KVPY MOCK TEST – 2

CLASS – XI (SA)
PAPER CODE : 720317.0
Time : 3 Hr. Date : 30.10.15 Max Mark :100

Instructions :
1. This Question Paper contains total 80 questions. i.e. (Physcis-20, Chemistry-20, Mathematics-20 and
Biology-20) All questions are compulsory.
2. Each question has 4 choices out of which only ONE is correct.
3. For each question in Section A will be awarded 1 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, (–0.25) mark will be awarded.
4. For each question in Section B will be awarded 2 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, (–0.50) mark will be awarded.

PHYSICS
(SECTION-A)
th
1. A chain is held on a frictionless table with 1/n of its length hanging over the edge. If the chain has a
length ℓ and mass M. The work is required to pull the hanging part back on the table is :
mgℓ mgℓ mgℓ mgℓ
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2n2 n2 2n 4n2
2. An engine develops 5kw of power. The time will it take to lift a mass of 250 kg to a height of 50 m.
2
[g=10m/s ] is :
(A) 20 sec (B) 30 sec (C) 25 sec (D) 45 sec

3. A particle executes S. H. M. with a time period of 4s. The time taken by the particle to go directly from its
mean position to half of its amplitude is :
1 1 1 1
(A) s (B) s (C) s (D) s
4 5 7 3
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4. A thermally insulated vessel contains some water at 0°C. The vessel is connected to a vacuum pump to
pump out water vapour. This results in some water getting frozen. It is given Latent heat of vaporization of
5 5
water at 0°C = 21 × 10 J/kg and latent heat of freezing of water = 3.36 × 10 J/kg. The maximum
percentage amount of water that will be solidified in this manner will be :
(A) 86.2% (B) 33.6% (C) 21% (D) 24.36%

5. A small cube of mass m slides down a circular path of radius R cut m

into a larger block of mass M, as shown in the figure. M rests on a
R
table, and both blocks move without friction. The blocks are initially at
rest, and m starts from the top of the path. The velocity v of the cube
as it leaves the block is : M

2MgR 2MgR MgR

(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) None of these
M+m M+m M+m

6. A ball is dropped from a height 100m on the ground. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.2, the height to
nd
which the ball will go up after it rebounds for the II time is :
(A) 15 cm (B) 14 cm (C) 13 cm (D) 16 cm

7. In the circuit shown, the value of E and R is : R 2.25 A

1.5 A
R 30 Ω

(A) 180 Ω, 60 V (B) 60 Ω, 180 V (C) 180 Ω, 180 V (D) 60 Ω, 60 V

–1
8. Four molecules of a gas have speeds 1, 2, 3 and 4 km s . The value of the root-mean square speed of the
gas molecules is :
1 –1 1 –1 –1 15 –1
(A) 15 km s (B) 10 km s (C) 2.5 km s (D) km s
2 2 2
9. The fractional change in wavelength of light when it passes through water from glass.
(nw= 4/3 and ng = 3/2) is :
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7 8 9 10
10. A thin walled glass sphere of radius R is filled with water (µ = 4/3). An object is placed at distance 3R from
the surface of the sphere. If the effect of the glass wall is neglected. The distance of the final image from
the centre of sphere is :
(A) R (B) 2R (C) 3R (D) 4R

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11. For an equilateral prism, it is observed that when a ray strikes graztingly at one face it emerges grazingly at
the other. Its refractive index is.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

12. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane with height h without slipping. The
speed of its centre of mass when it reaches its bottom is :
gh 2gh 2gh
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) (D) None of these
3 3 3

13. Two uniform discs of m and radius r are joined as shown in

figure. Moment of inertia of combined body about common
tangent in the plane of discs is.

