Section 1

LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time – approximately 35 minutes
(includes reading the directions for each part)

In this part of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section. Answer
all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do not
take notes or write in your test book at anytime. Do not turn the pages until you are told to
do so.
Part A
Directions: In part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After you hear
a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Listen to an example.
On the recording, you hear:
(man) : What are you doing there?
(woman) : Nothing. I just wonder if there is any trout in here.
(man) : What does the woman mean?

In your test book, you read:

(A) She doesn’t expect that there is any pickerel.
(B) She tells the man to catch the fish.
(C) She is a wonder woman.
(D) She wants to know the truth.

Sample Answer
B C D

You learn from the conversation that the man wanted to know what the woman doing is.
The woman stated that she surprises about the trout or pickerel. Therefore, the best
answer is (A) She doesn’t expect that there is any pickerel.

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 1

Now begin work on the questions

1. (A) Carla does not live very far away.

(B) What Carla said was unjust.
(C) He does not fear what anyone says.
(D) Carla is fairly rude to others.
2. (A) She thinks it’s an improvement.
(B) The fir trees in it are better.
(C) It resembles the last one.
(D) It is the best the man has ever done.
3. (A) He graduated last in his class.
(B) He is the last person in his family to graduate.
(C) He doesn’t believe he can improve gradually.
(D) He has finally finished his studies.
4. (A) He’s surprised there were five dresses.
(B) It was an unexpectedly inexpensive dress.
(C) He would like to know what color dress it was
(D) The dress was not cheap.
5. (A) Leave the car somewhere else.
(B) Ignore the parking tickets.
(C) Add more money to the meter.
(D) Pay the parking attendant.
6. (A) He does not like to hold too many books at one time.
(B) There is no bookstore in his neighborhood.
(C) It’s not possible to obtain the book yet.
(D) He needs to talk to someone at the bookstore.
7. (A) It was incomplete.
(B) It finished on time.
(C) It was about honor.
(D) It was too long.
8. (A) She needs to use the man’s notes.
(B) Yesterday’s physics class was quite boring.
(C) She took some very good notes in physics class.
(D) She would like to lend the man her notes.

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 2

9. (A) It’s her birthday today.
(B) She’s looking for a birthday gift.
(C) She wants to go shopping with her dad.
(D) She wants a new wallet for herself.
10.(A) He prefers cold water.
(B) His toes are too big.
(C) The pool felt quite refreshing.
(D) He didn’t go for a swim.
11.(A) She just left her sister’s house.
(B) Her sister is not at home.
(C) She’s not exactly sure where her sweater is.
(D) She doesn’t know where her sister lives.
12.(A) She doesn’t have time to complete additional reports.
(B) She cannot finish the reports that she is already working on.
(C) She is scared of having responsibility for the reports.
(D) It is not time for the accounting reports to be compiled.
13.(A) He’s had enough exercise.
(B) He’s going to give himself a reward for the hard work.
(C) He’s going to stay on for quite some time.
(D) He would like to give the woman an exercise machine as a gift.
14.(A) He cannot see the huge waves.
(B) The waves are not coming in.
(C) He would like the woman to repeat what she said.
(D) He agrees with the woman.
15.(A) The exam was postponed.
(B) The man should have studied harder.
(C) Night is the best time to study for exams.
(D) She is completely prepared for the exam.
16.(A) Students who want to change schedules should form a line.
(B) It is only possible to make four changes in the schedule.
(C) It is necessary to submit the form quickly.
(D) Problems occur when people don’t wait their turn.

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 3

17.(A) In a mine.
(B) In a jewelry store.
(C) In a clothing store
(D) In a bank.
18.(A) A visit to the woman’s family.
(B) The telephone bill.
(C) The cost of a new telephone.
(D) How far away the woman’s family lives.
19.(A) She hasn’t met her new boss yet.
(B) She has a good opinion of her boss.
(C) Her boos has asked her about her impressions of the company.
(D) Her boss has been putting a lot of pressure on her.
20.(A) The recital starts in three hours.
(B) He intends to recite three different poems.
(C) He received a citation on the third of the month.
(D) He thinks the performance begins at three.
21.(A) Choose a new dentist.
(B) Cure the pain himself.
(C) Make an appointment with his dentist.
(D) Ask his dentist about the right way to brush.
22.(A) It is almost five o’clock.
(B) The man doesn’t really need the stamps.
(C) It is a long way to the post office.
(D) It would be better to go after five o’clock.
23.(A) The article was placed on reserve.
(B) The woman must ask the professor for a copy.
(C) The woman should look through a number of journals in the library.
(D) He has reservations about the information in the article.
24.(A) He needs to take a nap.
(B) He hopes the woman will help him to calm down.
(C) The woman just woke him up.
(D) He is extremely relaxed.

