivot point as a fun
tion of hi .
Solution: You need to know the equation for the moment of inertia, and the parallel axis theorem. You
might just remember the moment of inertia for a rod about its
enter of mass, but the question asks for a
al
ulation, not a good memory. So we remember the integral to get the moment of inertia about an obje
t's
enter of mass Z
I
m = d3 r(r)r2
where the integral must be performed about a prin
iple axis of the obje
t. In this
ase, we have
Z L=2
1
I
m = A x2 dx = AL3 =12 = M L2
L=2 12
Now remember the parallel axis theorem
1
I = I
m + M h2 = M ( L2 + h2 )
12
where in our
ase, h
an be either h1 or h2 .
(15 pts.) Cal
ulate the frequen
y ! of small os
illations about a pivot point.
Solution: You need to be able to solve simple Lagrangian problems. In this
ase, the kineti
energy
is just T = 12 I _2 , where we use the I we
al
ulated in the previous question. The potential energy is
V = M gh
os . We
onstru
t our Lagrangian and take derivatives to get the Euler-Lagrange equation.
The question asks for small os
illations, so we use the small angle approximation and get
I + M gh =0
We have solved this equation many times, and we see that
M gh gh
!2 = = 1 2 2
I 12 L + h
1.3
(10 pts.) Your result to the previous question should be multi-valued, i.e. for some frequen
ies ! there are
multiple values for h < L=2. Given a pair of distin
t pivot positions h1 < h2 with the same ! , show that
g = (h1 + h2 )! 2 .
1
Solution: You have to gure out the question, and then do some algebra. Our equation from the previous
question has an h2 in it, so from psy
hology of the question, we
an assume that \multi-valued" means that
there will be a quadrati
equation somewhere. Look at the equation for ! 2 we just obtained. We
an invert
it and write it in powers of h. This gives us a quadrati
equation in h, whi
h we solve to get
p
g g 2 ! 4 L2 =3
h=
2! 2
So, for a given ! , there will be two distin
t h's. The next part of the question lets us assume that we indeed
have h1 and h2 , the two solutions to our quadrati
equation, for some ! . Then we add the two together,
and the term
an
els, giving h1 + h2 = g=! 2 , whi
h is the equation we were looking for.
(15 pts.) Brie
y, qualitatively, dis
uss whether determination of g using the formula with two pivot points
is experimentally superior or inferior to the immediate use of the result from one pivot point. Hint: how
sensitive is ea
h formula to irregularities of the rod.
2
Solution: We have two formulas for the gravitational a
eleration, g = ! (h1 + h2 ) and g = I! =M h.
2
The question asks for experimental issues that might have an ee
t on these equations. From the psy
hology
of the question, we guess that the two-pivot equation is better, or we would not have been asked to derive it.
Presumably, we
an weigh the obje
t reliably, so the mass is not an issue, and ! 2 is present in both equations.
So the key dieren
e is that the se
ond formula requires that we know the moment of inertia ahead of time,
while the rst only requires that we nd two pivot points that give the same os
illation frequen
y. Taking
the hint, if the rod were not quite so thin, or not really of uniform density, our expression for the moment
of inertia would be wrong, while we
ould still nd the two pivot points.
2 S
attering
(25 pts.) The angular-dependen
e of mono
hromati
opti
al-wavelength light s
attering
an be used to
determine the size of small spheri
al parti
les suspended in a water solution. However, this te
hnique be
omes
unreliable if a signi
ant fra
tion of the dete
ted s
attered radiation has been multiply-s
attered (rather than
just singly-s
attered) by the small spheri
al parti
les in the sample. Brie
y propose an experimental test to
quantify the
ontribution to the s
attered intensity from multiple s
attering. Ignore any absorption in the
sample. Your answer should in
lude a brief des
ription and/or a sket
h of your apparatus. Explain your
answer. Available equipment in
lude (but is not limited to) : polarizers, dete
tors, lenses, pinholes, mirrors,
glassware, more lasers, et
.
Solution: There are several solutions that make varying degrees of sense. I think the most
lear is
suggested by the question's original author, and that is given here, slightly reworded. Measure the s
attered
light at large angles from the in
ident dire
tion. Multiple s
attering will yield approximately isotropi
s
attering, while single s
attering will largely be in the forward dire
tion. So a measure of the intensity at
large angles will give you a rough idea of whether multiple s
attering is o
urring.
3 Short Answer
(25 pts.)
3.1 Dust
(10 pts.) Major vol
ani
explosions
an push a large amount of dust parti
les high into the stratosphere.
After major eruptions, the moon (as observed from the Earth) often has a red tint. Explain this observation.
In parti
ular, also explain what this observation tells you about the size distribution of the dust parti
les.
Referen
es: S
attering o spheres and the theory of blue sky is dis
ussed in Se
tions 10.2 and 10.4 of
Classi
al Ele
trodynami
s, Ja
kson.
2
Solution: You need to reason this out any way you
an. If the Moon is tinted red, that must mean that
the blue
omponents of the visible light are being s
attered by the dust more than the red
omponents.
So the s
attering
ross se
tion must be dependent on the wavelength of the light. Ja
kson gives the
ross
se
tion for s
attering o a sphere for the long wavelength limit, where dd
/ 4 . We don't know the short
wavelength limit, but we guess that it is less dependent on wavelength than the long wavelength limit. So we
say that the parti
les must be mu
h smaller than the wavelength of visible light, so that the approximation
will hold.
3.2 Mirages
(15 pts.) Two physi
s graduate students are taking a summer va
ation in the New Mexi
o desert. During
a daytime hike on level ground, the students reliably observe that the desert
oor appears to be re
e
ting
(giving the false appearan
e of a rippling mirror or pond of water) at a distan
e of a few hundred meters
from where they are standing. Give a qualitative explanation for their observations.
Solution: You need to know that a mirage is a re
e
tion of the blue sky. It o
urs only when there is
a severe temperature dierential between two substan
es. In this
ase, the desert ground is mu
h hotter
than the air above it. This dieren
e in temperature
auses the index of refra
tion of the air to vary with
height above the ground. The index of refra
tion is inversely proportional to the temperature. A (possibly
spurious) explanation for this is to assume that the air is an ideal gas. Be
ause the atmosphere is so big, the
pressure will remain
onstant. So as the temperature goes up, the density goes down. Light beams moving
from one medium to a less dense medium will be bent away from the verti
al. This relationship for the index
of refra
tion will
ause a light ray to slowly bend away from the ground, and re
e
t towards the hikers, who
see the mirage.
3
Basi
Physi
s
Fall 2000 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1 Falling Rope
(25 pts.) An innitely
exible rope is suspended above a s
ale, with the bottom end of the rope just tou
hing
the s
ale (gravity points down). The rope has lenth L and total mass M , distributed evenly along its length.
The rope is released. After a length x has fallen on the s
ale, what does the s
ale read?
Solution: The weight measured by the s
ale will have two parts: one fromn the weight of the rope already
lying on the s
ale, and a se
ond from the impulse of the rope landing on the s
ale. The amount of rope
already on the s
ale will be x=L, and its weight will be M gx=L be
ause the mass is uniformly distributed.
For the se
ond
omponent, use F = dp=dt = dt d (mv ). We want our answer as a fun
tion of x, not of t, so we
manipulate some equations:
v (t) = gt
1 2
x(t) = gt
2
1 2
x(v ) = v
2g
v 2 (x) = 2gx
So now we have
d
(mv ) = 2gx
p dm
dt dt
The amount of mass hitting the s
ale during a time dt will depend on the length already fallen x.
dm dx=dt M
=M = v
dt L L
So the total weight measured by the s
ale is
x
W (x) = M g + v 2 (x)M=L = 3M gx=L
L
2 Lens
(25 pts.) You are given a
ylindri
al baby food jar, a
lear liquid of unknown index of refra
tion, a measuring
sti
k, and a distant light sour
e (say a bright distant vista). You
an negle
t the wall thi
kness of the baby
food jar.
(20 pts.) Design a measurement to determine the index of refra
tion n of the liquid. Sket
h the physi
al
setup, showing the paths of representative light rays. Indi
ate how the index of refra
tion is to be
al
ulated.
Solution:
1
3 Ro
ket
(50 pts.) A ro
ket ship propels itself through spa
e by emitting exhaust at a
onstant rate. The exhaust's
velo
ity, as it leaves the ro
ket, is u. The initial mass of the ro
ket is M0 .
(15 pts.) In the inertial frame, in whi
h the ro
ket was originally at rest, use Newtonian me
hani
s to show
that the mass of the ro
ket M (v ) at speed v is:
M (v )
= e v=u
M0
Solution:
(25 pts.) Assume that the speed of exhaust, u, is bounded only by the speed of light (0 u
). Derive
the relativisti
equivalent of the equation you found in the previous part.
Solution:
(10 pts.) Show that, in the
lassi
al limit (u
), the relativisti
expression redu
es to the
lassi
al one.
Solution:
2
Classi
al Me
hani
s
Spring 1995 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
(12 pts.) Constru
t the Lagrangian for the bead using as generalized
oordinate the distan
e s measured
along the wire from the point of interse
tion with the rotation axis.
Solution: This is pretty straightforward. The potential is just mgh where h is the height the bead is
raised, so we have
V = mgs
os 0 +
onstants
The kineti
energy has a rotational
omponent of 21 I
2 and a
omponent from the motion along the wire,
2 ms_ . The moment of inertia of a point mass is I = mR . In this
ase, the bead is moving in a
ir
le of
1 2 2
radius R = s sin 0 , so we have
1
T = m(s_ 2 + s2
2 sin2 0 )
2
These expressions give us the Lagrangian, L = T V .
1.2 Cir
ular Orbit
(14 pts.) Obtain the Lagrange equation of motion for s and use it to show that the
ondition for an
equilibrium
ir
ular orbit is s0 = g
os 0 =(
sin 0 )2 .
Solution: You need to know how to get the equation of motion from the Lagrangian. Take the appropriate
derivatives, and we see that
ms ms
2 sin2 0 + mg
os 0 = 0
The equilibrium
ondition of
ir
ular motion means that the bead is not moving along the wire, so s = s_ = 0.
In this
ase, we only have two terms in our equation of motion
ms0
2 sin2 0 + mg
os 0 =0
We
an easily solve this for s0 to get the desired result.
1.3 Newton's Se
ond Law
(10 pts.) Derive the above result for s0 by dire
tly applying Newton's se
ond law of motion (F~ = m~a) in an
inertial frame. Hint: analyze the verti
al and horizontal
omponents of the for
e of the wire on the bead in
the
ase of a
ir
ular orbit.
Solution: You need to know how to draw a free-body diagram. The wire exerts a normal for
e N on
the bead, perpendi
ular to the wire. In the equilibrium orbit, the bead is not moving along the wire, so the
for
es must sum to zero. The verti
al
omponent of the normal for
e is N sin 0 , whi
h must be equal to
mg . The horizontal
omponent of the normal for
e is N
os 0 , whi
h must be equal to the
entripetal for
e,
mr
2 = ms sin 0
2 . We
an solve for N in one equation, and use that in the other to get the exa
t same
equation as in the prvious question, yielding the same result.
