MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following structures in birds is responsible for gas exchange?

a. Gills
b. Trachea
c. Lungs
d. Alveoli
2. Correct answer: d) Alveoli

3. What is the unique feature of bird lungs compared to mammalian lungs?

a. Presence of diaphragm
b. Lack of bronchi
c. Unidirectional airflow
d. Absence of alveoli
4. Correct answer: c) Unidirectional airflow

5. How does air flow during inspiration in birds?

a. In and out of the same air sacs
b. In and out of the lungs directly
c. From posterior to anterior air sacs
d. From anterior to posterior air sacs
6. Correct answer: c) From posterior to anterior air sacs

7. The unique respiratory adaptation in birds allows them to:

a. Hibernate during winter
b. Fly at high altitudes
c. Survive without oxygen for extended periods
d. Regulate body temperature
8. Correct answer: b) Fly at high altitudes

9. Which of the following describes the function of air sacs in the avian respiratory system?
a. Gas exchange
b. Vocalization
c. Temperature regulation
d. Air storage and circulation
10. Correct answer: d) Air storage and circulation

11. How many air sacs do birds typically have?

 a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
12. Correct answer: d) 4

13. Which of the following bird species is known for having a highly efficient respiratory
system?
a. Ostrich
b. Penguin
c. Sparrow
d. Kiwi
14. Correct answer: c) Sparrow

15. Birds obtain oxygen from the air and release carbon dioxide through the process of:
a. Osmosis
b. Diffusion
c. Active transport
d. Respiration
16. Correct answer: b) Diffusion

17. How do birds prevent air from flowing back out of their lungs during expiration?
a. By closing their nostrils
b. By contracting their diaphragm
c. By closing their glottis
d. By expanding their thoracic cavity
18. Correct answer: c) By closing their glottis

The trachea in birds is supported by:

Cartilaginous rings

Bony plates

Muscles

Ligaments

Correct answer: a) Cartilaginous rings

19. Which of the following is NOT a Neurodevelopmental Disorder?

 a) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)

b) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

c) Down Syndrome

d) Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)

Answer: d) Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)

20. Neurodevelopmental Disorders typically manifest during which stage of life?

a) Infancy

b) Childhood

c) Adolescence

d) Adulthood

Answer: b) Childhood

21. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?

a) Impaired social interaction

b) Persistent abdominal pain

c) Joint inflammation

d) Difficulty breathing

Answer: a) Impaired social interaction

22. Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD) primarily affects which part of the gastrointestinal
tract?

a) Stomach

b) Small intestine

c) Large intestine (colon)

d) Liver

Answer: c) Large intestine (colon)

23. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is characterized by:

a) Hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattentiveness

b) Chronic inflammation of the small intestine

c) Severe joint pain and swelling

d) Intellectual disability and developmental delay

Answer: a) Hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattentiveness

24. Which of the following is NOT a subtype of Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)?

a) Crohn's disease

b) Ulcerative colitis

c) Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

d) Indeterminate colitis

Answer: c) Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

25. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is commonly associated with Neurodevelopmental

Disorders?

a) Dopamine

b) Serotonin

c) Acetylcholine

d) Endorphins

Answer: b) Serotonin

26. What is the main difference between Crohn's disease and Ulcerative colitis?

a) Crohn's disease affects the small intestine, while Ulcerative colitis affects the large intestine.

b) Crohn's disease primarily affects females, while Ulcerative colitis primarily affects males.
 c) Crohn's disease is an autoimmune disorder, while Ulcerative colitis is caused by bacterial
infection.

d) Crohn's disease is a temporary condition, while Ulcerative colitis is a chronic illness.

Answer: a) Crohn's disease affects the small intestine, while Ulcerative colitis affects the large
intestine.

27. Which of the following is a treatment option for Neurodevelopmental Disorders?

a) Antibiotics

b) Surgery

c) Cognitive-behavioral therapy

d) Chemotherapy

Answer: c) Cognitive-behavioral therapy

28. What environmental factor has been linked to an increased risk of developing Inflammatory
Bowel Disease (IBD)?

a) Exposure to gluten

b) Consumption of high-fat diets

c) Chronic stress

d) Lack of physical exercise

Answer: c) Chronic stress

29. Which of the following viruses causes Infectious Bronchitis (IB) in poultry?

a) Avian Influenza virus

b) Fowl Pox virus

c) Infectious Bursal Disease virus

d) Avian Coronavirus

Correct answer: d) Avian Coronavirus

30. Influenza is caused by which type of virus?

 a) Retrovirus

b) Paramyxovirus

c) Orthomyxovirus

d) Adenovirus

Correct answer: c) Orthomyxovirus

31. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of Fowl Pox?

