Final Coaching - PLE Surgery 2022
Final Coaching - PLE Surgery 2022
Final Coaching - PLE Surgery 2022
31. A 17-year-old woman is seen in the emergency room 34. A 45-year-old, obese man was involved in a high-
with severe burns to both of her hands. She seems speed motor vehicle accident. He was hypotensive at
very responsible, and is with her parents who are very the scene and was noted to have a distended
willing to help take care of her at home. She is not abdomen upon presentation. He was quickly
complaining of any pain and wonders if she can be evaluated and taken to the operating room for an
treated as an outpatient. Which of the following exploratory laparotomy. Which of the following is true
statements is true regarding the management of this with regard to adequate closure of the abdomen after
patient? this procedure?
Select one: Select one:
a. This patient can be adequately managed as an outpatient with a. Permanent suture materials should not be used for closing the
close follow-up. fascial layers because of the increased risk of local
b. Skin grafting should be performed in 1–2 months to provide the inflammation
best outcome. b. The instability of wound closure is decreased by the
c. Her burns are likely to be superficial partial-thickness burns. removal of devitalized tissue
d. Early skin grafting (within days) will decrease contracture Inadequate closure of fascial layers is the most important
formation. factor in determining the likelihood of dehiscence. Other
important factors contributing to dehiscence events include
32. A 44-year-old, obese woman presents to the increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., obesity, severe
emergency department with a history of acute onset pulmonary disease, excess postoperative coughing, bowel
of severe epigastric pain radiating toward the back. obstruction, and cirrhosis with ascites formation) and deficient
The pain began several hours after dinner. The wound healing (e.g., infection, seroma or hematoma formation,
patient has no significant past medical history and drain placement, chronic disease, malnutrition, or chronic
denies any previous surgery. She takes no steroid use). Suture material for fascial closure should not be
medications. On examination, the patient has marked rapidly dissolvable because these layers are so important to
epigastric tenderness with guarding and hypoactive wound integrity. Devitalized tissue predisposes to wound
bowel sounds. Her vital signs are: heart rate, 110 infection and should be eliminated. Dehiscence is a partial or
beats/min; blood pressure, 120/50 mm Hg; total disruption of anatomic layers after surgical closure.
respiration, 28/min; temperature, 38.0°C. Amylase Evisceration is wound dehiscence with the extrusion of
level is 2500 units. Which of the following is the most abdominal contents. This is a highly morbid event, however not
likely cause of this patient's pain? uniformly fatal. Treatment would consist of rapid wound
Select one: coverage with sterile, moist towels, and emergent surgical
a. Gallstones exploration and repair.
b. Alcohol abuse c. Body habitus and nutritional status are not important factors
c. Hyperparathyroidism influencing wound stability
d. Hyperlipidemia d. Wound dehiscence is uncommon, although when it does occur it
is usually during the first or second postoperative day
33. A 40-year-old man presents with significant right flank
pain radiating down to his testicle. The pain is 35. A 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency
intermittent and severe in nature. Microscopic department with abdominal pain and jaundice. Her
hematuria is present on urinalysis, but there are no vital signs are: heart rate, 80 beats/min; blood
white blood cells. Leukocyte esterase and nitrates are pressure, 130/72 mm Hg; respiration, 18/min;
negative. His vital signs are: heart rate, 88 beats/min; temperature, 37.0°C. Examination reveals tenderness
blood pressure, 130/60 mm Hg; respiration, 20/min; in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and a positive
temperature, 37.2°C. Which of the following is the Murphy's sign. Which of the following statements
most appropriate next step in the management of this regarding this patient is true?
patient? Select one:
Select one: a. Referred pain would likely be to the right shoulder or
a. Intravenous antibiotics scapula.
b. Immediate laparotomy Cholecystitis is caused when a gallstone is impacted in the
c. Intravenous fluids and pain medication cystic duct. Referred pain is to the right shoulder and scapula.
Urinary tract calculi classically present with flank pain that is Jaundice may be present, despite the fact that there is no
colicky in nature with radiation to the ipsilateral testicle and red obstruction of the common bile duct. Charcot's triad is
blood cells and stones in the urine. Appropriate treatment of an associated with ascending cholangitis, which results from
initial episode of this disease generally involves administering bacterial infection of the biliary tree after a gallstone is
intravenous fluids to assure appropriate hydration and to impacted in the common bile duct. Only 15% of gallstones are
provide adequate pain control [e.g., nonsteroidal anti- radio-opaque, thus an abdominal film is not likely to show the
inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)] during passage of the stone. etiology of the pain. M orphine should probably be avoided in
Ultrasound and intravenous pyelogram (IVP) are the tests of patients with cholecystitis as it theoretically contracts the
choice in diagnosing patients with recurrent or complicated sphincter of Oddi, which will prevent stone passage and
urinary tract stones. A computed tomography scan could also
possibly increase the risk of complications such as c. This type of diverticulum is most common in the third and fourth
pancreatitis. decades of life
b. This disease is characterized by Charcot's triad. d. The procedure of choice in this patient would be a
c. Jaundice is rarely present in these patients. cricopharyngeal myotomy and diverticulectomy
d. Etiology of the pain would likely be present on abdominal film.