5 2 5 2 5 2
(A) mr (B) mr (C) mr (D) mr 2
2 3 4

F
14. A uniform bar AB of mass m and length ℓ is resting on a smooth B
horizontal surface. A force F is applied at end B perpendicular to
AB. The initial acceleration of end B w.r.t. ground is :

A
F 2F 3F 4F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
m M M M
215
15. The half life of At is 100µs. If a sample initially contains 6 mg of the element. Its activity initially is :
24 20
(A) 1.165 × 10 Becqurel (B) 2.165 × 10 Becqurel
20
(C) 10 Becqurel (D) None of these

(SECTION- B)
16. A spherical shell is cut into two pieces along a chord as shown in the P. P is a point on the plane of the
chord. The Gravitational field at P due to the upper part is I1 and that due to the lower part I2. What is
relation between I1 and I2
(A) I1 > I2 (B) I1 < I2 (C) I1 = I2 (D) None of these

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17. A charged particle is projected in a magnetic field B = ( 3i + 4 j) ×10−2 T. The acceleration of the particle is
 8 
found to be a =  − ˆi + yjˆ  m/s . The value of y is
2

 3 
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

18. A cube of specific gravity 0.6 and side L floats in a rectangular tank
L
containing water with square base of side 3L. Assume the cube
2L
remains vertical.
The ratio of area of the vertical face of cube, which is inside water to
3L
that of vertical face of cube, which is outside water is.
3 3 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 5 7

19. Air is blown through a pipe AB at a rate of 15 litters per minute.

The cross-sectional area of the abroad portion of the pipe AB is 2
2 2
cm and that of the narrow portion is 0.5 cm . The difference in
3
water level h is (ρair = 1.32 kg/m )
(A) 16 mm (B) 1.6 mm
(C) 10 mm (D) 3.2 mm

20. An aeroplane is flying in the horizontal direction with a velocity 540 km/hr at a height of
2000 m. When it is vertically above the point 'A' on the ground, a body is dropped from it. The body
strikes the ground at point B. The distance AB is :

(A) 4000 M (B) 3000 M (C) 5000 M (D) 7000 M

CHEMISTRY
(SECTION- A)
21.
CH3 CH3
?
H3C CH2 H3C CH2OH
CH3 CH3
The reagent used is
(A) BH3 – THF; NaOH – H2O2 (B) Hg(CH3COO)2, H2O, NaBH4
(C) H2SO4; H2O (D) H2O2/FeSO4
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22. Which of the following reactions does not form a gaseous product ?
(A) PbO2 +H2O2 → (B) KMnO4 +H2O2 +H+ →
(C) PbS+H2O2 → (D) Cl2 +H2O2 →

23. Acid catalysed hydration of alkene except ethene leads to the formation of
(A) Primary alcohol (B) Secondary or tertiary alcohol
(C) A mixture of primary & secondary alcohol (D) A mixture of secondary & tertiary alcohol

24. In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound B
O3 H 2 O/Zn
CH3 − CH = CH − CH3  → A  →B
The compound B is
(A) CH3CH2CHO (B) CH3COCH3
(C) CH3CH2COCH3 (D) CH3CHO
25. The total number of structural isomers of C4H9Br are
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 8

26. The reaction of an element A with water produces combustible gas B and an aqueous solution of C. When
another substance D reacts with this solution C the same gas B is produced. D also produces the same
gas even on reaction with dilute H2SO4 at room temperature. Element A imparts golden yellow colour to
Bunsen flame . Then A, B , C and D may be identified as :
(A) Na , H2 , NaOH and Zn (B) Na , H2 , NaOH and Zn(OH)2
(C) Na , H2 , NaOH and Al(OH)3 (D) Ca , H2 , Ca(OH)2 and Zn

27. There are three samples of H2O2 labelled as 10 vol, 15 vol, 20 vol. Half litre of each sample are mixed and
then diluted with equal volume of water. The volume strength of resultant solution is
(A) 45 (B) 1.78 (C) 7.5 (D) 15
 PV 
28. Compressibility factor Z =  is plotted against
 nRT 
pressure What is the correct order of ease of liquefaction
of the gases shown in the above graph
(A) H2 < N2 < CH4 < CO2
(B) CO2 < CH4 < N2 < H2
(C) H2 < CH4 < N2 < CO2
(D) CH4 < H2 < N2 < CO2