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 4

25.(A) She doesn’t think the news report is false.
(B) She has never before reported on the news.
(C) She never watches the news on television.
(D) She shares the man’s opinion about the report.
26.(A) Management will offer pay raises on Friday.
(B) The policy has not yet been decided.
(C) The manager is full of hot air.
(D) The plane has not yet landed.
27.(A) He doesn’t believe that it is really snowing.
(B) The snow had been predicted.
(C) The exact amount of snow is unclear.
(D) He expected the woman to go out in the snow.
28. (A) She’s going to take the test over again.
(B) She thinks she did a good job on the exam.
(C) She has not yet taken the literature exam.
(D) She’s unhappy with how she did.
29.(A) The door was unlocked.
(B) It was better to wait outside.
(C) He could not open the door.
(D) He needed to take a walk.
30.(A) He nailed the door shot.
(B) He is heading home.
(C) He hit himself in the head.
(D) He is absolutely correct.

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 5

 Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each
conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will
not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
Now begin work on the questions.
31. (A) Attend a football game alone
(B) Go to a sporting event
(C) Eat in the cafetaria and study
(D) See a play

32. (A) It’s the final game of the season.

(B) It’s better than the drama department’s play.
(C) It’s very important game.
(D) It’s close to the cafetaria.

33. (A) A play

(B) A game
(C) A study group meeting
(D) Dinner in the cafetaria

34. (A) Saturday night

(B) After dinner in the cafetaria
(C) Sunday afternoon
(D) Maybe next weekend

35. (A) Trash orbiting Earth

(B) A trip by an astronaut to the Moon
(C) The overabundance of garbage on Earth
(D) Becoming space scientists

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 6

36. (A) From a lecture
(B) In a magazine article
(C) In a book
(D) On a television program

37. (A) 17.000 pounds

(B) 3.000 tons
(C) 3.000 pounds
(D) 300 tons

38. (A) She will be able to travel in space

(B) The problem will take care of itself.
(C) Scientists will find solution to the problem.
(D) The junk will fall to Earth.
Part C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear
some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording you hear:
(Narrator) : Questions 39 through 42. Listen to a talk about captain
town of Malaysia.
(Woman) : Kuala Lumpur offers kinds of activity, food, shopping center,
museum, park, and local theater. There is also federal
government center in Putrajaya which is located south of
Kuala Lumpur. Kuala Lumpur has modern infrastructure like
KLIA – Kuala Lumpur International Airport.
Now listen to a sample question.
(Narrator) : What does Kuala Lumpur offer?
On the test book, you read (39):
(A) Kinds of food and fashion.
(B) A great hotel and park.
(C) Kinds of activity and shopping center.
(D) A modern airport and harbor.

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 7

The best answer to the question. What does Kuala Lumpur offer? is (C). This answer is
based on the beginning part. Therefore, the correct choice is Kinds of activity and shopping
center (C).
Sample Answer
A B C D
Now listen to a another sample question.
(Narrator) : Where is Putrajaya’s location?
On the test book, you read (40):
(A) South of Kuala Lumpur
(B) Center of Kuala Lumpur
(C) North of Kuala Lumpur
(D) West of Kuala Lumpur
The best answer to the question, Where is Putrajaya’s location? is A. This answer is based
on the middle of the talk. Therefore, the correct choice is south of Kuala Lumpur (A).
Sample Answer
A B C D
Now begin work on the questions.
39. (A) An aspectual meaning
(B) The predicates of a language
(C) Grammatical expressions of aspect
(D) Intrinsic semantic nature
40. (A) A doctor
(B) A lecturer
(C) A scientist
(D) An economist
41. (A) In the canteen
(B) In a restaurant
(C) In the meeting room
(D) In the classroom
42. (A) Prospective, progressive, and adjective
(B) Prospective, perfective, and intransitive
(C) Perfective, progressive, and transitive
(D) Prospective, perfective, and progressive

