VPH Bits
VPH Bits
VPH Bits
D Chronic
10. World zoonosis day celebrated on
A June 6
B July 6
C September 28
D December 1
11. Which disease among the following is zooanthroponosis
A Staphylococcosis
B Leptospirosis
C Diphtheria
D Salmonellosis
12. Leptospirosis in dogs is known as
A Stuttgart disease
B Weil’s disease
C Moon blindness
D Perinaud’s occulo glandular syndrome
13. The causative agent of Lyme disease is
A Bartonella henselae
B Borrelia burgdorferi
C Coxiella burnetti
D Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
14. The amplifying host for Japanese encephalitis is
A Monkey
B Lizard
C Pig
D Rabbit
15. Bovine spongiform Encephalopathy is caused due to
A Virus
B Fungus
C Bacteria
D Prions
16. Zika virus is transmitted by
A Culex
B Anopheles
C Aedes
D Ticks
17. Dhobi’s itch is caused by
A Trichophyton cruise
B Microsporum spp.
C Trichophyton pedis
D Epidermophyton spp.
18. The proportion of animals resistant to infection or disease in a population
A Ecological interface
B Eradication
C Herd immunity
D Group behaviour
A 76%
B 81%
C 66%
D 54%
29. A chemical method for meat species identification
A Fouchet’s test
B Peroxide test
C Glycogen test
D Sulphide test
30. Mixing vessel for avian influenza virus
A Pig
B Monkey
C Horse
D Mule
31. Permanent hardness of water is due to
A Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg
B Sulphates of Ca and Mg
C Carbonated of Ca and Mg
D Chlorides of Ca and Mg
32. As per EEC regulation, fresh carcass meat and offal should be chilled below
A 5°C and 3°C
B 7°C and 3°C
C 6°C and 2°C
D 2°C and 1°C
33. FSSAI recommendation of maximum permissible limit of DDT in milk is
A 5 ppm
B 7 ppm
C 10 ppm
D 1 ppm
34. Over the rail bleeding time for cattle is
A 5 min
B 7 min
C 6 min
D 8 min
35. The fruity flavour of milk is due to
A Pseudomonas mephitica
B Pseudomonas putrefaciens
C Pseudomonas fragi
D Lactococcus lactis
36. Byssinosis condition is due to inhalation of
A Cotton fibre dust
B Carbon dust
C Pseudomonas Fragi
D Asbestos dust
37. Solid waste arising from sewage treatment plant is called as
A Slurry
B Soot
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C Sludge
D Slink
38. World ozone day is observed on
A September 12
B September 16
C September 13
D September 28
39. The following test is applied for the detection of mastitis in milch animal
A Coomb’s test
B Whit side test
C Antons eye test
D Ascolis test
40. Haemal lymph nodes perform the function of
A Liver
B Spleen
C Kidney
D Heart
41. Prior to slaughter, ante-mortem inspection must be carried out within
A 12 hrs
B 48 hrs
C 24 hrs
D 72 hrs
42. According to Jewish slaughter, the knife used for neck stabbing is known as
A Schochet
B Chalaf
C Talmud
D Schechita
43. Ideal stunning method for pig is
A Electric
B Captive bolt pistol
C Gaseous
D Mechanical
44. Lairage design must accommodate pig and cattle for days
A 5 and 7
B 2 and 3
C 3 and 4
D 1 and 2
45. Minamata disease is associated with
A Methyl mercury
B Mercuric chloride
C Ethyl mercury
D Mercuric hydroxide
46. Carcass cutting yield is
A Carcass weight / pound of meat x 100
B Pounds of meat / carcass weight x 100
C Kilogram of meat/ animal weight x 100
D Live weight / green weight x100
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47. Average carcass yield of the beef, pig, poultry, and lamb is
A 75, 68, 44, 72
B 62, 75, 72, 45
C 81, 56, 48, 55
D 63, 74, 77, 44
48. Abattoir effluent BOD must be