1
1.4 Small Displa
ements
(12 pts.) Disuss the stability of this orbit against small displa
ements along the wire by nding an expression
for (t) = s(t) s0 .
Solution: Noti
e that s = + s0 , and hen
e s _ = _ and s = . Then our equation of motion is
m m( + s0 )
2 sin2 0 + mg
os 0 = 0
Use the given expression for s0 , and we nd that the
onstant terms
an
el, to give
2 sin2 0 = 0
where k =
sin 0 . So, in general, this system will exponentially grow away from the equilibrium solution
when slightly perturbed.
1.5 For
es of Constraint
(14 pts.) Use Lagrangian methods to nd the for
e of
onstraint a
ting on the bead in the ^ dire
tion. (
is the azimuth angle, with _ =
.)
Solution: You need to know how to do for
e of
onstraint problems. The usual question on for
es of
onstraint requires you to temporarily pretend that a xed variable is no longer xed. We are looking for
the for
e of
onstraint in the ^ dire
tion, so we let be
ome another generalized
oordinate. In this
ase, we
just repla
e
with _ in our Lagrangian, and take derivatives to get the new equation of motion. The for
e
of
onstraint is an external for
e, so it goes on the right-hand side of the equation of motion. Remember
to take time-derivatives of s as well as _ , and we get
ms2 sin2 0 + 2mss__ sin2 0 =
Note that this for
e of
onstraint is a
tually a torque on the system, to keep it rotating about the z -axis
with angle 0 . So to get the for
e, we write = ~r F~
, or F
= 2ms_
sin 0 .
1.6 Coriolis For
e
(14 pts.) Suppose the bead is moving outward along the wire with an instantaneous speed s_. Find the
magnitude and dire
tion of the
oriolis a
eleration of the bead in a frame rotating with the wire, and
dedu
e the for
e of the wire on the bead needed to
ompensate the
oriolis a
eleration. What is the
relationship between this for
e and the for
e of
onstraint found in the previous question.
Solution: You need to know what the
oriolis a
eleration is. In a non-inertial frame, a system will feel
extra for
es. When rotating, one of these for
es is
alled the
oriolis for
e, with
~abead = ~ainertial ~a
oriolis
An expression for the
oriolis a
eleration is ~a = 2~! ~v . In this
ase, we do the
ross produ
t with the
right-hand rule, and see that
~a
oriolis = 2
s_ sin 0 ^
The bead feels the negative of this a
eleration, whi
h is in the ^ dire
tion. The for
e needed to
ompensate
this is just m~a
oriolis, whi
h is equal to the for
e of
onstraint we found in the previous question. So we say
that the
oriolis for
e and the for
e required to keep the wire turning at
onstant angular velo
ity make a
Newton's Third Law for
e pair.
2
1.7 Hamiltonian
(12 pts.) Find H , the Hamiltonian of the bead, in terms of a suitable
oordinate and momentum.
Solution: You need to know how to get
anoni
al momenta and express the Hamiltonian in terms of
them. We know that p = qL , so we know that the
anoni
al mometum in this
ase is p = ms_. The
Hamiltonian is just
H=
X p q_ L =
p2 1 ms2
2 sin2 + mgs
os
2m 2 0 0
(12 pts.) Show whether H is
onserved and whether H is equal to the sum of the kineti
and potential
energies.
Solution: You need to know how to take total derivatives. First, we know that H 6= T + V by inspe
tion.
This is be
ause the system is being fed energy from some external sour
e to keep the system moving at
onstant angular velo
ity, regardless of the motion of the bead. We take the time-derivative of H to see if it
is
onserved, and get
dH
dt
= H p H s H
p t
+ s t + t
The Hamiltonian, the momentum, and the
oordinate have no expli
it time depeden
e, so this expression is
equal to zero. Thus, the Hamiltonian is indeed
onserved, even though it is not the total energy.
3
Classi
al Me
hani
s
Fall 1996 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1 Coupled Pendula
(100 pts.) Consider a system of two identi
al fri
tionless pendula of length l and mass m
oupled with a
massless spring of for
e
onstant k and moving in a plane. See the gure on the original question.
Referen
es: The rst few questions are done in Se
tion 23 of Theoreti
al Me
hani
s of Parti
les and
Continua, Fetter and Wale
ka.
1.1 Lagrangian
(25 pts.) Assuming small angle displa
ement, write the Lagrangian for this system in terms of x1 and x2 .
Spe
ify any assumptions and show all work.
Solution: You need to know how to do small os
illation problems. We make the small angle approxima-
tion, and also ignore the kineti
energy from the verti
al motion of the masses, as it is higher order than
we are working to. The potential energy of the masses has a
omponent due to the spring, 12 k (x1 x2 )2 ,
and
omponents from the height the masses are raised to. This height is l(1
os ). Make the small angle
approximation, noting that x = l sin l, and we get
1 mg 2
V = k (x1 x2 )2 + (x + x22 ) +
onstants
2 2l 1
The kineti
energy is due just to the horizontal motion, so we have
1
T = m(x_ 21 + x_ 22 )
2
These expressions give us the Lagrangian L = T V.
d L L
=0
dt q_ q
So we have mg
1 + k (x1
mx x2 ) + x1 =0
l
and mg
2
mx k (x1 x2 ) + x2 =0
l
1
1.4 Eigenfun
tions
(10 pts.) Determine the motions of the system whi
h os
illate at ea
h of the natural frequen
ies, and des
ribe
the motion for ea
h
ase qualitatively.
Solution: We have already des
ribed the motions, and said that the motion was harmoni
. To be expli
it:
In the rst
ase, the amplitude of motion is the same for both pendula. In the se
ond
ase, the amplitudes
have the same magnitude and opposite sign.
1.5.1 Qui
k
(5 pts.) One
an determine without doing any further detailed
al
ulations one of the natural frequen
ies of
this system. Find the frequen
y and des
ribe the
orresponding motion.
Solution: You need to remember that the period of a simple pendulum does not depend on the mass. The
frequen
y for our rst normal mode did not
ontain any mention of the mass m. Even with one pendulum
signi
antly heavier than another, this mode will remain (if our approximations remain valid). So one
frequen
y of the new system is !12 = g=l.
Mg
2
Mx k (x1 x2 ) + x2 =0
l
The easiest way to
al
ulate the frequen
y is to write the equations in matrix form, and solve the determinant
equation. The matrix we are interested in
an be read o the equations of motion.
k + gl m m! 2 k
det =0
k k + gl M M !2
Let x g
l !2 , and our equation is
(mx + k )(M x + k ) k2 = 0 = mM x2 + kx(m + M )
We
an solve this for x to get x = k + 1). Now apply the limit, and go ba
k to ! 2 to see
m (m=M
g k
!2 = +
l m
2
Classi
al Me
hani
s
Spring 1999 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1 Lagrangian Me
hani
s
(100 pts.) Consider a thin hoop of radius R and mass M , free to os
illate in its plane around a xed point
P . On the hoop there is a point mass, also M , whi
h
an slide freely along the hoop. The system is in a
uniform gravitational eld ~g. See the gure on the original question.
Referen
es: This is Problem 4.1 in Theoreti
al Me
hani
s of Parti
les and Continua, Fetter and Wale
ka.
1.1 Coordinates
(20 pts.) Introdu
e appropriate
oordinates des
ribing the
ombined motion of the hoop and point mass,
showing them on the diagram. How many un
onstrained
oordinates are required.
Solution: You need to remember how to pi
k good
oordinates for me
hani
s problems. We pi
k two
angles, 1 and 2 . The rst is the angle between the verti
al and the line between the xed point P and
the
enter of the hoop. The se
ond is the angle between the verti
al and the line between the
enter of the
hoop and the point mass. These two angles are suÆ
ient to des
ribe the state of the system. The next
question asks us to
onsider small os
illations, where we will swit
h to 1 and 2 , the small displa
ements
from verti
al of the hoop's
enter and the point mass, respe
tively. I think it is easier to see the angles at
rst, and then move to the displa
ements.
1.2 Lagrangian
(50 pts.) Consider small os
illations. Derive the Lagrangian, and the Lagrange equations. Find the normal
mode eigenfrequen
ies.
Solution: You need to know what the Lagrangian is, and how to get the Lagrange equations from it.
Our
anoni
al
oordinates will be 1 and 2 , the small displa
ements des
ribed in the answer to the previous
question. Some of the quantities are easiest to write down rst in terms of the angles, and then swit
h to
the displa
ements by using small angle approximations. We know that L = T V , so we need the kineti
and potential energies of the system. First the potential:
V = Vhoop + Vpoint = M gR
os 1 M g (R
os 1 + R
os 2 ) = M gR(2
os 1 +
os 2 )
1
g
1 + 2 + 2 = 0
R
Now, we
an get one of the normal modes qui
kly, be
ause of the symmetry of the problem. One of the
solutions has to be a simple pendulum motion, with the hoop and bead moving in the same dire
tion at all
times. In this
ase, the displa
ements of the hoop's
enter of mass and the bead will always be the same:
1 = 2 . So we
an add (or subtra
t) our two Lagrange equations to get
g
2 + =0
R
where is both 1 and 2 . The solution
p to this is the familiar (t) = A
os !1 t + B sin !1 t where we have
found the rst eigenfrequen
y, !1 = 2gR . Now, we will rst give the easy way to get the other solution.
Intuition tells us that the other normal mode will be when the bead and hoop swing in opposite dire
tions.
To keep the
enter of mass dire
tly below the pivot point P , we must have 2 = 21 , be
ause 2 is measured
from the verti
al line below 1 . So we again add (or subtra
t) our equations, and use the relation between
the two displa
ements to get
g
2 + 4 = 0
R
q 2g
whi
h gives the other eigenfrequen
y, !2 = R . Now for the hard way. Remember the matrix formalism
for Lagrangian dynami
s. The eigenfrequen
ies
an be obtained by solving det jV ! 2 Mj = 0 where V and
M are the potential and mass matri
es, obtained from the relation with their elements
1X
T = M _ _
2 ; ;
2
V; = q q
V
In this
ase, we
an read these elements right o the Lagrange equations. The mass matrix elements are
the
oeÆ
ients of the double time-derivatives, and the potential matrix elements are the
oeÆ
ients of the
displa
ements themselves. So we have
3 1 2 0
M= 1 1
V = Rg 0 1
Then our equation to solve the determinant is
2g g
( 3! 2 )( !2) !4 = 0
R R
This is a quadrati
equation in ! 2 whi
h
an be solved, after some tedious algebra, to reveal the two solutions
we saw before.
1.3 Eigenmodes
(30 pts.) Find the normal mode eigenfun
tions and sket
h the motion.
Solution: You need to know that the eigenve
tors of a system satisfy the equation (V ! 2 M) = 0
for both 1
orresponding to !1 and for 2
orresponding to !2 . We saw in the previous question that one
of the normal modes has the hoop and bead moving together with the same amplitude, and so the same
equation held for both 1 and 2 . The other normal mode has dierent amplitudes for the hoop and bead.
The matrix equation
an a
tually be solved, but it is easier to remember what we said before, how the bead
will move in the opposite dire
tion with twi
e the amplitude as the hoop. So for the se
ond normal mode,
the solution is
1 (t) = A
os !2 t + B sin !2 t
2 (t) = 21 (t)
These motions
an be easily sket
hed.