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 8

43. (A) An English book for students
(B) Curriculum
(C) A representative English book
(D) Four basic skills in learning English
44. (A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
45. (A) They are considered as the basic competency needed by students.
(B) They are considered as listening, speaking, reading, and writing competencies.
(C) They are considered with all basic ones very well.
(D) They are considered as in the curriculum
46. (A) Speaking, pronunciation, reading, and writing.
(B) Speaking, reading, writing, and drawing.
(C) Listening, reading, singing and writing competencies.
(D) Listening, speaking, reading and writing competencies.
47. (A) It’s a relatively common, often severe, and under recognize body imagke disorder.
(B) It’s a relatively common, often severe, and recognize body image disorder.
(C) It’s distressing or impairing preoccupations.
(D) It’s the belief that something’s wrong with how they look.
48. (A) They may be describe themselves as looking gorgeous.
(B) They see their looks as looking attractive.
(C) They describe themselves as looking hideous.
(D) They describe themselves as looking good.
49. (A) They are obsessed with the belief that something’s good with how they look.
(B) They are obsessed with the belief that something’s wrong with how they look.
(C) They are obsessed with perceived flaws in some appearance.
(D) They are obsessed with distressing or impairing preoccupations.
50. (A) A librarian
(B) A judge
(C) An engineer
(D) A psychologist

THIS IS THE END OF LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 9

 STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time-25 minutes
(includes reading the directions)

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section with
special directions for each type.
STRUCTURE
Directions: Questions 1–15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see
four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase
that best complete the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen.
1. Nutrients are the substances in our foods that ____ nourishment.
(A) Provide
(B) Provides
(C) Provided
(D) Have provided
2. Thirty percent of the population of the United States ____ substandard diets.
(A) Have
(B) Has
(C) Are having
(D) To have
3. His scholarship focuses on teacher education, particularly on preservice field
experiences ____ student teaching.
(A) Include
(B) Includes
(C) Including
(D) Have included
4. Susanna Loeb is the Barnett Family Professor of Education and director of the Center
for Education Policy Analysis ____ Stanford University.
(A) On
(B) Near
(C) Above
(D) At

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 10

5. She studies the relationship between school and federal, state, and local policies, ____
particularly on teacher and school leader labor markets and education finance.
(A) Focus
(B) Focuses
(C) Focusing
(D) Has focused
6. In the United States the average per capote intake of fats ____ 40 to 45 percent of the
total energy intake.
(A) Is
(B) Are
(C) Was
(D) Were
7. Cholesterol is a fatty compound ____ is found in animal tissues.
(A) Who
(B) Whose
(C) Which
(D) Whom
8. These are two important measurements that should be made ____ you have a
complete physical examination.
(A) Which
(B) Who
(C) Where
(D) When
9. He also studies teacher quality, teacher retention, teacher identity, and teacher ____.
(A) Assess
(B) Assessed
(C) Assessor
(D) Assessment
10. Study data on teacher’s application for transfer to uncover ____ teachers are more
likely to want to transfer from New York City (NYC) schools.
(A) Which
(B) Who
(C) Whom
(D) When

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 11

11. In Texas, those who left a given school tended to be less effective than ____ who
stayed.
(A) That
(B) Those
(C) This
(D) The
12. Regular exercise causes decreases in both blood cholesterol ____ triglyceride levels.
(A) Or
(B) And
(C) Nor
(D) But
13. Massive dosages of protein – 80 to 85 percent of the total average intake can
contribute to kidney malfunction and ____ loss of calcium.
(A) Excess
(B) Excessive
(C) Excessively
(D) Excesses
14. Turnover may ____ substantial impact on the financial and human resources in
districts and schools as well.
(A) Have
(B) Has
(C) Had
(D) Having
15. Lodine is artificially added to salt to prevent goiter in areas of our country where the
inhabitants ____ it in their diets.
(A) Doesn’t naturally obtain
(B) Hasn’t naturally obtained
(C) Don’t naturally obtain
(D) Didn’t naturally obtain

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 12

 Written Expression

Directions: In questions 16–40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the
one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to
be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

16. Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt, play, and resting together.
A B C D
17. Like snakes, lizards can be found on all others continents except Antarctica.
A B C D
18. There are thousand of different types of roses.
A B C D
19. The first recorded use of natural gas to light street lamps it was in
A B C
the town of Frederick, New York, in1825.
D
20. There are several races of giraffes, but there are only one species.
A B C D
21. Boolean algebra is most often used to solve problems in logic, probability, and
A B C
engineer.
D
22. The United States has import all carpet wools in recent years because domestic wools
A B C
are too fine and soft for carpets.
D
23. A number of the materials used in manufacturing paint are potential dangerous
A B C
if mishandled.
D
24. Prior to an extermination program earlier this century, alive wolves roamed
A B C
across nearly all of North America.
D

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 13

25. Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish because of males’ bright colors.
A B C D
26. Serving several term in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United States
A B C
politician.
D
27. Electrical disturbances on Earth are frequently caused with storms on the surface of
A B C D
the sun.

28. Inventor Granville Woods received him first patent on January 3, 1884, for a steam
A B C D
boiler furnace.

29. A deficient of folic acid is rarely found in humans because the vitamin is contained in a
A B C D
wide variety of foods.

30. The gopher digs with the big strong claws of its two front foot and with its overhanging
A B C D
font teeth.

31. An internationally famous ballerina, Maria Tallchief demonstrated that the quality of
A B C
ballet in North America could equal those of the ballet in Europe.
D
32. As two nuclei move closer together, their mutual electrostatic potential energy
A B
becomes more large and more Positive.
C D
33. The research for the book Roots taking Alex Haley twelve years.
A B C D
34. Alloys of gold and copper have been widely using in various types of coins.
A B C D

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 14

35. In a recent survey of Americans, more than 75 percent expressed the view that the
A B
government it should take a more active role in health care.
C D
36. The first fish have appeared on the earth approximately 500 million years ago.
A B C D
37. Cameos can be carved not only from onyx and sardonyx or from agate.
A B C D
38. Some of the most useful resistor material are carbon, metals, and metallic alloys.
A B C D
39. Only rarely sound waves are of a single frequency encountered in practice.
A B C D
40. William Hart was an act best known for his roles as western heroes in silent films.
A B C D

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 15

 SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time – 55 minutes
(includes reading and directions)

This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages.

Directions: in this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number
of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each
question. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space
that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is implied or
stated in that passage.

Example
Read the following passage:

Line 1 An advertisement (an ad) is a public promotion or

announcement of some product or services. It is made with the purpose
to persuade the readers to use the product. An ad provides brief
information. There are some steps to make on advertisement. First, you
Line 5 should use short, simple sentences. Second, you must use the front
types and sizes that are easily readable. Third, you have to persuade the
readers to buy the product. Fourth, it is nice to tell the good side of the
product. And the last, you must remember to give the contact address
or person clearly.
What is the topic of the passage?
(A) An advertisement as a media promotion
(B) An advertisement in all media
(C) Product advertisement
(D) Products and services

Sample answer
According to the passage, to answer the question about topic or main idea, you should
focus on the first line of the passage because there is answer i.e. An advertisement
(an ad) is public promotion or announcement of some products or services.
Therefore, you choose An advertisement as a promotion media (A).

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 16

Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 1 – 11 : This passage below is for questions numbers 1 to 11. Choose the best
answer based on the passage.

Line 1 Even a muddy pond contributes to the ecosystem that affects the
environment. A vernal or springtime pool is only a few feet deep and lasts
only from March until mid-summer but yields a considerable number of
diverse life forms. Like all of nature, there are predators and victims, and a
Line 5 particular living being may be one or the other, de- pending on its age and
characteristics. One may find masses of spotted salamander eggs floating
just under the surface of the pond, left behind by adults who entered the
pond early in the season before predators arrived. Other amphibians and
reptiles return to the recurrent pond year after year to reproduce, as their
Line 10 ancestors have done for years.
Various forms of algae grow well in the murky water, if there is
sufficient sunlight. They in turn produce and transmit oxygen to the sala-
mander embryos and other young that are not yet able to survive outside of
water. Diving beetles feast on eggs and larvae deposited in the pond by the
Line 15 salamanders and other am- phibians that have called it home. Tadpoles are
born in the late spring and feed on the algae. The pond also invites wood
frogs staking their territory and courting potential mates, calling as loud as
quacking ducks.
By the end of the short season, the pond dries to spongy mud and
then dries further, becoming covered with leaves and debris, until the
Line 20 following spring when the process repeats itself.

