SECTION 1

LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 30 Minutes
50 Questions

Part A
DIRECTIONS

In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a
third voice will ask a question about what was said. The question will be spoken just one time. After you
hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers and decide which one
would be the best answer to the question you have heard, then, mark your correct answer.

Audio Track 50 for questions 1-30

1. (A) Car repairs should be done at a garage.

(B) The price was not too high.
(C) The garage took advantage of the woman.
(D) The car had serious problem.
2. (A) Have a party.
(B) Attend the International Students` Association.
(C) Go to work.
(D) Get some rest.
3. (A) Leave immediately.
(B) Watch the game on TV.
(C) Start to play.
(D) Eat a sandwich.
4. (A) He went to see the foreign student advisor.
(B) He went to Washington.
(C) He wrote to the Passport Office.
(D) He reported it to the Passport Office.
5. (A) It is the policy of the bank.
(B) The man was not helpful at all.
(C) Her account at the bank is in order.
(D) The check should be cashed.
6. (A) Ask Dr. Tyler to clarify the assignment.
(B) Show a preliminary version to Dr. Tyler.
(C) Let her see the first draft before Dr. Tyler sees it.
(D) Talk to some of the other students in Dr. Tyler`s class.
7. (A) Dr. Clark is a good teacher.
(B) Statistics is a boring class.
(C) Two semesters of statistics are required.
(D) The students do not like Dr. Clark.
8. (A) He cannot do them.
(B) They are finished.
 (C) It will be a difficult job.
(D) They will be ready Saturday afternoon.
9. (A) A concert.
(B) An art museum.
(C) A flower shop.
(D) A restaurant.
10. (A) He is at lunch.
(B) He is at the coffee.
(C) He is in class.
(D) He is at home.
11. (A) Take the ten o`clock bus.
(B) Come back in five minutes.
(C) Go to New York another day.
(D) Call the airport.
12. (A) A teacher
(B) A textbook
(C) An assignment
(D) A movie
13. (A) Make corrections on the original
(B) Make copies
(C) Deliver the copies to Mr. Brown
(D) Find the original
14. (A) She was Sally Harrison`s cousin.
(B) She was Sally Harrison`s sister.
(C) She was Sally Harrison`s friend.
(D) She was Sally Harrison.
15. (A) The desk drawer won`t open.
(B) The pen is out of ink.
(C) She cannot find her pen.
(D) She is angry with the man.
16. (A) John is usually late.
(B) John will be there at eight-thirty.
(C) John will not show up.
(D) John is usually on time.
17. (A) She does not agree with the man.
(B) She needs a larger home.
(C) She regrets the cost of their vacation.
(D) She thinks that houses are very expensive.
18. (A) He did not make a presentation.
(B) He got confused during the presentation.
(C) He should have spoken more loudly.
(D) He did a very complete job.
19. (A) He has decided not to mail the invitations.
(B) He wants to get Janet`s opinion.
 (C) He is waiting for Janet to answer the phone.
(D) He does not want to invite Janet.
20. (A) The baby is asleep.
(B) The baby is very active.
(C) The baby is not staying with the woman.
(D) The baby is just about to start walking.
21. (A) The results of the tests are not available.
(B) The experiment had unexpected results.
(C) He has not completed the experiment yet.
(D) It is taking a lot of time to do the experiment.
22. (A) She does not put much effort in her studies.
(B) She is very likable.
(C) She prefers talking to the woman.
(D) She has a telephone.
23. (A) See the doctor.
(B) Get another job.
(C) Go to the counter.
(D) Buy some medicine.
24. (A) She will try her best.
(B) She has to save her money.
(C) She is still undecided.
(D) She needs an application.
25. (A) She is glad to meet Robert.
(B) She is surprised to hear from Robert.
(C) She does not enjoy talking with Robert.
(D) She was ready to call Robert.
26. (A) The man must stop working.
(B) There is a little more time.
(C) The test is important.
(D) It is time for the test.
27. (A) The woman`s roommate took a different class.
(B) The book is very expensive.
(C) The textbook may have been changed.
(D) The course is not offered this semester.
28. (A) Sally may get a bike for Christmas.
(B) Sally already has a bike like that one.
(C) Sally likes riding a bike.
(D) Sally may prefer a different gift.
29. (A) He does not want to give Carol a ride.
(B) He does not have a car.
(C) He cannot hear well.
(D) He does not know Carol.
30. (A) Take a break.
(B) Go to work.
 (C) Do the other problems.
(D) Keep trying.

