Shared in QualifyGate.

com
GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.

Navigating to a Question :

7. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question
and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
 Shared in QualifyGate.com
Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.

You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question :

8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.

11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
answering will be considered for evaluation.

Choosing a Section :

13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will
 Shared in QualifyGate.com
only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
questions in the Section.
16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.

Changing the Optional Section :

18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.

19. If you deselect the checkbox for an optional Section in the top bar, the following
warning message will appear: "Deselecting the checkbox will DELETE all the answers
for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section?” If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.

20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.
 Shared in QualifyGate.com
GATE 2014 Examination
AR: Architecture & Planning
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.
 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.

The word closest in meaning to comprehension is

(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength

14
Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.

Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.

Q.4
20
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (B) has a slope of +1
(C) is parallel to the x-axis (D) has a slope of −1

Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
E
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?
AT

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK
G

Q.7 Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisal’s floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?

Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal

(A) 6 2 5 1 3 4
(B) 2 6 5 1 3 4
(C) 4 2 6 3 1 5
(D) 2 4 6 1 3 5
 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25

Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)

14
20
E
(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December
(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
AT

(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
G

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Toothing is a construction technique used in
(A) Wood construction (B) Steel construction
(C) Reinforced cement concrete construction (D) Brick masonry

Q.2 ‘Skeleton and Skin’ concept in building design and construction evolved during the
(A) Roman period (B) Renaissance period
(C) Gothic period (D) Greek period

Q.3 As per the IRC standards, the minimum width (in m) of a two lane urban carriageway without a

)
raised kerb is

14
(A) 6.0 (B) 6.5 (C) 7.0 (D) 8.0

Q.4 Pritzker Architecture Prize 2013 has been awarded to

20
(A) Mario Botta (B) Toyo Ito (C) Rem Koolhaas (D) Arata Isozaki

Q.5 Hip roof is formed by surfaces sloping in

(A) One direction (B) Two directions (C) Three directions (D) Four directions
E
Q.6 Hiroshima Peace Memorial Museum in Japan has been designed by
AT

(A) Kenzo Tange (B) Kisho Kurokawa (C) Tadao Ando (D) I M Pei

Q.7 In AutoCAD, the maximum number of points which can be snapped in a circle using OSNAP
command is
(G

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.8 Development authorities in India are established under the provision of

(A) Municipal Act (B) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act
AR

(C) Town and Country Planning Act (D) Land Acquisition Act

Q.9 In escalators, the angle of inclination with the horizontal plane should be in the range of
(A) 10°­20° (B) 20°­30° (C) 30°­35° (D) 35°­45°

Q.10 As per the Census of India 2011, ‘ Metropolitan Urban Agglomeration’ is a contiguous spread of
several urban settlements where the minimum population size (in Lakh) is
(A) One (B) Five (C) Ten (D) Fifty
 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q.11 BEES is an acronym for

(A) Building for Environmental and Economic Sustainability
(B) Built Environment and Ecological Society
(C) Building for Energy and Environment Sustainability
(D) Built Environment and Engineering Services

Q.12 In a single-stack system of plumbing

(A) All the appliances and traps are fully ventilated
(B) Only WC branches are connected with anti-siphonage pipes

)
(C) Anti-siphonage pipes are omitted

14
(D) Only the stack is vented above the branch connection at each floor level

Q.13 The maximum bending moment (kNm) in a simply supported beam of 8 m span subjected to a
uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m (inclusive of its self-weight) over the entire span is

Q.14
(A) 40 (B) 160

20
(C) 240

Criteria for background noise (in NC) in hospitals and apartments is

(D) 380
E
(A) 10 - 20 (B) 20 - 30 (C) 30 - 40 (D) 40 - 50
AT

Q.15 As per the National Building Code, the minimum width (in m) of a staircase flight in an educational
building above 24 m height should be
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5
(G

Q.16 Among the following, the one that is NOT a land assembly technique is
(A) Land Use Zoning (B) Accommodation Reservation
(C) Town Planning Scheme (D) Transfer of Development Right
AR

Q.17 The Grand Gallery in Egyptian Architecture is provided only at

(A) Great Pyramid (B) Temple (C) Mastaba (D) Bent Pyramid

Q.18 In the Taipei 101 building, the steel sphere as TMD (Tuned Mass Damper) is suspended to reduce
horizontal sway due to
(A) Settlement & Wind Load (B) Wind & Geothermal Load

(C) Seismic & Geothermal Load (D) Seismic & Wind Load

Q.19 ‘Finger Plan’ concept of urban planning was initially adopted in

(A) Canberra (B) Paris
(C) Copenhagen (D) Tokyo
 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q.20 The most important property of concrete in its fresh state is

(A) Compressive strength (B) Tensile strength
(C) Elastic modulus (D) Workability

