Ppe MCQ

DHIRAJLAL GANDHI COLLEGE OF TECHNOLOGY
ME8792 Power Plant Engineering / Objective Questions Prepared by Mr.R.Manikandan AP / Mech
1. The alternator is used in a power plant which converts.......

a.Electrical Energy into Mechanical Energy
b.Electrical energy into Solar Energy
c.Mechanical Energy into Electrical Energy
d.Mechanical Energy into Nuclear Energy
2. In a power station 'Load Center' means........

a.Center of maximum load of equipments
b.Center of coal fields
c.Center of gravity of electrical system
d.Corner of power plant
3. The efficiency of chimney is approximately........

a.20%
b.90%
c.10%
d.65%
4. The pressure at the furnaces minimum in case of........

a.Forced draught system
b.Induced draught system
c.Balanced draught system
d.Natural draught system
5. The draught which a chimney produces is called.......

a.Induced draught
b.Natural draught
c.Forced draught
d.Balanced draught
6. Binary vapour cycles are used to........

a.Increase the performance of the condenser
b.Increase the efficiency of the plant
c.Increase the efficiency of the plant
d.None of the above
7. Heating value of coal is approximately

a. 1000-2000 kcal / kg
b. 2000-4000 kcal / kg
c. 5000-6500 kcal / kg
d. 9000-10,500 kcal / kg
8. A 100 MW Thermal power plant consumes…………… of coal per hour

a.100 tonnes
b.150 tonnes
c.50 tonnes
d.2000 tonnes
9. In thermal power plants, coal is transferred from bunker to the other places by
a. Hoists
b. conveyors
c. cranes
d. lifts
Opposite Salem Airport, Sikkanampatty (po), Omalur (Tk), Salem – 636 309
10. The correct sequence of factors in order of deceasing importance for location of a thermal
power plant is
a.load, coal, water
b.coal, water, load
c.Water, load, coal
d.water, coal, load
11. The efficiency of superheat Rankine cycle is higher than that of simple Rankine cycle
because The enthalpy of main steam is higher for superheat cycle
a.The mean temperature of heat addition is higher for superheat cycle
b.The temperature of steam in the condenser is high
c.The quality of stem in the condenser is low
d.The temperature of steam in the condenser is low
12. A: In a power plant working on a Rankine cycle, the regenerative feed water heating
improves the efficiency of the steam turbine.R: The regenerative feed water heating raises the
average temperature of heat addition in the Rankine cycle.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. A is false but R is true
13. In a Rankine cycle, regeneration results in higher efficiency because

a.Pressure inside the boiler increases
b.Heat is added before steam enters the low pressure turbine
c.Average temperature of heat addition in the boiler increases
d.Total work delivered by the turbine increases
14. For a given set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle, the highest, efficiency
occurs for
a. Saturated cycle
b.Superheated cycle
c.Reheat cycle
d.Regenerative cycle.
15. In steam and other vapour cycles, the process of removing non- condensable is called
A.Scavenging process
B.Deaeration process
C.Exhaust process
D.Condensation process
16. Consider the following processes:

1. Constant pressure heat addition.
2. Adiabatic compression.
3. Adiabatic expansion.
4. Constant pressure heat rejection.
The correct sequence of these processes in Rankine cycle is:
a.1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 1, 4, 3
c. 2, 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4, 3
17. In a Rankine cycle, with the maximum steam temperature being fixed from
metallurgical considerations, as the boiler pressure increases
a.The condenser load will increase
b.The quality of turbine exhaust will decrease
c.The quality of turbine exhaust will increase
d.The quality of turbine exhaust will remain unchanged
18. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. Efficiency of the Carnot cycle for thermal power plant is high and work ratio is also high
in comparison to the Rankin cycle.
b.Efficiency of the Carnot cycle is high and work ratio is low in comparison to the
Rankin cycle.
c.Efficiency of the Carnot cycle is low and work ratio is also low in comparison to the
Rankin cycle.
d.Both the cycle have same efficiencies and work ratio.
19. In India largest thermal power station is located at

a. Kota
b. Sarni
c. Chandrapur
d. Neyveli
20. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
a.15 to 20 percent
b.35 to 45 percent
c.70 to 80 percent
d.90 to 95 percent
21. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by........

a.Exhaust gas
b.Heaters
c.Draining steam from the turbine
d.All of the above
22. The efficiency of chimney is approximately........

a.20%
b..90%
c.10%
d.65%
23. Having two separate units for process heat and power is?
a. useful
b. useless
c.pollution reducing
d.none of the mentioned
24. Why at least one open heater is used?

a.installed vertically
b.feedwater deaeration
c.less cost
d.increase efficiency
25. A plant producing both, electrical power & process heat simultaneously is?
a. Cogenital plant
b. Cogenerial plantc.
c.Cogeneration plant
d. Conglomerate plant
26. Feedwater heaters are of two types, they are ____________

a. natural and forced
b. saturated and non saturated
c. open and close
d. water driven and steam driven
27. In a back pressure turbine _____________

a. pressure at the exhaust from the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the
temperature desired in the process
b. pressure at the entrance of the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature
desired in the process
c. pressure at the exhaust from the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the pressure
desired in the process
d. none of the mentioned
28.TTD stands for

a. turbine temperature difference
b. total temperature difference
c. terminal temperature difference
d. turbine terminal difference
29. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in __________

a. smoky flame
b. increased fuel consumption
c. incomplete combustion
30. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by

a.exhaust gases
b.heaters
c. draining steam from the turbine
d.all above
31. With increase in moisture content of coal, its __________

a.calorific value increases sometimes
b.bulk density always decreases
c. clinkering tendency during combustion increases
32. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it has
a.higher critical temperature and pressure
b.higher saturation temperature than other fluids
c.relatively low vapourisation pressure
d.all above
33. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by brick chimney for the
same height is
a.less
b.more
c. same
d.may be more or less
34. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is

a. to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the primemover
b. to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
c. to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
c. all of the above
35. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?