Part B
DIRECTIONS

In Part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will be asked some
questions. The conversations and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out
for you, so you will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test page and decide which one
would be the best answer to thequestion you have heard.

Audio track 51 hanya nomor 31-33

31. (A) A lecture in a science class.

(B) Dr. Morgan`s teaching style.
(C) Science fiction movies.
(D) A quiz in their class.
32. (A) She is preparing for a test.
(B) She was late to class.
(C) She missed class last week.
(D) She did not understand the lecture.
33. (A) The gas in outer space is very dense.
(B) Space has very few atoms.
(C) No sound waves are in space.
(D) No on e is there to hear the sounds.

Audio Track 51 for questions 35-38 untuk dialognya

Audio rekaman ulang untuk nomor 34-38 untuk questionnya

34. (A) No, he doesn’t

(B) He is upset
(C) He is not sure
(D) Yes, he does
35. (A) Travel in New England.
(B) Hudson River paintings.
(C) A field trip to an art gallery.
(D) A report that the man wrote.
36. (A) He thought it was a modern art exhibit.
(B) He did not think the woman would go.
(C) He does not like landcsapes.
(D) He does not like Dr. Brown`s class.
37. (A) Western landscapes.
(B) The modern art room.
(C) Thomas Cole paintings.
(D) New England portraits.
38. (A) Write her report.
(B) Travel to the American West.
(C) Take an art class.
(D) Go back to the gallery.
 Part C
DIRECTIONS

In Part C, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will beasked some questions. The talks and
questions will be spoken justone time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have,to listen
carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.

When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test page and decide which one
would be the best answer to the question you have heard.

39. (A) Private industry

(B) Advances in medicine
(C) Space missions
(D) Technological developments
40. (A) Contact lenses
(B) Cordless tools
(C) Food packaging
(D) Ultrasound
41. (A) To monitor the condition of astronauts in spacecraft
(B) To evaluate candidates who wanted to join the space program
(C) To check the health of astronauts when they returned from space
(D) To test spacecraft and equipment for imperfections
42. (A) Archaelogists and astronauts were compared
(B) Astronauts made photographs of the Earth later used by archaelogists
(C) Archaeologies have used advances in medical technology developed for astronauts.
(D) Space missions and underwater missions are very similar
43. (A) Transportation on the Pacific Coast
(B) History of California
(C) Orientation to San Fransisco
(D) Specifications of the Golden Gate Bridge
44. (A) Golden Gate
(B) San Fransisco de Asis Mission
(C) Military Post Seventy-six
(D) Yerba Buena
45. (A) Gold was discovered
(B) The Transcontinental Railroad was completed
(C) The Golden Gate Bridge was constructed
(D) Telegraph communications were established with the East.
46. (A) Eighteen miles
(B) 938 feet
(C) One mile
(D) Between five and six miles
47. (A) The term “essay”
(B) Prose writing
(C) Personal viewpoint
 (D) Brainstorming
48. (A) The work of Alexander Pope
(B) The difference between prose and poetry
(C) The general characteristics of essays
(D) The reason that the phrase “personal essay” is redundant
49. (A) It is usually short.
(B) It can be either prose or poetry.
(C) It expresse a personal point of view.
(D) It discusses one topic.
50. (A) They will prepare for a quiz.
(B) They will write their first essay.
(C) They will read works by Pope.
(D) They will review their notes.
 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time - 25 minutes
(Including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes.

Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words
or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the
sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