A 1000-1500 ppm
B 2000- 3000 ppm
C 1500-2000 ppm
D 995-1750 ppm
49. In comparison to the live weight, total byproduct yield from meat animal is
A 70 %
B 60%
C 80%
D 40%
50. Dipple’s oil is obtained from
A Bones
B Nails
C Skin
D Muscles
51. Unborn calf meat is called as
A Venison
B Lamp
C Biltong
D Slink veal
52. Weight obtained after flaying, removal of intestinal contents and other non-
edible parts
A Dressing yield
B Dry weight
C Green weight
D Jerked beef
53. Warble flies produce a condition
A Butchers jelly
B Two toning
C Current jelly
D Ferris wheel
54. A sub-mucous layer of the intestine is used to prepare
A Corned beef
B Ham
C Casings
D Corning
55. Cured and smoked belly of pigs is called as
A Kofta
B Patties
C Ham
D Bacon
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83. The test used to detect adulteration of cow milk with buffalo milk is
A Hansa test
B Baudoin test
C Nitric acid test
D Barfoed test
84. Vanaspati in milk is detected by
A Hansa tests
B Baudouin test
C Nitric acid test
D Barfoed test
85. Antibiotic residues in milk can be detected by
A Iodine test
B Delvotest
C Picric acid test
D Barfoed test
86. Ultra-pasteurization is done at
A 72 °C for 15 sec
B 63°C for 30 min
C 63-65 °C for 15 sec
D 115-130 °C for 2 sec
87. The fat percentage of cream is
A 20 %
B 25%
C 21%
D 28%
88. The fat content of plastic cream is
A 25-30%
B 80-90%
C 30-40%
D 60-80%
89.Commonly used flavouring agent in butter
A Diacetyl
B Monoacetyl
C Acetic acid
D Gelatine
90. Best cheese suitable for pizza preparation is
A Cottage
B Mozzarella
C Cheddar
D Plastic
91. The fat percentage of skim milk is
A 3.5%
B 2.8%
C 0.8%
D 8.5%
92. The temperature used for bacto-fugation is
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A 55-60 °C
B 60-65 °C
C 110 °C
D 135-150 °C
93. The freezing point of evaporated milk is
A -4.5 °C
B -1 °C
C -14.9 °C
D -1.3 °C
94. Vector Control Research Centre is located at
A New Delhi
B Bikaner
C Pondicherry
D Avikanagar
95. Ante-mortem inspection is repeated if the duration of holding food animal
exceeds,
A 6 Hours
B 18 Hours
C 12 Hours
D 24 Hours
96. Very soft water rainwater contains dissolved solids
A 0.00005 %
B 0.000005 %
C 0.0005 %
D 0.005 %
97. The area that drain into a reservoir is known as
A Collection area
B Catchment area
C Attached area
D Draining area
98. Self-purification in river occurs by
A Dilution and sedimentation
B Sunlight, plant and animal life
C Aeration and Oxidation
D All the above
99. The salt content of seawater is
A 7.5 %
B 3.5 %
C 6.5 %
D 2.5 %
100. Deep well taps water from
A Above first impervious strata
B From first porous strata
C Below first impervious strata
D Below second impervious strata
101. Katcha and Pucca wells are examples for
A Tube wells
B Step wells
C Dug wells
C None of the above
102. The disease of public health significance in areas where people used step
wells
A Cholera
B Guinea worm
C Taeniasis
D E. coli
103. The distance of sanitary well from likely sources of contamination is
A 15 m
B 10 m
C 50 Feet
D Both a & b
104. Sanitary well’s parapet wall height above the ground level must be at least
A 90-95 cm
B 50-55 cm
C 70-75 cm
D 100-110 cm
106. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed in the year
A 1974
B 1978
C 1964
D 1968
108. Biogenic amines in food affect the following natural detoxifying enzyme
A) Alkaline phosphatase
B Choline esterase
C MAO/DAO
D Trypsin