a. Lancashire boiler
b. Cochran boiler
c. Babcock & Wilcox boiler
d. Locomotive boiler
36. The equivalent evaporation is defined as?

a. the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace
b. the amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg of fuel burnt
c. the amount of water evaporated from and at 100 degree C into dry & saturated steam
37. Economiser is used to heat

a. air
b.feed water
c.flue gases
d.all above
38. An economiser is installed in a boiler primarily to ___________

a. increase steam pressure
b. reduce fuel consumption
c. superheat the steam
d. all of the mentioned
39. Fan is located in induced draught........

a.Near bottom of furnace
b.Near bottom of chimney
c.At the of chimney
d.Anywhere
40. Secondary air is the air used to

a. reduce the flame length
b.increase the flame length
c.transport and dry the coal
d.provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion
41. Blowing down of boiler water is the process

a.to reduce the boiler pressure
b.to increase the steam temperature
c.to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by removing some of the concentrated
saline water
d. none of the above
42. Artifical draught nomally designed to produce ........

a.ess smoke
b.More draught
c.Less chimney gas temperature
d.All of the above
43. Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of.......

a.Cast iron
b.Steel
c.Copper
d.Aluminium
44. The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is called
a.primary air
b.secondary air
c.tertiary air
d. None of the Above
45. Pulverised fuel is used for.......

a.Better burning
b.Saving fuel
c.Obtaining fuel
d.For economy
46. Water that is fed back to the boiler by the pump is called?
a) Adsorbate
b) Absorbate
c) Condenset
d) Condensate
47. The incomplete combustion is indicated by the presence of

a) O2
b) Water vapours
c) CO
d) CO2
48. Combined cycle power plants may need

(a) MHD generator
(b) Thermionic converter
(c) Thermoelectric generator
(d) All of the above
49. Super heater is employed to

1. Remove moisture from the vapours
2. Increase the temperature of vapours
3. Heat the feed water
Which of the given statements is incorrect?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
50. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of.......

A.Forced draught system
B.Induced draught system
C.Balanced draught system
D.Natural draught system
51. Modern steam plants works on which of the following cycles?

a. Carnot cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle
d. Bell- Coleman cycle
52. What would be the most important factor under consideration for the site selection of a thermal
plant?
a. Availability of fuel.
b. Availability of water.
c. Distance from the populated area.
d. Cost and the type of land.
53. The major use of the Economiser is ___________.

a. Heat up the incoming water with exhaust steam.
b. Heat up the pulverised fuel by exhaust.
c. Heat up the incoming air by exhaust gases.
d. Heat up the incoming water by exhaust gases
54. The feed water entering into a Economiser in a thermal plant gets heated up by____________.
a. H.P cycle
b. Flue gases
c. L.P cycle
d. Direct heat from the furnace
55. The flue gases are released to the atmosphere through _____________.
a. Air- Preheater
b. Forced draught
c. Induced draught
d. Electrostatic precipitator
56. In a superheater _____________.

a. Pressure rises and temperature drops.
b. Temperature rises and pressure drops.
c. Temperature rises and pressure remains unchanged.
d. Pressure rises and temperature remains the same.
57. Equipment installed in the steam plants to reduce the rate of air pollution is________________.
a. De super heater
b. Air filter
c. Air electrostatic precipitator
d. Stock
58. The boiler commonly used in a thermal plant are__________________.

a. Water tube type
b. Fire tube
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
59. What is the main advantage of the usage of high pressure boilers in a thermal plant?
a. Lower price
b. Increase in efficiency
c. Low grade fuel can be burnt.
d. Both (b) and (c)
60. What is the normal range of pH of water to be maintained in the steam rising in the thermal
power station?
a. 3.5
b. 7.02
c. 8.5
d. 9.87
61. The Otto cycle is the

a) air standard cycle of CI engine
b) air standard cycle of SI engine
c) vapour power cycle of CI engine
d) vapour power cycle of SI engine
62. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

a) spark
b) injected fuel
c) heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
d) combustion chamber
63. The Brayton cycle consists of

a) two reversible isotherms and two reversible isobars
b) two reversible isochores and two reversible adiabatics
c) two reversible isotherms and two reversible isochores
d) two reversible isobars and two reversible adiabatics
64. The correct sequence of strokes in a four-stroke SI engine is

a) intake->compression->exhaust->expansion
b) intake->expansion->compression->exhaust
c) intake->exhaust->compression->expansion
d) intake->compression->expansion->exhaust
65. Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine are __________ the speed of
the engine in r.p.m.
a) equal to
b) one-half
c) four-times
d) twice
66. In Dual cycle, heat rejection takes place

a) at Constant volume
b) first at constant volume then at constant pressure
c) constant pressure
d) none of the mentioned
67. The pressure in cylinder is ____ the atmospheric value during exhaust stroke and ____ it during
intake stroke.
a) above, below
b) below, above
c) equal to, equal to
d) equal to, above
68. What is the difference between a Rankine cycle & a Brayton cycle?
a) working fluid in a Brayton cycle undergoes phase change while it doesn’t in Rankine cycle
b) working fluid in a Brayton cycle doesn’t undergo phase change while it does in Rankine
cycle
c) both are same
69. γ for air is equal to

a) 1.0
b) 1.2
c) 1.3
d) 1.4
70. The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine on weak mixtures is

a) unaffected
b) lower
c) higher
71. Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?

a) Reciprocating compressor
b) Screw compressor
c) Multistage axial flow compressor
d) Either Reciprocating compressor & Screw compressor
72. Which of the following statement is true?