2
Classi
al Me
hani
s
Fall 2000 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1 Bead on a Hoop
(45 pts.) A
ir
ular wire hoop is rotating about a verti
al axis (along a diameter) with
onstant angular
velo
ity ! . A bead of mass m is free to slide without fri
tion on the hoop. A
onvenient denition is
!02 = g=R.
Referen
es: The same system is Problem 3.1 in Theoreti
al Me
hani
s of Parti
les and Continua, Fetter
and Wale
ka.
(5 pts.) Draw all the for
es (in the Lab frame) on the bead when it is in an equilibrium position (for
0 < < ). Also show the net for
e (label it
learly).
Solution: The equilibrium point for this system is when the bead is not moving along the hoop. The
weight is pulling straight down, with mg . There is a normal for
e N perpendi
ular to the hoop, pointing
to the
enter of the hoop. The net for
e is then pointing perpendi
ular to the axis of rotation. The bead is
moving in a
ir
le, and the
entripetal for
e is towards the
enter of that
ir
le.
1.2 Lagrangian
1.4 Equilibrium
(10 pts.) Find the stable equilibrium position q of the bead as a fun
tion of ! . There is a
riti
al value of
! ,
all it !
, below whi
h the nature of the equilibrium
hanges. Find !
. Des
ribe the nature of the
hange.
Solution: At equilibrium, the bead is not moving along the hoop: = _ = 0. Plug into the equation of
motion
! 2 sin q
os q + !02 sin q = 0
1
Solve for q
!0 2
os q =
!
We
an use this expression to
hara
terize the
riti
al angular velo
ity. A solution exists for q only if ! !0 .
As ! approa
hes !0 from above, the equilibrium angle de
reases towards zero. Previously, the equilibrium
point of = 0 was unstable. Now, the rotation velo
ity is so slow that the two equilbria merge, as there is
not enough rotational energy to move the bead out along the hoop. So, the
riti
al velo
ity is the natural
velo
ity, !
= !0 .
(15 pts.) Find the frequen
y of small os
illations of the mass about the equilibrium point q . Assume the
angular velo
ity is above the
riti
al value !
and 0 < q < .
Solution: We are looking at a small deviation from the equilibrium point q . So we say that (t) = q + (t)
where (t) is small. Then _ = _ and = . So the equation of motion be
omes
! 2 sin(q + )
os(q + ) + !02 sin(q + ) = 0
Obviously, we need to use trig identites and the small angle approximation. Also, drop terms of order 2 ,
and use the relation we found above between q , ! and !0 . After a lot of boring algebra, we nd
+ (! 2 sin2 q ) = 0
This is the harmoni
os
illation equation, so we
an read o the frequen
y of small os
illations ! = ! sin q .
0
(10 pts.) If Iij = Ii is diagonal and ~! is in an arbitrary dire
tion, derive an expli
it expression for the angular
momentum L ~ in terms of the
omponents of ! ~ and Ii . Work this out using subs
ript notation.
Solution:
(5 pts.) Under what general
onditions will the angular momentum ve
tor point in the dire
tion of the
angular velo
ity ve
tor?
Solution:
2
3 Spa
eship Orbits
(30 pts.) You wish to send a spa
e
raft from Earth to Jupiter via a fuel-eÆ
ient Hohmann transfer orbit.
This is an ellipti
al orbit around the sun tangent to both the Earth's orbit and to Jupiter's orbit. Assume that
the orbits of Earth and Jupiter are
ir
ular and
oplanar and ignore other planets as well as the gravitational
attra
tion of the spa
e
raft to Earth and Jupiter. Call the radius of Jupiter's orbit RJ and the radius of
Earth's orbit Re = 1 AU. For general information (you don't need this number) RJ 5:2 AU. The velo
ity
of the Earth in orbit is ve = 2 AU / year.
(10 pts.) A relationship between the semi-major axis a of an ellipse and the total energy E is
m
a=
2jE j
where
= GMs and m is the mass of the orbiting obje
t. Derive this for the spe
ial
ase of a
ir
ular orbit.
Solution: We
an write an expression for the total energy, rst in general
1
m
E = T + V = mv 2
2 r
For a
ir
ular orbit the
entripetal for
e must
an
el out the attra
tive gravitational for
e: mv 2 =r =
m=r2 .
Solve this relation for v 2 and plug into the total energy expression to get
1
m
E=
2 r
This
an easily be solved for r to get the desired relation.
(15 pts.) What speed does the spa
e
raft have when it rea
hes the orbit of Jupiter? Give your answer in
terms of the speed of Jupiter in its orbit vJ and the orbit radii RJ and Re . Is the spa
e
raft speed larger or
smaller than the speed of Jupiter in its orbit?
Solution: The spa
e
raft will travel in an ellipse with semi-major axis of a = (Re + RJ )=2. Use this in
the given relation to get
m
E=
Re + RJ
At Jupiter's orbit, we also know that E = 21 mv 2
m=RJ . Equate these relations and solve for v 2 . We are
assuming Jupiter's orbit is
ir
ular, so we
an say the velo
ity of Jupiter in its orbit is given by vJ2 =
=RJ .
So we get
2Re
v 2 = vJ2
Re + RJ
Sin
e Jupiter's orbit is greater than Earth's, the spa
e
raft is travelling slower than Jupiter at this point.
(5 pts.) How does the speed of the spa
e
raft when it rea
hes Jupiter's orbit
ompare with its speed when
it started its ellipti
al path at Earth's orbit (give the answer in terms of orbit radii) ?
Solution: Use
onservation of angular momentum. The spa
e
raft's velo
ity at Earth's orbit is ve and at
Jupiter it is vJ . Then
L = mRe ve = mRJ vJ
Solve to see
Re
vJ = ve
RJ
3
Ele
tri
ity and Magnetism
Fall 1998 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1 Radiation (Mostly)
For mono
hromati
ally varying
harge distributions (~r; t) = (~r)e i!t the s
alar potential is also mono
hro-
mati
and given in the radiation gauge (in
gs units) by (~r; t) = (~r)e i!t where
Z i!j~r ~r0 j=
(~r) = d3 r 0 ~
r0
( ) e j~r r0
~ j
Similarly, the
urrent distribution and ve
tor potential are also mono
hromati
: ~j (~r; t) = ~j (~r)e i!t and
~ (~
A r ; t) = A
~ (~
r )e i!t . The equation for the ve
tor potential A
~ (~
r ) is similar to that for (~
r ) but with (~
r)
repla
ed by the
urrent distribution j (~r) in the above integral.
~
(25 pts.) Show that for \small" sour
es at \short" distan
es, the frequen
y dependen
e in (~r) is negligible,
and hen
e, one re
overs the \stati
" limit given by Coulomb's Law. Roughly estimate the extent of this
\short distan
e" regime for 1000 Mhz signals and
omment on possible impli
ations for high speed
omputer
pu
hips whi
h have typi
al dimensions of about 5
m.
Referen
es: The stati
limit (and the radiation zone limit) is dis
ussed in Se
tion 9.1 of Classi
al Ele
-
trodynami
s, Ja
kson.
Solution: You need to gure out what \small" and \short" mean. In this
ase, we assume that the sour
e
has dimensions d, and that \small" means r d. This allows us to ignore the ~r0 bit in the argument of
the exponential. However, we are also at a \short" distan
e, so r or r 2!
. We
an write this as
!r 2
, so that the argument of the exponential is approximately zero. So the exponential gets repla
ed
by a one, and we obtain Z 0
(~r) = d3 r0 j~r(~r ~r)0 j
whi
h is just the familiar Coulomb's law, and has no frequen
y dependen
e. Now we need to plug in the
right numbers: we want an estimate of the distan
e r that makes the exponential go to unity
r
=
= 3:0 108 m = 0:047m
! 2f 2 109
This is about the size of a pro
essor, as given by the problem. So the radiation from a pro
essor's
lo
k
will
reate a stati
eld throughout part of the
pu, whi
h
ould alter the expe
ted behavior of the other
elements of the pro
essor.
1.2 Legendre Polynomials
(25 pts.) Consider a uniform
harge distribution (~r) of net
harge Q
onned to a loop of radius a
in the x y plane with negligible wire thi
kness. In speri
al
oordinates the
harge density is (~r) =
(Q=2a2)Æ(
os )Æ(r a). Determine the rst two non-vanishing terms of the expansion of the potential
(~r) in Legendre polynomials Pl (
os ) and powers of rl for short distan
e r a. Hint: rst determine
the potential along the z -axis and then mat
h; the leading Legendre polynomials are P0 (x) = 1, P1 (x) = x,
P2 (x) = (3x2 1)=2.
Referen
es: This problem is the last example in Se
tion 3.3 of Classi
al Ele
trodynami
s, Ja
kson.
Solution: First, you need to realize that this has nothing to do with the previous question. Then, you
need to get the potential or a ring of
harge along the axis, the expansion of an azimuthally symmetri
1
system in Legendre polynomials, and the Taylor series expansion of (1 + x) 1=2 . We take the author's hint
and get the potential along the z -axis, whi
h is a
al
ulation we did in high s
hool, but have of
ourse sin
e
forgotten. Also, we drop the usual 1=40 be
ause the author wants us to use
gs units.
(z ) = p 2Q 2
a +z
Sin
e we are
lose in, we set all the Bl to zero. Now equate the two expressions on the axis (r = z , = 0) :
Q X
p = Al rl Pl (1)
a2 + z 2 l
1.3
(25 pts.) From Maxwell's equations, show that the ele
tri
eld E~ (~r) / r B~ (~r) for all points outside the
harge and
urrent distribution, and determine the proportionality
onstant. For very large distan
es (the
\radiation limit") and small sour
es, you may approximate j~r ~r0 j r, eikj~r ~r j =j~r ~r0 j (eikr =r)e i~k~r ,
0 0
Now B~ = r A~ , so we get (dropping terms of order 1=r2 be
ause we are in the radiation zone)
ikr ikr
~
B = (^r r ) A~ = ik e r (^r ~j~k ) ~b e r
where ~b = i~k ~j~k .
2
1.4
(25 pts.) Show that the elds E~ and B~ = ~beikr =r are orthogonal to ea
h other and to the ve
tor ~r in the
\radiation limit", and evaluate the time averaged power radiated into solid angle d
in dire
tion k^ in this
limit in terms of ~b.
Solution: The magneti
eld is easy, be
ause B ^ = r^ ^j~k , so it is orthogonal to ~r. For the ele
tri
eld,
use the previous result, and remember that we
an approximate r by r^ r , so we get
2 ~ 2
~
E = i
! (^r rB ) = i
! (ikr^ B~ ) = ^ B~
r
whi
h is also orthogonal to ~r. Now you need to remember the formula for the radiated power
dP
= 1 <[r2 r^ E~ B~ ℄ = 1 <[
r2 r^ (^r B~ ) B~ ℄ = 1 <[
r2 eikr e ikr r^ (^r ~b) ~b ℄
d
20 20 20 r r
Rearrange the
ross produ
ts to
an
el the minus sign, and realize that ~b is orthogonal to ~r, and we get
dP
~2
d
= 2 jbj 0
3
Ele
tri
ity and Magnetism
Spring 1998 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
(50 pts.) An innitely long
ylinder of insulating material with radius a, permeability = 0 , and permit-
tivity = 0 has uniform volume
harge density > 0, surfa
e
harge density and is ele
tri
ally neutral.