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 A A A −4 A −4
29. In the radioactive decay : Z
X → Z +1
Y → Z −1
W * → Z −1
W
the sequence of radiations emitted is :
(A) α, β, γ (B) γ, α, β (C) β, γ, α (D) β, α, γ

30. For a hypothetical elementary reaction

K1 1
=
K2 2

Reaction is started with 2 moles of A. The total number of moles of A, B and C after 75%. Completion of
the reaction is :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 4.5

0
31. Calculate ΔE when one mole of liquid is vapurised at its boiling point (80 C) and 1 atm pressure.
(ΔHvap = 30.7 kJ /mol)
(A) 33.6 kJ (B) 31.4 kJ (C) 30 kJ (D) 27.8 kJ

32. A sample of sparingly soluble PbI2(s) containing radioactive I-133 is added to 0.1M KI and stirred. Which of
the following is observed ?
(I) the radioactivity of the liquid phase increases
-
(II) the concentration of I ions in the solution increases
(A) I only (B) II only (C) both I and II (D) neither I or II

33. Which of the following will give red ppt. on reacting with R − C ≡ CH?
(A) AgNO3/NH3 (B) Cu2Cl2/NH3 (C) Na/NH3 (D) All of these
34. Which of the following reactions gives nitrogen as one of the products ?
(A) NH NO → Δ (B) ex.NH +Cl → (C) Pb(NO ) → Δ (D) NH3 + ex.Cl2 →
4 3 3 2 3 2

+2 0
35. What is the [Mg ] in 0.1M NaF that is saturated with MgF2 at 25 C ? K spMgF2 =6.4×10-9
-3 -7 -3
(A) 0.05M (B) 1.9 × 10 M (C) 6.4 × 10 M (D) 1.2 × 10 M
(SECTION-B)
36. The addition of HBr to pent – 2 – ene gives
(A) 2 – bromopentane only (B) 3 – bromopentane only
(C) 2 – bromopentane and 3 bromopentane (D) 1 – bromopentane and 3 bromopentane
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 1
37. The half life of the reaction N 2 O5 → 2NO 2 + O 2 is 2.4 hr at STP. Starting with 10.8 g of N2O5, how much
2
of O2 will be obtained after 9.6 hr?
(A) 1.5 L (B) 3.36 L (C) 1.05 L (D) 0.07 L

-31 -1
38. Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass = 9.1 × 10 kg) moving with a velocity of 300 ms
accurate upto 0.001 % will be
-2 -2 -2 -2
(A) 5.76 × 10 m (B) 1.92 × 10 m (C) 3.84 × 10 m (D) 19.2 × 10 m
+
39. What must be the concentration of aq. HCl so that equal concentration of H comes from HCl and water ?
50 × 10-8M 40 × 10-14M
–7 –8
(A) 10 M (B) (C) (D) 10 M

0
40. Which value for the formation enthalpy ( ∆H f ) in kJ/mol of Br2(g) follows from the following data ?
0
(Boiling point of Br2(g) = 58.8 C)
S0 J/mol/K
Br2(g) 245
Br2(l) 152
(A) 7 (B) 12 (C) 31 (D) 93

MATHEMATICS
(SECTION- A)
a2 a3 a + a3  a − a3 
41. If = 2 = 3 2  , then a1, a2, a3, a4 are in
a1 a4 a1 + a4  a1 − a4 
(A) A.P (B) G.P (C) H.P (D) none of these

2 3
42. The greatest value of x y is, where x > 0 and y > 0 are connected by the relation 3x + 4y = 5
3 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
16 16 14
1
43. If the expression kx + – 2 is non-negative for all positive real x then the minimum value of k is
x
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1/4 (D) 1/2