a) Severe respiratory distress

b) Feather loss and skin lesions

c) Diarrhea and intestinal inflammation

d) Neurological disorders

Correct answer: b) Feather loss and skin lesions

32. Merck's Disease primarily affects which species?

a) Cattle

b) Pigs

c) Poultry

d) Horses

Correct answer: c) Poultry

33. Which of the following is a common route of transmission for IB in poultry?

a) Ingestion of contaminated food

b) Direct contact with infected birds

c) Inhalation of airborne droplets

d) Transmission through mosquito bites

Correct answer: c) Inhalation of airborne droplets

34. Influenza is known for its ability to undergo rapid genetic changes. This phenomenon is
referred to as:

a) Antigenic drift

b) Antigenic shift

c) Viral recombination

d) Host adaptation

Correct answer: a) Antigenic drift

35. Vaccination is commonly used to control which of the following diseases?

a) Fowl Pox

b) Merck's Disease

c) Infectious Bronchitis

d) All of the above

Correct answer: d) All of the above

36. Which of the following is not a common clinical sign of Merck's Disease in poultry?

a) Tumors

b) Diarrhea

c) Paralysis

d) Weight loss

Correct answer: b) Diarrhea

37. Which of the following animal species is most susceptible to avian influenza?

a) Dogs

b) Cats

c) Humans
 d) Birds

Correct answer: d) Birds

38. Fowl Pox is primarily transmitted through:

a) Mosquito bites

b) Direct contact with infected birds

c) Contaminated water sources

d) Inhalation of airborne particles

Correct answer: a) Mosquito bites

39. What is the purpose of postmortem examination in broilers?

a) To determine the cause of death

b) To assess meat quality

c) To identify genetic defects

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

40. Which tool is commonly used for postmortem examination of broilers?

a) Scalpel

b) Microscope

c) Thermometer

d) Weighing scale

Answer: a) Scalpel

41. Postmortem examination of broilers involves the inspection of which body systems?

a) Respiratory and circulatory systems

b) Digestive and musculoskeletal systems

 c) Nervous and reproductive systems

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

42. What does the term "necropsy" refer to in postmortem analysis?

a) Microscopic examination of tissues

b) Gross examination of organs and tissues

c) Bacterial culture and sensitivity testing

d) Genetic analysis of broiler samples

Answer: b) Gross examination of organs and tissues

43. Which postmortem technique is used to assess meat quality in broilers?

a) pH measurement

b) DNA sequencing

c) Antibiotic sensitivity testing

d) Serological testing

Answer: a) pH measurement

44. Which organ is primarily evaluated during postmortem analysis to detect diseases in
broilers?

a) Liver

b) Heart

c) Kidney

d) Spleen

Answer: a) Liver

45. Which of the following is a common postmortem finding in broilers affected by Ascites?
 a) Enlarged liver

b) Respiratory distress

c) Abnormal feathering

d) Bone deformities

Answer: a) Enlarged liver

46. What is the purpose of conducting microbial analysis during postmortem examination?

a) To identify bacterial pathogens

b) To assess nutritional deficiencies

c) To determine genetic abnormalities

d) To measure enzyme activity

Answer: a) To identify bacterial pathogens

47. How is postmortem examination helpful in controlling disease outbreaks in broilers?

a) It helps in identifying infected birds

b) It guides vaccination strategies

c) It aids in implementing biosecurity measures

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

48. Which of the following is an important consideration for postmortem sampling in broilers?

a) Using sterile instruments

b) Sampling from multiple birds

c) Including different tissues for analysis

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

49. What is the primary objective of antimortem inspection of broilers?

a) To assess post-mortem quality

b) To detect diseases and abnormalities before slaughter

c) To determine meat tenderness

d) To ensure proper packaging and labeling

Correct answer: b) To detect diseases and abnormalities before slaughter

50. Which of the following is a common antimortem technique used in broiler inspection?

a) Palpation

b) X-ray analysis

c) pH measurement

d) Microbiological testing

Correct answer: a) Palpation

51. When performing antimortem inspection, what does the term "condemn" mean?

a) To approve a bird for slaughter

b) To isolate a bird for further testing

c) To remove a bird from the processing line due to disease or defects

d) To determine the age of a broiler

Correct answer: c) To remove a bird from the processing line due to disease or defects

52. Which part of the broiler's body is commonly examined during palpation?

a) Feathers

b) Beak

c) Legs and feet

d) Wings
 Correct answer: c) Legs and feet

53. What does an elevated body temperature in a broiler during antimortem inspection
indicate?

a) High meat quality

b) Bacterial contamination

c) A broken bone

d) Normal physiological response

Correct answer: b) Bacterial contamination

54. Which of the following is an important aspect of broiler antimortem inspection?

a) Assessing meat marbling

b) Identifying breed characteristics

c) Checking for signs of stress or bruising

d) Measuring meat pH

Correct answer: c) Checking for signs of stress or bruising

55. Which disease is commonly screened for during broiler antimortem inspection?

a) Salmonella

b) Avian influenza

c) Mad cow disease

d) Botulism

Correct answer: a) Salmonella

56. What is the purpose of performing pH measurement during antimortem inspection?

a) To determine meat color

b) To assess meat texture

 c) To check for microbial growth

d) To evaluate the degree of meat spoilage

Correct answer: b) To assess meat texture

57. What should be the body condition of a healthy broiler during antimortem inspection?

a) Underweight

b) Overweight

c) Normal weight

d) Varies depending on breed

Correct answer: c) Normal weight

58. Which regulatory body oversees antimortem inspection in broiler processing facilities?

a) FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

b) USDA (United States Department of Agriculture)

c) CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention)

d) EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)

Correct answer: b) USDA

59. Which vaccine is commonly administered to broilers to prevent Newcastle disease?

a) Infectious bronchitis vaccine

b) Marek's disease vaccine

c) Infectious bursal disease vaccine

d) Newcastle disease vaccine (Correct Answer)

60. Which vaccine is typically given to broilers to protect against infectious bursal disease?

a) Avian influenza vaccine

b) Infectious laryngotracheitis vaccine

 c) Infectious bronchitis vaccine

d) Infectious bursal disease vaccine (Correct Answer)

61. Which disease does the Marek's disease vaccine aim to prevent in broilers?

a) Salmonellosis

b) Mycoplasmosis

c) Avian encephalomyelitis

d) Marek's disease (Correct Answer)

62. At what age is it common to administer the first vaccination to broiler chicks?

a) 1-3 days old (Correct Answer)

b) 1 week old

c) 2 weeks old

d) 4 weeks old

63. Which vaccine is given to broilers to protect against avian influenza?

a) Newcastle disease vaccine

b) Infectious bursal disease vaccine

c) Avian influenza vaccine (Correct Answer)

d) Infectious bronchitis vaccine

64. What is the recommended interval between two doses of the same vaccine for broilers?

a) 1 week

b) 2 weeks

c) 3 weeks

d) It depends on the vaccine type (Correct Answer)

65. Which vaccine is commonly used to prevent coccidiosis in broilers?

a) Marek's disease vaccine

b) Avian encephalomyelitis vaccine

c) Coccidiosis vaccine (Correct Answer)

d) Infectious laryngotracheitis vaccine

66. Which vaccine is typically given to broilers to protect against infectious bronchitis?

a) Infectious bursal disease vaccine

b) Avian influenza vaccine

c) Marek's disease vaccine

d) Infectious bronchitis vaccine (Correct Answer)

67. What is the purpose of a prime-boost vaccination strategy in broilers?

a) To reduce vaccine cost

b) To minimize vaccine side effects

c) To enhance immune response (Correct Answer)

d) To shorten the vaccination schedule

68. Which disease does the Gumboro vaccine protect broilers against?

a) Avian influenza

b) Newcastle disease

c) Gumboro disease (Infectious bursal disease) (Correct Answer)

d) Marek's disease

69. What does gene frequency refer to?

a) The likelihood of a particular gene being present in a population

 b) The number of chromosomes in a cell

c) The dominance of a gene over others

d) The rate at which genes mutate

Correct answer: a) The likelihood of a particular gene being present in a population

70. What is the genotypic frequency?

a) The proportion of individuals with a specific genotype in a population

b) The rate at which genes are passed on to the next generation

c) The frequency of gene mutations

d) The percentage of genes that are dominant in a population

Correct answer: a) The proportion of individuals with a specific genotype in a population

71. In a population of 500 individuals, 320 are homozygous dominant (AA), 160 are
heterozygous (Aa), and 20 are homozygous recessive (aa). What is the frequency of the recessive
allele (a)?

a) 0.04

b) 0.08

c) 0.1

d) 0.2

Correct answer: c) 0.1

72. The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that:

a) Gene frequencies in a population remain constant across generations

b) Gene frequencies increase linearly with time

 c) Only dominant genes can be passed on to offspring

d) Gene frequencies are determined solely by environmental factors

Correct answer: a) Gene frequencies in a population remain constant across generations

73. A population of rabbits shows the following genotypic frequencies for a specific trait: AA
(0.25), Aa (0.50), aa (0.25). What is the expected frequency of the dominant allele (A)?

a) 0.50

b) 0.75

c) 1.00

d) 1.50

Correct answer: b) 0.75

74. Qualitative Traits:

Question: Which of the following traits is an example of a qualitative trait?