It is pla
ed in a
onstant, uniform magneti
eld B~ = B z^ that is
ylindri
ally symmetri
of radius RB with
RB > a and of innite extent in the z -dire
tion. The symmetry axis of the
ylinder is
ollinear with the
symmetry axis of the magneti
eld. See the gure on the original question. The
ylinder is free to rotate
about its symmetry axis.
1.1 Ele
tri
Field
(15 pts.) Compute the Poynting ve
tor and momentum density everywhere. Find the angular momentum
per unit length, L~ , with the
ylinder at rest.
Solution: You need to know an expression for the Poynting ve
tor and the momentum density. We just
found E~ , and the system is stati
, so the only magneti
eld is the
onstant external eld. The Poynting
ve
tor is S~ = 10 E~ B~ . Be
ause the ele
tri
eld is zero for r > a, so will the Poynting ve
tor be. Then for
r < a, we get
~ = 1 E
S ~ B ~ = rB (^ r z^) =
rB 2 ^
0 002 2
1
The momentum density is just ~g =
2 S~ . To get the total angular momentum, we remember that
Z
~
L = ~
r ~g(~r)d3 r
We will perform this integral out to r = a, as the momentum density vanishes beyond that. We get a fa
tor
of l for the integral along z , and a 2 from the azimuthal integral. Remember that the dierential element
in this
ase will then be rdr. So the angular momentum per unit length is just
Za 4
~ = 2 B (^
L=l r ^) r3 dr = B a z^
2 0 4
1.3 Faraday's Law
(13 pts.) The magneti
eld is now turned o with time dependen
e B~ (t). Determine the ele
tri
eld indu
ed
by the time-varying magneti
eld. Assume that any velo
ity at any point in the
harge distribution is small
and relativisti
ee
ts
an be negle
ted.
Solution: You need to apply Faraday's Law. The ele
tromotive for
e is equal to the negative of the
hange in magneti
ux. In this
ase, the magneti
ux is just
(r; t) = B (t)r2
1
This holds for r < RB . Outside this, just repla
e r with RB . The ele
tromotive for
e will be 2rE . For
r < RB we will get
~ = 1 dB (t) r
E ^
2 dt
For r RB we get
2
E~ = 1 dB (t) RB ^
2 dt r
1.4 Torque
(12 pts.) Find the torque per unit length, ~ , on the
ylinder as a fun
tion of time and determine the angular
momentum per unit length of the
ylinder as a fun
tion of time. Assume that any velo
ity at any point in
the
harge distribution is small and relativisti
ee
ts
an be negle
ted.
Solution: You need to know that torque is the
hange in angular momentum. Now that the magneti
eld is
hanging, we have two
omponents of the ele
tri
eld. Consequently, the Poynting ve
tor now has
two
omponents. By doing the
ross produ
ts, we see that S~ points in the ^ dire
tion as before, and now also
in the r^ dire
tion. To get the angular momentum, do the same
al
ulation as before. Lu
kily for us, taking
the
ross produ
t r^ r^ gives us zero. So the angular momentum is the same, with
onstant B repla
ed by
B (t). Now take the time derivative to get
~ dB t a4
( ) z^
~
= ddtL =
dt 4
2 Green's Fun
tions
(50 pts.) A loop of radius r0 and
harge Q is above a grounded,
ondu
ting sphere, \S ", of radius a. See
the gure on the original question. The plane of the loop is displa
ed verti
ally from the plane of re
e
tion
symmetry of S by a distan
e d. The entire system is embedded in a diele
tri
of innite extent with diele
tri
onstant . Note: Some useful relations:
1 = 4 X 1 Y (
0 )Y (
) r<l
j~r ~r0 j l;m
2l + 1 lm lm l+1
r>
r
Yl0 = Æm0
2l + 1 P (
os )
4 l
where r< and r> represent the lesser and greater of j~rj and j~r0 j, respe
tively.
The Green's fun
tion G(~r; X~ )> for the equation determining the ele
trostati
potential in the diele
tri
region outside the
ondu
ting sphere is given by
" #
G(~ ~ )> =
r; X
1 1 a 1
4 j~r
~ ~X j jX j j~r
~ Y
(12 pts.) From Maxwell's equations, derive the boundary
onditions satised by an ele
trostati
eld at the
interfa
e between diele
tri
and
ondu
ting sphere.
Solution: You need to apply Gauss' and Faraday's Laws appropriately. From Maxwell's equations in
dierential form, we
an integrate using Stoke's Theorem and the Divergen
e Theorem to get the integral
forms of Faraday's and Gauss' Laws. We are in the stati
ase, so a line integral of the ele
tri
eld must be
zero. Pi
k a
urve that runs parallel to the interfa
e, with one side in the
ondu
tor, and the other outside.
2
Make the pie
e of the
urve perpendi
ular to the surfa
e go to zero, and we see that the parallel
omponents
of the ele
tri
eld must vanish. Now draw a Gaussian pillbox, again with one side in and the other out of
the
ondu
tor. Let the sides perpendi
ular to the surfa
e go to zero again, and let the other surfa
es have
area dA. The
harge en
losed is just dA. The ele
tri
eld inside a
ondu
tor is zero. So the ele
tri
eld
perpendi
ular to the interfa
e is just D? = .
2.2 Properties of the Green's Fun
tion
(12 pts.) What properties does G(~r; X~ )> possess to make it the appropriate Green's fun
tion? Draw a
s
hemati
to show the lo
ation of the sphere, a point
harge and any image
harges that might arise.
Referen
es: This problem is done in Se
tion 2.2 of Classi
al Ele
trodynami
s, Ja
kson.
Solution: You need to know about Green's fun
tions. The form of the given Green's fun
tions is that of
a point
harge outside, and the image
harge we imagine at a parti
ular lo
ation in the sphere. Lu
kily for
us, the Green's fun
tion is given, and does not need to be derived. Noti
e that the magnitude of the image
harge is a=jX~ j. The image
harge is lo
ated along the same line as from the
enter of sphere to the outside
point
harge. Noti
e that as the
harge outside goes to innity, the lo
ation of the image
harge goes to the
enter of the sphere, and the magnitude of the
harge goes to zero. Now remember that a Green's fun
tions
is the potential of a system due to a point
harge. Maxwell's equations show that you
an write r2 V = .
So the Green's fun
tion must satisfy
r2 G(~r; X~ )> = Æ3 ~
(r r0
~ )
Another property of the Green's fun
tion is the boundary
onditions it satises. This is a Diri
hlet Green's
fun
tion, so it is zero on the boundary. You
an see this by examining a point on the surfa
e of the
ondu
ting
sphere, where the image
harge appears in the same pla
e with opposite
harge, so there is zero potential.
2.3 Legendre Polynomials
(14 pts.) Express the potential in the diele
tri
resulting from the
harge loop as a sum of Legendre
polynomials.
Solution: We are given the expansion in spheri
al harmoni
s for 1=j~ r0 j, so we should be able to work
r ~
with the Green's fun
tion to get the desired form. Remember that if we are given the Green's fun
tion, we
an get the potential for a whole distribution of
harge by
Z
(~r) = (~r0 )G(~r; ~r0 )d3 r0
where r< and r> are the smaller and greater, respe tively, of j~rj and R.
3
2.4 Indu
ed Charge
(12 pts.) Find the
harge indu
ed on the
ondu
ting sphere.
Solution: There will be a surfa
e
harge indu
ed on the sphere to simulate the behavior of our imagined
image
harge. Read o the magnitude of the image
harge from the Green's fun
tion: qimage = a=jX~ j. In
this
ase, jX~ j = R. So for ea
h dQ of the ring, there will be an image
harge dQa=R. Sin
e the total
harge
of the ring is Q, the total image
harge will be Qa=R. This is the total
harge indu
ed on the surfa
e of
the
ondu
tor.
4
Modern Physi
s
Fall 1993 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
You may nd the following useful: h = 1:973 keV Angstroms, me 2 = 511 keV.
1 Leptons
(20 pts.) The ele
tron (e), muon, (), and tau ( ) parti
les are
harged parti
les whi
h belong to the
lass
of elementary parti
les
alled leptons. There are also neutral leptons
alled neutrinos. The leptons are all
fermions.
1.1 For es
(10 pts.) Whi
h of the four known intera
tions (gravity, ele
tromagneti
, weak, and strong) do the
harged
leptons exhibit?
Solution: Gravity a
ts on all massive parti
les, in
luding the
harged leptons. Charge is the unit of the
ele
tromagneti
for
e. The de
ay of the heavier
harged leptons are all weak. The strong for
e is between
quarks, and sin
e the
harged leptons are elementary parti
les, they
annot be
omposed of quarks and do
not intera
t via the strong for
e.
1.2 De ays
(10 pts.) A positively
harged pion is observed to de
ay mainly into a muon and a neutrino
+ ! +
with the positive muon subsequently de
aying into a positron and two neutrinos
+ ! e+
where the bar signies an anti-neutrino. Explain why you get one neutrino in the rst
ase and two in the
se
ond.
Solution: The de
ays must
onserve the lepton number of ea
h
avor. Ea
h lepton has the opposite
lepton number as its sister neutrino. So in pion de
ay, the lepton number before was zero, so we need one
-
avored neutrino to make the lepton number of the nal state zero also. In the de
ay of the muon, we
need a -
avored anti-neutrino in the nal state to
onserve lepton number in the muon family. Then we
need a positron-anti-ele
tron neutrino pair to
onserve ele
tron
avored lepton number.
2 Muoni
Hydrogen
(50 pts.)
(10 pts.) What is the approximate energy of muoni
hydrogen in its n-th ex
ited state; i.e., a proton whi
h
has
aptured a muon in an atomi
orbit. The mass of the muon in units of the ele
tron mass is m = 207me
and the mass of the proton is mp = 1836me .
Solution: You need to remember the formula for the energy levels of the hydrogen atom:
2 e4 1
En =
2h2 n2
1
where is the redu
ed mass. In a plain hydrogen, this is approximated well by me . Sin
e the muon is mu
h
heavier than the ele
tron, we must deal with its
ontribution to the redu
ed mass:
m mp m 207me
= = =
m + mp 1 + m =mp 1 + 207=1836
188me
So the energy levels of muoni
hydrogen will be about 188 times those of plain hydrogen. We remember that
the binding energy of plain hydrogen is 13:6 eV, and we
an write, for muoni
hydrogen,
1 1
En = 188 13:6 2 = 2:5 keV
n n
2.2 Level Transition
(10 pts.) Cal
ulate the energy of the photon whi
h is emitted when the muoni
hydrogen undergoes a
transition from the rst ex
ited state (n = 2) to the ground state (n = 1).
Solution: This is just the dieren
e between energy levels:
1 1
E
= E2 E1 = 2:5keV 2 = 1:9keV
2 12
(10 pts.) What is the Bohr radius in the ground state of muoni
hydrogen (radius in n = 1 state)?