1. The word “vernal” in Line 2 means most nearly the same as ______
(A) springtime. (C) deep.
(B) pool. (D) transitory.

2. What is the author’s purpose stated in the first sentence: Even a muddy pond
contributes to the ecosystem that affects the environment?
(A) To explain that a vernal pool is very muddy
(B) To describe how the vernal pool fits into the larger environmental picture
(C) To explain that mud is important to the environment
(D) To show how algae grows

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 17

3. The word “yields” in Line 3 means most nearly the same as ______
(A) produces (C) kills.
(B) contributes to. (D) harms.

4. The word “diverse” in Line 4 means most nearly the same as______
(A) A. distinct. (C) numerous
(B) living (D) primitive.

5. The word “its” in Line 5 refers to______

(A) predator. (C) living being.
(B) pond. (D) nature.

6. Which sentence in the first paragraph indicates that a young life form might be prey to
an older life form?
(A) A vernal or springtime pool is only a few feet deep and lasts only from March until
midsummer but yields a considerable number of diverse life forms.
(B) Like all of nature, there are predators and victims, and a particular living being
may be one or the other, depending on its age and characteristics.
(C) One may find masses of spotted salamander eggs floating just under the surface
of the pond, left behind by adults who entered the pond early in the season
before predators arrived.
(D) Other amphibians and reptiles return to the recurrent pond year after year to
reproduce, as their ancestors have done for years.

7. Which sentence in the first paragraph indicates that life forms continue to act in the
same way as the same life forms did previously?
(A) A vernal or springtime pool is only a few feet deep and lasts only from March until
midsummer but yields a considerable number of diverse life forms.
(B) Like all of nature, there are predators and victims, and a particular living being
may be one or the other, depending on its age and characteristics.
(C) One may find masses of spotted salamander eggs floating just under the surface
of the pond, left behind by adults who entered the pond early in the season
before predators arrived.
(D) Other amphibians and reptiles return to the recurrent pond year after year to
reproduce, as their ancestors have done for years.

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 18

8. The word “murky” in Line 11 means most nearly the same as______
(A) clear. (C) cold
(B) cloudy. (D) life-producing.

9. The word “they” in Line 12 refers to______

(A) A. salamander embryos.
(B) young.
(C) forms of algae.
(D) sunlight.

10. Which of the following does the author imply in the first two sentences of paragraph
two?
(A) The life forms in the pool live in water their entire lives.
(B) Some of the life forms live in water first and later on land.
(C) The life forms found in the pool do not require oxygen to live.
(D) Algae is strictly a food source.

11. The word “recurrent” in Line 9 means most nearly the same as______
(A) moving. (C) stagnant.
(B) recurring. (D) warm.
Questions 12 – 23 : This passage below is for questions numbers 12 to 23. Choose the best
answer based on the passage.
Line 1 Bees, classified into over 10,000 species, are insects found in almost
every part of the world except the northernmost and southernmost regions.
One commonly known species is the honeybee, the only bee that produces
honey and wax. Humans use the wax in mak- ing candles, lipsticks, and other
Line 5 products, and they use the honey as a food. While gathering the nectar
and pollen with which they make honey, bees are simultaneously helping to
fertilize the flowers on which they land.
Many fruits and vegetables would not survive if bees did not carry the
pollen from blossom to blossom.
Line 10 Bees live in a structured environment and social structure within a
hive, which is a nest with storage space for the honey. The differ- ent types
of bees each perform a unique function. The worker bee carries nectar to
the hive in a special stomach called a honey stomach. Other workers make

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 19

 beeswax and shape it into a honeycomb, which is a waterproof mass of six-
sided compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs in completed cells. As the
Line 15 workers build more cells, the queen lays more eggs.
All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller
than the queen. The male honeybees are called drones; they do not work
and cannot sting. They are devel- oped from unfertilized eggs, and their only
job is to impregnate a queen. The queen must be fertilized in order to lay
Line 20 worker eggs. During the season when less honey is available and the drone
is of no further use, the workers block the drones from eating the honey so
that they will starve to death.

12. Which of the following is the best title for this reading?
(A) The Many Species of Bees
(B) The Useless Drone
(C) The Honeybee — Its Characteristics and Usefulness
(D) Making Honey

13. The word “species” in Line 1 is closest in meaning to ______

(A) mates. (C) killers.
(B) varieties. (D) enemies.