a) Height

b) Eye color

c) Weight

d) Blood pressure

Correct Answer: b) Eye color

75. Quantitative Traits:

Question: Which statistical measure is commonly used to describe the central tendency of a
quantitative trait?

a) Mean

b) Median

c) Mode
 d) Range

Correct Answer: a) Mean

76. Quantitative Traits:

Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of a normally distributed quantitative

trait?

a) Skewed distribution

b) Bimodal distribution

c) Symmetrical distribution

d) Outliers

Correct Answer: c) Symmetrical distribution

77. Inheritance Patterns:

Question: Which inheritance pattern is characterized by the trait being passed down from one
generation to the next through both males and females?

a) Autosomal recessive

b) X-linked recessive

c) Autosomal dominant

d) Y-linked

Correct Answer: c) Autosomal dominant

78. Mendelian Inheritance:

Question: In Mendelian inheritance, which of the following represents the genotype of a

heterozygous individual?

a) TT

b) tt

c) Tt

d) TTTT

Correct Answer: c) Tt
79. Polygenic Inheritance:

Question: Which of the following best describes polygenic inheritance?

a) Inheritance of a trait controlled by multiple genes at different loci

b) Inheritance of a trait controlled by a single gene with multiple alleles

c) Inheritance of a trait affected by environmental factors only

d) Inheritance of a trait with no genetic basis

Correct Answer: a) Inheritance of a trait controlled by multiple genes at different loci

80. Which statistical measure is calculated by summing all the values in a dataset and dividing
it by the total number of values?

a) Biometric mean

b) Mode

c) Arithmetic mean

d) Geometric mean

e) Harmonic mean

Correct Answer: c) Arithmetic mean

81: Which statistical measure represents the most frequently occurring value in a dataset?

a) Mean

b) Mode

c) Arithmetic mean

d) Geometric mean

e) Harmonic mean
Correct Answer: b) Mode

82: Which statistical measure is calculated by summing all the values in a dataset and dividing
it by the total number of values?

a) Mean

b) Mode

c) Arithmetic mean

d) Geometric mean

e) Harmonic mean

Correct Answer: c) Arithmetic mean

83: Which statistical measure represents the value that occurs most frequently in a dataset?

a) Mean

b) Mode

c) Arithmetic mean

d) Geometric mean

e) Harmonic mean

Correct Answer: b) Mode

84: Which statistical measure is useful for calculating average rates of change or growth?

a) Mean

b) Mode
c) Arithmetic mean

d) Geometric mean

e) Harmonic mean

Correct Answer: d) Geometric mean

85: Which statistical measure is appropriate for calculating the average of reciprocals?

a) Mean

b) Mode

c) Arithmetic mean

d) Geometric mean

e) Harmonic mean

Correct Answer: e) Harmonic mean

86. Which component of proximate analysis measures the moisture content in a sample?

a) Ash content

b) Volatile matter

c) Fixed carbon

d) Moisture content (Correct answer)

87. What does the term "volatile matter" represent in proximate analysis?

a) Non-combustible materials

b) Ash content

c) Organic matter evaporated at low temperatures (Correct answer)

d) Total carbon content

88. Which component of proximate analysis refers to the combustible portion of a sample?

a) Moisture content

b) Ash content

c) Volatile matter (Correct answer)

d) Fixed carbon

89. What does the ash content represent in proximate analysis?

a) Moisture content

b) Non-combustible inorganic materials (Correct answer)

c) Organic matter

d) Volatile matter

90. Which component of proximate analysis accounts for the remaining weight after
subtracting moisture, volatile matter, and ash?

a) Moisture content

b) Fixed carbon

c) Volatile matter

d) Ultimate analysis (Correct answer)

91. Proximate analysis is primarily used to determine the ____ of a given sample.

a) Calorific value

b) Elemental composition

c) Moisture content

d) Physical and chemical properties (Correct answer)

92. Which method is commonly employed to determine the moisture content in proximate
analysis?

a) Gravimetric method (Correct answer)

b) Spectroscopic analysis

c) Titration method

d) Gas chromatography

93. The volatile matter in proximate analysis consists mainly of:

a) Carbon and hydrogen

b) Inorganic minerals

c) Water vapor and organic compounds (Correct answer)

d) Fixed carbon

94. Which component of proximate analysis is indicative of the energy content in a fuel?

a) Ash content

b) Volatile matter

c) Fixed carbon

d) Calorific value (Correct answer)

95. Which parameter is not directly determined in proximate analysis?

a) Moisture content

b) Elemental composition

c) Calorific value (Correct answer)

d) Ash content

96. Which macromolecule is the primary source of energy for the human body?

a) Lipids

b) Proteins
 c) Carbohydrates

d) Nucleic acids

Answer: c) Carbohydrates

97. Which of the following is not a type of lipid?

a) Triglyceride

b) Steroid

c) Monosaccharide

d) Phospholipid

Answer: c) Monosaccharide

98. Which macromolecule is composed of amino acids?

a) Lipids

b) Proteins

c) Carbohydrates

d) Nucleic acids

Answer: b) Proteins

99. Which lipid plays a crucial role in the structure of cell membranes?

a) Triglyceride

b) Steroid

c) Phospholipid

d) Cholesterol

Answer: c) Phospholipid

100. Which carbohydrate is known as the "blood sugar" and is a primary energy source for
cells?
 a) Starch

b) Cellulose

c) Glucose

d) Fructose

Answer: c) Glucose

101. Which macromolecule provides insulation and protection for organs in the body?

a) Lipids

b) Proteins

c) Carbohydrates

d) Nucleic acids

Answer: a) Lipids

102. Which type of lipid is a waxy substance found in animal tissues?

a) Triglyceride

b) Steroid

c) Phospholipid

d) Cholesterol

Answer: d) Cholesterol

103. Enzymes, antibodies, and hormones are examples of which macromolecule?

a) Lipids

b) Proteins

c) Carbohydrates

d) Nucleic acids

Answer: b) Proteins
104. Which carbohydrate is commonly found in fruits and gives them their sweet taste?