Solution: You need to remember the denition of the Bohr radius
h 2 2
a0 =
e2
mh e4
e
So for muoni
hydrogen, multiply the ele
tron mass by 188 to get the new Bohr radius. If you remember
the Bohr radius of plain hydrogen is about half an Angstrom, we nd that the muoni
hydrogen has a mu
h
larger radius, almost 100 Angstroms.
2.4 Lifetime
(10 pts.) Compare the lifetime for the n = 2 ! n = 1 transition for muoni
hydrogen and ele
tri
hydrogen.
Dis
uss.
Solution:
(10 pts.) Given muoni
hydrogen in the state n = 2,
ompare the lifetimes for the transition ! e versus
the transition n = 2 ! n = 1.
Solution:
3 Quark Model
(30 pts.)
(10 pts.) A
ording to the quark model, what
ombinations of quarks
onstitute a proton and a neutron?
Solution: This problem is totally unfair, as you just have to know these things. The proton is made of
two up quarks and one down. The neutron is made of two down quarks and one up.
2
3.2 Charge and Spin
(10 pts.) What are the ele
tri
harges and spins of ea
h of these
onstituents?
Solution: Quarks are fermions, so they all have spin 1=2. The
harge of an up quark is +2=3 and the
down is 1=3.
3.3 Masses
3
Modern Physi
s
Spring 1999 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
energy spe
trum today,
all it ( ; T ), whi
h is related to the given spe
trum by the fa
tors just mentioned.
0 0
1 E 0
S 4 d S 0
This shows that the spe
trum of the ba
kground radiation today is still that of a bla
k-body. Further,
the ba
kground radiation is now at a temperature of T 2:8K . The original author's solution says that
T = T=S , but does not mention why. Perhaps this
an be explained with the Stefan-Boltzmann law, whi
h
0
Beware this problem: The explanation behind the solution is sket
hy! Further, the form of the bla
k-body
spe
trum given here is dierent from what I have seen before, so the entire question may be suspe
t!
1
angle between the dire
tion of the photon and the dire
tion of parti
le 1 is . See the gure on the original
question.
2.1 Parti
le De
ay
(20 pts.) Show that the photon energy is given by
m21
4 m22
4
E=
2m1
2
1 (1 1
os )
Hint: you will need 1 =
p1 =E1 and
1 = E1 =m1
2 .
Solution: You need to nd the right ve
tors to work with, and work some algebra. We know two things:
onservation of energy and momentum. From energy
onservation we get E1 = E + E2 . From momentum
onservation we get
~p1 =
~p +
~p2 (the fa
tor of
makes the units the same as the energy equation). The
idea is to absolute square these equations, and then bring them together in the hopes that some stu will
an
el. We are given the angle , but not the angle of the parti
le with mass m2 . Sin
e we will need to take
a dot produ
t somewhere, it makes sense to move the equations around before squaring them, so that we
will end up with an expression involving , instead of the unknown angle. So now we have
E12 + E 2 2E1 E = E22
2 p21 +
2 p2 + 2
2 p1 p
os =
2 p22
Subtra
t the momentum equation from the energy equation. Note that if we had written the whole thing in
terms of momentum 4-ve
tors, we would have obtained this equation a few steps sooner.
(E12
2 p21 ) + (E 2
2 p2 ) 2E1 E 2
2 p1 p
os = (E22
2 p22 )
Now remember that E 2 = p2
2 + m2
4 , and that for the photon, E = p
. So we have
m21
4 + 0 2E (E1 +
p1
os ) = m22
4
Now use the relations E1 = m1
2
1 and 1 =
p1 =E1 and solve for E to get the solution
m21
4 m22
4
E=
2m1
2
1 (1 1
os )
2.2 Doppler Ee
t
(15 pts.) Use this result to obtain the expression for the Doppler ee
t for ele
tromagneti
radiation.
Referen
es: The relativisti
Doppler shift is dis
ussed in Se
tion 11.3 of Classi
al Ele
trodynami
s, Ja
k-
son.
Solution: The wording of this question is un
lear, but here goes. We are given the expression for the
photon's energy,
all it E0 , in a parti
ular frame of referen
e. Now move to the rest frame of the de
aying
parti
le, where 1 = 0 and
1 = 1. Call the energy of the photon seen from this frame E , and we have 0
m21
4 m22
4
E0 =
2m21
2
Ba
k in the lab, we see that E = E0
1 (1
0
1
os ). We know that E = h! , so we
an write the standard
expression for the Doppler shift
! 0 = !0
1 (1 1
os )
3 Experimental Issues
(35 pts.)
2
3.1 Fixed vs. Collider Dete
tors
(15 pts.) Explain brie
y the main advantage, as well as the main disadvantage, of a xed-target experiment
as
ompared with a
olliding-beam experiment (
onsider only symmetri
al
olliders, i.e. same energy for
both beams).
Solution: Some of this you just have to know. The main advantage, obviously, is that the laboratory frame
is now also the
enter of mass frame, so essentially all the energy of the beam is available for produ
tion of
other parti
les. The disadvantages are a bit more un
lear, but
an in
lude te
hni
al diÆ
ulty in building the
ma
hines, and the result of lower intensity of parti
les, be
ause we no longer have one side of the experiment
extraordinarily more dense than the other.
3
Quantum Me
hani
s
Spring 1992 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1 Rotations
(30 pts.) In quantum me
hani
s, the ee
t of a rotation on operators and states is given by the rotation
operator Rn() = e iJn, where hJ is the total angular momentum operator, and n is a unit ve
tor spe
ifying
the rotation axis. (The exponential operator
an be dened by its Taylor expansion.)
1.1 S
alars
(10 pts.) An operator is
alled a s
alar if it does not
hange under spatial rotations. By
onsidering an
innitesimal rotation d, show that a s
alar operator must
ommute with any
omponent of J.
Solution: You need to know how to apply a rotation. Let our s
alar operator be
alled A, and we rotate
it by d about the n axis to get A0 = Rn(d)y ARn(d). By denition A0 must be equal to A, be
ause it is a
s
alar operator. Sin
e this is an innitesimal rotation, we
an expand the exponential to get
A0 = (1 + iJn d)A(1 iJn d) = A
where Jn is the
omponent of J in the n dire
tion. We ignore terms of order d2, and nd that
A = A + id(Jn A AJn ) = A + id[Jn ; A℄
The
ommutator must therefore be zero. Sin
e we did not spe
ify the rotation axis n, this holds for any
omponent of J.
1.2 Ve
tors
(10 pts.) A ve
tor operator transforms under spatial rotations in the same way as an ordinary ve
tor; e.g.
for a rotation about the z-axis by an angle , the new
omponents of a ve
tor operator K are given in terms
of the old
omponents by:
Kx0 = Kx
os Ky sin Ky0 = Kx sin + Ky
os Kz0 = Kz
By
onsidering innitesimal rotations as in the previous question, prove the following
ommutation relations
between the
omponents of J and a ve
tor operator K:
[Jx; Ky ℄ = iKz and
y
li
permutations
Solution: Consider a rotation by d about the z-axis. Applying small angle approximations to the given
expression for a rotated ve
tor, we see that
Kx0 = Kx dKy Ky0 = dKx + Ky Kz0 = Kz
Equate the two relations for Kx0 to see that [Jz ; Kx℄ = iKy . If we wanted, we
ould do the same thing for
the other
omponents, and for rotations about other axes, proving all the relations.
1
1.3 Sele
tion Rules
(10 pts.) The
omponents of the ele
tri
eld in
ir
ularly polarized light are E0(x iy) when the light
is propagating along the z-axis. Consider ele
tri
dipole absorption of su
h
ir
ularly polarized light by an
atom of total angular momentum J. Use the ve
tor
ommutation relations to derive the sele
tion rules for
the
hange in MJ along z. The ele
tri
dipole intera
tion is er E.
Solution: You have to gure out what the question is asking. We are asked to nd a sele
tion rule for m
along the z-axis, given a spe
i
intera
tion. Presumably, we will derive a relation between the new m0 and
the old m. The intera
tion is given as H1 = er E. We are given the ele
tri
eld for
ir
ularly polarized
light. Commonly, when given expressions of the form Ax iAy it is bene
ial to
all these A. Using
this notation for r and E, we
an write the Hamiltonian as e(r+ E + r E + + zEz ). In this
ase, the z-
omponent will be zero, and we will have only one of the plus-or-minus terms, depending on the polarization
of the in
oming light. The operator in question is r, and we
an use the
ommutation relations we proved
earlier to nd that
[Jz ; r ℄ = r
Finally, we
an start to answer the question. The energy shift due to this intera
tion is
E = hm0jH1jmi = hm0 j er E jmi
Now insert the
ommutator in pla
e of r , and we get
E = ehm0j([Jz ; r ℄)E jmi
This gives us a Jz a
ting to the left, and another a
ting to the right. This will yield the m0 and m that we
need. So we have
E = e(m0 m)hm0 jr E jmi = (m0 m)E
This relation gives us the sele
tion rule: m0 = m 1 for E .
2 Time Evolution
(20 pts.) The magneti
dipole intera
tion of J with a magneti
eld B is des
ribed by the intera
tion
Hamiltonian:
Hmag =
h J B
where
is proportional to the magneti
dipole moment.
2.1 Pre
ession
(10 pts.) Classi
ally, the angular momentum pre
esses about B. To see the quantum me
hani
al analog,
show that the time evolution
aused by the magneti
eld is given by the rotation operator. In other words,
using the intera
tion pi
ture in whi
h the time dependen
e of the state ve
tor arises only from Hmag , and
writing
jti = Umag (t t0 )jt0 i
show that
Umag (t t0 ) = Rn ()
where n lies along B, and =
B(t t0).
Solution: You need to know an expression for the evolution operator, U (t) = exp( iHt=h). We are given
the Hamiltonian, so we
an write for the evolution operator
Umag (t t0 ) = e iHmag (t t0 )=h = ei
JB(t t0 ) = ei
B (t t0 )Jn
But this is the expression for Rn () with = B(t t0 ), so we have shown it.
2
2.2 Expe
tation Value
(10 pts.) Show that the expe
tation value, hKi, of a ve
tor operator rotates with angular frequen
y
B.
Solution: We have been told that a state ve
tor at time t is just the evolution operator times the state
ve
tor at time t0. Let K be a ve
tor operator, and we
an write
hK it = htjK jti = ht0 jU y (t t0 )KU (t t0 )jt0 i = ht0 jRny ()KRn ()jt0 i
where =
B(t t0) as in the previous question. So the expe
tation value of K at time t is the expe
tation
value at t0, rotated by . So the time dependen
e is exp( i!(t t0)) where ! =
B.
3 Pauli Spin Matri
es
(20 pts.) The
omponents of ~, the Pauli spin operator, are given here in the usual representation:
x =
0 1 y = 0 i z = 1 0
1 0 i 0 0 1
For J = 1=2, show that
Rn () =
os
2 i~ n sin 2
Solution: You need to know that J = ~=2 for spin 1=2, and some properties of the Pauli matri
es. Now
expand the exponential form of the rotation operator to get
X1 ( i =2)k
Rn () = e in =2 =
n
k=0
k!
Now remember that nk = 1 for k even, and nk = n for k odd. Then we
an write
X ( i=2)k X ( i=2)n
Rn () = + n
keven
k! kodd
k!