a) efficiency of air standard cycle is a function of compression ratio and temperature levels
b) higher the compression ratio, higher will be the efficiency
c) efficiency is dependent on the temperature levels at which the cycle operates
d) all of the mentioned
73. The combustion in compression ignition engine is

a) homogeneous
b) heterogeneous
c) laminar
74. A diesel engine has compression ratio from

a) 6 to 10
b) 10 to 15
c) 16 to 20
d) 25 to 40
75. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of

a) 5-10 kg/cm2
b) 20-25 kg/cm2
c) 60-80 kg/cm2
d) 90-130 kg/cm2
76. Power is produced when the working fluid does some work on the?
a) Shaft
b) Fins
c) Blades
d) None of the mentioned
77. The efficiency of Brayton cycle depends on

a) compression ratio
b) pressure ratio
c) either compression ratio or pressure ratio
d) both compression ratio and pressure ratio
78. For Brayton cycle, average specific volume of air that compressor handles is ____ the same of
gas in a gas turbine.
a) equal to
b) more than
c) less than
79. The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following fuels?
a) Coal and Peat
b) Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil
c) Gas oil
d) Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel
80. In a two-stroke engine,

a) the crankcase is sealed
b) the outward motion of piston is used to pressurize the air-fuel mixture
c) the intake and exhaust valves are replaced by opening in lower part of cylinder wall
d) all of the mentioned
81. Which of the SI engine can be run on biogas?

a) Diesel engine
b) Petrol engine
c) IC engine
d) External combustion engine
82. What percent of installed capacity of gas turbines contribute to the total installed
capacity of the power plants in India?
a. 5 %
b. 8 %
c. 11 %
d. 15 %
83. Which gasifier equipment has inability to operate on a number of unprocessed fuels?
a) Counter current gasifier
b) Cross draught gasifier
c) Co-current gasifier
d) Fluidized bed gasifier
84. The gas turbines are mainly used in ________.

a. Locomotives
b. Aircrafts
c. Automobiles
d. pumping stations
85. Dual Cycle is a combination of

a) Otto cycle and Diesel cycle
b) Otto cycle and Stirling cycle
c) Brayton cycle and steam cycle
d) None of the mentioned
86. Which engine can run on dual fuel with little engine modification?
a) Diesel engine
b) Petrol engine
c) IC engine
d) External combustion engine
87. A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of __________
a) 40% alpha methyl napthalene and 60% cetane
b) 40% cetane and 60% alpha methyl napthalene
c) 40% petrol and 60% diesel
d) 40% diesel and 60% petrol
88. Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?
a. Condenser
b. Compressor
c. Boiler
d. None of these
89. The pressure at the end of compression, in petrol engines, is approximately __________
a) 10 bar
b) 20 bar
c) 25 bar
d) 35 bar
90. Gas turbine plants are not used ___________.

a. as peak load plants.
b. as base load plants.
c. as standby power plants.
d. in combination with the steam power plants.
91. The speed of the diesel engine may vary from
a. 0 – 100 rpm.
b. 200 – 1000 rpm.
c. 500 -5000 rpm.
d. 1000 – 3000 rpm.
92. The compressor has to be started

a. Before starting the gas turbine.
b. After starting the gas turbine.
c. Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine.
d. At any time during the operation.
93. It is very much necessary to treat the makeup water to remove the scale forming the impurities.
Which treatment is used?
a. Zeolite softener.
b. Lime or lime soda treatment
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of the following
94. The intake and exhaust processes are not considered in the p-V diagram of Otto cycle.
a) true
b) false
95. What is regeneration?

a. Removal of heat from compressed air between stages of compression.
b. Transfer of heat energy from exhaust gases to the compressed air flowing between
compressor and the combustion chamber.
c. To increase the temperature of partially expanded gases by burning more fuel.
d. None of these
96. Which material is used for the manufacture of the turbine blades?
a. Stainless steel.
b. Carbon steel.
c. High nickel alloy.
d. High alloy steel.
97. Which gasifier has better tar converting capacity?

a) Counter current gasifier
b) Cross draught gasifier
c) Co-current gasifier
d) Fluidized bed gasifier
98. In Rankine cycle, working fluid ____ , in Brayton cycle working fluid ____
a) undergoes phase change, remains in gaseous phase
b) remains in gaseous phase, undergoes phase change
c) undergoes phase change, undergoes phase change
d) remains in gaseous phase, remains in gaseous phase
99. A device for converting substances (chemically or physically) into gas is called ______
a) Gasifies
b) Biogas plants
c) Draughts
d) Gas chambers
100. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10
b) Petrol engines work on Otto cycle
c) Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher pressures
d) All of the mentioned
101. The diesel plants are mainly used ________.

a. as peak load plants.
b. as base load plants.
c. as standby power plants.
d. both peak and stand by plants.
102. A Gas Turbine is which type of combustion plant?

a) external
b) open
c) internal
d) cannot say
103. The two-stroke engine is ____ the four-stroke engine.

a) more efficient than
b) less efficient than
c) equally efficient to
104. In a 2 stroke engine, the operation cycle are completed in how many strokes and revolution?
a. 4 strokes and 2 revolutions
b. 2 stroke and 2 revolutions
c. 2 strokes and 1 revolution
d. 4 stroke and 4 revolutions
105. What is the percentage at which rated power from biogas in petrol engine can be developed?
a) 45%
b) 65%
c) 75%
d) 85%
106. The lubrication cost in a diesel power plant is _______.

a. High
b. Low
c. Moderate
d. Very low
107. The Otto cycle consists of

a) two reversible isotherms and two reversible isobars
b) two reversible isochores and two reversible adiabatics
c) two reversible isotherms and two reversible isochores
d) two reversible isobars and two reversible adiabatics
108. If the temperature of intake air in I.C. engine is lowered, then its efficiency will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) increase up to certain limit and then decrease
109. What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?
a) Reheat cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
110. A gas turbine power plant uses

a) Otto cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
111. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at

(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
(d) none of the above
112. Which of the following material can be used as a moderator?

a) Beryllium
b) Graphite
c) Heavy water
d) All of the mentioned
113. What is the major problem in nuclear plants?

a) Drawing out energy
b) Fusion of particles
c) Disposal of nuclear waste
d) Handling of fuel
114. Nucleus consists of two sub-particles known as?