44. f(x) = αx 3 − x 2 + α 2 x − α and α > 0. If f(x) > 0 for ∀ x ≥ 2 then α lies in the interval
 1 1 
(A)  0,  (B) (0, 2) (C) (2, ∞) (D)  , ∞ 
 2 2 
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 π
45. If the straight lines ax + by + p = 0 and x cosα + y sinα = p are inclined at an angle and concurrent with
4
2 2
the straight line x sinα - y cosα = 0, then the value of a +b is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) none of these

46. Let A0 A1 A2 A3 A4 A5 be a regular hexagon inscribed in a circle of unit radius. Then the product of the
lengths of the line segments A0 A1 , A0 A2 and A0 A4 is
3 3 3
(A) (B) 3 3 (C) 3 (D)
4 2

2 2 2 2
47. If the curves ax + 4xy + 2y + x + y + 5 = 0 and ax + 6xy + 5y + 2 x + 3y + 8 = 0 intersect at four
concyclic points then the value of a is
(A) 4 (B) –4 (C) 6 (D) –6

2 cos β − 1 α β
48. If cos α = , (0 < α < π, 0 < β < π), then tan cot is equal to
2 − cos β 2 2
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) none of these

π 5π 7π
49. If k = sin sin sin , then the numerical value of k is
18 18 18
1 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
8 16 8
50. The number of all possible 5 – tuples (a1, a2, a3,, a4, a5 ) such that
a1 + a2sinx + a3cosx + a4 sin2x + a5cos2x = 0 holds for all x is
(A) zero (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinite

51. If P is a point on the altitude AD of the triangle ABC such that ∠CBP = B/3, then AP is equal to
C C B C
(A) 2a sin (B) 2bsin (C) 2c sin (D) 2c sin
3 3 3 3

 sin 2 A + sin A + 1 
52. In any ∆ ABC, the least value of   is
 sin A
 
(A) 3 (B) 3 (C) 9 (D) none of these

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 1
53. If − 2 cot 71 = a tan b then (a + b) is equal to
cos11 cos19
(A)13 (B)11 (C) 9 (D) none of these

54. If a is an integer not divisible by 5 then the number of integral roots of equation x 2 − 5x + a = 0
Is equal to

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) None of these

100
1
55. ∑ n3 + 3n2 + 2n < k then k can be
n =1
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
100 10 5 4
(SECTION- B)

56. If a, b are distinct prime numbers such that equation x 2 − ax + b = 0 has positive integral roots then a + b can
be
(A) 11 (B) 13 (C) 17 (D) none of these

57. There are 10 French books, 20 German books, 15 Russian books, 25 Italian books. Then the minimum
number of books chosen to guarantee that there will be 12 books of at least one type is
(A) 34 (B) 55 (C) 44 (D) None of these

58. Let a, b, c are distinct real number such that a2 − b = b2 − c = c2 − a then the value of (a+b)(b+c)(c+a) is
equal to
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D)1

59. In a triangle ABC, cos A + 2 cos B + cos C = 2 where A, B, C, are angles of a triangle then a, b, c are in
(A) A.P. (B) G.P. (C) H.P. (D) None of these

60. XXYY a four digit number when divided by 11 gives a number N, which is again divisible by 11. If X–Y = 1
then X + Y is equal to :
(A) 10 (B) 13 (C) 11 (D) None of these

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 BIOLOGY
(SECTION- A)

61. If amoeba is kept in distilled water, it’s contractile vacuole :

(A) Works slowly (B) Works faster (C) Remains unaffected (D) Disappears

62. You are required to draw blood from patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles
and plasma. You are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which of them will you not
use for the purpose ?
(A) Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate (B) Chilled test tube
(C) Test tube containing heparin (D) Test tube containing sodium oxalate

63. The characteristic that is shared by urea, uric acid and ammonia is/are :
(I) They are nitrogenous wastes
(II) They all need very large amount of waste for excretion
(III) They are all equally toxic
(IV) They are produced in the kidneys
(A) I and II (B) I and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) I only

64. Severe injury in lower part of diencephalon may likely to affect :

(A) Thermoregulation (B) Hunger and thirst sensation
(C) Sexual urge (D) All the above

