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GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.

Navigating to a Question :

7. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question
and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
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Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.

You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question :

8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.

11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
answering will be considered for evaluation.

Choosing a Section :

13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will
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only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
questions in the Section.
16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.

Changing the Optional Section :

18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.

19. If you deselect the checkbox for an optional Section in the top bar, the following
warning message will appear: "Deselecting the checkbox will DELETE all the answers
for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section?” If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.

20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.
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GATE 2014 Examination
CE: Civil Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.
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Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

A person suffering from Alzheimer’s disease short-term memory loss.

(A) experienced (B) has experienced
(C) is experiencing (D) experiences

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have.

)
14
(A) Contentment (B) Ambition (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger

Q.3 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below?

20
“As a woman, I have no country.”
(A) Women have no country.
(B) Women are not citizens of any country.
(C) Women’s solidarity knows no national boundaries.
(D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.

Q.4
E
In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the
Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes
AT
is ____ years.

Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would
it take to double at this growth rate?
(G

(A) 3-4 years (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years
02

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the
group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group?
A

Statements
1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
G

2. Shiv is elder to Som.

(A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child.
(B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child.
(C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child.
(D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child.
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Q.7 Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of
exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of
the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with
exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data
point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis.
From “BIG DATA” Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier

The main point of the paragraph is:

(A) The twenty-first century is a digital world
(B) Big data is obsessed with exactness
(C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data
(D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis

)
Q.8 The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below.
The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of

14
exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through
export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total
revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1
per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?

20
Exports Revenues

Item 6
16%
Item 1
11%
E Item 6
19%
Item 1
12%
AT
Item 5 Item 2
12% 20% Item 2
Item 5 20%
20%
Item 3
Item 4 19%
Item 4 Item 3
22%
(G

6% 23%
02

(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1

Q.9 X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is

1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km?
A

(A) 1 (B) √2 (C) √3 (D) 2

10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this
G

Q.10
kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV− individuals 89% of the time. A
particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the
individual is actually positive is _______

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 A fair (unbiased) coin was tossed four times in succession and resulted in the following outcomes:
(i) Head, (ii) Head, (iii) Head, (iv) Head. The probability of obtaining a 'Tail' when the coin is
tossed again is

1 4 1
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
2 5 5

Q.2 0 1 2 3
1 0 3 0
The determinant of matrix 

)
is _____________
2 3 0 1
 

14
3 0 1 2

Q.3 2 − 3i

20
z= can be expressed as
−5+i

(A) − 0.5 − 0.5i (B) − 0.5 + 0.5i

(C) 0.5 − 0.5i E (D) 0.5 + 0.5i
AT
Q.4 dP
The integrating factor for the differential equation + k 2 P = k1 Lo e − k1t is
dt

(A) e − k1t (B) e − k 2t (C) e k1t (D) e k2t

(G

Q.5 If {x} is a continuous, real valued random variable defined over the interval (− ∞, + ∞) and its
1 𝑥𝑥 −𝑎𝑎 2
1 − � �
occurrence is defined by the density function given as: 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑒𝑒 2 𝑏𝑏 where 'a' and 'b'
√2𝜋𝜋∗𝑏𝑏
are the statistical attributes of the random variable {x}. The value of the integral
2

1 𝑥𝑥−𝑎𝑎 2
𝑎𝑎 1 − � �
∫−∞ √2𝜋𝜋∗𝑏𝑏 𝑒𝑒 2 𝑏𝑏 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 is
E0

π
(A) 1 (B) 0.5 (C) π (D)
2
C
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Q.6 Group I contains representative stress-strain curves as shown in the figure, while Group II gives the
list of materials. Match the stress-strain curves with the corresponding materials.
Stress
J

L Group I Group II
K
P. Curve J 1. Cement paste
Q. Curve K 2. Coarse aggregate
R. Curve L 3. Concrete

)
Strain

14
(A) P - 1; Q - 3; R - 2 (B) P - 2; Q - 3; R - 1
(C) P - 3; Q - 1; R - 2 (D) P - 3; Q - 2; R - 1

20
Q.7 The first moment of area about the axis of bending for a beam cross-section is
E
(A) moment of inertia (B) section modulus
(C) shape factor (D) polar moment of inertia
AT