a) Starch

b) Cellulose

c) Glucose

d) Fructose

Answer: d) Fructose

105. Which macromolecule stores genetic information?

a) Lipids

b) Proteins

c) Carbohydrates

d) Nucleic acids

Answer: d) Nucleic acids

106. Which type of lipid is solid at room temperature?

a) Triglyceride

b) Steroid

c) Phospholipid

d) Saturated fat

Answer: d) Saturated fat

107. Hemoglobin, found in red blood cells, is an example of which macromolecule?

a) Lipids

b) Proteins

c) Carbohydrates
 d) Nucleic acids

Answer: b) Proteins

108. Which carbohydrate cannot be digested by humans but is essential for proper digestion?

a) Starch

b) Cellulose

c) Glucose

d) Fructose

Answer: b) Cellulose

109. Which type of lipid is a precursor for the synthesis of hormones like estrogen and
testosterone?

a) Triglyceride

b) Steroid

c) Phospholipid

d) Cholesterol

Answer: b) Steroid

110. Which organ in the avian digestive system is responsible for food storage?

a) Crop

b) Gizzard

c) Proventriculus

d) Esophagus

Answer: a) Crop

111. What is the function of the gizzard in the avian digestive system?

a) Carbohydrate digestion

b) Fat absorption
 c) Mechanical grinding of food

d) Protein breakdown

Answer: c) Mechanical grinding of food

112. Which enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of proteins in the avian digestive system?

a) Amylase

b) Pepsin

c) Lipase

d) Trypsin

Answer: b) Pepsin

113. What is the function of the proventriculus in the avian digestive system?

a) Absorption of water

b) Nutrient absorption

c) Bacterial fermentation

d) Acid secretion for protein digestion

Answer: d) Acid secretion for protein digestion

114. Which part of the avian digestive system is responsible for the absorption of water and
electrolytes?

a) Crop

b) Cloaca

c) Small intestine

d) Large intestine

Answer: d) Large intestine

115. Which organ produces bile in the avian digestive system?

 a) Pancreas

b) Liver

c) Gallbladder

d) Spleen

Answer: b) Liver

116. What is the function of the ceca in the avian digestive system?

a) Carbohydrate digestion

b) Fat absorption

c) Water reabsorption

d) Fermentation of indigestible material

Answer: d) Fermentation of indigestible material

117. Which part of the avian digestive system is responsible for the absorption of nutrients?

a) Crop

b) Proventriculus

c) Small intestine

d) Cloaca

Answer: c) Small intestine

118. Which type of digestion occurs in the avian crop?

a) Mechanical digestion

b) Chemical digestion

c) Both mechanical and chemical digestion

d) No digestion occurs in the crop

Answer: b) Chemical digestion

119. What is the function of the cloaca in the avian digestive system?

a) Nutrient absorption

b) Waste elimination

c) Enzyme secretion

d) Fat digestion

Answer: b) Waste elimination

120. What is the primary organ responsible for pumping blood in birds?

a) Lungs

b) Heart

c) Kidneys

d) Liver

Correct answer: b) Heart

121. What is the term for the largest artery in a bird's body?

a) Aorta

b) Vena cava

c) Pulmonary artery

d) Coronary artery

Correct answer: a) Aorta

122. How many chambers are present in the heart of most birds?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four
 Correct answer: d) Four

123. What are the thin-walled, tiny blood vessels where gas exchange occurs in the avian
respiratory system?

a) Capillaries

b) Arteries

c) Veins

d) Venules

Correct answer: a) Capillaries

124. Which type of blood vessels carry oxygenated blood away from the bird's heart?

a) Veins

b) Venules

c) Arteries

d) Capillaries

Correct answer: c) Arteries

125. What is the specialized adaptation found in the avian circulatory system that allows birds
to have efficient oxygen transport?

a) Valve system

b) Diaphragm

c) Gizzard

d) Air sacs

Correct answer: d) Air sacs

126. Which of the following statements about avian red blood cells is true?

a) They have a nucleus.

 b) They are oval-shaped.

c) They are larger than mammalian red blood cells.

d) They contain hemoglobin.

Correct answer: b) They are oval-shaped.

127. What is the name of the process by which birds increase their heart rate and breathing
during flight?

a) Hibernation

b) Brumation

c) Estivation

d) Hyperpnea

Correct answer: d) Hyperpnea

128. What is the function of the avian renal portal system?

a) To filter waste products from the blood

b) To carry oxygenated blood to the kidneys

c) To regulate body temperature

d) To carry blood from the digestive organs to the kidneys

Correct answer: d) To carry blood from the digestive organs to the kidneys

129. Which of the following is responsible for carrying deoxygenated blood back to the avian
heart?

a) Veins

b) Arteries

c) Capillaries

d) Venules

Correct answer: a) Veins

130. Which of the following structures in birds is responsible for gas exchange?

a) Lungs

b) Gills

c) Trachea

d) Esophagus

Correct answer: a) Lungs

131. What is the unique feature of avian lungs compared to mammalian lungs?

a) Lack of alveoli

b) Presence of bronchi

c) Presence of air sacs

d) Absence of diaphragm

Correct answer: c) Presence of air sacs

132. How many air sacs do birds typically have?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

Correct answer: c) 6

133. What is the purpose of air sacs in avian respiration?

a) Oxygen production

b) Vocalization

c) Maintaining buoyancy

d) Waste elimination
 Correct answer: c) Maintaining buoyancy

134. Which air sacs in birds are involved in the process of inhalation?

a) Cranial air sacs

b) Caudal air sacs

c) Both cranial and caudal air sacs

d) None of the above

Correct answer: b) Caudal air sacs

135. How does air flow through the avian respiratory system?

a) In and out of the lungs directly

b) In a unidirectional flow through the lungs

c) In a bidirectional flow through the lungs

d) In and out of the air sacs directly

Correct answer: b) In a unidirectional flow through the lungs

136. What is the primary function of the syrinx in birds?

a) Oxygen exchange

b) Temperature regulation

c) Sound production

d) Protection of the trachea

Correct answer: c) Sound production

137. Which of the following is a common respiratory disease in birds?

a) Asthma

b) Tuberculosis
 c) Pneumonia

d) Avian influenza

Correct answer: d) Avian influenza

138. How do birds regulate their respiration during flight?

a) By increasing lung capacity

b) By closing their air sacs

c) By decreasing the rate of respiration

d) By using the thoracic muscles to pump air

Correct answer: d) By using the thoracic muscles to pump air

139. What is the term for the exchange of respiratory gases between the blood and tissues in
birds?

a) External respiration

b) Internal respiration

c) Cellular respiration

d) Ventilation

Correct answer: b) Internal respiration

140. Which organ is primarily responsible for excretion in birds?

a) Kidneys

b) Lungs

c) Liver

d) Intestines

(Correct answer: a)

141. What is the functional unit of the avian kidney?

a) Nephron
 b) Alveolus

c) Tubule

d) Glomerulus

(Correct answer: a)

142. Which waste product is primarily eliminated by the avian excretory system?

a) Urea

b) Ammonia

c) Carbon dioxide

d) Uric acid

(Correct answer: d)

143. Where does the filtration of blood occur in the avian excretory system?

a) Glomerulus

b) Renal pelvis

c) Medulla

d) Renal cortex

(Correct answer: a)

144. Which structure transports urine from the kidneys to the cloaca in birds?

a) Urethra

b) Ureter

c) Bladder

d) Cloacal bursa

(Correct answer: b)
145. Which organ in the avian excretory system is responsible for reabsorption of water and
nutrients?

a) Cloaca

b) Urethra

c) Intestines

d) Renal tubules

(Correct answer: c)

146. What is the role of the salt glands in birds?

a) Regulation of body temperature

b) Digestion of food

c) Removal of excess salts

d) Synthesis of hormones

(Correct answer: c)

147. Which avian species is known for excreting concentrated uric acid, minimizing water loss?

a) Parrots

b) Ducks

c) Falcons

d) Ostriches

(Correct answer: a)

148. What is the function of the uropygial gland in birds?

a) Production of urine

b) Regulation of body temperature

c) Synthesis of digestive enzymes

d) Secretion of preen oil

 (Correct answer: d)

149. How do birds eliminate excess heat from their bodies?

a) Through sweat glands

b) By panting

c) By shivering

d) Through their feathers

(Correct answer: b)

150. Which of the following statements about avian excretion is true?

a) Birds excrete both solid and liquid waste together.

b) Avian excretion is primarily done through the respiratory system.

c) Birds do not excrete uric acid.

d) Avian excretion helps maintain water and electrolyte balance.