65. If the pituitary gland of an adult rat is surgically removed, which of the following endocrine glands will be
less affected ?
(A) Adrenal cortex (B) Adrenal medulla (C) Thyroid (D) Gonads

66. Ratio of progeny, when a red coloured heterozygous is crossed with a white coloured plant in which red
colour is dominant to white :
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 : 1 (D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

67. Which compound has very important role in prebiotic evolution ?

(A) SO2 (B) NO (C) CH4 (D) SO3

68. Which of the following is responsible for the origin of lysosome ?

(A) Chloroplast (B) Mitochondria (C) Golgibody (D) Ribosome

69. Photosynthesis is maximum in :

(A) Green light (B) blue followed by red right
(C) red followed by blue light (D) blue light

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70. Which of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon dioxide
aerobically ?
(A) WBC (B) Unstriated muscle cells
(C) RBC (D) Skeletal muscle cells

71. The offspring produced from a marriage have only O or A blood groups. Of the genotype given below, the
possible genotype of the parents would be:
A A A O O O O O
(A) I I and I I (B) I I and I I
A A O O A O O O
(C) I I and I I (D) I I and I I

72. The fossil record offers direct evidence for common descent because you can
(A) Trace the biological history of living things.
(B) Sometimes find common ancestors.
(C) Trace the ancestry of a particular group.
(D) All of these

73. A plant cell has 12 chromosomes at the end of mitosis. How many chromatids would it have in the
G2-phase of its next cell cycle ?
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 24

74. Do the following pairs of animals give examples of convergent or divergent evolution ?
(P) Bat and eagle
(Q) Tiger and lion
(R) Tortoise and turtle
(S) Tortoise and shark
(A) P-Convergent, Q-Divergent, R-Convergent, S-Divergent
(B) P- Divergent, Q- Convergent, R-Convergent, S-Divergent
(C) P-Convergent, Q-Divergent, R- Divergent, S-Divergent
(D) None of these

75. Contamination of radioactive materials are dangerous because it causes

(A) Biological magnification (B) Gene mutation
(C) Photochemical smog (D) Ozone destruction

(SECTION- B)

76. The embryos of fish, chicken and pig have gill slits and a tail. The presence of these features suggest that :
(A) All these animals can swim.
(B) These animals may have had a common ancestor.
(C) Gill slits and tails are required for embryonic development.
(D) Pigs developed from chickens

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77. If the fossil of an organism is found in the deeper ‘ layer of earth, then we can predict that
(A) the extinction of organism has occurred recently.
(B) the extinction of organism has occurred thousands of years ago.
(C) the fossil position in the layers of earth is not related to its time of extinction.
(D) time of extinction cannot be determined.
78. According to the theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics,
(A) If a man loses his hand, then his children will also be missing a hand.
(B) Changes in phenotype are passed on by way of the genotype to the next generation.
(C) Evolution is striving toward particular traits.
(D) All of these
79. RBC and a plant cell (with thick cell wall) are placed in distilled water. The solule concentration is the same
in both the cells. What changes would be observed in them ?
(A) Both plant cell and RBC would not undergo any change
(B) The RBC would increase in size and burst, while the plant cell would remain about the same size
(C) The plant cell would increase in size and burst, while the RBC would remain about the same size
(D) Both plant cell and RBC would decrease in size and collapse
80. Choose the correct combination of labelling for the hormonal control of female reproductive system.

Hypothalamus

Anterior
pituitary
Positive Negative
feed feed
back back
B

Ovary

D
(A) A-GnRH, B-TSH, C-LTH, D-Uterus
(B) A-GnRH, B-LH/FSH, C-Oestrogen/Progesteron, D-Uterus
(C) A-GnRH, B-STH, C-LH, D-Uterus
(D) A-GnRH, B-STH, C-LH, D-Uterus

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 KVPY MOCK TEST – 2
CLASS XI
ANSWER KEY

1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (C)
41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (D) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (C)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (D) 65. (B) 66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (C)
71. (D) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (A) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (B)

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