40. A 42-year-old woman with scleroderma presents with
36. A 65-year-old man with no previous abdominal symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease
surgery presents with severe abdominal pain over the (GERD) that have persisted despite 6 months of
right lower quadrant (RLQ). His past medical history is adequate medical therapy. Which of the following
significant for a previous aortic valve repair and the statements best describes her condition?
patient is on chronic coumarin (Coumadin) Select one:
anticoagulant therapy. On physical examination there a. Further medical therapy is warranted before surgical intervention
is an exquisitely tender mass noted in the RLQ just is considered
lateral to the umbilicus. When the patient attempts to b. Therapy is generally aimed at controlling gastroesophageal
sit up the mass remains palpable and the pain reflux
associated with the mass increases. Of the following, c. Because this disease affects primarily the distal esophagus,
which is most appropriate in the management of this resection of this segment is curative
patient? d. The risk of esophageal cancer is higher in these patients
Select one:
a. Incision and drainage with wound packing 41. A 47-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of
b. Immediate exploratory laparotomy intermittent chest pain and dysphagia for both solids
c. Local exploration and biopsy of the mass and liquids. Cardiac work-up is negative and standard
d. Performance of an abdominal computed tomography (CT) barium esophagram was unremarkable. Esophageal
scan manometry reveals high amplitude contractions and
intermittent normal peristalsis with simultaneous
37. A 59-year-old, obese woman presents to the contractions 40% of the time. Which of the following
emergency room with a painful right groin mass below statements is true regarding this patient's condition?
the inguinal ligament. Aggressive attempts to reduce Select one:
the mass are unsuccessful. Intraoperatively, the a. Surgery is the treatment of choice
patient is confirmed to have an incarcerated femoral b. Medical therapy includes nitrates and H2-blockers
hernia although the viability of the bowel appears c. In patients with incapacitating dysphagia, 80%–90% report
intact. Attempted intraoperative reduction of the palliation of their symptoms with surgical intervention
hernia sac is unsuccessful as well. Which of the d. Esophagram is the gold standard for identification of this disorder
following is the most appropriate next step in the
management of this patient? 42. A 42-year-old woman presents to the office with a 2-
Select one: month history of increasing nausea and nonbilious
a. Resection of the herniated bowel and primary reanastomosis vomiting associated with a 15-lb weight loss. Upon
b. Division of the inguinal ligament with reduction of the hernia upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, biopsy reveals
contents Helicobacter pylori and a low-grade lymphoma. Which
c. Performance of an enterotomy and decompression of the of the following is the most appropriate statement
herniated bowel regarding the management of gastric lymphoma?
d. Performance of a laparotomy with traction of the herniated bowel Select one:
intraperitoneally a. Treatment is limited to radiation therapy alone
38. After a routine left inguinal hernia repair, a 45-year-old b. Treatment consists of surgery alone
man presents to the office complaining of numbness c. Some lymphomas may regress with treatment of H. pylori
over a portion of the left side of his scrotum and over d. Overall 5-year survival is less than 20%
the anteromedial portion of his left thigh. Very anxious
about these findings, the patient also asks if this is 43. A 62-year-old man with a history of alcoholic cirrhosis
associated with sexual dysfunction. Which of the presents to the emergency room with a 4-hour history
following is an appropriate explanation with regards to of hematemesis. His abdomen is soft. He is
the patient's inquiry? tachycardic with a heart rate of 121 beats/min and
Select one: has a blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg. Which of the
a. There is a significant risk of erectile dysfunction associated with following is the most appropriate step in the
this complication immediate management of this patient?
b. Erectile function remains unaffected although the patient may be Select one:
sterile a. Airway control and resuscitation
c. The hernia has probably recurred and will require reoperation Whatever the cause of bleeding in this patient, the first and
d. This probably represents an inadvertent injury to the foremost important step in his management is securing a
ilioinguinal nerve functional airway (e.g., endotracheal intubation) and adequate
volume resuscitation (e.g., crystalloid and blood products when
39. A 70-year-old man presents with dysphagia, necessary). Administering intravenous vasopressin or placing
occasional regurgitation of undigested food, and a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube are appropriate in the
chronic halitosis. Manometric studies are normal but a management of esophageal varices but should not precede
barium esophagram reveals a 4-cm Zenker's initial resuscitative measures. Although a chest radiograph
diverticulum. Which of the following statements is should be performed early in the course of management to rule
true? out potential pulmonary pathology and to identify a pulmonary
Select one: source of hemorrhage, it should not precede resuscitation. A
a. This is the least common diverticulum of the esophagus barium swallow is not indicated in this situation.
