How to Answer Multiple

Choice Questions Like A Pro

Between a multiple choice test and an essay exam, most of us would
rather choose the former.

Multiple choice tests trick our brains that they're easier to answer. All
we have to do is to distinguish the correct answer from the
distracters.

However, answering multiple choice exams are not as easy or

straightforward as we like them to be, especially if we're dealing
with crucial exams like the UPCAT.

The following tips are a perfect supplement to your hard-earned

stocked knowledge and can maximize your success in answering any
multiple-choice exam.

Be wary of tricks and traps.

Sometimes they're easy to identify but the more subtle ones are what
you should watch out for. Don't overanalyze but never trust
questions that are too easy either.
Remember, the goal of test makers is to gauge your analytical skills in
all subtests. When answering language proficiency exams, for
instance, the following traps may lead you to the path of failure if
you're not careful:

a. Violation of the rule of "parallel structures."

1
Example: "Play, eat, and sleeping--these are what my pet dog usually
does all day."

Explanation: Parallel structures are used to ensure clarity of statements.

According to this principle, words and phrases in a sentence should be
consistent in terms of structure and tense.

The example sentence above violates the rule of parallel structures.

The first two verbs--play and eat--are in present tense, while the last
one--sleeping--is a verb that acts as a noun, otherwise known as a
gerund.

To correct the sentence, the gerund should be replaced with a verb form
consistent with the other two words, hence:

"Play, eat, and sleep--these are what my pet dog usually does all day."

b. Insertion of distracting phrase or clause that clouds

subjectverb agreement.

Example: "Many politicians, in their desire to win an election, makes

grandiose promises to voters."

Explanation: Always focus on two things: the subject and the verb.
Everything else is secondary. In the above example, the subject is
"politicians" which is in plural form so the verb must also be plural.
Hence, the correct answer should be "make" instead of "makes."

c. Use of inverted sentence structure.

Example: "In the middle of the forest stands the giant trees considered
oldest in the region."

2
Explanation: Inverted sentences have verbs that come before the
subjects instead of the other way around. It's easy to assume there's
nothing wrong with this sentence if you don't look closely.

In the sentence above, for example, the verb "stands" describe the
subject "trees," not the "forest." Therefore, it should be rewritten as:

"In the middle of the forest stand the giant trees considered oldest in
the region."

d. Misplaced modifiers.

Example: "Eagerly awaiting her birthday, Mary's presents were all

picked up and admired by Mary many times throughout the course of
the day."

Explanation: Modifiers are words that add details or change the

meaning of another word. To avoid confusion, the modifiers should
be placed close to the subject being described.

Misplaced modifiers can be really confusing since you're dealing with

several words at the same time. The example above makes it seem
as though Mary's presents, not Mary herself, are "eagerly awaiting
her birthday."
Using common sense, we know that Mary's presents have no way of
expressing the emotion of eagerness. By rearranging the words, we
can come up with a sentence that makes more sense:

Eagerly awaiting her birthday, Mary picked up and admired her

presents many times throughout the day.

Eliminate distracters.

3
Most multiple choice questions provide you with four possible answers
to choose from--A, B, C, or D.

Use the process of elimination to whittle down the choices to only two.
If you remove the distracters from the equation, it will be easier for
you to get to the right answer since you'll only be choosing between
two options.

Dealing with only two choices also means you have 50% probability of
getting it right.

Watch out for qualifiers.

A qualifier is a word that enhances or limits the meaning of another

word.

Qualifiers can either be absolute (e.g., all, always, absolutely, never,

certainly, best, every, only, worst, invariably, without exception) or
conditional (e.g., usually, probably, possibly, seldom, might, much,
most, often, generally, frequently).

When you see a qualifier in one of the choices, it can either make the
option correct or incorrect.
For example, the sentences below seem identical:

"It often rains in Batanes."

"It always rains in Batanes."

A closer look reveals that both sentences may look similar but they
differ in meanings due to the type of qualifier used. Whereas the first
sentence is correct, the second one is false because of the use of
the word "always."

4
In multiple choice exams, options that use absolute qualifiers
are mostly wrong while those with conditional qualifiers like
"often," "seldom," and "probably" tend to be the correct
answers.

Draw diagrams and pictures to solve tricky Math

problems.

Although some math problems can easily be solved with mental

calculations, there are complex questions that warrant more
visualization.

By converting word problems into diagrams or pictures, you can make

them less intimidating and easier to solve.

Example: "The town of Marabut is located along Marikina Highway.

The town of Caranglan is west of Marabut. Sarangani is east of
Caranglan, but west of Marabut. Daraga is east of Rajamon, but
west of Sarangani and Caranglan. Which town is the farthest
west?"