Now re
ognize these sums as the expansions for
osine and i times sine, respe
tively, and we have the desired
result.
4 Neutron Interferometer
(30 pts.) Consider a neutron interferometer (see gure on original question). A beam of neutrons (spin 1/2)
is split by a partial re
e
tor into two beams of equal intensity that travel along paths 1 and 2, and re
ombine
at the dete
tor D. A magneti
eld B
an be added along path 1. Under the semi-
lassi
al
onditions that
are usual in su
h an interferometer, the neutrons spend a well-dened time T traversing the magneti
eld
region, and the ee
t of applying B in that region is simply to make the following
hange in the spinor wave
fun
tion rea
hing the dete
tor along path 1:
1 (D ) ! Umag (T ) 1 (D )
(The dire
tion of B relative to the propagation of the neutron beam makes no dieren
e.)
4.1 Counting Rate
(10 pts.) Plot the neutron
ounting rate you would expe
t to see at D as a fun
tion of
BT over the range
0 to 8.
Solution: The
ounting rate will be the intensity at the dete
tor, or j 1 (D) + 2 (D)j2 . In the absen
e
of the magneti
eld, we would have 1(D) = 2 (D). So in the presen
e of the magneti
eld, we
an say
3
that 1(D) = U (T ) 2(D). We showed that U was equal to Rn(), and we derived an expression for Rn()
in terms of sine and
osines. So we
an write
I = j 2 (D)j2 j1 + Rn ()j2 = j 2 (D)j2 j1 +
os in sin j2
2 2
Perform the absolute square, and the terms linear in n
an
el. Remember that n2 = 1, and we get
= j 2(D)j2 (2 + 2
os 2 )
I
In this expression =
BT , so the
ounting rate is a
osine wave with period 4.
4.2 Blo
ked Path
(10 pts.) Repeat the previous question for the
ase when path 2 is blo
ked. Be quantitative in your
omparison.
Solution: Intuitively, the
ount rate should now be a
onstant, be
ause there is no interferen
e. The
alignment of the neutrons will still
hange, but they will still rea
h the dete
tor. Quantitatively, we have
I = j 1(D)j2 = I0 jRn()j2 = I0j
os 2 in sin 2 j2
where I0 would be the intensity of path 1 in the absen
e of the magneti
eld. Again perform the absolute
square, and we get I = I0 , a
onstant. The j 2 (D)j2 in the previous
ase is I0 in this
ase. So the
onstant
ounting rate with path 2 blo
ked will be one-fourth of that when both paths are unobstru
ted with no
magneti
eld.
4.3 Explain
(10 pts.) Interpret your answers in terms of the behavior of spin 1=2 systems under spatial rotations of 2
and 4. Su
h experiments illustrating the rotational properties of neutrons a
tually have been
arried out
in re
ent years.
Solution: Take the expression for Rn () and plug in the two values. We see that Rn(2) = 1 and
Rn (4 ) = 1. So we
on
lude that spin 1/2 parti
les have period 4 for spatial rotations. This might be
ounter-intuitive, as
lassi
al parti
les always have 2 symmetry for rotations.
4
Quantum Me
hani
s
Fall 1993 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1 Potential Well
(80 pts.) A deep and narrow attra
tive potential well V (x)
entered on the origin of a one-dimensional system
an be represented by boundary
onditions on the wave fun
tion (x) and its derivative 0 (x) = d (x)=dx,
of the form
(0+) = (0 ) 0 (0+) = 0 (0 ) (0)
where is a positive
onstant. This equation says that the wave fun
tion is
ontinuous at the origin, but
its derivative has a dis
ontinuity proportional to the value of the wave fun
tion. Everywhere ex
ept at the
origin the wave fun
tion satises the time independent S
hroedinger equation
h 2 d2
E =
2m dx2
1.3 Symmetry
(5 pts.) What is the symmetry about the origin of this bound state?
Solution: Intuition tells us that the potential is so simple that the bound state should be an even fun
tion.
Indeed, we
an use our expression for to nd that (x) = ( x).
1
Solution: Given the form of the solution, it is
lear that the se
ond derivative of (x) is k 2 (x), so it
indeed solves the equation for the given energy. It may help to write the wave fun
tion in two pie
es
(x) = A ((x)
os(kx + Æ+ ) + ( x)
os( kx + Æ+ ))
and the derivative is
0 (x) = kA ((x) sin(kx + Æ+ ) ( x) sin( kx + Æ+ ))
Now the boundary
ondition on the derivative is
learly
kA sin Æ+ = kA sin Æ+ A
os Æ+
Solve this to see that tan Æ+ = =2k .
the
osine works, lets try the
losest odd fun
tion, the sine: (x) = A sin(kx). Clearly we have the required
positive energy. Sin
e the sine is an odd fun
tion, we don't need to bother with the absolute value. This wave
fun
tion is
ontinuous at the origin, and be
ause its value is zero at the origin, its derivative is
ontinuous
as well.
(20 pts.) The normalized wave fun
tions for the lowest two eigenstates of a single spinless boson
onned to
the one-dimensional regon 0 < x < L are
r r
2 x 2 2x
0 (x) = L
sin
L 1 (x) = L
sin
L
with energies
h2 2 2h2 2
E0 = E1 =
2mL2 mL2
2
2.1 Two Bosons: Energies
(10 pts.) What are the energies of the lowest two eigenstates for two non-intera
ting bosons
onned to su
h
a region?
Solution: The key point is that we are dealing with bosons. So the lowest energy state of two parti
les
is when both parti
les are in the single-parti
le ground state. The lowest energy is thus
h2 2
E2 bosons;0 = 2E1 boson;0 =
mL2
The next highest state has one parti
le still in the ground state, and the other parti
le in the next ex
ited
state.
5h2 2
E2 bosons;1 = E1 boson;0 + E1 boson;1 =
2mL2
3
Quantum Me
hani
s
Spring 1998 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1 Density Matri
es
(40 pts.)
Referen
es: Density matri
es, their properties, and appli
ations thereof are dis
ussed in Prin
iple of
Quantum Me
hani
s , Shankar, end of se
tion 4.2, and also in Modern Quantum Me
hani
s, Sakurai, Se
tion
3.4.
1.1
(10 pts.) Explain brie
y in what
ir
umstan
es one should des
ribe a physi
al system using a density matrix
rather than a wavefun
tion.
Solution: You just have to know this. A density operator is useful in situations that are slightly more
physi
ally realisti
than a system of pure states, where we pi
k states from an ensemble, from whi
h we know
the probabilities of pi
king ea
h type of state.
1.2
(10 pts.) Explain why the density matrix for an ensemble of spin-1=2 parti
les
an always be written in the
form
1
= (I + ~a ~
)
2
where ~a is a real ve
tor and ~ are the Pauli matri
es
x =
0 1 y =
0 i
z =
1 0
1 0 i 0 0 1
Solution: You need to know some things about the density matrix . First, the Pauli spin matri
es and
the identity matrix form a
omplete basis for 2 2 matri
es. So any matrix A
an be written as A =
0 I +~
~ ,
where
0 ; ~
are, in general,
omplex. Now we use properties of the density matrix: it is Hermitian ( = y )
and Tr = 1. These properties
an be derived from the denitions given as \potentially useful results." So
we must have
0 = 1=2 and ~
a real ve
tor. The fa
tor of one-half (~
= 21 ~a) is by
onvention, and you just
had to know it (or guess).
1.3
(5 pts.) Show that the ensemble average of the spin is given by hS~ i = (h=2)~a.
Solution: You need to know that the ensemble average of any quantity A ~ is given by hA
~ i = TrA
~ . Now
use S = (h=2)~ and properties of the Pauli matri
es. These
an be derived empiri
ally, as they are given on
~
the exam, but are good to know.
Tri = 0 Tri j = 2Æij
So we break into
omponents and get
X X
hS~i i = h4 Tr(Ii + ai i j ) = 0 + h4 ai 2Æij = h2 ai
j j
1
1.4
(15 pts.) The spins are pla
ed in a magneti
eld aligned in the z -dire
tion, su
h that the Hamiltonian is
H = !Sz , and are kept at temperature T . The density operator des
ribing this situation is
=
1 exp H Z = Tr(exp H )
Z kB T kB T
Cal
ulate hS~ i as a fun
tion of T , and
omment on the result in the limits T ! 0 and T ! 1.
Referen
es: This question very similar to the last example in Se
tion 3.4 of Sakurai.
Solution: You have to see that we
an do our
al
ulations using the Sz basis. Then we have
1 1
exp h ! 0 exp h ! 0
=
Z
!Sz
exp k T = Z 2
0
k B T
exp h ! Z = Tr 2
0
k B T
exp h ! = 2
osh 2kh!T
B 2 kB T 2 kB T B
2 S
attering Theory
(60 pts.)
Referen
es: The s
attering
ross se
tion is dened in any quantum me
hani
s textbook.
2.1
= r2 jjjjs
atteredjj
in
ident
where j means parti
le
ux.
2
2.2
(20 pts.) The s
attering wave fun
tion at large distan
es from the s
attering
enter has the form
ikr
(+)
(r) / eikr + e r f (; )
Explain why the dierential s
attering
ross se
tion is given by
d
= jf (; )j
2
d
Referen
es: This problem was on the PHYS 519 Midterm Exam in Spring 2000.
Solution: You need to know how to do
ux
al
ulations on the wavefun
tions. You are given the equation
for
ux, J = mh =( r ). The outgoing wavefun
tion is given. It is
omposed of the in
oming plane wave
(eikr ) and an outgoing spheri
al wave. So we
an immediately
al
ulate the in
ident
ux
J = =(e ikr ik r^eikr = k r^
h h
in
m m
2.3
(15 pts.) Parti
les of mass m s
atter o a
ylindri
al potential well of uniform strength V0 , radius R, and
length L, with R L. See gure on original question: this might be a
rude representation of a deformed
nu
leus.) In this part we make no assumption
on
erning the initial dire
tion of these parti
les. Assuming
the potential to be weak, given an approximate expression for the s
attering amplitude, and explain brie
y
the range of validity of this expression.
Solution: You need to re
ognize that the assumption of a weak potential means we
an use the rst Born
approximation. We are given expression for the s
attering fun
tion
f (k~0 ; ~
k) =
1 2m (2)3 hk~0 jV j (+) i
4 h 2
The rst Born approximation lets us substitute a plane wave (eik~ x~ =(2)3=2 ) for the full outgoing wavefun
-
0 0
4 h 2
2.4
2.5
(10 pts.) How would you distinguish experimentally between s
attering in the dire
tions marked \1" and \2"
in the original gure? In other words, how might you determine, from the distribution of s
attered parti
les,
whether the
ylinder is oriented along the in
oming dire
tion or perpendi
ular to it? At what order in kR
would su
h an ee
t rst appear?
Solution:
3
Quantum Me
hani
s
Spring 2000 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1.1 Hamiltonian
(4 pts.) Write down an expression for the Hamiltonian, in
luding the spin-orbit intera
tion.