a) Nucleotides
b) Nucleons
c) Neutrons
d) Nucleosides
115. Why has nuclear energy become an inevitable option for the development of the country?
a) Because less pollution caused by nuclear plant
b) High efficiency of nuclear energy
c) Due to acute shortage of other sources of energy
d) High cost of energy production of other sources
116. A nuclear unit becoming critical means

(a) it is generating power to rated capacity
(b) it is capable of generating much more than rated capacity
(c) there is danger of nuclear spread
(d) chain reaction that causes automatic splitting of the fuel nuclei has been established
117. Which of the following fuel material occurred naturally?

a.U235
b.Pu239
c.Pu241
d.U-233
118. Which of the following is not used as moderator?

a.water
b.heavy water
c.graphite
d.boron
119 A CANDU reactor uses __________.

a. Highly enriched uranium as fuel and light water as moderator and coolant.
b. Natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as moderator and coolant.
c. Enriched uranium as fuel and ordinary water as moderator and coolant.
d. Only fertile material
120. On which law is the nuclear energy explained?

a) Einstein’s law
b) Newton’s law
c) Rutherford law
d) Mendeleev law
121. Isotopes of same elements have

(a) same atomic number and different masses
(b) same chemical properties but different atomic numbers
(c) different masses and different atomic numbers
(d) different chemical properties and same atomic numbers
122. Number of protons in the nucleus is called ___________

a) Atomic number
b) Mass number
c) Electric charge
d) Periodic number
123. In a Sodium Graphite reactor (SGR), the fuel used along with enriched uranium alloy or
uranium carbide clad is ___________.
a. Steel
b. Stainless steel
c. Zirconium alloy
d. Plutonium Pu-239
124. The nuclear energy is measured as

a. MeV
b.curie
c.MW
d.kWhr
125. Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of

(a) unity
(b) more than unity
(c) less than unity
(d) zero
126. Which of the following has highest moderating ratio?

a.D2O
b.H2O
c.Carbon
d.Helium
127. In pressurized water reactor

a.light water is used as coolant
b.light water is used as coolant and moderator
c.heavy water is used as coolant
d.heavy water is used as coolant and moderator
128. Which is not identical for an atom and an isotope

(a) mass number
(b) atomic number
(c) chemical properties
(d) position in periodic table
129. In a pressurized water reactor( PWR) _____________.

a. Light or heavy water is used as both coolant and moderator.
b. The coolant water boils in the reactor core.
c. Water is used at high pressure
d. Both (a) and (c).
130. In Sodium-Graphite reactor, sodium is used as

a.Coolant
b.Moderator
c.Reflector
d.All of the above
131. Canning in the nuclear reactor is a process of coating the fuel with a material that does not
contaminate the coolant, also eliminates the radiation hazards.
Which material is used for this?
a. Aluminium
b. Magnesium
c. Stainless steel
d. All of these.
132. In Canadium Deuterium Uranium reactor (CANDU), heavy water is used as

a.Moderator
b.Coolant
c.Neutron reflector
d.All of the above
133. Fast breeder reactor uses

(a) boiler
(b) direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d) multi pass system
134. The commonly used material for shielding is

(a) lead or concrete
(b) lead and tin
(c) graphite or cadmium
(d) thick galvanized sheets
135. Boiling water reactor uses the following as moderator, coolant and working fluid
(a) ordinary fluid
(b) heavy water
(c) molten lead
(d) hydrogen gas
136. U235 will undergo fission by

(a) high energy (fast) neutrons alone
(b) low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(c) either fast or slow neutrons
(d) medium energy neutrons
137. Natural uranium is made up of

(a) 99.282% U238, 0.712% U235, 0.006% U234
(b) 99.282% U235, 0.712% U238, 0.06%’ U234
(c) 99.282% U234, 0.712% U238, 0.006% U235
(d) 99.282% U235, 0.712% U234, 0.006% U238
138. A reactor capable of converting a ferrite material into fissile isotopes is called
(a) regenerative reactor
(b) fast breeder reactor
(c) breeder reactor
(d) boiling water reactor
139. Enriched uranium may contain fissionable contents of the order of

(a) 1-99%
(b) 1-25%
(c) 1-50%
(d) 1-75%
140. Electrons that orbit outermost shell of an atom are called?

a) Valence electrons
b) Electrons
c) Electron Coefficients
d) Neutrons
141. What happens when a neutron is absorbed by a nucleus of an atom of U 235?

a) Mass number of atom increases
b) One electron is let out
c) U236 isotope is formed
d) Nucleus becomes unstable
142. Select the desirable property of a moderator?

a) Moderator should absorb neutrons but slow down the neutrons as early as possible
b) It should have low thermal conductivity for better heat transfer
c) It shouldn’t be chemically unstable
d) It should have low resistance to corrosion
143. Heavy nuclei must be such that they can be fissioned by neutrons of an energy such substance
are called?
a) Fission fragments
b) Fission Neutrons
c) Fission species
d) Fission elements
144. Control rods are made of __________

a) Cesium
b) Cadmium
c) Tin
d) Gallium
145. Who invented nuclear fission?

a) Rutherford
b) Hans Bethe
c) Otto Hahn
d) Marie Curie
146. What types of rays are trapped by shielding?

a) Gamma rays
b) Beta rays
c) X-rays
d) IR rays
147. Most of the energy released in fission process is in process of __________

a) Kinetic Energy
b) Thermal Energy
c) Light Energy
d) Heat Energy
148. Which nuclear fuel is usually used in thermal nuclear reactor to create fission?
a) U234
b) U235
c) U236
d) U237
149. PWR stands for ________

a) Power
b) Partially weathered rock
c) Pressurized water Reactor
d) Packaging waste regulations
150. In which of the Following reactor is heavy hydrogen isotope H-2 is used as moderator?
a) Boiling water reactor
b) Pressurized water reactor
c) Candu reactor
d) Thermal reactor
151. What is acronym of LMFBR?