To solve this problem, draw a line and put the first two places in their
respective locations as described in the statement: "The town of
Caranglan is west of Marabut."

5
Next, place the other towns in their correct order as indicated in the
word problem.

Based on the diagram we've created, we can easily see that the town
farthest west is Rajamon.

6
Although you can also visualize the diagram in your mind, actually
drawing it on your scratch paper makes you less likely to commit
mistakes.

Keep an eye out on negatives.

Negative words like none, never, not, no, and those with prefixes like
un-, il-, or im- can change the meaning of a sentence.

If you don't read carefully, you may misinterpret a statement containing

negative words as false when it's actually true.

Consider the two sentences below:

"It is logical to assume that Thomas Edison’s fame was due to his
many
practical inventions."

"It is illogical to assume that Thomas Edison’s fame was not due
to his many practical inventions."

The first statement, which contains no negatives, is true. The second

sentence, on the other hand, has double negatives. When two
negative words are present, the statement is also true since the
negatives negate each other.

Both statements above are true but the second one is relatively harder
to figure out due to the presence of the negative words.

When dealing with sentences like this in multiple-choice

exams, identify the negatives first and then understand the
meaning of the statement without the negative words. This way,
you can find out whether the sentence is true or false without being
influenced by the negatives.

7
Look for grammatical clues.

Multiple choice questions can be asked in different ways but regardless

of the format, they all follow basic grammar rules.

In some language proficiency exams, the answer can be the one

that makes the most sense grammatically. For example, in a
question that ends with the indefinite article "an," the answer is
most likely the one that starts with a vowel.

The following question is another good example:

The people of Iceland

a. A country located just outside the Arctic Circle
b. Are the world’s most avid readers
c. Claim to be descendants of the Aztecs
d. The capital, Reykjavik, where arms talks have been held

Based on grammar rules, we can eliminate choices (a) and (d). You
can now choose between options (b) and (c) since they're the only
ones that don't interrupt the flow of the sentence and follow the basic
subject-verb agreement.

Grammatical clues can also be used to answer questions that

test your ability to organize phrases or sentences.

Example:

a. Secondly, they had no leader.

b. Firstly, the workers were not united.
c. Finally, they did not have the support of their families.
d. Thirdly, they had no funds to tide them over.
e. From the beginning, it looked like the worker's strike was doomed to
fail.

Answer choices:
1. abdec

8
2. cbead 3.
deabc
4. ebadc

Relying on the keywords at the start of each sentence, we can

organize them into a sequence that makes sense: "From the
beginning," followed by "Firstly," "Secondly," and so forth. The correct
sequence, therefore, is "ebadc."

Ignore conventional advice.

You've probably been told that when in doubt, always choose "c."

However, the probability of getting the question right if you choose this
letter is similar to your chances of winning the lottery.

Don't look for patterns in places that have none, especially in

multiple-choice exams where answers are arranged in random
order.

Therefore, if you notice that you've chosen the same letter for three
consecutive questions, don't be alarmed. The pattern must be
coincidental so never let it interrupt you from answering the rest of
the exam.

Be systematic when faced with confusing

questions/choices.

The goal of the test maker is not to make your life easier. But no
matter how long and confusing the questions and their
corresponding choices may be, you can arrive at the right answer by
taking it one step at a time.
Example:

9
Which of the following facilitates the healing process?

Resting the injured part of the body.

Protection of the wound from further Injury.
Adequate nutrition.
Emotional support from friends and family. Depriving
the patient of fluids.

Choices:
A, b, d, e
A, b, c, d
A, c, d, e
All of the above
None of the above

At first glance, the question may look overwhelming. But by being

systematic, you can easily spot the answer without wasting so
much time.

First, eliminate the statement that is apparently false, in this case (e)
or "Depriving the patient with fluids." Next, go through the choices
and eliminate those that contain the false statement (e).

By doing this, you can trim down your choices and have a better chance
of picking the correct answer.

Additional tips.

• Frequently check that your answers match the corresponding

questions, especially after you have skipped some items.
• Hide or cover the choices when reading the stem or the body
of the question. Figure out the answer if you can so you
won't be distracted by the other choices by the time you
uncover them.

10
• Write down as many formulas as you can remember on the
scratch paper provided as soon as the exam starts. You can
either do this at the beginning (at the risk of losing a few
minutes) or after finishing the first part of the exam, provided
that it doesn't require computations like Language
Proficiency.
• If you have remaining time left, go over your test paper for
the very last time to change answers for questions that
you've either misread or just finally realized the answers to.
Also, check for errors like stray pencil marks, question
answer mismatch, and shading two answers for the same
question.