109. Depth of supernatant water over the sand bed in slow sand filter is
A 0.5-1 meter
B 2-3 meters
C 1-1.5 meters
D 3-5 meters
110.Depth of supernatant water over the sand bed in slow sand filter is
A 0.5-1 meter
B 2-3 meters
C 1-1.5 meters
D 3-5 meters
113. Rate of filtration of water in case of a biological filter sand bed surface
A 0.1-0.4 m3/h per m2 sand bed
B 5-15 m3/h per m2 sand bed
C 0.02-0.04 m3/h per m2 sand bed
D 20-25 m3/h per m2 sand bed
128. Difference between the amount of chlorine added to water and chlorine that
remains at the end of a specific contact period at a given temperature and pH of
water is known as
A Break points
B Residual chlorine
C Chlorine demand
D Super chlorination
130. The point at which chlorine demand of the water is met and residual chlorine
appears is
A Break points
B Bleaching
C Chlorine demand
D super chlorination
C Perchloron
D Bleaching powder
139. The dose of ozone required for the ozonation of drinking water is
A 0.5-1 mg/L
B 2-5 mg/L
C 1-2 mg/L
D 6-10 mg/L
141. Reverse osmosis rejects monovalent ions and organics of molecular weight
exceeding
A 10 Dalton
B 100 Dalton
C 50 Dalton
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D 200 Dalton
148. Well in which water rises above the level of groundwater due to pressure is
called as
A Shallow well
B Artesian well
C Dug well
D Sanitary well
A Rad
B Roentgen
C Curie
D None of the above
164. Height from the earth surface at which the ozone layer is present
A 20-30 KM
B 70-80 KM
C 40-50 KM
D > 100 KM
B Nitric acid
C Sulphuric acid
D Nitrous acid
171. Most prevalent udder infection among the dairy cattle is,
A Subclinical mastitis
B Clinical mastitis
C Acute mastitis
D Chronic mastitis
A Pseudomonas fragi
B Lactobacillus viridecens
C Lactobacillus lactis
D Staphylococcus aureus
197. An ecologist who plotted biome diagram of the globe based on rainfall &
temperature,
A de Candolle
B Merriam
C Robert Whittaker
D Reed-Frost
199. Acquiring information about an object, area or phenomenon from distance is,
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A Time-series analysis
B Disease forecasting
C Early warning
D Remote Sensing
204. Cyclozoonoses that involve humans as accidental host are referred to as,
A) Obligatory Cyclozoonoses
B Para zoonoses
C Non-obligatory Cyclozoonoses
D Both b or c
207. Arthropod in which the agent develops and also undergoes cyclic changes is
known as,
A Cyclo-propagative vector
B Biological vector
C Mechanical Vector
D Both a & b
a) Sedimentation test
b) Clot on boiling test
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
c) 200gm
d) 100gm
236. In a herd of 120 deer, 75 have diarrhoea and vomiting within the last 24 hours.
All the animals were normal 48 hours ago. The most likely source for the outbreak
is:
A Exposure to a common source
B An infection propagated in the herd and spread from animal to animal
C A change in the diet of younger animals
D None of the above
237. Early detection (e.g. through screening programs) designed to minimize the
health and economic effects of diseases in a population is known as
a) Primary prevention
b) Secondary prevention
c) Tertiary prevention
d) All the above
244. The outbreak of disease that occurs irregularly and haphazardly is known as
a) Sporadic
b) Endemic
c) Epidemic
d) Pandemic
249. The latent incubation period is the period between infection and shedding of
the organisms and is usually _____________ the incubation period.