a) Liquid molecular fast boiling reactor
b) Liquid metal fast breeder reactor
c) Liquefied metal fast boiling reactor
d) Liquid metal fast boiling reactor
152. LWR stands for _________

a) Lower water reactor
b) Line water reactor
c) Liquefied water reactor
d) Light water reactor
153. Pick up the wrong statement

(a) In a heterogeneous or solid-fuel reactor, the fuel is mixed in a regular pattern within moderator.
(b) Slow or thermal neutrons have energy of the order or 0.025 eV
(c) Fast neutrons have energies above 1000 eV
(d) Fast reactor uses moderator
154. The function of control rods in nuclear plants is to

(a) control temperature
(b) control radioactive pollution
(c) control absorption of neutron
(d) control fuel consumption
155. In fast breeder reactors

(a) any type of moderator can be used
(b) graphite is used as the moderator
(c) heavy water is used as the moderator
(d) moderator is dispensed with
156. The process by which a heavy nucleus is splitted into two light nuclei is known as
(a) splitting
(b) fission
(c) fusion
(d) chain reaction
157. Moderator is not required in

a.Pressurized water reactor
b.Gas cooled reactor
c.Boiling water reactor
d.Breeder reactor
158. Can vacated coal mines be used for waste disposal.

a) True
b) False
159. Gas cooled reactor uses following materials as moderator, and coolant
(a) graphite, C02
(b) graphite, air
(c) heavy water, C02
(d) lead, H2
160. The energy required to be applied to a radioactive nucleus for the emission of a neutron is
(a) 1 MeV
(b) 2.4 MeV
(c) 4.3 MeV
(d) 7.8 MeV
161. Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy ?
a. Tidal power
b. Geothermal energy
c. Nuclear energy
d. Wind power.
162. Surge tank is for the protection of.......

a.Dam
b.Spillways
c.Penstock
d.Headworks
163. A thermoelectric engine which consists of two dissimilar electric conductors connected at
two junctions maintained at different temperatures, converts
a. Electric energy into heat energy
b. Heat energy into electric energy
c. Mechanical work into electric energy
d. Electric energy into mechanical work
164. A steam turbine operating with less moisture is more efficient and less prone to damage the
blade.
a. True
b. False
165. The commercial sources of energy are

(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b)fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c)wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
(d)none of the above
166. The main source of production of biogas is

(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above
167. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by

(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system
168. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
169. The secondary sources of energy are........

a.Coal,oil,uranium
b.Wood,animal waste,agricultuer waste
c.Wind,biomass,geothermal
d.Solar,wind,water
170. The non-commercial sources of energy are........

a.Solar,wind,biomass
b.Wood,animal waste,agriculture waste
c.Fossil fuels,hydropower,nuclear power
d.None of the above
171. Which is an organic matter produced by plants in direct or indirect forms?

a) Solar energy
b) Biomass
c) Wind energy
d) Bio-fuel
172. The process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped inside the earth surface is called
a) Hydrothermal energy
b) Geo-Thermal energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wave energy
173. How much is the average temperature at depth of 10 km of earth surface?

a) 200oC
b) 900oC
c) 650oC
d) 20oC
174. Earth’s outer layer rock is called as __________

a) Mantle
b) Crust
c) Outer core
d) Asthenosphere
175. The main composition of biogas is _______________

a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
176. To how many types are flat plate collectors divided depending on type of heat transfer fluid?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
177. Liquid heating collectors are mainly used for _________

a) heating water
b) generating electricity
c) cooking
d) trapping sunlight
178. The use of biomass energy has the potential to greatly reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
a) True
b) False
179. What type of fire system is used in Bio power?

a) Hand firing
b) Mechanical stoke firing
c) Direct firing
d) Indirect firing
180. Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy?

a) High pollution
b) Available only in few places
c) High running cost
d) Unreliable supply
181. What is BTU used to measure?

a) Heat content
b) Area
c) Density
d) Volume
182. In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of power throughout the year?
a) Dams filled with water
b) High amount of air
c) High intense sunlight
d) Nuclear power
183. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable energy
sources such as wind power, small hydro, biogas and solar power?
a) Human Resource Development
b) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
d) Health and Family Welfare
184. The world’s first 100% solar powered airport located at ____________
a) Cochin, Kerala
b) Bengaluru, Karnataka
c) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
d) Mumbai, Maharashtra
185. Nuclear Energy is a Renewable Energy.

a) True
b) False
186. What does EGS stand for in geothermal energy?

a) Engraved Geothermal systems
b) Enhanced geothermal system
c) Exhaust gas system
d) Engineered geo physical system
187. Which Indian enterprise has the Motto “ENERGY FOREVER”?

a) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
b) Indian Non-Renewable Energy Development
c) Indian Agricultural Development
d) Indian Biotechnology Development
188. Which of the following is the correct arrangement in the increasing order of use of non-
conventional energy source in India?
a. Biomass < Small hydro plants < Wind energy < Solar
b. Biomass < Small hydro plants < Wind energy < Solar
c. Biomass < Solar < Small hydro plants < Wind energy
d. Small hydro plants < Biomass < Wind energy < Solar
189. Which state in India ranks first in renewable energy capacity?

a. Rajsthan
b. Kerla
c. Gujrat
d. Tamil Nadu
190. How much power does the small scale wind machine generate?
a) 18 KW
b) 2 KW
c) 12 KW
d) 30 KW
191. How are moderate active solid wastes disposed?

a) Buried underground
b) Buried under sea
c) Sent to outer space
d) Left out in streams or rivers
192. Which of the following produces energy because of temperature difference at various levels in
ocean.
a.Tidal energy
b.Wave energy
c. Solar energy
d.Ocean thermal energy
193. A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of light directly into electricity by
a) Photovoltaic effect
b) Chemical effect
c) Atmospheric effect
d) Physical effect
194. Which of the following is not under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy?
a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Large hydro
195. Francis turbine is usually used for........

a .Low head installation upto 30 m
b.Medium head installation from 30 m to 180 m
c.High head installation above 180 m
d.For all heads
196. Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the sources of renewable
energy?
a) Solar energy
b) Wind Energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Hydro-electrical energy
197. In what form is solar energy is radiated from the sun?