11
Language Proficiency
Directions: This subtest will measure your fluency in English and
Filipino. Read the sentence/question/passage first before selecting the
letter that corresponds to your answer.

1. May I please request that each of the two groups take an

position in the issue now.
A. alternating
B. alternative
C. alternate
D. all of the above

2. mountains aplenty in the Philippines.

A. There is
B. There are
C. There were
D. There was

3. The student badly needs her teacher's

A. advice
B. advise
C. advising
D. advisory

4. Choose the correct and effective sentence from the set of sentences.
A. She only walked fifteen miles when her legs gave out.
B. She had only walked for about fifteen miles when her legs gave out.
C. She has walked only fifteen miles when her legs gave out.
D. She had walked only fifteen miles when her legs gave out.

12
5. A thousand pesos __________ not enough compensation and
you _________ it. A. are – knows
B. are – know
C. is – know
D. is – knows

6. If we __________ harder we would have passed the UPCAT.

A. study
B. had studied
C. studied
D. have studied

7. Amicable means the same as – A.

friendly
B. anxious
C. jealous
D. patient

8. are you deserting me you are also taking our supplies. A.

neither—nor

B. not only—but
C. both—and
D. either—or

9. Lolita is going to Switzerland ___________ May next year.

13
Particularly, she would be leaving ___________ eight o’clock a.m
_________ New Year’s Day.
A. in – on – on
B. at – on – at
C. in – at – in
D. in – at – on

10. Choose the correct and effective sentence from the set of
sentences.
A. Father jogs exuberantly to the park every morning before
breakfast to exercise his heart.
B. Father exuberantly jogs every morning to the park to exercise his
heart before breakfast.
C. Father, to exercise his heart, jogs exuberantly every morning
before breakfast to the park.
D. Father jogs exuberantly every morning before breakfast to the
park to exercise his heart.

11. She ______________ finished the project before tomorrow.

A. None of the above
B. would have
C. will have
D. should have

Questions 12 – 14: Read the group of words provided. There may

be a mistake in the sentence structure. If you find a mistake,
choose the answer that is written most clearly and correctly. If there
is no mistake, choose Correct as is.

12. Veronica left the room, turned right, and, without any hesitation,
walked outside.

14
A. Leaving the room, turning right, Veronica walking outside without
any hesitation.
B. Veronica left the room and she turned right and walked outside
without any hesitation.
C. Veronica left the room turned right and walked outside without any
hesitation. D. Correct as is

13. There are extra chairs in that room that are not needed or
necessary.
A. There are extra chairs in that room.
B. There are extra and unnecessary chairs in that room.
C. The extra chairs in that room are not needed or necessary. D.
Correct as is

14. Some tortoises living up to 100 years are among the world’s oldest
animals.
A. The world’s oldest animals, some living up to 100 years are
some tortoises. B. Some tortoises, among the world’s oldest
animals, are living up to 100 years. C. Living up to 100 years,
some tortoises are among the world’s oldest animals.
D. Correct as is
For question numbers 15 – 21: Determine which of the following
synonyms on the given choices best corresponds to how the
underlined word/s were used on each sentence.

15. Leo made a disappointed, misunderstood face from the many

creases at his disposal.
A. authority
B. distribution
C. garbage unit
D. regulation

15
16. Joana's reply to his query was sure and crisp, that it didn't took too
long before she was able to prod him away.
A. brittle
B. lively
C. concise
D. fragile

17. The professor took an immaculate handkerchief out of his pocket,

and began to polish the lenses of his glasses.
A. pure
B. spotless
C. error-free
D. flawless

18. Much of his writing is slack that is why readers get bored at his
works. A. lacks action
B. lacks completeness/perfection
C. lacks firmness
D. lacks diligence

19. Members shall be adequately braced to resist lateral and

torsional displacement. A. connected together
B. supported with braces
C. reinforced
D. get ready for an attack

20. Pauline's words had made all sorts of frightened echoes in our
minds.
A. a close imitation
B. an answering sympathetic effect
C. a soft recurrence of a statement
D. a reverberation of sound waves

16
21. The dead load consists of the weight of the structure
completed. A. empty
B. inert
C. constant
D. lifeless

22. The cold air mass will move south from Canada.
In which sentence does the word mass mean the same thing as in the
sentence above?
A. The storm warning of a blizzard caused mass concern.
B. The oil mass spread quickly into the ocean.
C. There was a mass of people gathering to watch the parade.
D. The 100-member choir will mass in the auditorium on Saturday.

Questions 23 – 27: Choose the correct sequence of sentences that

will make the paragraph more organized and logical.