Q.8 Polar moment of inertia (Ip), in cm4, of a rectangular section having width, b = 2 cm and depth,
d = 6 cm is ________________
(G

Q.9 The target mean strength fcm for concrete mix design obtained from the characteristic strength fck
and standard deviation σ, as defined in IS:456-2000, is

(A) fck + 1.35σ (B) fck + 1.45σ

2

(C) fck + 1.55σ (D) fck + 1.65σ

E0

Q.10 The flexural tensile strength of M25 grade of concrete, in N/mm2, as per IS:456-2000 is
__________
C

Q.11 The modulus of elasticity, E = 5000 f ck where f ck is the characteristic compressive strength of
concrete, specified in IS:456-2000 is based on

(A) tangent modulus (B) initial tangent modulus

(C) secant modulus (D) chord modulus
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Q.12 The static indeterminacy of the two-span continuous beam with an internal hinge, shown below, is
______________

Q.13 As per Indian Standard Soil Classification System (IS: 1498 - 1970), an expression for A-line is

(A) Ip = 0.73 (wL − 20) (B) Ip = 0.70 (wL − 20)

(C) Ip = 0.73 (wL − 10) (D) Ip = 0.70 (wL − 10)

)
14
Q.14 The clay mineral primarily governing the swelling behavior of Black Cotton soil is

(A) Halloysite (B) Illite (C) Kaolinite (D) Montmorillonite

20
Q.15 The contact pressure for a rigid footing resting on clay at the centre and the edges are respectively

(A) maximum and zero (B) maximum and minimum

(C) zero and maximum (D) minimum and maximum
E
AT
Q.16 A certain soil has the following properties: Gs = 2.71, n = 40% and w = 20%. The degree of
saturation of the soil (rounded off to the nearest percent) is __________
(G

Q.17 x y
A plane flow has velocity components u = , v=− and w = 0 along x, y and z directions
T1 T2
respectively, where T1 (≠ 0) and T2 (≠ 0) are constants having the dimension of time. The given
flow is incompressible if
2

T2 T2
(A) T1 = −T2 (B) T1 = − (C) T1 = (D) T1 = T2
2 2
E0

Q.18 Group I lists a few devices while Group II provides information about their uses. Match the devices
with their corresponding use.
C

Group I Group II

P. Anemometer 1. Capillary potential of soil water

Q. Hygrometer 2. Fluid velocity at a specific point in the flow stream
R. Pitot Tube 3. Water vapour content of air
S. Tensiometer 4. Wind speed

(A) P - 1; Q -2; R - 3; S - 4 (B) P - 2; Q - 1; R - 4; S- 3

(C) P - 4; Q - 2; R - 1; S - 3 (D) P - 4; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 1
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Q.19 An isolated 3-h rainfall event on a small catchment produces a hydrograph peak and point of
inflection on the falling limb of the hydrograph at 7 hours and 8.5 hours respectively, after the start
of the rainfall. Assuming, no losses and no base flow contribution, the time of concentration (in
hours) for this catchment is approximately

(A) 8.5 (B) 7.0 (C) 6.5 (D) 5.5

Q.20 The Muskingum model of routing a flood through a stream reach is expressed as
O2 = K 0 I 2 + K1 I1 + K 2O1 , where K 0 , K1 and K 2 are the routing coefficients for the concerned
reach, I1 and I 2 are the inflows to the reach, and O1 and O2 are the outflows from the reach
corresponding to time steps 1 and 2 respectively. The sum of K 0 , K1 and K 2 of the model is

)
14
(A) −1 (B) − 0.5 (C) 0.5 (D) 1

20
Q.21 The dominating microorganisms in an activated sludge process reactor are

(A) aerobic heterotrophs (B) anaerobic heterotrophs

(C) autotrophs (D) phototrophs
E
Q.22 The two air pollution control devices that are usually used to remove very fine particles from the
flue gas are
AT
(A) Cyclone and Venturi Scrubber
(B) Cyclone and Packed Scrubber
(C) Electrostatic Precipitator and Fabric Filter
(G

