ATD CAE

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1. Which of these is a primary fuel?

a) Wood
b) Charcoal
c) Petrol
d) LPG

2. Secondary fuels are derived from primary fuels.

a) True
b) False

3. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine calorific value of .

a) Solid fuel
b) Liquid fuel
c) Gaseous fuel
d) Both a & b

4. Calculate the higher calorific value of a coal having the following compositions, C=80%, H2=8%, O2=8%,
S=2% and remaining is ash.
a) 923 kcal/kg
b) 1728.9 kcal/kg
c) 8923.8 kcal/kg
d) 9832.8 kcal/kg

5. Calculate the lower calorific value of a coal having the following compositions, C=80%, H2=8%, O2=8%,
S=2% and remaining is ash. Latent heat of steam is 587 cal/gm.
a) 8501.2 kcal/kg
b) 5800.1 kcal/kg
c) 7890.3 kcal/kg
d) 8958.4 kcal/kg

6. In Orsat’s method of exhaust gas analysis, following gases are analysed.

a) CO
b) CO2
c) O2
d) All of the above

7. Calculate the volume of air in litres required for complete combustion of 1 litre of CO.
a) 1.23
b) 2.38
c) 3.45
d) 5.46
8. A good fuel has the following characteristics.
a) High calorific value
b) Low moisture content
c) Moderate ignition temperature
d) All of these

9. Enthalpy of a substance at a specified state due to its chemical composition is known as.
a) Enthalpy of reaction
b) Enthalpy of combustion
c) Enthalpy of formation
d) None of these

10. Air-fuel ratio can be obtained by.

a) Mass of Air/Mass of Fuel
b) Mass of Fuel/Mass of Air
c) Mass flow rate of Air/Mass flow rate of Fuel
d) Both a & c

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11. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine depends on.

a. fuel used
b. speed of engine
c. compression ratio
d. none of these

12. If the compression ratio in I.C. engine increases, then its thermal efficiency will.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remains same
d. none of these

13. The working medium of an air standard cycle has constant ___________ throughout the cycle.
a. pressure
b. volume
c. specific heat
d. mass

14. It is assumed that all the processes of an air standard cycle are.
a. reversible
b. irreversible
c. adiabatic
 d. isothermal

15. A petrol engine has the compression ratio in the range of.
a. 6 to 10
b. 10 to 15
c. 16 to 20
d. 25 to 40

16. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with increase in cut-off ratio will
a. increase
b. decrease
c. be independent
d. none of these

17. In Dual cycle, heat addition takes place.

a. at constant volume
b. first at constant volume then at constant pressure
c. constant pressure
d. none of these

18. For same compression ratio and for same heat addition.
a. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel Cycle
b. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto Cycle
c. Efficiency depends on other factors
d. None of these
19. For same maximum pressure and work output, the air standard efficiency of the gas power cycles is in the
order.
a. Diesel cycle, Dual cycle, Otto cycle
b. Otto cycle, Diesel cycle, Dual cycle
c. Dual cycle, Otto cycle, Diesel cycle
d. Diesel cycle, Otto cycle, Dual cycle

20. An engine working on Otto cycle has pressure at the start of compression as 1 bar and at the end of
compression as 11 bar. Calculate air-standard efficiency of the engine.
a) 30.5%
b) 49.6%
c) 55.4%
d) 67%

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21. A mercury cycle has efficiency of 31% and steam cycle has efficiency of 31.8%. Calculate the overall
efficiency of this binary vapour cycle.
a) 25.6%
 b) 35.6%
c) 52.94%
d) 66.7%

22. Work output of turbine is ____ the work input to the pump.
a) much larger
b) much smaller
c) equal to
d) none of these

23. The work ratio is defined as the ratio of.

a) positive work output to net work output
b) net work output to positive work output
c) heat input to work output
d) none of these

24. If we___the superheat at constant pressure then the cycle efficiency.

a) decrease, increases
b) increase, decreases
c) increase, increases
d) decrease, decreases

25. In the Rankine cycle, heat is added reversibly at.

a) constant pressure and constant temperature
b) constant pressure and infinite temperature
c) infinite pressure and constant temperature
d) infinite pressure and infinite temperature

26. The ideal regenerative cycle is not practicable because.

a) reversible heat transfer can’t be obtained in finite time
b) heat exchanger in turbine is mechanically impracticable
c) there is high moisture content of steam in the turbine
d) all of these

27. Which of the following statement is true?.

a) open heater is also known as contact-type heater
b) in an open type heater the extracted or bled steam is allowed to mix with the feedwater
c) in a closed heater, the fluids are not allowed to mix together
d) all of these

28. In a binary cycle, ____ cycles with ____ working fluid are coupled.
a) two, same
b) two, different
c) three, same
 d) three, different

29. In a mercury-steam cycle, mercury cycle is called ____ and steam cycle is called ____.
a) bottoming cycle, topping cycle
b) topping cycle, bottoming cycle
c) both are called bottoming cycle
d) both are called topping cycle