(Correct answer: d)

151. What is the primary function of DNA in living organisms?

a) Energy production

b) Cell division

c) Protein synthesis

d) Waste elimination

Correct answer: c) Protein synthesis

152. What is the full form of DNA?

a) Deoxyribonucleic acid

b) Ribonucleic acid
 c) Desoxyribonucleic acid

d) Ribosenucleic acid

Correct answer: a) Deoxyribonucleic acid

153. How many strands of DNA are typically found in a human cell?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Correct answer: b) 2

154. What are the building blocks of DNA called?

a) Amino acids

b) Nucleotides

c) Proteins

d) Polypeptides

Correct answer: b) Nucleotides

155. Which nitrogenous bases pair together in DNA?

a) Adenine and guanine

b) Thymine and cytosine

c) Adenine and thymine

d) Guanine and cytosine

Correct answer: c) Adenine and thymine

156. What is the process by which DNA is copied called?

 a) Replication

b) Transcription

c) Translation

d) Mutation

Correct answer: a) Replication

157. Which enzyme is responsible for DNA replication?

a) DNA polymerase

b) RNA polymerase

c) Helicase

d) Ligase

Correct answer: a) DNA polymerase

158. In humans, where is DNA primarily found?

a) Nucleus

b) Mitochondria

c) Ribosomes

d) Cell membrane

Correct answer: a) Nucleus

159. Which technique is used to analyze and compare DNA fragments?

a) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

b) Gel electrophoresis

c) Western blotting

d) Microarray analysis

Correct answer: b) Gel electrophoresis

160. What is a mutation?

a) A mistake in DNA replication

b) A change in protein structure

c) A genetic disorder

d) All of the above

Correct answer: d) All of the above

161. What is the primary purpose of ventilation in a poultry house?

a) To maintain temperature

b) To provide fresh air

c) To control humidity

d) All of the above

Correct answer: d) All of the above

162. Which ventilation system is most commonly used in poultry houses?

a) Natural ventilation

b) Mechanical ventilation

c) Tunnel ventilation

d) Cross ventilation

Correct answer: b) Mechanical ventilation

163. Which of the following factors influences the ventilation rate in a poultry house?

a) Outside temperature

b) Bird age

c) Stocking density
 d) All of the above

Correct answer: d) All of the above

164. What is the ideal temperature range for broiler chickens during the growing phase?

a) 10-15°C

b) 20-25°C

c) 30-35°C

d) 35-40°C

Correct answer: b) 20-25°C

165. Which type of ventilation system is effective in removing excess heat during hot weather?

a) Tunnel ventilation

b) Positive pressure ventilation

c) Natural ventilation

d) Negative pressure ventilation

Correct answer: a) Tunnel ventilation

166. What is the purpose of air inlets in a poultry house?

a) To provide fresh air

b) To remove stale air

c) To control humidity

d) To regulate temperature

Correct answer: a) To provide fresh air

167. Which parameter is used to measure air quality in a poultry house?

a) Carbon dioxide (CO2) levels

 b) Ammonia levels

c) Humidity levels

d) Oxygen levels

Correct answer: a) Carbon dioxide (CO2) levels

168. During cold weather, how can ventilation be adjusted to prevent drafts and maintain a
comfortable environment for the birds?

a) Increase airspeed

b) Close air inlets

c) Increase ventilation rate

d) Open curtains or sidewalls

Correct answer: c) Increase ventilation rate

169. What is the recommended minimum air exchange rate per hour for a broiler house?

a) 2-4 exchanges per hour

b) 6-8 exchanges per hour

c) 10-12 exchanges per hour

d) 15-20 exchanges per hour

Correct answer: b) 6-8 exchanges per hour

170. Which of the following is a sign of inadequate ventilation in a poultry house?

a) Excessive moisture buildup

b) High ammonia levels

c) Poor bird performance

d) All of the above

Correct answer: d) All of the above

171. Which temperature range is most suitable for broiler chickens?

 a) 10-20°C

b) 25-35°C

c) 40-50°C

d) 55-65°C

Answer: b) 25-35°C

172. What is the optimal humidity level for poultry houses?

a) 10-20%

b) 25-35%

c) 40-50%

d) 55-65%

Answer: c) 40-50%

173. High humidity in poultry houses can lead to which of the following problems?

a) Respiratory issues

b) Feather pecking

c) Heat stress

d) Egg production decrease

Answer: a) Respiratory issues

174. Which of the following is a common method to control humidity in a poultry house?

a) Installing misting fans

b) Opening windows and doors

c) Increasing ventilation

d) Providing heat lamps

Answer: c) Increasing ventilation

175. During hot weather, how can you help lower the temperature in a poultry house?

a) Using evaporative cooling systems

b) Reducing feed intake

c) Providing warmer bedding material

d) Decreasing ventilation

Answer: a) Using evaporative cooling systems

176. What is the recommended temperature for newly hatched chicks?

a) 15-20°C

b) 25-30°C

c) 35-40°C

d) 45-50°C

Answer: c) 35-40°C

177. What should be done if the temperature in a poultry house drops below the desired range?

a) Increase ventilation

b) Provide additional heat sources

c) Reduce feed intake

d) Decrease humidity

Answer: b) Provide additional heat sources

178. Why is it important to monitor temperature and humidity in a poultry house?

a) To reduce electricity costs

b) To optimize eggshell color

c) To maintain bird comfort and health

 d) To increase the size of poultry

Answer: c) To maintain bird comfort and health

179. What is the potential risk of high temperatures in a poultry house?

a) Increased feed efficiency

b) Reduced water consumption

c) Heat stress and decreased productivity

d) Improved egg quality

Answer: c) Heat stress and decreased productivity

180. Which factor affects both temperature and humidity in a poultry house?

a) Lighting conditions

b) Feed composition

c) Dust levels

d) Noise levels

Answer: c) Dust levels

191. Which process in the Nitrogen cycle converts atmospheric nitrogen into a form that can be
used by plants?

a) Nitrification

b) Nitrogen fixation

c) Denitrification

d) Ammonification

Correct answer: b) Nitrogen fixation

192. What is the primary source of nitrogen for the Nitrogen cycle?

a) Atmospheric nitrogen

b) Nitrate-rich soil
 c) Nitrogen gas dissolved in water

d) Nitrogen-containing organic matter

Correct answer: a) Atmospheric nitrogen

193. Which organism plays a crucial role in the process of nitrification in the Nitrogen cycle?

a) Bacteria

b) Fungi

c) Plants

d) Insects

Correct answer: a) Bacteria

194. Which process in the Carbon cycle involves the conversion of atmospheric carbon dioxide
into organic compounds by plants?