(D) Settling Chamber and Tray Scrubber

Q.23 The average spacing between vehicles in a traffic stream is 50 m, then the density (in veh/km) of
the stream is ________________
2
E0

Q.24 A road is being designed for a speed of 110 km/hr on a horizontal curve with a super elevation of
8%. If the coefficient of side friction is 0.10, the minimum radius of the curve (in m) required for
safe vehicular movement is

(A) 115.0 (B) 152.3 (C) 264.3 (D) 528.5

C

Q.25 The survey carried out to delineate natural features, such as hills, rivers, forests and man-made
features, such as towns, villages, buildings, roads, transmission lines and canals is classified as

(A) engineering survey (B) geological survey

(C) land survey (D) topographic survey
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Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 𝑥𝑥 𝛼𝛼 −1
The expression lim𝛼𝛼 →0 is equal to
𝛼𝛼

(A) log 𝑥𝑥 (B) 0 (C) 𝑥𝑥 log 𝑥𝑥 (D) ∞

Q.27 An observer counts 240 veh/h at a specific highway location. Assume that the vehicle arrival at the
location is Poisson distributed, the probability of having one vehicle arriving over a 30-second time

)
interval is ____________

14
Q.28 6 0 4 4 

The rank of the matrix − 2 14 8 18  is _______________

20
 14 − 14 0 − 10

Q.29 Water is flowing at a steady rate through a homogeneous and saturated horizontal soil strip of 10 m
E
length. The strip is being subjected to a constant water head (H) of 5 m at the beginning and 1 m at
d 2H
the end. If the governing equation of flow in the soil strip is = 0 (where x is the distance
AT
dx 2
along the soil strip), the value of H (in m) at the middle of the strip is ___________

Q.30 The values of axial stress (σ) in kN/m2, bending moment (M) in kNm, and shear force (V) in kN
(G

acting at point P for the arrangement shown in the figure are respectively

Cable Frictionless
Pulley
2

P Beam Q
E0

(0.2 m × 0.2 m)

3m
C

50 kN

(A) 1000, 75 and 25 (B) 1250, 150 and 50

(C) 1500, 225 and 75 (D) 1750, 300 and 100
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Q.31 The beam of an overall depth 250 mm (shown below) is used in a building subjected to two
different thermal environments. The temperatures at the top and bottom surfaces of the beam are
36°C and 72°C respectively. Considering coefficient of thermal expansion (α) as 1.50×10−5 per °C,
the vertical deflection of the beam (in mm) at its mid-span due to temperature gradient is ________

36 °C
250 mm

72 °C
1.5 m 1.5 m

)
Q.32 The axial load (in kN) in the member PQ for the arrangement/assembly shown in the figure given

14
below is _______________

20
2m
E
AT
160 kN

R
Q Beam
(G

S
2m 2m
2

Q.33 Considering the symmetry of a rigid frame as shown below, the magnitude of the bending moment
E0

(in kNm) at P (preferably using the moment distribution method) is

24 kN/m

4Ic P 4Ic
C

6m
Ic Ic Ic

8m 8m

(A) 170 (B) 172 (C) 176 (D) 178

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Q.34 A prismatic beam (as shown below) has plastic moment capacity of Mp, then the collapse load P of
the beam is
P
P 2

L L L
2 2 3

)
2M p 4M p 6M p 8M p

14
(A) (B) (C) (D)
L L L L

20
Q.35 The tension (in kN) in a 10 m long cable, shown in the figure, neglecting its self-weight is

3m 3m
S
P Q

Cable
E y
Cable
R
AT
120 kN

(A) 120 (B) 75 (C) 60 (D) 45

(G

Q.36 For the state of stresses (in MPa) shown in the figure below, the maximum shear stress (in MPa) is
_______________
2

4
4
E0

2 2
C

Q.37 An infinitely long slope is made up of a c-φ soil having the properties: cohesion (c) = 20 kPa, and
dry unit weight (γd) = 16 kN/m3. The angle of inclination and critical height of the slope are 40° and
5 m, respectively. To maintain the limiting equilibrium, the angle of internal friction of the soil (in
degrees) is _________________
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Q.38 Group I enlists in-situ field tests carried out for soil exploration, while Group II provides a list of
parameters for sub-soil strength characterization. Match the type of tests with the characterization
parameters.