a) Shorter than
b) Longer than
c) Equal to
d) b & c are correct
252. If epidemiology deals with a disease which is still in latency, then it is referred
to as
a) Disaster epidemiology
b) Clinical epidemiology
c) Subclinical epidemiology
d) Predictive epidemiology
254. A disease which does not produce any overt clinical sign
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a) Clinical infection
b) Subclinical infection
c) Acute infection
d) Chronic infection
256. The study of cause, distribution, and control of disease in related to individual
and of inherited defects
a) Genetic epidemiology
b) Field epidemiology
c) Cross sectional epidemiology
d) Environmental epidemiology
257. The proportion of animals that are resistant to infection or disease in the
population
a) Herd epidemiology
b) Landscape epidemiology
c) Cohert study
d) Cross sectional epidemiology
260. Part of the animal’s home range that it defends aggressively from invaders is
known as
a) Nidus
b) Foci
c) Territory
d) Biodiversity
261. Which is the smallest spatial unit providing uniform condition for life
a) Biocenosis
b) Niche
c) Biotope
d) Nosoarea
267. An animal which excretes agents during the recovery period is known as
a) Sympatric animals
b) Convalescent carriers
c) Paratenic host
d) Amplifier host
268. The time between infection and availability of agent in an arthropod vector is
known as
a) Extrinsic incubation period
b) Intrinsic incubation period
c) Generation time
d) Propagation
273. An animal which carries an infectious agent to the primary or secondary host
a) Mechanical vector
b) Biological vector
c) Propagative transmission
d) None of the above
274. The period of time lapses between infection and shedding of the agent in
parasitic disease is a
a) Eclipse phase
b) Incubation period
c) Latent period
d) Prepatent period
275. The period of time lapses between infection and shedding of the agent in viral
infection is a
a) Eclipse phase
b) Incubation period
c) Latent period
d) Prepatent period
276. The period of time lapses between infection and shedding of the agent in
bacterial infection is
a) Eclipse phase
b) Incubation period
c) Latent period
d) Prepatent period
d) Survival period
284. Water-birds with paralyzed necks developed a toxic infectious disease which
is called as
a) Limberneck
b) Ranikhet disease
c) Marek’s disease
d) None of the above
288. The cow infected with Lyme disease will secrete organisms in
a) Milk
b) Blood
c) Synovial fluid
d) All the above
309. Curdling without pronounced acid production associated with milk and milk
products
a) Sweet curdling
b) Acid curdling
c) Curdling
d) Alkaline curdling
322. Satellite growth on a blood agar plate in the presence of Staph. aureus is
characteristic of
a) Pasteurella
b) Haemophilus
c) Actinobacillus
d) Mycoplasma
328. The pulsation ratio in milking machine should be kept within the limit of
a) 1: 1
b) 2.5: 1
c) Both a & b
d) None
334. In Bacillus by which reaction the organisms can be detected in the blood
smear
a) Mac fad yean reaction
b) Zeil Nielsen reaction
c) Ascoli’s precipitation test
d) None of this
a) Blood
b) Urine
c) Milk
d) Faeces
346. The host provides a medium for the larval or asexual phase of the life cycle of
an infectious agent.
a) Intermediate host
b) Final host
c) Obligatory host
d) None of the above
a) Hydrogen sulphide
b) Algae
c) Cyanide
d) Ammonia
c. - - + +
d. - + - +
364. Rennate used in the preparation of cheese has two main enzymes
a) Rennin and trypsin
b) Rennin and pepsin
c) Rennin and chymotrypsin
d) Rennin and chimin
365. One important pathogen that is frequently isolated from dried milk powders is
a) Shigella
b) E. coli
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Campylobacter jejunai
373. It is an organism which can grow in agar containing bile salts and ferment
lactose
a) Bifidobacterium
b) Lactobacillus
c) Pseudomonas
d) Coliforms
376. Prominent scientist involved in the study of Lacto Peroxidase system in milk
a) Korhonen
b) Juffs
c) Zajac
d) Bjorck
a) Halophilic
b) Mesophiles
c) Cryophilic
d) Psychotropic
388. The bright red colour development of meat is due to oxymyoglobin is called
a) Ageing
b) Conditioning
c) Bloom
d) None of the above
389. Large fat particles coalesce at the end of the sausages to form
a) Nitrite burn
b) Fat cap
c) Warmed over
d) None of the above
391. ----------- is the most abundant fatty acid in the animal body
a) Steric acid
b) Glycolic acid
c) Lactic acid
d) Oleic acid
c) Freeze meat
d) None of the above
403. In India, the working of slaughter is governed under the law _________
a) MFPO
b) PFA
c) AGMARK
d) ISO
405. The food quality standards all over the world are maintained as per the
guidelines of ___
a) APEDA
b) OIE
c) ISO
d) BIS
408. Condensations of water vapor on meat brought out firm cold store into
ordinary room temperature are called _________
a) Drip
b) Whip
c) Sweating
d) Shrinkage
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415. Cold shortening in muscles occur when the pre-rigor muscle is exposed to a
temperature between
a) -5 to 10 C
b) 0 to15 C
c) -1.5 to -3 C
d) -20 to -30 C
416. ________ instrument is used in measuring the strength of the brine solution.