a) Photosynthesis

b) Respiration

c) Decomposition

d) Combustion

Correct answer: a) Photosynthesis

195. What is the main reservoir of carbon in the Carbon cycle?

a) Oceans

b) Atmosphere

c) Plants

d) Fossil fuels

Correct answer: a) Oceans

196. Which process releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?

 a) Photosynthesis

b) Respiration

c) Fossil fuel combustion

d) Decomposition

Correct answer: c) Fossil fuel combustion

197. In the Nitrogen cycle, what process converts nitrogen compounds in soil back into
atmospheric nitrogen?

a) Nitrogen fixation

b) Nitrification

c) Denitrification

d) Ammonification

Correct answer: c) Denitrification

198. Which component of the Carbon cycle involves the breakdown of dead organic matter by
decomposers?

a) Respiration

b) Combustion

c) Decomposition

d) Weathering

Correct answer: c) Decomposition

199. What is the primary source of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

a) Human activities

b) Volcanic eruptions

c) Forest fires

d) All of the above

 Correct answer: d) All of the above

200. Which process in the Nitrogen cycle converts organic nitrogen compounds into ammonia?

a) Nitrogen fixation

b) Nitrification

c) Denitrification

d) Ammonification

Correct answer: d) Ammonification

201. Which biogeochemical cycle involves the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into a form
usable by plants?

a) Carbon cycle

b) Nitrogen cycle

c) Phosphorus cycle

d) Water cycle

Correct answer: b) Nitrogen cycle

202. What process in the water cycle involves the conversion of liquid water into water vapor?

a) Evaporation

b) Condensation

c) Precipitation

d) Transpiration

Correct answer: a) Evaporation

203. Which biogeochemical cycle is primarily responsible for the availability of phosphorus in
ecosystems?

a) Carbon cycle

b) Nitrogen cycle
 c) Phosphorus cycle

d) Water cycle

Correct answer: c) Phosphorus cycle

204. Which process in the carbon cycle involves the release of carbon dioxide into the
atmosphere by burning fossil fuels?

a) Photosynthesis

b) Respiration

c) Decomposition

d) Combustion

Correct answer: d) Combustion

205. In the nitrogen cycle, what process converts atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia?

a) Nitrogen fixation

b) Nitrification

c) Denitrification

d) Ammonification

Correct answer: a) Nitrogen fixation

206. What is the primary reservoir of carbon in the carbon cycle?

a) Atmosphere

b) Oceans

c) Plants

d) Fossil fuels

Correct answer: b) Oceans

207. Which process in the water cycle involves the release of water vapor through the leaves of
plants?

a) Evaporation

b) Condensation

c) Precipitation

d) Transpiration

Correct answer: d) Transpiration

208. What process in the nitrogen cycle converts nitrates back into atmospheric nitrogen?

a) Nitrogen fixation

b) Nitrification

c) Denitrification

d) Ammonification

Correct answer: c) Denitrification

209. Which biogeochemical cycle is essential for the formation of proteins, DNA, and RNA in
living organisms?

a) Carbon cycle

b) Nitrogen cycle

c) Phosphorus cycle

d) Water cycle

Correct answer: b) Nitrogen cycle

210. What process in the carbon cycle involves the absorption of carbon dioxide by plants to
produce carbohydrates?

a) Photosynthesis

b) Respiration

c) Decomposition
 d) Combustion

Correct answer: a) Photosynthesis

211. Which of the following is the definition of biodiversity?

a) The study of rocks and minerals

b) The variety of life forms on Earth

c) The process of cellular respiration

d) The study of weather patterns

Correct answer: b) The variety of life forms on Earth

212. What is the primary cause of biodiversity loss worldwide?

a) Deforestation

b) Overfishing

c) Climate change

d) Pollution

Correct answer: a) Deforestation

213. Which of the following is an example of genetic biodiversity?

a) The different species of birds in a forest

b) The various types of coral reefs in an ocean

c) The range of genetic traits within a single species of fish

d) The different ecosystems found in a rainforest

Correct answer: c) The range of genetic traits within a single species of fish

214. Which of the following is an ecosystem service provided by biodiversity?

a) Production of fossil fuels

b) Purification of air and water

 c) Generation of electricity

d) Manufacturing of consumer goods

Correct answer: b) Purification of air and water

215. What is the main cause of the current mass extinction event?

a) Volcanic eruptions

b) Natural climate change

c) Human activities

d) Solar radiation

Correct answer: c) Human activities

216. Which of the following is an example of a keystone species?

a) Oak tree

b) Lion

c) Earthworm

d) Dandelion

Correct answer: b) Lion

217. What is the term used to describe the variety of different ecosystems within a given region?

a) Biome

b) Biosphere

c) Habitat

d) Biotic community

Correct answer: a) Biome

218. Which of the following is a method for conserving biodiversity?

 a) Genetic modification of species

b) Habitat destruction

c) Sustainable fishing practices

d) Introduction of invasive species

Correct answer: c) Sustainable fishing practices

219. What is the primary purpose of a biodiversity hotspot?

a) To support high population densities of humans

b) To protect areas with the most species diversity

c) To conduct scientific research on climate change

d) To promote industrial development

Correct answer: b) To protect areas with the most species diversity

220. Which of the following is a threat to marine biodiversity?

a) Soil erosion

b) Air pollution

c) Ocean acidification

d) Desertification

Correct answer: c) Ocean acidification

221. Which bone in an avian skeleton is responsible for flight?

a) Sternum

b) Femur

c) Ulna

d) Tibia

Correct answer: a) Sternum

222. What is the function of the keel in an avian skeleton?

a) Digestion

b) Respiration

c) Flight muscle attachment

d) Balance and coordination

Correct answer: c) Flight muscle attachment

223. The fusion of which bones forms the avian beak?

a) Maxilla and mandible

b) Frontal and parietal bones

c) Atlas and axis

d) Carpals and metacarpals

Correct answer: a) Maxilla and mandible

224. Which bone supports the avian skull?

a) Scapula

b) Atlas

c) Humerus

d) Occipital bone

Correct answer: d) Occipital bone

225. What is the function of the avian synsacrum?

a) Protection of internal organs

b) Attachment of tail feathers

c) Support for the pelvic girdle

 d) Storage of calcium

Correct answer: a) Protection of internal organs

226. Which bone in the avian skeleton is analogous to the human clavicle?

a) Coracoid

b) Scapula

c) Ulna

d) Radius

Correct answer: a) Coracoid

227. The avian tarsometatarsus is a fusion of which bones?

a) Tarsals and metatarsals

b) Carpals and metacarpals

c) Humerus and radius

d) Femur and tibia

Correct answer: a) Tarsals and metatarsals

228. Which bone provides support for the avian tail feathers?

a) Pygostyle

b) Sternum

c) Patella

d) Phalanges

Correct answer: a) Pygostyle

229. Which part of the avian skeleton contains the auditory ossicles?

a) Skull
 b) Pelvis

c) Sternum

d) Coracoid

Correct answer: a) Skull

230. What is the function of the avian furcula (wishbone)?

a) Aid in digestion

b) Assist in respiration

c) Support the wings during flight

d) Store fat reserves

Correct answer: c) Support the wings during flight

231. Which of the following ingredients is a primary source of protein in avian feed?

a) Corn

b) Soybean meal

c) Wheat

d) Fish oil

Answer: b) Soybean meal

232. What is the ideal moisture content for avian feed during the manufacturing process?

a) 5-10%

b) 15-20%

c) 25-30%

d) 35-40%

Answer: b) 15-20%
233. Which of the following vitamins is essential for the development of strong eggshells in
laying hens?