a) Ultraviolet Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Transverse waves
198. The energy sources that are either found or stored in nature are
a) Secondary Energy Sources
b) Primary Energy Sources
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
199. Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power
capacity in India?
a) Wind power
b) Solar power
c) Biomass power
d) Small Hydro power
200. Which type of wind turbines produce 100 kW or greater?

a) Large machines
b) Small machines
c) Medium machines
d) Remote Machines
201. Pelton turbines are mostly........

a.Horizontal
b.Vertical
c.Inclined
d.None of the above
202. Role of penstock:

a. Carries water to the turbine
b. Absorbs pressure swing
c.Is used with Kaplan turbines
d.Reduces load
203. At what type of location vibrations are more in the wind turbine?
a) Downwind location
b) Up wind location
c) Windward
d) Leeward
204. A safety valve for a dam to discharge major floods is called?

a) Spillway
b) Penstock
c) Fore bay
d) Canal
205. The cheapest plant in operation and maintenance is.......

a.Staem power plant
b.Nuclear power palnt
c.Hydro-electric power plant
d.None of the above
206. Which of the following power planets is the least reliable?

a.Wind
b. Soalr
c. Tidal
d. Geothermal
207. The power output from a hydro-electric power plant depends on three parameters........
a.Head,type and dam of discharge
b.Head,discharge and efficiency of the system
c.Efficiency of the system,type of draft tube and type of turbine used
d.Type of dam,discharge and type of catchment area
208. Which part of the wind turbines senses wind speed, wind direction, shaft speed and torque?
a) Turbine blade
b) Shaft
c) Rotor
d) Controller
209. Which among the following reduces the capacity of reservoir and causes rapid erosion of
turbine blades?
a) Contamination of highly corrosive material
b) Sedimentation effect
c) Submerged vegetation
d) Solid contamination
210. What are provided to minimize heat loss?

a) Absorber plate
b) Surface plate
c) Insulation
d) Casing
211. The installed capacity of wind energy in India is about

a. 8000 MW
b. 1500 MW
c. 6000 MW
d. 4000 MW
212. Tidal energy utilizes

a. Kinetic energy of water
b. Potential energy of water.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these.
213. Tidal energy development needs

a. Huge capacity and long construction time.
b. Huge capacity and low construction time.
c. Low capacity and long construction time.
d. Low capacity and low construction time.
214. Pugga valley in Ladakh is suitable for which among the following power generation
a. Solar
b. Geo thermal
c. Wind
d. None of these
215. Presence of non – condensable gasses in a geo - pressured water causes

a. Pollution problem
b. Corrosion problem
c. Flow problem
d. All of the above.
216. In geo thermal power plants waste water is

a. Discharged back to earth.
b. Discharged into the sea.
c. Recirculated after cooling in cooling towers.
d. Evaporated in ponds.
217. The area under the load curve represents ____________

a) the average load on power system
b) maximum demand
c) number of units generated
d) load factor
218. During which time the demand of electrical energy is maximum?

a) 2 A.M. to 5 A.M.
b) 5 A.M. to 12 P.M.
c) 12 P.M. to 7 P.M.
d) 7 P.M. to 9 P.M
219. What is Demand factor?

a) Ratio of connected load to maximum demand
b) Ratio of average load to connected load
c) Ratio of maximum demand to the connected load
d) Ratio of kilowatt hour consumed to 24 hours
220.A load curve is a plot of

a.Load versus generation capacity
b. Load versus current
c.Load versus time
d.Load versus cost of power.
221. Depreciation cost of a plant is calculated by

a.Straight line method
b.Diminishing value method
c.Sinking fund method
d.Any of the above.
222. A diesel power plant is best suited as

a.base load plant
b.stand-by plant
c.peak load plant
d.general purpose plant.
223. Load duration curve indicates _______

a) the variation of load during different hours of the day
b) total number of units generated for the given demand
c) total energy consumed by the load
d) the number of hours for which the particular load lasts during a day
224. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in

a Flat rate tariff
b .Two part tariff
c. Maximum demand tariff
d. Any one of the above.
225. In order to have lower cost of electrical energy generation

a) The load factor and diversity factor should be low.
b) The load factor should be low but diversity factor should be high.
c) The load factor should be low but diversity factor low.
d) The load factor and diversity factors should be high.
226. The load of a consumer is generally measured in terms of

a.Volts
b.Amperes
c.Ampere hour
d.kW.
227. Which method of depreciation charge estimation gives the heaviest charges during early years
of plant life?
a.Straight line method
b.Diminishing value method
c.Sinking fund method
d.All give same charges.
228. The load factor is __________

a) always less than unity
b) less than or greater than 1
c) always greater than 1
d) less than zero
229. During summer months the increased load is due to

(A) increased water supply
(B) vacations in institutions
(C) increased business activity
(D) increased use of fans and air conditioners.
230. Which domestic utility item has highest power rating ?

(A) Refrigerator
(B) Ceiling fan
(C) Tube light
(D) Electric iron.
231. For a thermal power plant, which is not the fixed cost ?
(A) Interest on capital
(B) Depreciation
(C) Insurance charges
(D) Cost of fuel.
232. The highest point on a load curve represents

a.Average demand
b.Diversion field demand
c.Peak demand
d.None of the above
233. _______ will be least affected due to charge in supply voltage frequency.
a.Electric clock
b.Mixer grinder
c.ceiling fan
d.room heater
234. If the penalty factor of a plant is unity, its incremental transmission loss is
a) 1.0
b) – 1.0
c) Zero
d) None of the above
235. Which of the following is called as cold reserve?

a) Reserve capacity available but not ready for use
b) Reserve capacity available and ready for use
c) Generating capacity connected to bus and ready to take load
d) Capacity in service in excess of peak load
236. Most economic load on an overhead line is

a) Greater than natural load.
b) Less than the natural load.
c) Equal to the natural load.
d) None of the above is necessary.
237. Best location for power factor improvement apparatus is

a) At the receiving end
b) Where the apparatus responsible for low power factor is installed
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
238. What is the advantage of sectionalizing of power plant?