Group I Group II

P. Pressuremeter Test (PMT) 1. Menard’s modulus (Em)

Q. Static Cone Penetration Test (SCPT) 2. Number of blows (N)
R. Standard Penetration Test (SPT) 3. Skin resistance (fc)
S. Vane Shear Test (VST) 4. Undrained cohesion (cu)

)
14
(A) P - 1; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 4 (B) P - 1; Q - 2; R - 3; S - 4
(C) P - 2; Q - 3; R - 4; S - 1 (D) P - 4; Q - 1; R - 2; S - 3

20
Q.39 A single vertical friction pile of diameter 500 mm and length 20 m is subjected to a vertical
compressive load. The pile is embedded in a homogeneous sandy stratum where: angle of internal
friction (φ) = 30°, dry unit weight (γd) = 20 kN/m3 and angle of wall friction (δ) = 2φ/3.
Considering the coefficient of lateral earth pressure (K) = 2.7 and the bearing capacity factor
(Nq) = 25, the ultimate bearing capacity of the pile (in kN) is _______________
E
Q.40 A circular raft foundation of 20 m diameter and 1.6 m thick is provided for a tank that applies a
AT
bearing pressure of 110 kPa on sandy soil with Young's modulus, Es' = 30 MPa and Poisson's ratio,
υs = 0.3. The raft is made of concrete (Ec = 30 GPa and υc = 0.15). Considering the raft as rigid, the
elastic settlement (in mm) is

(A) 50.96 (B) 53.36 (C) 63.72 (D) 66.71

(G

Q.41 A horizontal nozzle of 30 mm diameter discharges a steady jet of water into the atmosphere at a
rate of 15 litres per second. The diameter of inlet to the nozzle is 100 mm. The jet impinges normal
2

to a flat stationary plate held close to the nozzle end. Neglecting air friction and considering the
density of water as 1000 kg/m3, the force exerted by the jet (in N) on the plate is _________
E0

Q.42 A venturimeter having a throat diameter of 0.1 m is used to estimate the flow rate of a horizontal
pipe having a diameter of 0.2 m. For an observed pressure difference of 2 m of water head and
coefficient of discharge equal to unity, assuming that the energy losses are negligible, the flow rate
C

(in m3/s) through the pipe is approximately equal to

(A) 0.500 (B) 0.150 (C) 0.050 (D) 0.015

Q.43 A rectangular channel of 2.5 m width is carrying a discharge of 4 m3/s. Considering that
acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2, the velocity of flow (in m/s) corresponding to the critical
depth (at which the specific energy is minimum) is _______
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Q.44 Irrigation water is to be provided to a crop in a field to bring the moisture content of the soil from
the existing 18% to the field capacity of the soil at 28%. The effective root zone of the crop is 70
cm. If the densities of the soil and water are 1.3 g/cm3 and 1.0 g/cm3 respectively, the depth of
irrigation water (in mm) required for irrigating the crop is ________

Q.45 With reference to a standard Cartesian (x, y) plane, the parabolic velocity distribution profile of
fully developed laminar flow in x-direction between two parallel, stationary and identical plates that
are separated by distance, h, is given by the expression

ℎ2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑦𝑦 2
𝑢𝑢 = − �1 − 4 � � �
8𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 ℎ

)
14
In this equation, the y = 0 axis lies equidistant between the plates at a distance h/2 from the two
plates, p is the pressure variable and µ is the dynamic viscosity term. The maximum and average
velocities are, respectively