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin B12

c) Vitamin D

d) Vitamin K

Answer: c) Vitamin D

234. Which processing method is commonly used to improve the digestibility of grains in avian
feed?

a) Grinding

b) Pelleting

c) Extrusion

d) Crumbling

Answer: c) Extrusion

235. What is the recommended particle size range for poultry feed?

a) 100-200 microns

b) 300-500 microns

c) 600-800 microns

d) 900-1000 microns

Answer: b) 300-500 microns

236. Which of the following minerals is important for bone development in growing birds?

a) Iron

b) Copper

c) Zinc
 d) Sodium

Answer: c) Zinc

237. Which of the following additives is used to prevent the growth of mold and bacteria in
avian feed?

a) Antibiotics

b) Probiotics

c) Prebiotics

d) Antioxidants

Answer: d) Antioxidants

238. What is the main purpose of the conditioning process in avian feed manufacturing?

a) Increasing protein content

b) Improving pellet durability

c) Reducing moisture content

d) Enhancing flavor and aroma

Answer: b) Improving pellet durability

239. Which of the following feed forms is commonly used for broiler chickens?

a) Mash

b) Crumbles

c) Pellets

d) Liquid feed

Answer: c) Pellets

240. What is the recommended temperature range for storing avian feed to maintain its
quality?
 a) 10-20°C

b) 20-30°C

c) 30-40°C

d) 40-50°C

Answer: a) 10-20°C

241. Which of the following is an essential mineral for human health?

a) Calcium

b) Aluminum

c) Lead

d) Mercury

Correct answer: a) Calcium

242. Which mineral is important for the formation of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

a) Iron

b) Copper

c) Zinc

d) Chromium

Correct answer: a) Iron

243. Which mineral is required for the proper functioning of the thyroid gland?

a) Iodine

b) Manganese

c) Selenium

d) Fluoride

Correct answer: a) Iodine

244. Which mineral is necessary for strong teeth and bones?

a) Magnesium

b) Phosphorus

c) Potassium

d) Nickel

Correct answer: b) Phosphorus

245. Which mineral plays a crucial role in nerve function and muscle contraction?

a) Sodium

b) Cobalt

c) Lithium

d) Cadmium

Correct answer: a) Sodium

246. Which of the following minerals is considered non-essential for human health?

a) Zinc

b) Silver

c) Molybdenum

d) Vanadium

Correct answer: b) Silver

247. Which mineral is necessary for the production of collagen and connective tissues?

a) Silicon

b) Gold

c) Rhodium
 d) Palladium

Correct answer: a) Silicon

248. Which mineral is important for the regulation of fluid balance in the body?

a) Chloride

b) Barium

c) Rubidium

d) Ruthenium

Correct answer: a) Chloride

249. Which mineral is involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA?

a) Copper

b) Bismuth

c) Indium

d) Manganese

Correct answer: d) Manganese

250. Which of the following minerals is an essential component of thyroid hormones?

a) Selenium

b) Aluminum

c) Cesium

d) Strontium

Correct answer: a) Selenium

251. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid?

a) Valine

b) Alanine
 c) Tryptophan

d) Methionine

Correct answer: b) Alanine

252. Which type of amino acid has a side chain that contains sulfur?

a) Basic amino acid

b) Acidic amino acid

c) Aromatic amino acid

d) Sulfur-containing amino acid

Correct answer: d) Sulfur-containing amino acid

253. Which amino acid is responsible for forming disulfide bridges in proteins?

a) Glycine

b) Serine

c) Cysteine

d) Proline

Correct answer: c) Cysteine

254. Which amino acid is classified as a branched-chain amino acid (BCAA)?

a) Leucine

b) Tyrosine

c) Asparagine

d) Glutamine

Correct answer: a) Leucine

255. Which amino acid is considered the "start" codon in protein synthesis?
 a) Methionine

b) Lysine

c) Histidine

d) Phenylalanine

Correct answer: a) Methionine

256. Which amino acid is responsible for absorbing ultraviolet (UV) light?

a) Tryptophan

b) Arginine

c) Glutamic acid

d) Isoleucine

Correct answer: a) Tryptophan

257. Which amino acid is involved in the synthesis of serotonin, a neurotransmitter?

a) Alanine

b) Glycine

c) Tryptophan

d) Aspartic acid

Correct answer: c) Tryptophan

258. Which amino acid is often found in the active sites of enzymes?

a) Asparagine

b) Glutamic acid

c) Cysteine

d) Proline

Correct answer: c) Cysteine

259. Which type of amino acid has a hydrophobic side chain?

a) Polar amino acid

b) Nonpolar amino acid

c) Acidic amino acid

d) Basic amino acid

Correct answer: b) Nonpolar amino acid

260. Which amino acid is responsible for imparting a positive charge at physiological pH?

a) Lysine

b) Glutamine

c) Asparagine

d) Tyrosine

Correct answer: a) Lysine

261. Apoptosis is a process of programmed cell:

a) Division

b) Growth

c) Death

d) Differentiation

Correct answer: c) Death

262. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of apoptosis?

a) Cell shrinkage and rounding

b) DNA fragmentation

c) Formation of apoptotic bodies

 d) Cell membrane rupture

Correct answer: d) Cell membrane rupture

263. Caspases are key enzymes involved in the execution phase of apoptosis. Which type of
caspases initiates the apoptotic process?