14. The word “which” in Line 6 refers to ______

(A) fertilizer. (C) honey.
(B) flowers. (D) bees.

15. The word “simultaneously” in Line 6 is closest in meaning to______

(A) stubbornly. (C) skillfully.
(B) concurrently. (D) diligently.

16. According to the passage, a hive is______

(A) a type of honey. (C) a type of bee.
(B) a nest. (D) a storage space.

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 20

17. According to the passage, the drone ______
(A) collects less honey than workers.
(B) mates with the queen and has no other purpose.
(C) comes from eggs fertilized by other drones.
(D) can be male or female.
18. The author implies that ______
(A) bees are unnecessary in the food chain.
(B) drones are completely dispensable.
(C) the queen can be a worker.
(D) drones are never females.

19. According to the passage, honey is carried to the hive in a honey stomach by the _____
(A) queens. (C) males.
(B) drones. (D) workers.

20. In what way does the reading imply that bees are useful in nature?
(A) They pollinate fruit and vegetable plants.
(B) They make marvelous creations from wax.
(C) They kill the dangerous drones.
(D) They create storage spaces.

21. All of the following are characteristic of a honeycomb except ______

(A) it contains hexagonal sections.
(B) it is made of honey.
(C) it is made of wax.
(D) it is impermeable.

22. The passage implies that bees can be found in each of the following parts of the world
except ______
(A) Africa. (C) Europe.
(B) China. (D) Antarctica.

23. It can be inferred from the reading that beeswax is ______

(A) absorbent. (C) complex in structure.
(B) pliable. (D) sweet.

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 21

Questions 24 – 33 : This passage below is for questions numbers 24 to 33. Choose the best
answer based on the passage.
Line 1 The hippopotamus is the third largest land animal, smaller only than
the elephant and the rhinoceros. Its name comes from two Greek words
which mean “river horse.” The long name of this animal is often shortened
to the easier to handle term “hippo.”
Line 5 The hippo has a natural affinity for the water. It does not float on top
of the water; instead, it can easily walk along the bottom of a body of water.
The hippo commonly remains underwater for three to five minutes and has
been known to stay under for up to half an hour before coming up for air.
In spite of its name, the hippo has relatively little in common with the
Line 10 horse and instead has a number of interesting similarities in common with
the whale. When a hippo comes up after a stay at the bottom of a lake or
river, it releases air through a blowhole, just like a whale. In addition, the
hippo resembles the whale in that they both have thick layers of blubber for
protection and they are almost completely hairless.
24. The topic of this passage is ______
(A) The largest land animals
(B) The derivations of animal names
(C) The characteristics of the hippo
(D) The relation between the hippo and the whale

25. It can be inferred from the passage that the rhinoceros is ______
(A) smaller than the hippo
(B) equal in size to the elephant
(C) a hybrid of the hippo and the elephant
(D) one of the two largest types of land animals

26. The possessive “Its” in line 2 refers to______

(A) Hippopotamus (C) rhinoceros
(B) Elephant (D) horse

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 22

27. It can be inferred from the passage that the hippopotamus is commonly called a hippo
because the word “hippo” is______
(A) simpler to pronounce
(B) scientifically more accurate
(C) the original name
(D) easier for the animal to recognize

28. The word “float” in line 5 is closest in meaning to______

(A) Sink (C) eat
(B) Drift (D) flap

29. According to the passage what is the maximum time that hippos have been known to
stay underwater?
(A) Three minutes (C) Thirty minutes
(B) Five minutes (D) Ninety minutes

30. The expression “has relatively little in common” in line 9 could best be replaced by
_____
(A) has few interactions
(B) is not normally found
(C) has minimal experience
(D) shares few similarities

31. The passage states that one way in which a hippo is similar to a whale is that ______
(A) they both live on the bottoms of rivers
(B) they both have blowholes
(C) they both named after horses
(D) they both breathe underwater

32. The word “blubber” in line 13 is closest in meaning to ______

(A) Fat (C) water
(B) metal (D) skin

33. The passage states that the hippo does not ______
(A) like water (C) have a protective coating
(B) resemble the whale (D) have much hair

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 23

Questions 34 – 42 : This passage below is for questions numbers 34 to 42. Choose the best
answer based on the passage.