a) Salinometer
b) Hygrometer
c) Thermometer
d) Lactometer
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417. A can with a normal appearance but one end flips out when the can is struck
against solid object but snaps back to normal under light pressure is referred to
as________
a) Flipper
b) Springer
c) Leaker
d) Overfill can
424. As per the BIS specification, the coliforms in the ice-cream should not exceed
a) 50/g
b) 90/g
c) 95/g
d) 100/g
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428. The recommended maximum level of sound which a person can tolerate
without loss of hearing ability
a) 100 dB
b) 85 dB
c) 80 dB
d) 90 dB
431. The ISO 9000 series applicable to set requirements for the quality system of
the supplier is
a) ISO 9001
b) ISO 9002
c) ISO 9003
d) ISO 9004
434. Among the following which is major contributor to the global warming
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water vapor
c) Methane
d) Oxides of sulphur
440. Variety and variability among living organisms and ecological complexes
determines
a) Natural calamities
b) Greenhouse effect
c) Biodiversity
d) Climate change
443. For a given period of observation, the sum of case fatality and survival equals
to
a) One
b) zero
c) Two
d) zero to one
447. Statistically significant association between the factor and disease which is
consistent with modern concepts of causality was established by
a) Koch
b) Evan
c) Pasteur
d) Schwabe
450. Live strain of Brucella melitensis used in the vaccine for small ruminants is
a) Strain 19
b) RB 51
c) Rev 1
d) All the above
453. The growth and multiplication of one organism suppress the activity of other
one is called as
a) Antibiosis
b) Synergism
c) Metabiosis
d) Symbiosis
d) Methyl sulfoxamide
462. The signs developed due to electrical stunning are combinedly called as
a) Electric fits
b) Elective fits
c) Electric stimulation
d) Elecroplectic fits
464. For head only stunning in sheep and calves, how much mA current is required
a) 400mA
b) 300mA
c) 250mA
d) 100mA
466. A can with one end bulged but can be forced back into normal position is
called as
a) Flipper
b) Springer
c) Nitrate swell
d) Blower
474. Process of ensuring that food will not cause harm to the consumer when it is
prepared or eaten according to its intended use
a) Food safety
b) Food security
c) Food hygiene
d) Food chain
477. A public health practitioner may be called upon to estimate the size of
population of
a) Stray dog
b) Foxes
c) Wild animals
d) All the above
d) 3 mg/lit
479. Peroxyl Acetyl Nitrate can cause plant damage at the dose rate of
a) 0.02-0.03 ppm
b) 0.01-0.05 ppm
c) 0.2 ppm
d) 0.0001 ppm
490. The gas used in the manufacture of vanaspati from vegetable oil is
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
491. Most of the foodborne outbreaks following consumption of soft cheese have
been reported to be associated with
a) Yersinia enterocolitica
b) Escherichia coli
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Listeria monocytogene
496. The quality standards for foods all over the world are monitored as per
a) ISO
b) APEDA
c) OIE
d) FAO