1. In simple animals, ________ reflex movement or involuntary response to stimuli.

A. Behavior mostly
B. Most is behavior
C. Most behavior is
D. The most behavior
2. Although the weather in Martha` Vineyard isn`t _______ to have a year-round tourist session, it
has become a favorite summer resort.
A. Goodly enough
B. Good enough
C. Good as enough
D. Enough good
3. According to the wave theory, _____ population of the Americas may have been the result of a
number of separate migrations.
A. The
B. Their
C. That
D. Whose
4. It is presumed that rules governing the sharing of food influenced _______ that the earliest
cultures evolved.
A. That the way
B. Is the way
C. The way
D. Which way
5. Calculus, ____ elegant and economical symbolic system, can reduce complex problems to
simple terms.
A. It is an
B. That an
C. An
D. Is an
6. Canada does not require that U.S citizens obtain passports to enter the country, and _____
A. Mexico does neither
B. Mexico doesn`t either
C. Neither Mexico does
 D. Either does Mexico
7. The post _______ just beginning to be recognized as an important influence at the time of his
death.
A. Being Walt Whitman
B. Who was Walt Whitman
C. Walt Whitman
D. Walt Whitman was
8. ____ the formation of the sun, the planets, and other stars began with the condesation of an
insterstellar cloud.
A. It accepted that
B. Accepted that
C. It is accepted that
D. That is accepted
9. As a general rule, the standard of living ____ by the average output of each person in society.
A. Is fixed
B. Fixed
C. Has fixed
D. Fixes
10. The Consumer Price Index lists _____
A. How much costs every car
B. How much does every car cost
C. How much every car costs
D. How much are every car cost
11. The Ford Theater where Lincoln was shot _____
A. Must restore
B. Must be restoring
C. Must have been restored
D. Must restored
12. Fast-food restaurants have become popular because many working people want ____
A. To eat quickly and cheaply
B. Eating quickly and cheaply
C. Eat quickly and cheaply
D. The eat quickly and cheaply
13. After seeing the movie Centennial ____
A. The book was read by many people
B. The book made many people want to read it
C. Many people wanted to read the book
D. The reading of the book interested many people
14. _____, Carl Sandburg is also well-known for his multivolume biography of Lincoln.
A. An eminent American poet
B. He is an eminent American poet
C. An eminent American poet who is
D. Despite an eminent American poet
15. The examiner made us ______ our identification in order to be admitted to the test center.
 A. Showing
B. Show
C. Showed
D. To show

Written Expression

Directions: In questions 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, and D. Identify the one underlined word or phrase
that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.

Example: “Platinum is a rare and value metal, white in color, and easy to work”
A B C D

Sample Answer
The sentence should read, “Platinum is a valuable and rare metal, white in color, and easy to work
Therefore, you should choose “B”.

Now begin work on the questions.

16. A swarm of locusts is responsible the consumption of enough plant material to feed a million
A B C
and a half people.
D

17. Oyster farming has been practice in most parts of the world for many years.
A B C D
18. Those of us who smoke should have their lungs X-rayed regularly.
A B C D
19. After the team of geologists had drawn diagrams in their notebooks and wrote explanations
A B
of the formations which they had observed, they returned to their campsite to compare
C D
notes.
20. If Robert Kennedy would have lived a little longer, he probably would have won the election.
A B C D
21. It was Shirley Temple Black which represented her country in the United Nations and later
A B C D
became an ambassador.
22. The prices at chain stores are as reasonable, if not more reasonable, as those at discount
A B C D
stores.
23. It is extremely important for an engineer to know to use a computer.
 A B C D
24. Historically there has been only two major factions in the Republican Party – the liberals and
A B C D
the conservatives.
25. Whitman wrote Leaves of Grass as a tribute to the Civil War soldiers who had laid on the
A
battlefields and whom he had seen while serving as an army nurse.
B C D
26. One of the first and ultimately the most important purposeful of a reservoir was to control
A B C
flooding.
D
27. The Chinese were the first and large ethnic group to work on the construction of the
A B C D
transcontinental railroad system.
28. The range of plant life on a mountainside is a results of differences in temperature and
A B C
precipitation at varying altitudes.
D
29. Even a professional psychologist may have difficulty talking calm and logically about his own
A B C D
problems.
30. The more the relative humidity reading rises, the worst the heat affects us.
A B C D
31. Because correlations are not causes, statistical data which are extremely easy to misuse.
A B C D
32. Lectures for the week of March 22-26 will include the following : The Causes of the Civil War,
A B C
The Economy of the South, Battle Strategies, and The Assassinate Lincoln.
D
33. Despite of many attempts to introduce a universal language, notably Esperanto and Idiom
A B C
Neutral, the effort has met with very little success.
D
34. As every other nation, the United States used to define its unit of currency, the dollar, in
A B C D

terms of the gold standard.

35. It is necessary that one met with a judge before signing the final papers for a divorce.
A B C D
36. Until recently, women were forbidden by law from owning property.
A B C D
37. According to the graduate catalog, student housing is more cheaper than housing off
A B C D
 campus.