Q.21 An element constructed at intervals along the length of a wall to stabilize it against overturning is
(A) Barrel Vault (B) Pilaster (C) Squinch Arch (D) Buttress

Q.22 Landscape design of Shakti Sthal, the ‘Samadhi’ of late Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi, was
done by architect
(A) Ram Sharma (B) Mohammad Shaheer

)
(C) Ravindra Bhan (D) Raj Rewal

14
Q.23 Horizontally Wedge-shaped Treads in stairways are termed as
(A) Stringers (B) Winders (C) Scotia (D) Newel

Q.24
(A) Land – Service – House – Occupant
(C) Occupant – Land – Service – House 20
The sequence of development in a Site-and-Services scheme is
(B) Occupant – Land – House – Service
(D) Land – Occupant – House – Service
E
Q.25 Which of the following is NOT a classical spatial theory of land use planning?
AT

(A) Concentric Zone theory (B) Multiple Nuclei Theory

(C) Centripetal Theory (D) Sector Theory
(G
AR
 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 A housing project is proposed to be designed in a plot of 2 hectare. Maximum permissible FAR is
2. The share of the numbers of dwelling units (DU) for MIG, LIG and EWS is 1:2:3 having sizes of
55, 35 and 25 sq.m respectively. The maximum number of DU which can be accommodated in the
plot is _______________

Q.27 Arrange the following in ascending order of width

P. Collector Street
Q. Arterial Road

)
R. Local Street

14
S. Sub-Arterial Road

(A) P, Q, S, R (B) R, P, S, Q (C) Q, S, R, P (D) Q, S, P, R

20
Q.28 Out of the following, the maximum points in the LEED (New construction) rating system can be
earned through
(A) Sustainable Sites (B) Water Efficiency
(C) Materials and Resources (D) Energy and Atmosphere
E
Q.29 Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of bond resistance in reinforced concrete?
AT

(A) Chemical adhesion (B) Friction

(C) Mechanical interlock (D) Aggregate interlock

Q.30 A neighborhood has 250 units of 80 sq.m each and 200 units of 100 sq.m each. If the mandatory
(G

parking requirement is one per 100 sq.m of built space then, the total area(sq.m) required for
parking considering 30 percent additional area for circulation is ________________

Q.31 A brick wall 19 cm thick has a thermal conductivity 0.811 W/m °C. The outside and inside surface
conductance of the wall are 16 W/m2 °C and 8 W/m2 °C respectively, then the U-value of the wall
in W/m2 °C is ____________
AR

Q.32 Match the contemporary buildings in Group I with their architects in Group II

Group I Group II
P. Vitra Design Museum, Basel 1. Adrian Smith
Q. Turning Torso, Malmö 2. Jean Nouvel
R. Burj Khalifa, Dubai 3. Herzog de Meuron
S. Tate Modern, London 4. Santiago Calatrava
5. Frank O Gehry

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5 (B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1
 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q.33 From the following cost components of a building construction project which is not a direct cost
combination?

P. Labour cost
Q. Equipment cost
R. Material cost
S. Establishment cost
T. Supervision cost

(A) P and Q (B) Q and R (C) P and R (D) S and T

)
14
Q.34 A house located in Delhi has 111 m2 of flat terrace area (runoff coefficient = 0.85) and 55 m2 of
ground area covered with grass (runoff coefficient = 0.15). If annual average rainfall is 611.8 mm,
then rain water harvesting potential (L/year) from runoff will be ______________

20
Q.35 Match the elements in Group I with the structures in Group II

Group I Group II
P. Harmika 1. Dilwara Temple, Mount Abu
Q. Sixteen Vidyadevis 2. Sun Temple, Modhera
E
R. Lat pillar 3. Stupa of Sanchi
S. Urushringa 4. Lauriya, Nandangarh
AT

5. Great Kailash Temple, Ellora

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(G

Q.36 At a site, based on percolation test, the allowable rate of treated sewage application was determined
as 65 L/m2/day. The effective depth (m) of a soak pit with a diameter of 2.5 m for the disposal of
1020 L/day of septic tank effluent is ______________

Q.37 Match the AutoCAD command in Group I with their functions in Group II
AR

Group I Group II
P. OOPS 1. Creates solid lines
Q. RAY 2. Restores an erased drawing
R. TRACE 3. Manages customized user interface elements
S. CUI 4. Creates semi-infinite line
5. Creates a five sided 3D solid with a sloped face
tapering along the X axis

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q.38 Match the bridges in Group I with their structure type in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Harbour Bridge, Sydney 1. Simply Supported

Q. Golden Gate Bridge, San Francisco 2. Cable Stayed
R. Howrah Bridge, Kolkata 3. Arch
S. Millau Viaduct, Millau 4. Suspension
5. Cantilever

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2 (B) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