20
ℎ 2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 2
(A) 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = − and 𝑢𝑢𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
8𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 3
ℎ2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 2
(B) 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = and 𝑢𝑢𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
8𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 3
ℎ2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
E 3
(C) 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = − and 𝑢𝑢𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
8𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 8
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ℎ2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 3
(D) 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = and 𝑢𝑢𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
8𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 8
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Q.46 A suspension of sand like particles in water with particles of diameter 0.10 mm and below is
flowing into a settling tank at 0.10 m3/s. Assume g = 9.81 m/s2, specific gravity of particles = 2.65,
and kinematic viscosity of water =1.0105×10−2 cm2/s. The minimum surface area (in m2) required
for this settling tank to remove particles of size 0.06 mm and above with 100% efficiency is
_______________
2
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Q.47 A surface water treatment plant operates round the clock with a flow rate of 35 m3/min. The water
temperature is 15 oC and jar testing indicated an alum dosage of 25 mg/l with flocculation at a Gt
value of 4×104 producing optimal results. The alum quantity required for 30 days (in kg) of
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operation of the plant is ____________

Q.48 An effluent at a flow rate of 2670 m3/d from a sewage treatment plant is to be disinfected. The
laboratory data of disinfection studies with a chlorine dosage of 15 mg/l yield the model
N t = N o e −0.145t where Nt = number of micro-organisms surviving at time t (in min.) and
No = number of micro-organisms present initially (at t = 0). The volume of disinfection unit (in m3)
required to achieve a 98% kill of micro-organisms is ______________
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Q.49 A waste water stream (flow = 2 m3/s, ultimate BOD = 90 mg/l) is joining a small river (flow =
12 m3/s, ultimate BOD = 5 mg/l). Both water streams get mixed up instantaneously. Cross-
sectional area of the river is 50 m2. Assuming the de-oxygenation rate constant, k' = 0.25/day, the
BOD (in mg/l) of the river water, 10 km downstream of the mixing point is

(A) 1.68 (B) 12.63 (C) 15.46 (D) 1.37

Q.50 In a Marshall sample, the bulk specific gravity of mix and aggregates are 2.324 and 2.546
respectively. The sample includes 5% of bitumen (by total weight of mix) of specific gravity 1.10.
The theoretical maximum specific gravity of mix is 2.441. The void filled with bitumen (VFB) in

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the Marshall sample (in %) is ___________

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Q.51 A student riding a bicycle on a 5 km one-way street takes 40 minutes to reach home. The student
stopped for 15 minutes during this ride. 60 vehicles overtook the student (assume the number of

20
vehicles overtaken by the student is zero) during the ride and 45 vehicles while the student stopped.
The speed of vehicle stream on that road (in km/hr) is

(A) 7.5 (B) 12 (C) 40 (D) 60

Q.52
E
On a section of a highway the speed-density relationship is linear and is given by v = [80 −
2
3
k] ;
where 𝑣𝑣 is in km/h and 𝑘𝑘 is in veh/km. The capacity (in veh/h) of this section of the highway would
AT
be

(A) 1200 (B) 2400 (C) 4800 (D) 9600

(G

Q.53 A pre-timed four phase signal has critical lane flow rate for the first three phases as 200, 187 and
210 veh/hr with saturation flow rate of 1800 veh/hr/lane for all phases. The lost time is given as 4
seconds for each phase. If the cycle length is 60 seconds, the effective green time (in seconds) of
the fourth phase is ______________
2

Q.54 A tacheometer was placed at point P to estimate the horizontal distances PQ and PR. The
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corresponding stadia intercepts with the telescope kept horizontal, are 0.320 m and 0.210 m,
respectively. The ∠QPR is measured to be 61o 30' 30". If the stadia multiplication constant = 100
and stadia addition constant = 0.10 m, the horizontal distance (in m) between the points Q and R is
_________________
C

R
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Q.55 The chainage of the intersection point of two straights is 1585.60 m and the angle of intersection is
140o. If the radius of a circular curve is 600.00 m, the tangent distance (in m) and length of the
curve (in m), respectively are

(A) 418.88 and 1466.08 (B) 218.38 and 1648.49

(C) 218.38 and 418.88 (D) 418.88 and 218.38

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

)
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20
E
AT
(G
2
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