38. John Dewey thought thst children will learn better through participating in experiences
A B
rather than through listening to lectures.
C D
39. In England as early as the twelfth century, young boys enjoyed to play football.
A B C D
40. Some methods to prevent soil erosion are plowing parallel with the slopes of hills, to plant
A B C D
trees on unproductive land, and rotating crops.
 READING
COMPREHENSION
Time allowed for this section: 55 minutes.

Direction: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions
about it. For this section, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question.
Then, on your answer grid, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all the questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Read the following passage.

The best-known theory of galactic evolution is the one originated in the 1920s by Edwin P. Hubble.
According to this theory, a galaxy begins as a vast accumulation of (5) gases, chiefly hydrogen and
helium, rotating about a central point. Thanks to the mutual gravitational attraction of matter, this
"protogalaxy" slowly condenses into millions or, more often, billions of stars, (10) collected in a gigantic,
roughly spherical cloud.

Example 1

1. The word originated in line 1 is closest in meaning to

A. cultivated
B. begun
C. declared
D. proposed

Based on the reading passage originated in the first line has a meaning as “begun”, So, you should
answer “B”.

Questions 1 - 10 refer to the following reading passage

Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of
communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols and gestures may be found in
every known culture. The basic function of a signal is to interrupt upon the environment in such
a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes of telegraph circuit.

(6) Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is very great. Less adaptable to the
codification of words, sings also contain meaning in and of themselves. A top sign or a barber
pole conveys meaning quickly and conventionally. Symbols are more difficult to describe than
either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver's cultural
perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an

(11) auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate
certain cultural messages.
 Although signals, signs, symbols and gestures are very useful, they do have a major
disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly
adjacent to the receiver. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long

(16) distances and extended periods are based upon speech. Radio, television and the telephone
are only a few.

1. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Communication
B. Gestures
C. Signs and signals
D. Speech
2. Applauding was cited as an example of _____
A. a signal
B. a sign
C. a symbol
D. a gesture
3. According to the passage, what is signal?
A. A difficult form of communication
B. That interrupts the environment
C. That is used across long distance
D. Related to cultural perceptions
4. The underlined word 'interrupt' is closest in meaning to ?
A. inference
B. improve
C. vary
D. prohibit
5. The word 'it' in line 4 refers to –
A. function
B. way
C. environment
D. signal
6. The word 'potential' in line 6 could be best replaced by-
A. range
B. possibility
C. organization
D. advantage
7. The word 'intricate' in line 9 could be best replaced by-
A. complicated
B. inefficient
C. historical
D. way
8. What does the author say about speech?
A. It is only true for communication
B. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors
 C. It is the most advanced form of communication
D. It is necessary to occur
9. Why were the telephone, radio and TV invented?
A. Lack of understanding signs, symbols and gestures
B. For new form of entertainment
C. Signs, symbols and signals became obsolete
D. For communicating across long distances
10. It may be concluded from the passage that-
A. symbols are very easy to define and interpret
B. signs, signals, symbol and gestures are forms of communication
C. only some cultures have signals, signs and symbols
D. waving and handshaking are not related to culture

Questions 11 – 20

Canada is a democracy organized as a constitutional monarchy with a parliamentary system of

government modeled after that of Great Britain. The official head of state in Canada is Queen
Elizabeth of Britain, who is also Queen of Canada. The governor-general is

(5) the queen’s personal representative in Canada and the official head of the Canadian
parliament, although with very limited powers.

The federal parliament in Canada consists of the House of Commons and the Senate. The
actual head of government is the prime minister, who is responsible for choosing a cabinet. The
cabinet consists of a group of ministers of varied expertise who serve with the support

(10) of the House of Commons. They are responsible for most legislation, and have the sole power
to prepare and introduce bills that provide for the expenditure of public funds or taxation. The
system is referred to as responsible government, which means that cabinet members sit in the
parliament and are directly responsible to it, holding power only as long as a majority of the
House of Commons shows confidence by voting with them. If a cabinet is

(15) defeated in the House of Commons on a motion of censure or a vote of no confidence, the
cabinet must either resign, in which case the governor-general will ask the leader of the
opposition to form a new cabinet, or a new election may be called.

The Canadian Senate has 104 members, appointed by the governor-general on the advice of
the prime minister. Their actual function is advisory, although they may make minor changes

(20) in bills and no bill may become a law without being passed by the Senate. Senators hold office
until age seventy-five unless they are absent from two consecutive sessions of parliament. The
real power, however, resides in the House of Commons, the members of which are elected
directly by the voters. The seats are allocated on the basis of population, and there are about
300 constituencies. By custom, almost all members of the cabinet must

(25) be members of the House of Commons or, if not already members, must win seats within a
reasonable time. General elections must be held at the end of every five years, but they may
 be conducted whenever issues require it, and most parliaments are dissolved before the end of
the five-year term. (IV) When a government loses its majority support in a general election, a
change of government occurs.