Solution: The rst two terms should be automati
: p =2m + V (r ). Next is the intera
tion between the
2
magneti
moment of the ele
tron and the external magneti
eld, whi
h has the form ~ B ~ . Finally, the
~ S~ with
ompli
ated
oeÆ
ients, depending on the potential. So the total
spin-orbit intera
tion has an L
Hamiltonian is
p2 1 1 V ~ ~
H= + V (r) ~ B
~ LS
2m 2m2
2 r r
You
an now assume that the magneti
eld is arbitarily weak.
(8 pts.) Whi
h
ombination of the quantum numbers J; L; S; Jz ; Lz ; Sz are good quantum numbers for the
energy eigenstates of this system?
Solution:
(17 pts.) Cal
ulate the expe
tation value of the
omponent of the magneti
moment whi
h is along the J~
dire
tion. ~
J^. Note that we
an write J^ = J~ jJJ2j . So we have
Solution: We need to nd ~
h e ~ jJ~j
~ J^ = L + gS~ J~ 2
2m
J
Use J~ = L
~ + S~ and J 2 = L2 + S 2 + 2L ~ S~ to write this as
~
~ J^ =
he 1
L2 + gS 2 + (1 + g ) (J 2 L2 S2
jJ j
2m
2 J2
We are given the quantum numbers s, l, and j , so now use J 2 = j (j + 1); L2 = l(l + 1); S 2 = s(s + 1) to get
the result
he jJ~j
~ J^ = (4 g )
2m
3
1
1.4 Pre
ession
(17 pts.) At time t = 0, assume Jx = +1=2. Cal
ulate the time dependen
e of the expe
tation value of Jx .
Solution:
(12 pts.) Will your answer about the set of good quantum numbers
hange if the magneti
eld is made
strong? If not, explain why not. If so, explain how strong the magneti
eld has to be in order to
hange
your
on
lusion.
Solution:
2 Harmoni
Os
illator
(16 pts.) 4 neutrons and 3 protons are in a 3D harmoni
os
illator potential with
X ~p2i 1
H= + k~ri2
i
2m 2
where the sum on i is over the parti
les. There are no intera
tions between the parti
les. Find the ground
state energy of this system.
Solution: Note that this is a three-dimensional os
iallator, so the energy levels are
3
E (nx ; ny ; nz ) = ( + nx + ny + nz )h!
2
where ! 2 = k=m, and we are negle
ting the small mass dieren
e between neutrons and protons. The single
parti
le ground state has energy E0 = 23 h! , and there are two of these, one for ea
h spin state. The single
parti
le rst ex
ited state has energy E1 = 25 h! , and there are 6 of these, be
ause we have three dimensions
to work with. We
an
onsider the neutrons and protons separately, as our ability to distinguish them means
that we
an put them in the same state without violating the Pauli ex
ulsion prin
iple. So we
an put 2
neutrons and 2 protons in the nx = ny = nz = 0 state. The other 2 neutrons and proton go in the single
parti
le rst ex
ited state. So the total energy is
3 5 27
E = 4( h ! ) + 3( h! ) = h!
2 2 2
3 States
(24 pts.) A quantum me
hani
al parti
le
an be found in one of three orthogonal states r , w , and b . These
three states form a
omplete basis. R is an operator whi
h
y
li
ally permutes the states, e.g. R b = w ,
R w = r , R r = b . The parti
le Hamiltonian is
H = !h(R + R ) y
3.1 Observables
expli itly in the next part. Observables are, by denition, Hermitian, so R annot be an observable.
2
3.2 Eigenvalues and Eigenstates
(18 pts.) Find the energy eigenvalues and eigenstates of the parti
le.
Solution: Let the three orthogonal states be the
olumn ve
tors (1; 0; 0); (0; 1; 0); (0; 0; 1). Then using the
a
tions of R given, we
an
onstru
t 0 1
0 1 0
R= 0 0 1 A
1 0 0
from whi
h we get the Hamiltonian 0 1
0 1 1
H = h! 1 0 1 A
1 1 0
Now we have a simple matrix, nd its eigenvalues and eigenve
tors any way you
hoose. We get
0 1 0 1
1 1
H 1 A = 2h! 1 A
1 1
0 1 0 1
1 1
H 0 A = h! 0 A
1 1
0 1 0 1
1 1
H 1 A = h! 1 A
0 0
3
Statisti
al Me
hani
s
Spring 1995 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
(10 pts.) Given the rst law of thermodynami
s dE = T dS + dN pdV and that the energy is extensive
E = T S + N pV , derive the Gibbs-Duhem relation dp = (S=V )dT + nd where n N=V .
Solution: You need to do some algebra, and take a total dierential. Take the total dierential of E to
get
dE = T dS + dT S + dN + dN pdV dpV
Combine this with the given expression for dE to nd that
SdT + Nd V dp = 0
Solve this for dp and use n = N=V to get
S
dp = dT + nd
V
1.2 Free Energy
(10 pts.) It is often more
onvenient to work with the Helmholtz free energy per unit volume, f (E T S )=V .
Show that df = (S=V )dT + dn.
Solution: Again you have to take a dierential. We are given an expression for f , so take a dierential
of that. Be
ause f is the free energy per unit volume, we do not need to take dierentials of V . So we have
1 1 S
df = (dE SdT T dS ) = (T dS + dN SdT T dS ) = dn dT
V V V
1.3 Imperfe
t Gas
(10 pts.) Consider the free energy per unit volume whi
h des
ribes an imperfe
t gas:
k T
f (T; n) = wnv0 (1 nv0 ) + B [(1 nv0 ) log(1 nv0 ) + nv0 log(nv0 )℄
v0
where v0 is a unit volume, and w is an energy per unit volume. Assume that the parti
les in the gas attra
t
one another, in whi
h
ase w > 0. Show that the pressure is given by
kB T
p(T; n) = w(nv0 )2 log(1 nv0 )
v0
Solution: You need to do some algebra and equation manipulation. Combining the expressions for f and
E , we
an write p = n f . So now we need an expression for . Use the relation for df we obtained in the
previous question and divide by dn to write
f S T
=
n V n
Now realize that T=n is zero, and we have p = nf=n f . The derivative is ugly, but we
an do it.
There is a lot of
an
ellation, and the desired result falls out.
1
1.4 Gas To Liquid
(15 pts.) At suÆ
iently low temperatures, the gas is expe
ted to
ondense to a liquid. What fa
tor(s) favor
this
ondensation, and what oppose it? From your argument (and simple dimensional analysis), what is a
reasonable guess for an expression for the transition temperature?
Solution: You need to reason this out however you
an. We have been told that w has units of energy
per unit volume, and is attra
tive, or favorable to
ondensation. The expression for f has an energy part
and an entropy part. The se
ond term in the imperfe
t gas expression for f must be the entropy part.
This is positive, and thus opposes the
ondensation. Presumably, the transition will o
ur around where the
favoring and opposing terms balan
e out. For this to be the
ase, the two terms must
an
el ea
h other out.
The leading order
omponent of the energy term is w, while kB T=v0 is the
orresponding
omponent of the
entropy term. So a guess as to the transition temperature might be kB T
wv0 .
(15 pts.) At the
riti
al point at whi
h the transition rst o
urs in the system,
p 2p
=0 =0
n n2
Using this,
al
ulate the lo
ation, n
and T
, of the
riti
al point. At temperatures lower than this, there is
two-phase
oexisten
e. (You need not show this.)
Solution: You need to take derivatives
arefully.
p k T
= 2wv02 n + B
n 1 nv0
and
2p vk T
= 2wv02 + 0 B 2
n 2 (1 nv0 )
We have two equations and two unknowns, so we
an solve this. After some algebra, we see that n
= 1=2v0
and kB T
= v0 w=2. Armed with this result, we
ould go ba
k and answer the previous result, if it had eluded
us before.
(20 pts.) The energy levels of a one-dimensional harmoni
os
illator are given by En = (n + 1=2)h! . Show
that the partition fun
tion of the system is
1
Z=
2 sinh(h!=2kB T )
Solution: This is su
h a
ommon problem that we should be able to do it in our sleep. You need to know
Z=
Xe
the denition of the partition fun
tion. In this
ase we have
En =kB T = e h !=2kB T
Xe nh !=kB T
n n
Let x exp( h!=kB T ) and we have a geometri
series in x, so we get
h !
e 2kB T
Z= h !
1 e kB T
Multiplying by exp( h!=2kB T ) on the top and bottom gives us the desired form of the hyberboli
sine.
2
2.2 Entropy
(20 pts.) Ca
lulate the entropy S (T ). Show that even in the
lassi
al limit, it still depends upon h. Brie
y
give a reason why this should be so. This behavior of the entropy is in
ontrast to the energy E (T ) whi
h,
in this same limit, does not depend on h. (You need not show this.)
Solution: You need to know the relationships between Z , F , and S . We know that F = kB T log Z .
The exponential form is a bit easier to work with, giving
1
F = h ! + kB T log(1 e h !=kB T )
2
Now we use
F e h !=kB T h ! h! 1
S= = k log(1 e h !=kB T ) + kB T h !=k T = k log(1 e h !=kB T ) + h !=k T
T 1 e B kB T 2 T e B 1
Now you need to remember what the
lassi
al limit is for the quantum os
illator: kB T h!. In this
ase,
the arguments of the exponential will be small, so we
an expand to get
S ! kB log(kB T=h!) + kB
So the entropy does indeed depend on h even in the
lassi
al limit. The entropy is related to the logarithm
of the number of possible
ombinations for the state of the system. Re
all that the
lassi
al energy of an
os
illator is kB T , and this
orroborates our expression for S . Sin
e the os
illator is truly a quantum system
at heart, the number of possible states should involve h, while the total energy may not.
3
Statisti
al Me
hani
s
Fall 1997 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
1.1
1.2
(6 pts.) Give the probability that the ex
ited state will be o
upied.
Solution: You need to know that the probability of a given state being o
upied is the Boltzmann fa
tor
for that state diveded by the partition fun
tion:
e Ei =kB T
P (Ei ) =
Z
In this system, the ex
ited state is n-fold degenerate, so the answer is that
ne E1=kB T 1
P (E1 ) = =
Z 1 + n eE1 =kB T
1
The form of this expression tells us that as the energy of the ex
ited state in
reases, the system will more
likely be found in the ground state, as a transition be
omes more
ostly. However, as the ex
ited state
be
omes more degenerate, the extra possibilities de
rease the
ost of transition.
1.3
1
1.4
(12 pts.) Give the entropy of the system. Cal
ulate or state the values as T ! 0 and T ! 1. Explain why
these results are reasonable.
Solution: You need to know either F = U T S or S = F T . We already have expressions for U and F ,
so we have
U F E1 =T
S= = + kB log(1 + ne E1=kB T )
T 1 + n1 eE1 =kB T
As T ! 0, the rst term goes like e 1=T =T to zero The se
ond term also goes to log 1 = 0, be
ause the
exponential is negative. As the temperature de
reases, the entire system will move into the ground state,
and will be
ompletely ordered, so the entropy should be zero. As T ! 1, the rst term goes to zero like
1=T , and the se
ond term goes to kB log(1 + n). Note that this answer diers from the one provided by the
question's author! Another expression for entropy is S = kB log where is the number of possible states.
As the temperature in
reases, the dieren
e between the ground and ex
ited states will be
ome small in
omparison. So the number of possible states is n + 1, and our expression is
orre
t.