Line 1 John James Audubon, nineteenth-century artist and naturalist, is

known as one of the foremost authorities on North American birds. Born in
Les Cayes, Haiti, in 1785, Audubon was raised in France and studied art
under French artist Jacques-Louis David. After settling on his father’s
Line 5 Pennsylvania estate at the age of eighteen, he first began to study and paint
birds.
In his young adulthood, Audubon undertook numerous enterprises,
generally without a tremendous amount of success; at various times during
his life he was involved in a mercantile business, a lumber and grist mill, a
Line 10 taxidermy business, and a school. His general mode of operating a business
was to leave it either unattended or in the hands of partner and take off on
excursions through the wilds to paint the natural life that he saw. His
business career came to end in 1819 when he was jailed for debt a forced to
file for bankruptcy.
Line 15 It was at that time that Audubon began seriously to pursue the dream
of publishing a collection of his painting of birds. For the next six years he
painted birds in their natural habitats while his wife worked as a teacher to
support the family. His Birds of America, which included engravings of 435 of
his colorful and lifelike water colors, was published in parts during the
period from 1826 to 1838 in England. After the success of the English
editions, American edition of his work were published in 1839, and his fame
and fortune were ensured.

34. This passage is mainly about______

(A) North American birds
(B) Audubon’s route to success as a painter of birds
(C) The works that Audubon published
(D) Audubon’s preference for travel in natural habitats

35. The word “foremost” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______

(A) Prior (C) first
(B) Leading (D) largest

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36. In the second paragraph, the author mainly discusses______
(A) How Audubon developed his painting style
(B) Audubon’s involvement in a mercantile business
(C) Where Audubon went on his excursions
(D) Audubon’s unsuccessful business practices

37. The word “mode” in line 10 could best be replaced by______

(A) Method (C) average
(B) Vogue (D) trend

38. Audubon decided not to continue to pursue business when______

(A) he was injured in an accident at a grist mill
(B) he decided to study art in France
(C) he was put in prison because he owed money
(D) he made enough money from his painting

39. The word “pursue” in line 15 is closest in meaning to______

(A) Imagine (C) follow
(B) Share (D) deny

40. According to the passage, Audubon’s paintings______

(A) were realistic portrayals
(B) used only black, white, and gray
(C) where done in oils
(D) depicted birds in cages

41. The word “support” in line 18 could best be replaced by______

(A) tolerate (C) provide for
(B) side with (D) fight for

42. It can be inferred from the passage that after 1839 Audubon______
(A) unsuccessfully tried to develop new business
(B) continued to be supported by his wife
(C) traveled to Europe
(D) became wealthy

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Questions 43 – 52 : This passage below is for questions numbers 43 to 52. Choose the best
answer based on the passage.
Line 1 U.S. educators frequently use the terms K-12 education, and
sometimes PK-12 education, to refer to all primary and secondary education
from pre-school prior to the first year or grade through secondary
graduation. One of the following three patterns usually prevails in the
Line 5 community: Elementary school (K-5), middle school (6-8), high school (9-12);
Elementary school (K-6), junior high school (7-9), senior high school (9-12);
or Elementary school (K-8), high school (9-12).
The majority of U.S. children begin their educations prior to entering
regular school. Parents who send their children to pre-school/nursery
Line 10 schools (age 2-4) and kindergartens (age 5-6) have to finance these
institution privately. Children learn the alphabet, colors and other
elementary basics.
U.S. children enter formal schooling around age 6. The first pattern is
the most common one. Elementary students are typically in one classroom
Line 15 with the same teacher most of the day. After elementary school, students
proceed to middle school, where they usually move from class to class each
period, with a new teacher and a new mixture of students in every class.
Students can select from a wide range of academic classes and elective
classes. In high school, students in their first year are called freshman, in
Line 20 their second year sophomore, in their third year junior, and in their last and
fourth year senior.
There is an even greater variety of subjects than before. Students
must earn a certain number of credits (which they get for a successfully
completed course) in order to graduate and be awarded with a High School
Line 25 Diploma – there is no final examination like in many other countries.
The number and combination of classes necessary depend on the
school district and on the kind of diploma desired. Only with a high school
diploma students can enroll in postsecondary education. It is important to
know that colleges and universities some- times require certain high school
Line 30 credits or tests (e.g. SAT) for admission, and students must plan their high
school career with those requirements in mind.