(30) Although major and minor political parties were not created by law, they are recognized by law
in Canada. The party that wins the largest number of seats in a general election forms the
government, and its leader becomes the prime minister. The second largest party becomes the
official opposition, and its leader is recognized as the leader of the opposition. In this way, the
people are assured of an effective alternative government should they become displeased with
the one in power.

11. What does this passage mainly discuss?

A. Political parties in Canada
B. The Canadian election process
C. The Canadian system of government
D. The powers of parliament in Canada
12. When does a change of government occur in Canada?
A. When the governor-general decides to appoint a new government
B. When the voters do not return majority support for the government in a general election
C. When the prime minister advises the governor-general to appoint a new government
D. When the House of Commons votes for a new government
13. The word 'dissolved' in paragraph three could be replaced by
A. Approved
B. Evaluated
C. Reorganized
D. dismissed
14. The word 'varied' in paragraph two is closest in meanings to
A. Little
B. Different
C. Good
D. steady
15. The word 'it' in paragraph two refers to
A. Majority
B. Parliament
C. Cabinet
D. system
16. Where in the passage does the author indicate whose responsibility it is to choose the cabinet
in Canada?
A. Lines 3-6
B. Lines 7-10
C. Lines 11-13
D. Lines 27-29
17. What does the author mean by the statement in Paragraph one: ‘Canada is a … constitutional
monarchy with a parliamentary system of government modeled after that of Great Britain’?
 A. Whereas Canada has a constitutional form of government, Great Britain has a
parlimentary system
B. Canada and Great Britain both have model systems of government
C. Great Britain and Canada have very similar systems of government
D. Canada's parliament has adopted Great Britain's constitution
18. What is the role of political parties in Canada?
A. Until they become powerful, they are not legally recognized
B. Although they serve unofficial functions, they are not very important
C. If they win a majority of seats, their leader becomes prime minister
D. Because they are not elected, they offer the government opposingviews
19. The governor-general is described as all of the following EXCEPT
A. the official head of parliament
B. the head of government
C. the queen's representative in Canada
D. the official who appoints the Senate
20. It can be inferred from the passage that the voters in Canada
A. choose the prime minister and the cabinet
B. do not usually vote in general elections
C. allow their representatives to vote on their behalf
D. determine when a change of government should occur

Questions 21 – 30

Application for admission to the graduate school at this university must be made on forms
provided by the director of admissions. an applicant whose undergraduate work was done at
another institution should request that two copies of undergraduate transcripts and degrees be
sent directly to the dean of the graduate school. both the application and the transcripts

(5) must be on file at least one month prior to the registration date, and must be accompanied by a
nonrefundable ten-dollar check or money order to cover the cost of processing the application.
An undergraduate student of this university who has senior status and is within ten credits
hours of completing all requirements for graduation may register for graduate work with the
recommendation of the chairperson of the department and the approval of the dean of the
graduate school.

(11) Students who have already bean admitted to the graduate school but were not enrolled during
the previous semester should reapply for admission using a special short form available in the
office of the graduate school. it is not necessary for student who have previously been denied
admission to resubmit transcripts. however, new application form must accompany all requests
for reconsideration. Applications should be submitted at least

(15) eight weeks in advance of the session in which the student wishes to enroll. Students whose
applications are received after the deadline may be considered for admission as non-degree
students, and may enroll for six credit hours. Non-degree status must be changed prior to the
completion of the first semester of study however.
 An undergraduate student of this university who has senior status and is within ten credit hours
of completing all requirements for graduation may register for graduate work with the
recommendation of the chairperson of the department and the approval of the Dean of the
Graduate School.

21. what is the author’s main point?