2.1
(8 pts.) Give an estimate of the temperature T , below whi
h signi
ant deviations from
lassi
al behavior
o
ur.
Solution: Classi
ally, we would
hara
terize the energy of the os
illator as kB T . So we expe
t deviations
from
lassi
al behavior when kB T h! is not true.
2.2
Now we
an get
1
F = kB T log Z = h ! + kB T log(1 e h !=kB T )
2
Finally we use the derivative to get the entropy
F h!=T
S= = kB log(1 e h !=kB T ) + h !=kB T
T e 1
2
2.3
(9 pts.) Take the
lassi
al limit for the entropy and give a physi
al explanation for its value.
Solution: In the
ase the
lassi
al limit means kB T h!. So we expand the exponential e h !=kB T !
1 khB!T and hen
e
h! k T
S ! kB log(1 1 + ) + kB ! kB log B
kB T h!
We
an ingnore the extra kB be
ause the rst term will be mu
h greater in the
lassi
al limit. We said
earlier that the
lassi
al energy is kB T , so the expression khB!T is the index of the average o
upied energy
level. This ts with our previous knowldege that the entropy is proportional to the logarithm of the number
of possible states.
3
Statisti
al Me
hani
s
Fall 1999 Qualifying Exam
Solutions maintained by Graeme Lufkin
gwlu.washington.edu
(30 pts.) Suppose that ions with spin s = 1=2, embedded in
ertain weird media, undergo a transformation
from a paramagneti
to a ferromagneti
state. A phenomenologi
al temperature dependen
e for the molar
heat
apa
ity asso
iated with these spins is given by
T n n
T
C (T ) = C0
1
T2 T2
for T2 T T1. The transition takes pla
e between T1 and T2. A fully ferromagneti
state exists below
T1 . Above T2 , a fully disordered paramagneti
state exists. The nature of the weird medium determines the
parameters n, T1 , and T2 . However, C0 is fully determined by these parameters and fundamental
onstants.
Referen
es: Ferromagneti
and paramagneti
states are dened in many basi
texts, for example Halliday
and Resni
k.
1.1 Entropy
(7 pts.) What is the entropy per mole of the spins below T1?
Solution: You need to know what ferromagneti
means. The system is ferromagneti
below T1 . In a
ferromagneti
material, the spins are all lined up, even in the absen
e of an external magneti
eld. Sin
e
the ions are all lined up, there is perfe
t order in the system. The number of
ombinations that make up
this state is = 1, so the entropy, by S = kB log , is zero.
(7 pts.) What is the entropy per mole of the spins above T2?
Solution: You need to know what paramagneti
means. The spins in a paramagneti
material will line
up only in the presen
e of an external magneti
eld. If there is no applied eld, the spins will be randomly
oriented. In this
ase, we know that spin is 1=2, so there are two possibilities for ea
h ion. So for N ions,
the entropy is S = kB log 2N . We are looking for the entropy per mole, and we know that N kB = R, so
S = R log 2.
(8 pts.) Using the phenomenologi
al molar heat
apa
ity given above,
al
ulate the entropy per mole between
T1 and T2 .
Solution: You need to know an expression for the heat
apa
ity in terms of the entropy: Cv = T
T . We
S
1
1.4
(8 pts.) Find an expression for C0 in terms of n, T1 , and T2 using the results of the previous questions.
Solution: You need to have gotten the previous questions. We used one end point to get the expression
for Cv in the last question. Now we use the other end point to get an expression for C0 . We know that
S (T2 ) = R log 2, so we do a bun
h of algebra to get
nR log 2
C0 =
1 ( TT21 )n (1 n log TT12 )
2 Stephan-Boltzmann Law
(30 pts.)
(6 pts.) The bulb of an ordinary 100 Watt in
andes
ant lamp, 3
m radius, is bla
kened to absorb all
radiation emitted by its lament. If the bulb is surrounded by va
uum, what is its temperature? The
Stephan-Boltzmann
onstant is 5:67 10 8 in MKS units.
Solution: You need to know the Stephan-Boltzmann Law, J = B T . In this equation, J is the energy
4
ux density, so we need to multiply it by an area to get the units of power that we are given. The area of
interest is the surfa
e area of the bulb, so
P = 4r2 J = 4r2 B T 4
We
an invert this equation, and plug in the numbers to get
100W
1=4
T = = 628K
4(0:03m2 )5:67 10 8
(8 pts.) Assume that the Sun radiates like a bla
k body at a surfa
e temperature of Ts = 6000 K. The planets
an be modeled as smaller spheres, at varying distan
es, in thermal equilibrium with the Sun's radiation.
For example, the Earth-Sun distan
e is res = 1:50 108 km, while the Venus-Sun distan
e is rvs = 1:08 108
km.
Derive an expression for the temperature of a planet surfa
e Tp . Su
h an expression must involve in some
way the planetary distan
e from the sun.
Referen
es: This question is Problem 4.5 in Thermal Physi
s, Kittel and Kroemer.
Solution: You need to know that a bla
k-body in equilibrium re-radiates all the energy it absorbs. First,
let's gure out how mu
h power the Sun is radiating, doing the same
al
ulation as the previous problem
P = 4Rs2 B Ts4 . Now, the fra
tion of that power that a
tually hits a planet has a 1=4rps
2
be
ause of the
separation, and has a Rp be
ause of the
ross-se
tional area of the planet. So the energy absorbed by the
2
planet is
Rp2 Rs2
P = 2 B Ts4
rps
In equilibrium, the bla
k body (planet) will re-radiate all of this energy, so we
an equate the in
oming
power with the outgoing power
Rp2 Rs2
2 B Ts4 = 4Rp2 B Tp4
rps
whi
h we
an solve to get
Rs2 4
Tp4 = Ts
4rps
2
Note that this answer involves the separation distan
e of the planet and the Sun, but not the size of the
planet itself.
2
2.3 Radius of the Sun
(8 pts.) From the fa
t that the Sun appears from the Earth to have an angular diameter of = 0:57 degrees,
nd the Earth's temperature, Te . This numeri
al answer for the Earth's temperature happens to be quite
good.
Solution: You need to know the
ir
umferen
e of a
ir
le. The angular size of the Sun is given so that
we
an obtain the radius of the Sun. Not a staggeringly diÆ
ult question, but here goes. Draw a sli
e of a
ir
le of radius res and opening angle . Then the ar
length of the sli
e is 2RS , whi
h we
an obtain with
some simple geometry, Rs = 360
res = 0:75 106 km. The rest is plugging numbers into the result of the
previous question, to get Te = 300 K.
2.4 Algebra
(8 pts.) Show a simple relationship between the temperature of another planet, Tp , and the Earth's temper-
ature, Te .
Solution: If you got the expression for the temperature of a planet, this is just algebra.
2
res
Tp4 = Te4
rps
2
3 Venus
(40 pts.) Among the planets, Venus presents an interesting
hallenge for the simple model suggested in the
previous problem. Some data for Venus and other useful
onstants are: Mv = 0:82Me and Rv = 0:95Re.
Also mH gearth =kB = 1:19 10 3 K/meter where mH is the mass of the Hydrogen atom, kB is the Boltzmann
onstant, and gearth is the gravitational a
eleration on Earth.
If the formula derived in the previous problem is used to estimate the temperature for Venus, the result
is 352 K. This
al
ulated value is too low for the Venusian surfa
e temperature T (0), but may be taken
as a \
loud temperature" T (h), for a
loud of noxious gases at height h = 50 km from the surfa
e. The
atmosphere on Venus is 96% CO2 , and there is a pronoun
ed \greenhouse ee
t." The pressure in the
\
loud", P (h), is about the same as Earth's atmospheri
pressure (one Earth atmosphere).
In fa
t, both temperature and pressure have now been measured at the planetary surfa
e. Given that
T (0) has been measured to be 500Æ C, you are asked to predi
t the surfa
e pressure P (0). Please explain
what you're doing. The sequen
e of questions below, whi
h lead to a solution, are supposed to help.
Note: The model suggested here is a stationary CO2 gas on Venus, nowhere near isothermal, with a
measured pressure at altitude h, a measured temperature on the surfa
e, and a
al
ulated (given above)
temperature at altitude h. The task is to
al
ulate the surfa
e pressure. As it happens, P (0) has also been
measured, and the model is not hopeless. Think rst about the ne
essary
onditions for hydrostati
, but not
isothermal, equilibrium.
(10 pts.) Explain
arefully the
onditions for hydrostati
equilibrium in a gravitational eld.
Solution: You have to know what hydrostati
equilibrium is. In hydrostati
equilibrium, the pressure of a
system
ountera
ts the for
e of gravity. Hen
e, the system as a whole does not move, hen
e the \stati
" part
of the name. We
an write this
ondition as an equation whi
h will be useful. Look at a sli
e of the system,
of density ,
ross-se
tional area A and height dz . The gravitational for
e on this sli
e is mg = Agdz .
Pressure is for
e per area, so the pressure dierential dP times A must oppose the gravitational for
e. We
an move the dierential around to get
dP
= g
dz
The other quantity that we will need is dT =dz . We
an get this by remembering a Maxwell identity,
T =P = V =Cp .
dT T dP V
= = ( g)
dz P dz Cp
3
Note that in this system, all these quatities are
onstants. So T (z ) is linear in z , and we
an write it as
T (z ) = Bz + T (0)where B = gV =Cp .
(20 pts.) Find the relationship between pressure, density, and temperature as a fun
tion of height, and use
it to nd an expression for the pressure ratio P (h)=P (0) as a fun
tion of the temperatures T (0) and T (h).
Try to use algebrai
expressions { wait to plug in the numbers until the next part.
Solution: You need to have obtained the relations in the previous question, and do some algebra and
integration. First, we make the assumption that the atmosphere is an ideal gas. Remember that the density
is the mass times the number density. Let m be the mass of a CO2 mole
ule in the atmosphere, and then
P = m
kB T . Solve this for , and use it in the dP=dz equation to get
1 dP g
=
P dz kB T (z )
Using the equation for T (z ) we obtained in the previous question, we
an do this integral, to get
P (h) mg T (h)
log = log
P (0) kB B T (0)
or mg=kB B
P (h) T (h)
=
P (0) T (0)
3.3 Arithmeti
(10 pts.) With your result of the previous question, together with the given information,
al
ulate a numeri
al
value, in Earth atmospheres, for the Venusian surfa
e pressure P (0).
Solution: You have to have gotten the previous part, and know that CO2 is 44 times more massive than
hydrogen. We are given many
onstants, whi
h we
an play with until we get what we want. The temperature
gradient B
an be obtained by mat
hing the boundary
onditions, B = (T (h) T (0))=h. The gravitational
a
eleration of Venus
an be obtained by the mass and radius relations to Earth gravity, gv = (00::95)82
2 ge . So
we
an write the power in the pressure-temperature equation as
mCO2 gv mCO2 0:82 mH ge h
=
kB B mH (0:95)2 kB T (h) T (0)
All these quantities are given, ex
ept for the mass ratio, whi
h you just have to know. So, with some
areful
al
ulating, remembering to use meters, we
an obtain P (0) = 85 Earth atmospheres.