30. A cogeneration plant produces.

a) power
b) process heat
c) both power and process heat
d) none of these

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31. Which of these is an example of Fire Tube Boiler?

a) Cochran
b) Lanchasire
c) Both of these

32. Which of these are Boiler Mountings?

a) Fusible plug
b) Pressure gauge
c) Stop valve
d) All of these

33. Which of these are Boiler accessories?

a) Superheater
b) Economiser
c) Air preheater
d) All of these

34. Boiler Draught can be respresented as

a) Pressure difference
b) Height of hot gas column
c) Height of water column
d) All of these

35. Equivalent evaporation is a parameter to compare capacities of different boilers.

(1/1 Point)
a) True
b) False
36. Determine the height of chimney required in a boiler having natural draught equivalent to 20 mm of water.
Flue gas temperature is 300 deg C, ambient air is at 27 deg C and 18 kg air per kg of fuel is required in
boiler.
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 38 m
d) 52 m

37. Which of the following are the types of condensers?

(1/1 Point)
a) Jet condenser
b) Surface condenser
c) Evaporative condenser
d) All of these

38. Air leakage in a condenser is desirable.

a) True
b) False

39. Which of these is correct? (1/1 Point)

a) Abs Pressure in condenser = Barometric head + Vacuum Pressure
b) Abs Pressure in condenser = Barometric head - Vacuum Pressure
c) Abs Pressure in condenser = Vacuum Pressure

40. In the absence of air leakage, vacuum efficiency is

a) 0%
b) 50%
c) 100%
d) Undefined

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41. Two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isobaric processes are carried out in.
Rankine cycle
Carnot cycle
Stirling cycle
Ericsson cycle

42. The engines which are operating on gas power cycle are.
a. cyclic
b. non-cyclic
c. either cyclic or non-cyclic
d. none of the above

43. Internal combustion engine is the example of.

 a. cyclic heat engine
b. non-cyclic heat engine
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

44. What is the correct formula for net work done of reciprocating engine?
a. Wnet = mean effective pressure × clearance volume
b. Wnet = mean effective pressure × total vol. of cylinder
c. Wnet = mean effective pressure × displacement volume
d. none of the above

45. The purpose of study of air standard cycle is.

a. to simplify the analysis of internal combustion engine
b. to increase the efficiency of internal combustion engine
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

46. Shock effect in a nozzle is felt in.........

A. Divergent portion
B. Straight portion
C. Convergent portion
C. Throat

47. The Effect of friction in a nozzle......dryness fraction of steam.

A. Increases
B.Decreases
C.Same
D.None of the above

48. The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is.......as compared to initially dry saturated steam.
A. More
B.Less
C.Same
D.None of the above

49. In a nozzle, the effect of supersaturation is to.......

A. Decrease the dryness fraction of steam
B. Decreases the specific volume of steam
C. Increase the entropy
D. I ncrease the enthalpy drop

50. For critical pressure ratio, the discharge through a nozzle is........
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
 C. Zero
D. Some value between maximum and minimum

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51. In turbofan engine, fan is used.

a. to compress the inlet air more efficiently
b. to increase the total thrust of the engine
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

52. The propulsive efficiency is the ratio of.

a. the propulsive power to the energy input rate
b. the exit velocity rate of exhaust gases to the energy input rate
c. the work done by the turbine to the energy input rate
d. velocity of aircraft to the energy input rate

53. The propulsive power developed by the thrust of engine is given by.
a. mair (Vexit – Vinlet)
b. mair (Vexit – Vinlet) × Vaircraft
c. (Vexit – Vinlet) × Vaircraft
d. none of the above

54. Why do the airplanes fly at higher altitude during the long flights?
a. to avoid collisions as they are at very high speed and controlling will be difficult if something (like
towers, hills) comes in the way
b. it is easy to communicate with satellites at high altitudes
c. to save the fuel as air at higher altitude exerts smaller drag force on aircraft
d. none of the above

55. In working condition of turbojet engine, velocity of air entering the engine is.
a. higher than the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine
b. lower than the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine
c. equal to the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine
d. cannot say

56. Gas turbines are suitable for aircraft propulsion because

a. gas turbines are light weight
b. gas turbines are compact in size
c. gas turbines have a high power-to-weight ratio
d. all of the above

57. If pressure ratio in Brayton cycle increases.

a. the efficiency of the cycle increases
 b. the efficiency of the cycle decreases
c. there is no any effect on the efficiency of the cycle
d. cannot say

58. What is the effect of regeneration on net work output in Brayton cycle?
a. net work output decreases because of regeneration
b. net work output increases because of regeneration
c. net work output is not affected by use of regenerator
d. none of the above

59. Reciprocating air compressor operating speed is high

A. True
B. False

60. Large clearance volume in reciprocating compressor, result in...............

A. Increased volume flow rate

B. Lower delivery pressure
C. Lower suction pressure
D. Reduce volume flow rate