A. how to register for graduate coursework
B. how to obtain senior status
C. how to apply to the graduate school
D. how to make application for graduation
22. where would this passage most probably be found?
A. In a university catalog
B. In a travel folder
C. In a newspaper
D. In a textbook
23. According to this passage, where would a student secure application forms for admission to
the university?
A. From the chairperson of the department
B. From the Dean of the Graduate School
C. From the institution where the undergraduate work was done
D. From the Director of Admissions
24. Which of the following documents must be on file thirty days before the registration date?
A. Two copies of recommendations from former professors
B. A written approval of the Dean of the Graduate School
C. One set of transcripts and an Engish proficiency score
D. Two copies of undergraduate courses and grades, an application form, and an
application fee
25. The author uses the word “nonrefundable” in line 6 refer to
A. A process
B. An application
C. A check
D. A date
26. The phrase “in advance of” in line 15 is closest in meaning to
A. Into
B. On either side of
C. After the end of
D. Prior to
27. The author makes all of the following observations about non-degree students, EXCEPT
A. They may be admitted after the deadline
B. They may enroll for six credit hours
C. They must change their status during the first semester
D. They need not submit transcripts
28. The word “status” in line 17 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Information
 B. Classification
C. Payment
D. agreement
29. Students who have already been admitted to the Graduate School
A. Never need to apply for readmission
B. Must reapply if they have not been registered at the university during the previous
semester
C. Must reapply every semester
D. Must reapply when they are within ten credit hours of graduation
30. What special rule applies to undergraduate students?
A. They may not register for graduate work
B. They must pass an examination in order to register for graduate work
C. They may receive special permission to register for graduate work
D. They may register for graduate work at any time

Questions 31 – 39

There are many theories about the beginning of drama in ancient Greece. The one most widely
accepted today is based on the assumption that drama evolved from ritual. The argument for
this view goes as follows. In the beginning, human beings viewed the natural forces of the
world, even the seasonal change, as unpredictable and they sought, through

(5) various means, to control the unknown and feared powers. Those measures which appeared to
bring the desired results were then retained and repeated until they hardened into fixed rituals.
Eventually stories arose which explained or veiled the mysteries of the rites. As time passed
some rituals were abandoned, but the stories, later called myths, persisted and provided
material for art and drama.

(10) Those who believe that drama evolved out of ritual also argue that those rites contained the
seed of theater because music, dance, masks and costumes were almost always used.
Furthermore, a suitable site had to be provided for performances, and when the entire
community did not participate, a clear division was usually made between the “acting area” and
the “auditorium”. In addition, there were performers, and since considerable

(15) importance was attached to avoiding mistakes in the enactment of rites, religious leaders
usually assumed that task. Wearing masks and costumes, they often impersonated other
people, animals, or supernatural beings, and mimed the desired effect – success in hunt or
battle, the coming rain, the revival of the Sun – as an actor might. Eventually such dramatic
representations were separated from religious activities.

(20) Another theory traces the theater`s origin from the human interest in storytelling. According to
this view, tales (about the hunt, war or other feats) are gradually elaborated, at first through the
use of impersonation, action and dialogue by a narrator and then through the assumption of
each of the roles by a different person. A closely related theory traces theater to those dances
that are primarily rythmical and gymnastic or that are imitations of animal movements and
sounds.
31. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The origins of theater
B. The role of ritual in modern dance
C. The importance of storytelling
D. The variety of early religious activities
32. The word “they” in line 4 refers to
A. Seasonal changes
B. Natural forces
C. Theories
D. Human beings
33. What aspect of drama does the author discuss in the first paragraph?
A. The reason drama is often unpredictable
B. The seasons in which dramas were performed
C. The connection between myths and dramatic plots
D. The importance of costumes in early drama
34. Which of the following is not mentioned as a common element of theater and ritual?
A. Dance
B. Costumes
C. Music
D. Magic
35. The word “considerable” in line 14 is closest in meaning to
A. Thoughtful
B. Substantial
C. Relational
D. Ceremonial
36. The word “enactment” in line 15 is closest in meaning to
A. Establishment
B. Performance
C. Authorization
D. Season

37. The word “they” in line 16 refers to

A. Mistakes
 B. Costumes
C. Animals
D. performers
38. According to the passage, what is the main difference between ritual and drama?
A. Ritual uses music whereas drama does not
B. Ritual is shorter than drama
C. Ritual requires fewer performers than drama
D. Ritual has a religious purpose and drama does not
39. The passage supports which of the following statements?
A. No one really knows how the theater began
B. Myths are no longer represented dramatically
C. Storytelling is an important part of dance
D. Dramatic activities require the use of costumes

Question 40 – 50

Staggering tasks confronted the people of the United States, North and South, when the Civil
War ended. About a million and a half soldiers from both sides had to be demobilized,
readjusted to civilian life, and reabsorbed by the devastated economy. Civil go vernment also
had to be put back on a peacetime basis and interference from the military had to be stopped.