b. A Zenker's diverticulum is a true diverticulum b. Intravenous vasopressin infusion
c. Placement of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube a. Catheterization alone with continued observation
d. Performance of a barium swallow Postoperative urinary retention is a common problem
especially after pelvic and perineal procedures or after spinal
44. A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency room anesthesia. The causes in those cases appear to be
complaining of severe intense abdominal pain that interference with the normal autonomically mediated bladder
came on suddenly and quickly reached peak intensity. emptying and overdistention of the bladder that inhibits
Upon evaluation, the patient is lying completely still, is contraction of the smooth muscle. Prevention of this includes
tachycardic, and has an ashen-gray appearance. catheterization of the bladder for long cases or for those where
Upon further questioning he reveals that the pain large volumes of intravenous fluids are used. Removing the
began in his epigastric region and then moved down bladder catheter and encouraging early postoperative voiding
to the right quadrants. His abdomen is rigid and is also useful. If this is unsuccessful, in and out catheterization
extremely tender. Laboratory investigation reveals a to decompress the bladder is used. The catheter should be left
white blood cell count of 30,000 and a hematocrit of in place if the volume obtained is over 1000 mL. An indwelling
44%. Which of the following is the most likely cause of catheter left for 4–5 days should be used if prior insertions
this patient's clinical presentation? were traumatic or if there is a continued inability to void.
Select one: Formal urologic follow-up may be necessary.
a. Mallory-Weiss tear b. Catheterization and antibiotic administration
b. Bleeding duodenal ulcer c. Catheterization and administration of furosemide
c. Acute gastritis d. Catheterization and administration of mannitol
d. Perforated peptic ulcer
48. A 65-year-old woman with an open tibia/fibula fracture
45. A 53-year-old, obese woman with a history of Type II of her left lower extremity underwent uneventful
diabetes and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease débridement and external fixation. Her initial
(COPD) underwent mesh closure of an abdominal postoperative course was uneventful. On
incisional hernia. She tolerated the procedure well postoperative day 4, she was noted to have mild
and was discharged from the hospital the following swelling of her left ankle and a fever of 38.6°C. Her
morning. Which of the following factors would LEAST wounds were without signs of infection and there
likely contribute to the incidence of postoperative were no palpable cords. Which of the following is the
complications in this patient? most likely cause of this patient's findings?
Select one: Select one:
a. A small enterotomy made while dissecting the fascial layers was a. Fat emboli
closed with dissolvable suture after minimal spillage of b. Iatrogenic lymphatic disruption
intestinal contents c. Thrombophlebitis
b. Her last hemoglobin A1C was 11.7 and she has a history of an d. Deep venous thrombosis
anaphylactic reaction to penicillin
c. She had previously smoked 2 packs of cigarettes per day for 40 49. A 72-year-old man has recently undergone extensive
years, but has not smoked for the last 5 years resection of a primary squamous cell carcinoma of the
d. She has end-stage COPD and her medications include tongue with radical neck dissection. Postoperatively
prednisone 20 mg per day he is found to have extensive esophageal candidiasis
with severe diffuse ulceration. His past medical
46. A 45-year-old woman presented to the emergency history is significant for a previous sigmoid resection
room with right upper quadrant (RUQ) abdominal pain for diverticular disease and he has had intermittent
and fever. The patient states that she had a symptoms of nausea and vomiting over the past
cholecystectomy 2 years earlier. Computed several months which seem to resolve on their own.
tomography (CT) scan reveals a 6-cm, fluid-filled Which of the following would be the most appropriate
mass in the right lobe of the liver that was not noted to reason for parenteral versus enteral nutritional
be present by ultrasound 2 years ago. Which of the support?
following is the appropriate definitive treatment for the Select one:
potential cause of this patient's condition? a. Severe esophageal ulceration
Select one: b. Extensive oropharyngeal resection
a. “Triple” antibiotics alone for a large pyogenic liver abscess c. Severe sepsis
b. Antibiotics alone for uncomplicated amebic liver abscess d. Small bowel obstruction secondary to adhesions
c. Percutaneous drainage of fluid from echinococcal cyst
d. Antibiotics alone for a ruptured amebic liver abscess 50. A 68-year-old woman is transferred to a tertiary care
hospital after a recent extensive small bowel resection
47. After an uneventful laparoscopic inguinal at an outside hospital. She has been diagnosed with
herniorrhaphy, a 58-year-old man had the urinary short bowel syndrome following the surgery and has
catheter removed and began to ambulate. During received parenteral nutritional support for
routine vital sign checks, he was noted to have had approximately 3 months. The patient cannot
no urine output over the previous 8 hours. An remember exactly what she is taking but she states
intravenous bolus of saline (500 mL) did not stimulate that she hangs 1 large bag of clearyellow fluid 3 times
voiding. Straight catheterization revealed 1000 mL of a day at home administered through a central venous
urine. Urinalysis showed a specific gravity of 1.018, a catheter. She presents with complaints of worsening
pH of 6, moderate blood, and negative leukocyte fatigue and hair loss. Her hematocrit is 34%, white
esterase and nitrites. There were 23 red blood blood cell count 6,000, and platelets 45,000. For
cells/high power field (hpf) and 2 white blood cells/hpf. managing this patient it would be most appropriate to
What is the most appropriate treatment for his failure administer
to void? Select one:
Select one: a. Niacin
b. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
d. Lipids