a) Initiator caspases

b) Executioner caspases

c) Effector caspases

d) Inflammatory caspases

Correct answer: a) Initiator caspases

264. Intrinsic apoptosis is triggered by:

a) External stimuli

b) Death receptor signaling

c) Mitochondrial dysfunction

d) Activation of caspases

Correct answer: c) Mitochondrial dysfunction

265. Which type of apoptosis is mediated by death receptors on the cell surface?

a) Intrinsic apoptosis

b) Extrinsic apoptosis

c) Autophagic cell death

d) Necrosis

Correct answer: b) Extrinsic apoptosis

266. The extrinsic pathway of apoptosis is primarily mediated by which protein family?

a) Bcl-2 family
 b) TNF receptor family

c) p53 family

d) Caspase family

Correct answer: b) TNF receptor family

267. Which type of apoptosis plays a crucial role in embryonic development and tissue
homeostasis?

a) Intrinsic apoptosis

b) Extrinsic apoptosis

c) Caspase-independent apoptosis

d) Physiological apoptosis

Correct answer: d) Physiological apoptosis

268. Which of the following is NOT a morphological change associated with apoptosis?

a) Cell blebbing

b) Nuclear condensation

c) Cytoplasmic vacuolization

d) Cell enlargement

Correct answer: d) Cell enlargement

269. Apoptotic cells are typically cleared by specialized immune cells called:

a) Lymphocytes

b) Macrophages

c) Neutrophils

d) Platelets

Correct answer: b) Macrophages

270. Which of the following diseases is characterized by impaired apoptosis, leading to excessive
cell proliferation?

a) Cancer

b) Alzheimer's disease

c) Parkinson's disease

d) Diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: a) Cancer

271. What is necrosis?

a) A process of programmed cell death

b) An abnormal form of cell death

c) A reversible cellular injury

d) A process of cell division

Correct answer: b) An abnormal form of cell death

272. Which of the following is NOT a type of necrosis?

a) Coagulative necrosis

b) Apoptotic necrosis

c) Caseous necrosis

d) Fibrinoid necrosis

Correct answer: b) Apoptotic necrosis

273. Which type of necrosis is characterized by a cheese-like appearance?

a) Coagulative necrosis

b) Liquefactive necrosis
 c) Caseous necrosis

d) Gangrenous necrosis

Correct answer: c) Caseous necrosis

274. Which type of necrosis is commonly seen in ischemic injuries?

a) Coagulative necrosis

b) Liquefactive necrosis

c) Fat necrosis

d) Fibrinoid necrosis

Correct answer: a) Coagulative necrosis

275. What causes gangrenous necrosis?

a) Bacterial infection

b) Viral infection

c) Fungal infection

d) Radiation exposure

Correct answer: a) Bacterial infection

276. Which organ is commonly affected by fat necrosis?

a) Liver

b) Kidney

c) Pancreas

d) Adipose tissue
Correct answer: c) Pancreas

277. What is the main characteristic of fibrinoid necrosis?

a) Formation of fibrous tissue

b) Accumulation of fatty acids

c) Deposits of fibrin-like material in blood vessel walls

d) Rapid liquefaction of tissues

Correct answer: c) Deposits of fibrin-like material in blood vessel walls

278. Which type of necrosis is associated with tuberculosis infection?

a) Coagulative necrosis

b) Liquefactive necrosis

c) Caseous necrosis

d) Fat necrosis

Correct answer: c) Caseous necrosis

279. What is the primary cause of liquefactive necrosis?

a) Ischemia

b) Enzymatic digestion of tissue

c) Exposure to high temperatures

d) Toxins produced by bacteria

Correct answer: b) Enzymatic digestion of tissue

280. Which type of necrosis is associated with pancreatic enzymes digesting pancreatic tissue?

a) Coagulative necrosis

b) Liquefactive necrosis

c) Caseous necrosis

d) Fat necrosis

Correct answer: d) Fat necrosis

281. Which of the following is not a type of avian bone?

a) Compact bone

b) Pneumatic bone

c) Medullary bone

d) Cartilaginous bone

Correct answer: d) Cartilaginous bone

282. Avian bones are known for their lightweight structure due to:

a) High calcium content

b) Presence of air sacs

c) Large size

d) Thick cortical bone

Correct answer: b) Presence of air sacs

283. The long, hollow bones found in avian wings are called:

a) Femur

b) Humerus
 c) Tibia

d) Ulna

Correct answer: b) Humerus

284. Which avian bone type is responsible for hematopoiesis (blood cell formation)?

a) Compact bone

b) Pneumatic bone

c) Medullary bone

d) Sesamoid bone

Correct answer: c) Medullary bone

285. The keel bone, or sternum, in birds is important for:

a) Digestion

b) Respiration

c) Flight

d) Thermoregulation

Correct answer: c) Flight

286. Which of the following is a specialized avian bone that helps with grinding food?

a) Beak

b) Sternum

c) Pygostyle

d) Crop

Correct answer: a) Beak

287. Avian bones undergo remodeling, a process that involves:

 a) Increase in bone density

b) Breakdown and rebuilding of bone tissue

c) Formation of air sacs within bones

d) Fusion of bones during growth

Correct answer: b) Breakdown and rebuilding of bone tissue

288. The bony structure at the end of a bird's tail, providing support for feathers, is called:

a) Furcula

b) Pygostyle

c) Carpometacarpus

d) Scapula

Correct answer: b) Pygostyle

289. The leg bone that connects the knee joint to the ankle joint in birds is called:

a) Femur

b) Tibia

c) Fibula

d) Patella

Correct answer: b) Tibia

290. In some bird species, the bones are strengthened by the deposition of calcium, forming:

a) Medullary bone

b) Compact bone

c) Trabecular bone

d) Cartilaginous bone

Correct answer: a) Medullary bone

291. The bony structure that forms the upper part of the bird's beak is called the:

a) Maxilla

b) Mandible

c) Quadrate

d) Frontal

Correct answer: a) Maxilla

292. The specialized bones in a bird's skeleton that help with flight are known as:

a) Scapulae

b) Sternums

c) Tarsometatarsus

d) Carpometacarpus

Correct answer: d) Carpometacarpus

293. The hollow extensions of the bird's skull that provide space for air sacs are called:

a) Pneumatic foramina

b) Supraorbital ridges

c) Mandibular fenestrae

d) Auditory bullae

Correct answer: a) Pneumatic foramina

294. The bone at the back of a bird's skull that articulates with the spine is known as the:

a) Parietal

b) Occipital

c) Quadrate
 d) Coracoid

Correct answer: b) Occipital

295. The prominent, blade-like structure that extends from the front of a bird's skull is called
the:

a) Rostrum

b) Mandible

c) Bill

d) Crest

Correct answer: c) Bill

296. The bone in a bird's wing that corresponds to the human forearm is called the:

a) Ulna

b) Radius

c) Humerus

d) Phalange

Correct answer: c) Humerus

297. The small bones in a bird's tail that support the feathers are known as:

a) Pygostyle

b) Furcula

c) Scapulae

d) Phalanges

Correct answer: a) Pygostyle

298. The part of a bird's skull that houses the brain and sensory organs is called the:

a) Orbit
 b) Foramen magnum

c) Nasal passage

d) Cranium

Correct answer: d) Cranium

299. The fused collarbones in a bird's skeleton are commonly referred to as the:

a) Ulna

b) Radius

c) Furcula

d) Tarsometatarsus

Correct answer: c) Furcula

300. The paired bones in a bird's skull that surround the eye sockets are called the:

a) Zygomatic arches

b) Palatines

c) Premaxillae

d) Quadrates

Correct answer: a) Zygomatic arches