(6) The desperate plight of the South has eclipsed the fact that reconstruction had to be
undertaken also in the North, though less spectacularly. Industries had to adjust to peacetime
conditions; factories had to be retooled for civilian needs.

Financial problems loomed large in both the North and the South. The national debt had shot
up from a modest $65 million in 1861, the year the war started, to nearly $3 billion in 1865, the
year the war ended. This was a colossal sum for those days but one that a prudent government
could pay. At the same time, war taxes had to be reduced to less burdensome levels.

(14) Physical devastation caused by invading armies, chiefly in the South and border states, had to
be repaired. This herculean task was ultimately completed, but with discouraging slowness.

Other important questions needed answering. What would be the future of the four million
Black people who were freed from slavery? On what basis were the Southern states to be
brought back into the Union?

(20) What of the Southern leaders, all of whom were liable to charges of treason? One of these
leaders, Jefferson Davis, president of the Southern Confederacy, was the subject of an
insulting popular Northern song, "Hang Jeff Davis from a Sour Apple Tree", and even children
sang it. Davis was temporarily chained in his prison cell during the early days of his two-year
imprisonment. But he and the other Southern leaders were finally released, partly because it
 was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a Southern Confederate state, would convict them. All the
leaders were finally pardoned by President Johnson in 1868 in an effort to help reconstruction
efforts proceed with as little bitterness as possible.

40. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?

A. There is a very slow response from the government

B. an unexpected attack from the military

C. The government is being responsible with the current situation

D. The city is attack

41. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Wartime expenditures
B. Problem facing the United States after the war
C. Methods of repairing the damage caused by the war
D. The results of government efforts to revive the economy
42. The word “staggering” in line 1 closest in meaning to
A. Specialized
B. Confusing
C. Various
D. Overwhelming
43. The word “devastated” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. Developing
B. Ruined
C. Complicated
D. fragile
44. According to the passage, which of the following statements about the damage in the South is
correct?
A. It was worse than in the North
B. The cost was less than expected
C. It was entered in the border states
D. It was remedied rather quickly

45. The passage refers to all of the following as necessary steps following the Civic War EXCEPT
A. Helping soldiers readjust
B. Restructuring industry
 C. Returning government to normal
D. Increasing taxes
46. The word “task” in line 15 refers to
A. Raising the tax level
B. Sensible financial choices
C. Wise decisions about farmer slaves
D. Reconstruction of damaged areas
47. Why does the author mention a popular song in lines 22-23?
A. To give an example of a Northern attitude towards the South
B. To illustrate the Northern love of music
C. To emphasize the cultural differences between the North and the South
D. To compare the Northern and Southern presidents
48. The word “them” in line 26 refers to
A. Charges
B. Leaders
C. Days
D. Irons
49. Which of the following can inferred from the phrase “... it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a
Southern Confederate state, would convict them”? lines 25-26
A. Virginians felt betrayed by Jefferson Davis
B. A popular song insulted Virginia
C. Virginians were loyal to their leaders
D. All of the Virginia military leaders had been put in chains
50. It can be inferred from passage that President Johnson pardoned the Southern leaders in order
to
A. Raise money for the North
B. Repair the physical damage in the South
C. Prevent Northern leaders from punishing more Southerners
D. Help the nation recover from the war

Answer key for listening comprehension

1. B
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. B
20. B
21. B
22. A
23. D
24. A
25. D
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. C
33. B
34. D
35. C
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. D
42. B
43. C
44. D
45. A
46. C
47. A
48. C
49. B
50. B
51.
Answer Key Structure

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. D
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. B
29. B
30. B
31. B
32. D
33. A
34. A
35. A
36. D
37. C
38. A
39. D
40. C
Answer Key Reading Comprehension

1) C
2) D
3) C
4) A
5) B
6) B
7) C
8) D
9) B
10) A
11) C
12) B
13) D
14) B
15) B
16) B
17) C
18) C
19) B
20) D
21) A
22) A
23) D
24) D
25) C
26) D
27) D
28) B
29) B
30) C
31) A
32) D
33) C
34) D
35) B
36) B
37) D
38) D
39) A
40) B
41) B
42) D
43) B
44) A
45) D
46) D
47) A
48) B
49) C
50) D