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43. What is the topic of the passage?
(A) U.S. primary and secondary schools
(B) The term K-12 education
(C) The terms PK-12 education
(D) The number and combination of classes

44. How many patterns that usually prevails in the community?

(A) One pattern (C) three patterns
(B) Two patterns (D) four patterns

45. The children learn these subjects in nursery schools and kindergartens, except______
(A) Elementary basics (C) alphabet
(B) Multiplication (D) colors

46. When do the children enter the formal schooling?

(A) Around 6 (C) 2-4 years old
(B) 7 years old (D) 4-5 years old

47. According to the passage, after the elementary school, the students proceed to ______
(A) senior high schools (C) kindergartens
(B) middle schools (D) universities

48. What is sophomore?

(A) Students in their first year of high school
(B) Students in their second year of high school
(C) Students in their third year of high school
(D) Students in their last year of high school

49. What is the difference between senior high in U.S. and other countries?
(A) It’s expensive
(B) It has a better structure
(C) There is no final examination in U.S. high school
(D) The students of U.S. high schools are smarter than students of other countries

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 27

50. The word “their” in Line 30 refers to ______
(A) high school credits (C) students
(B) high school test (D) career

51. The word “requirements” in line 31 could be best replaced by ______

(A) requisites (C) wants
(B) needs (D) desires
Questions 52 – 60 : This passage below is for questions numbers 52 to 60. Choose the best
answer based on the passage.

Line 1 In the dating world, having too many options may leave you in the
lonely hearts club. British researchers analyzed speed dating to see if singles
offered a wide variety of potential dates had a higher chance of meeting a
partner. They didn’t. Researchers found that the more choices people had
Line 5 in potential dates, the more likely they were to end up on their own,
according to the study published Wednesday in the British journal Biology
Letters. Experts analyzed the romantic decisions made by nearly 4.000
men and women at 84 speed dating events in the U.K., where single people
had three minutes to talk to dozens of potential suitors. They found people
Line 10 faced with a wide variety of partners – with different interest, jobs and
physical traits – were more likely to choose no one at all.
People were also more likely to find a date if their prospective
partners were more alike. When similar people were involved in events with
nearly 50 single men and women attending, organizers found they received
Line 15 about 123 proposals from the singles, meaning they wanted a future date
with someone they met at the event. But when the speed dating sessions
included a broad range of people, organizers only got about 88 proposals.
Alison Lenton, of the University of Edinborough who led the study, said too
much choice might be overwhelming or confusing for people, and
Line 20 ultimately lead to no dates at all.

52. The main point of this passage is that______

(A) People prefer having prospective partners that are more alike
(B) People with a wide variety of potential dates have a higher chance of meeting a
partner
(C) People who have too many options of dates are more likely to stay single
(D) People whose prospective partners are more alike are more likely to stay single

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 28

53. The word “suitors” in line 9 are______
(A) Single men
(B) Divorced men
(C) Men who search for love of a woman
(D) Men who are married
54. The word “traits” in line 11 could most easily replaced by______
(A) Character (C) Confidence
(B) Requirement (D) Difference
55. According to the research, the more choices people had______
(A) The more they could find their own lover
(B) The more likely they were to end up alone
(C) The less they had to try to find a lover
(D) The less likely they were to end up alone
56. The word “proposals” in line 15 is related to______
(A) Paper (C) Engagement
(B) Report (D) Presentation
57. The word “overwhelming” in line 19 could be most easily replaced by ______
(A) Lacking (C) Sufficient
(B) Abundant (D) Satisfactory
58. The word “ultimately” in line 20 is closest in meaning to______
(A) Gradually (C) Temporally
(B) Momentarily (D) Previously
59. The passage would most probably be assigned reading in which course______
(A) Astrology (C) Sociology
(B) Geography (D) Geophysics
60. The purpose of this passage is to______
(A) Discuss something about dating choices
(B) Describe how dating choices can leave singles lonely
(C) Give report that too many dating choices can leave singles lonely
(D) Explain the reason why singles remain lonely despite many choices they have

PUSAT BAHASASTKIP Test of English Proficiency 29

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Source

1. Listening
- Part A >> 22 Oktober 2015
- Part B >> 4 April 2015
- Part C >> April 2017
2. Structure
- Part 1 >> April 2017 (1 – 15)
- Part 2 >> Oktober 2015 (16 – 40)
3. Reading >> All parts of STEP April 2017

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