a) High reliability
b) Low capital cost
c) Low maintenance
d) Easy operation
239. Which of the following is equal to the maximum demand?

a) The ratio of area under curve to the total area of rectangle
b) The ratio of area under curve and number of hours
c) The peak of the load curve
d) The area under the curve
240. What is the difference between two part tariff and maximum demand tariff?
a. A separate meter is used.
b. A separate maximum demand meter is used.
c. Semi fixed charges are also included.
d. All of these.
241. The capital cost of the thermal power plant will depend on
a) The size of the plant
b) The fuel cost
c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of the above
242. Which of the following plant has highest capital cost?

a) Diesel power plant
b) Thermal power plant
c) Hydro-power plant
d) Nuclear power plant
243. The hydro-power plant operates at higher load factor than thermal power plant.
a) True
b) False
244. This tariff is applied for which kind of consumers?

a. Big consumers.
b. Small consumers.
c. Residential consumers.
d. All of these.
245. What is called when an industry removes water from a source and then returns the heated water
to its source?
a) Water pollution
b) Soil pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Thermal pollution
246. Which power plant has minimum operating cost?

a) Hydroelectric power plant
b) Thermal power plant
c) Nuclear power plant
d) Gas Turbine Power Plant
247. What is the main effect of thermal pollution to the oxygen solubility in water bodies?
a) They increase the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
b) They maintain the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
c) They reduce the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
d) They don’t cause any affect in solubility of oxygen to the water bodies
248. Growing industrial activities is one of the reasons for thermal pollution.
a) True
b) False
249. A 400 MW nuclear power station would produce a equivalent radium of _____________
a) 100 tons daily
b) 1000 tons daily
c) 500 tons daily
d) 10 tons daily
250. Which type of disposal of nuclear waste is cheapest and easiest method of all?
a) Ground
b) Air
c) Space
d) Water
251. What are the ways in which most of radio activeness is removed?
a) Infusing them with other metal
b) Neutralizing them by diluting in chemical solutions
c) Storing them
d) Segregating them into small packs
252. Absorption of radioactive element by human, affects their offspring’s.

a) True
b) False
253. Which of the following is called as cold reserve?

a) Reserve capacity available but not ready for use
b) Reserve capacity available and ready for use
c) Generating capacity connected to bus and ready to take load
d) Capacity in service in excess of peak load
254. What is the main disadvantage of two port tariff?

a. He has to pay semi fixed charges.
b. He has to pay fixed charges.
c. He has to pay running charges.
d. None of the above.
255. Two part tariff is charged on what basis?

a. Connected load
b. Units consumed
c. Maximum demand
d. Both (b) and (c)
256. What is tariff?

a. The rate at which electrical energy is produced in the plant.
b. The rate at which electrical energy is supplied to the consumers.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of these.
257. Domestic consumers are charged _____________.

a. Flat demand tariff
b. Block rate tariff
c. Flat rate tariff
d. Off peak tariff
258. LLW stands for ____________

a) Low Level Water
b) Low Laser width
c) Low Level Waste
d) Loss of Levels in water
259. Block rate tariff, where energy charge decreases with the increase in energy consumption,
a. Encourages the consumers for more consumption.
b. Discourages the consumers for more consumption.
c. Encourages the consumers to restrict their demand.
d. Encourages the consumers to improve the power factor.
260. Two part tariff is charged on what basis?

a. Connected load
b. Units consumed.
c. Maximum demand.
d. Both (b) and (c).
261. Fixed charge is dependent on what factor?

a. Energy consumption
b. Maximum demand
c. Peak load demand
d. All of the above.
262. In practice what is the value of diversity factor?

a) Less than Unity
b) Geater than Unity
c) Equal to or greater than Unity
d) Less than zero
263. Which tariff is used by the small commercial consumers?

a. Maximum demand tariff.
b. Block rate tariff.
c. Three part tariff.
d. Two part tariff.
264. Tailings forms are the residues from ____________

a) Uranium
b) Thorium
c) Cadmium
d) Boron
265. For how many days is radioactive solid waste kept is kept under water at 6m deep for initial
cooling?
a) 15 days
b) 50 days
c) 30 days
d) 100 days
266. Size and cost of installation depends upon ____________

a) average load
b) maximum demand
c) square mean load
d) square of peak load
267. What is a load curve?

a. A plot of load vs current.
b. A plot of load vs time.
c. A plot of load vs duration of time.
d. Total number of units generated vs time.
268. What does the area under the load curve represent?
a. System voltage.
b. Current.
c. Energy consumed.
d. Maximum demand.
269. What does the highest point on the daily load curve represents?
a. Peak load.
b. Maximum demand.
c. Both (a) & (d).
d. None of these.
270. If the daily load curve is divided by 24, what does this curve represent?
a. Average load for the day.
b. Connected load.
c. Maximum demand.
d. Demand factor.
271. The mass curve is plotted from which of the following curve?
a. Chronological curve.
b. Energy load curve.
c. Load duration curve.
d. Both (a) and (b).
272. What is the shape of the load duration curve?

a. Rectangular shape.
b. Triangular shape.
c. Parabolic shape.
d. Free hand sketch.
273. Flat rate tariff is charged on what basis?

a. Connected load.
b. Units consumed.
c. Maximum demand.
274. Domestic consumers are charged?

a. Flat demand tariff.
c. Flat rate tariff.
d. Off peak tariff.
275. Which tariff is used by the small commercial consumers?

a. Maximum demand tariff.
c. Three part tariff.
d. Two part tariff.
276. What percent of installed capacity of gas turbines contribute to the total installed capacity of the
power plants in India.
a. 5 %
b. 8 %
c. 11 %
d. 15 %
277. Which state in India among these doesn’t have a gas turbine plant?
a. Jammu Kashmir.
b. Tripura
c. Tamil Nadu.
d. Bihar.
278. The gas turbines are mainly used in?