)
14
Q.39 The arithmetic average value of the sound absorption coefficient for a specific material and
particular mounting condition for four frequencies is
(A) Transmission coefficient (B) Noise reduction coefficient

20
(C) Absorption coefficient (D) Reflection coefficient

Q.40 A single span simply supported reinforced concrete beam (250 mm wide and 480 mm effective
depth) is subjected to a concentrated load of 120 kN at its mid-span. Neglecting self-weight of the
E
beam, the nominal shear stress (MPa) at the support section is ______________
AT

Q.41 The optimistic time, the pessimistic time and the most likely time of a job are 6, 13 and 8 days
respectively. The variance for this job is _______________

Q.42 A refuse collection system consisting of two chutes is to be provided in a 20 storied residential
(G

building with 2 flats/floor (average family size = 5) and with each chute serving one flat on each
floor. Average quantity of refuse and its density are 880 g/person/day and 240 kg/m3 respectively. If
the cleaning interval is two days, then the minimum size of the refuse container (litre) at the bottom
of each chute is _______________
AR

Q.43 Match the features in Group I with their architectural periods in Group II

Group I Group II
P. Caryatids 1. Roman
Q. Hypocaust 2. Gothic
R. Pylons 3. Greek
S. Lofty Pinnacles 4. Egyptian
5. Romanesque

(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (B) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q.44 Match the following terminologies in Group I with their descriptions in Group II

Group I Group II
P. Pruning 1. Useful in reproducing plants that would not breed true if
propagated by seed
Q. Topiary 2. A live bud from a desired plant inserted into a host plant
R. Grafting 3. Cutting of evergreen shrubs into abstract or geometric shapes
S. Budding 4. Trimming and cutting of lawns
5. Selective cutting of plant branches for better growth

)
(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

14
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Q.45 In a dance hall the indoor and outdoor temperatures are 28°C and 18°C respectively. There is an

20
internal heat gain of 5 kW and the specific heat of air (on volume basis) is 1300 J/m3 °C, then the
necessary cross sectional area (m2) of a duct with an air velocity of 2 m/s required for cooling by
ventilation is ____________

Q.46 Assuming full compaction, strength of concrete is inversely proportional to

E
(A) Water - cement ratio (B) Water - sand ratio
(C) Water - coarse aggregate ratio (D) Water - plasticiser ratio
AT

Q.47 Match the terms in Group I with their examples in Group II

Group I Group II
P. Incentive zoning 1. Boardwalk, Atlantic City
(G

Q. Universal design 2. Minneapolis, USA

R. Promenading 3. Broadway Theatre District, New York
S. Skyway system 4. Pruitt Igoe Housing, St. Louis, Missouri
5. Curitiba, Brazil
AR

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

Q.48 If yield stress of steel is 415 MPa, then strain in tensile reinforcement at the limit state of collapse
shall be at least _____________. For steel, the Young’s Modulus, E = 2 X 105 MPa.
 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q.49 Match the books in Group I with their authors in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Architecture Now! 1. Ian Mc Harg

Q. Intentions in Architecture 2. Robert Venturi
R. Design with Nature 3. Christopher Alexander
S. Complexity & Contradictions in Architecture 4. Philip Jodidio
5. Christian Norberg Schulz

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

)
14
Q.50 Match the common names of the trees in Group I with their botanical names in Group II

Group I Group II
P. Gulmohar 1. Dalbergia Sissoo

20
Q. Palash 2. Ficus Benghalensis
R. Indian Mahogany 3. Delonix Regia
S. Banyan 4. Toona Ciliata
5. Butea Monosperma
E
(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2
AT

Q.51 A room of internal dimension 4m x 5m x 3.5m (LxBxH) has 20 cm thick walls and two doors of
size 1m x 2m. The required area of Damp Proof Course (sq.m) is _____________
(G

Q.52 A load of 30 kN is applied vertically downward at the free end of a cantilever of span 5 m. If the
elastic modulus of the cantilever is 30 GPa and the section has a width of 0.3 m and a depth of 0.6 m,
then, the elastic deflection (in mm) is ______________
AR

Q.53 Associate the plans in Group I with the options in Group II

Group I Group II
P. City Development Plan 1. PMGSY
Q. Slum Free City Plan 2. JNNURM
R. Transport Network Plan 3. RAY
S. Disaster Management Plan 4. NDMA
5. RSVY

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
 Shared in QualifyGate.com

Q.54 The capacity of a hall is 600 persons and its volume is 3000 cu.m. If an optimum reverberation time
of 1.0 second is to be achieved then the required total absorption (m2sabine) is _____________

Q.55 A solid straight steel rod of diameter 100 mm is bent in single curvature into a circular arc by a
moment of 50 kNm applied at its ends. If elastic modulus, E, for steel is 2 x 105 MPa, the radius of
curvature (mm) of the arc assuming π=3.14 is _____________

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

)
14
20
E
AT
(G
AR