a. Locomotives.
b. Aircrafts.
c. Automobiles.
d. Pumping stations.
279. Combined cycle power plants are suitable for?

a. Base loads.
b. Peak loads.
c. Intermediate loads.
d. Both base and peak loads.
280. Name the turbine developed on the basis of aircraft engine technology.
a. Brayton
b. Aerodynamic
c. Aero derivative.
d. Rankine
281. Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?

a. Reciprocating compressor.
b. Screw compressor.
c. Multistage axial flow compressor.
d. Either (a) & (b)
282. The compressor has to be before the stating of gas turbine

a. True
b. False
283. What would be the temperature of the gas in the combustion chamber?
a. 500 °
b. 1600 °
c. 1200 °
d. 650 °
284. The efficiency of the open cycle gas plant is quite low. Why?
a. Gas gets cooled before reaching the turbine wheels.
b. A lot of mechanical energy is used up by the compressor.
c. Due to the presence of regenerator and absence of air pre heater.
285. The first nuclear power plant in the world was commissioned in.......
a.U.S.A.
b.U.S.S.R
c.England
d.None of the above
286. The avarage thermal efficiency of modern nuclear power plant is about........
a.30%
b.60%
c.40%
d.80%
287. Which of the following statements is/are correct about renewable energy sector in India?
1. The renewable energy sector is governed by the Electricity Act, 2003.
2. National Renewable Energy Fund (NREF) has a corpus of over Rs.17,000 crore.
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both
d. None
288. Which of the following can be used as a biofuel?

1) Bagasse 2) Jatropha 3) Pongamia
a. Only 2
b. Only 2 and 3
c. Only 3
d. All of the above
289. The conversion ratio of a breeder reactor is........

a.Equal to unity
b.More than unity
c.Leass than unity
d.None of the above
290. Fast breed reactors are best suited for........

a.Of large thorium deposits
b.Of large uranium deposits
c.Of large plutonium deposits
d.None of the above
291. Which part of thermal power plant causes maximum energy losses?
a) Boiler
b) Alternator
c) Condenser
d) Ash and unburnt carbon
292. Overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to ___________

a) Thermal efficiency
b) Generation efficiency
c) Multiplication of thermal and generation efficiency
d) Ratio of thermal and generation efficiency
293. Which of the following is most suitable fuel for thermal power plant?
a) Peat coal
b) Lignite coal
c) Bituminous coal
d) Anthracite coal
294. Which of the following gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required property?
a) Closed cycle gas turbine power plant
b) Open cycle gas turbine power plant
c) Open and closed cycle gas turbine power plant
d) No gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required property.
295. Which of the following has highest diversity factor?

a) Domestic lightning
b) Commercial lightning
c) Industrial power
d) Domestic power
296. What is the advantage of sectionalizing of power plant?

a) High reliability
b) Low capital cost
c) Low maintenance
d) Easy operation
297. Which of the following is equal to the maximum demand?

a) The ratio of area under curve to the total area of rectangle
b) The ratio of area under curve and number of hours
c) The peak of the load curve
d) The area under the curve
298. Which of the following power plant have longest physical life?
a) Thermal power plant
b) Nuclear power plant
c) Hydroelectric power plant
d) Diesel power plant
299. What is the main drawback of liquid fuel in thermal power plant?
a) High handling cost
b) Hard and Adhesive oil slag
c) Difficult to store
d) High cost of liquid fuel
300. Which of the following costs come under semi fixed cost?
a) Salaries of high officials
b) Salaries of operational and maintenance staff
c) Salaries of Management and clerical staff
d) Annual cost of fuel

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What is the correct sequence of factors in order of decreasing importance for location of a thermal power plant?

What is the correct sequence of factors in order of decreasing importance for location of a thermal power plant?

What type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?

What type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?

DHIRAJLAL GANDHI COLLEGE OF TECHNOLOGY

ME8792 Power Plant Engineering / Objective Questions Prepared by Mr.R.Manikandan AP / Mech

1. The alternator is used in a power plant which converts.......

2. In a power station 'Load Center' means........

3. The efficiency of chimney is approximately........

4. The pressure at the furnaces minimum in case of........

5. The draught which a chimney produces is called.......

6. Binary vapour cycles are used to........

7. Heating value of coal is approximately

8. A 100 MW Thermal power plant consumes…………… of coal per hour

13. In a Rankine cycle, regeneration results in higher efficiency because

16. Consider the following processes:

18. Which one of the following statements is correct?

19. In India largest thermal power station is located at

21. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by........

22. The efficiency of chimney is approximately........

24. Why at least one open heater is used?

26. Feedwater heaters are of two types, they are ____________

27. In a back pressure turbine _____________

28.TTD stands for

29. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in __________

30. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by

31. With increase in moisture content of coal, its __________

34. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is

35. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?

36. The equivalent evaporation is defined as?

37. Economiser is used to heat

38. An economiser is installed in a boiler primarily to ___________

39. Fan is located in induced draught........

40. Secondary air is the air used to

41. Blowing down of boiler water is the process

42. Artifical draught nomally designed to produce ........

43. Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of.......

45. Pulverised fuel is used for.......

47. The incomplete combustion is indicated by the presence of

48. Combined cycle power plants may need

49. Super heater is employed to

50. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of.......

51. Modern steam plants works on which of the following cycles?

53. The major use of the Economiser is ___________.

56. In a superheater _____________.

58. The boiler commonly used in a thermal plant are__________________.

61. The Otto cycle is the

62. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

63. The Brayton cycle consists of

64. The correct sequence of strokes in a four-stroke SI engine is

66. In Dual cycle, heat rejection takes place

69. γ for air is equal to

70. The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine on weak mixtures is

71. Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?

72. Which of the following statement is true?

73. The combustion in compression ignition engine is

74. A diesel engine has compression ratio from

75. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of