23.
(1) This mere mechanism of reading becomes altogether automatic
at an early period of life.
(2) You will often find yourself reading words or characters
automatically, while your mind is concerned with a totally
different subject.
(3) This can be performed irrespective of attention.
(4) In as much, neither can I call it reading when it is just to extract
the narrative portion of a text from the rest simply for one’s
personal amusement.
(5) To read the characters or the letters of the text does not mean
reading in the true sense of the word.

A. 5-2-1-3-4
B. 3-5-1-2-4

17
 C. 2-1-3-4-5
D. 5-3-2-1-4

24.
(1) Most of this material which we call ash, stays behind after the
fire burns out.
(2) When we burn fuel such as wood, oil or coal, the fuel combines
with oxygen in the air to form gases that escape into the
atmosphere.
(3) Some of it, however, is carried aloft by the hot gases of the fire
and adds to the volume of smoke produced.
(4) In addition, most of the fuels contain a small amount of various
substances that do not burn.
(5) But most of the burning we do is far from perfect, so tiny
particles of unburned fuel escape up the chimney in the form of
smoke.

A. 2-5-3-4-1
B. 2-3-5-1-4
C. 2-3-5-4-1 D. 2-5-4-1-3

25.
(1) In the Philippines, the population boom has derailed efforts to
make the benefits of economic growth trickle down to the
grassroots. Thousands of new people are born on our planet
every day.
(2) With the population galloping toward the 100-million mark, the
Philippines will be among one of several developing nations
leading global population growth in the coming years,
according to the United Nations.
(3) With limited resources and economic growth failing to keep
pace with the population boom, this means more people
getting an ever-shrinking share of the pie.

18
 (4) This has been a problem in previous administrations and
remains a problem of the Aquino government, despite
sustained economic growth since 2010.
(5) This is true both in the Philippines and around the planet,
whose resources cannot meet the demands especially of the
poorest segments of the 7.2 billion population.

A. 1-2-3-4-5
B. 4-2-3-1-5
C. 2-3-5-1-4 D. 5-3-2-1-4

26.
(1) Ang bawat polista ay kinakailangang magtrabaho ng apatnapung
araw sa bawat taon.
(2) Ang polo y servicios o sapilitang paggawa ay ang sapilitang
paglilingkod sa pamahalaang mga Pilipinong lalaki mula 16
hanggang 60 taong gulang.
(3) Noong 1884, ito ay ginagawa na lamang labinlimang araw.
(4) Ang mga manggagawa sa ilalim ng polo y servicios ay tinatawag
na polista.
(5) Upang makaligtas sa sapilitang paggawa, kinakailangang
magbayad ng falla na tanging mga mayayaman lamang ang
nakakabayad.

A. 2-4-1-3-5
B. 2-5-1-4-3
C. 2-3-1-5-4 D. 2-1-5-4-3

27.
(1) Ipinakikita ng panitikang eksistensyal ang kamulatan sa kamalian
at kahangalan ng uniberso.
(2) Madalas na paksa nito ang mga bagay at galaw na etikal na
titiyak sa kahulugan ng buong buhay ng isang indibidwal.

19
 (3) Ang eksistensyalismo ay naniniwalang ang tao mismo ang
gumagawa at humuhubog ng kanyang kapalaran.
(4) Di nito tinatanggap na ang herediti at kapaligiran ang tumitiyak
sa motibasyon at ang pag-uugali ng tao.
(5) Ang kanyang kahihinatnan ay ayon sa kanyang pagpili ng
aksyon o ng pamamaraan ng pamumuhay.

A. 3-1-2-5-4
B. 3-5-4-1-2
C. 3-5-1-2-4
D. 3-2-1-4-5

28. His reassuring words mitigated our fears. Mitigated means – A.

reinforced
B. added to
C. caused
D. eased

29. By the time the operation ends, Billy _____ a total of 1,300 hours
for his friend and _____ countless outdated magazines in the
emergency room waiting area.
A. will have waited…will have read
B. have waited…have read
C. waited…read
D. will have waited…read

30. Sarah wanted to see the concert she had been looking forward
to it for a long time. Choose the answer that is the best way to write
the underlined section of the sentence.
A. concert, she had been
B. concert; she had been

20
C. concert she has been
D. Correct as is

Questions 31 – 35: Ayusin ang mga sumusunod na salita upang

makabuo ng makabuluhang pangungusap.

31. nilalaman kuwento unawain ang ng

1 2 3 4 5

A. 3-4-5-2-1
B. 3-4-1-5-2 C. 3-5-1-2-3 D. 3-1-2-4-5

32. takdang sala ang may lahat parusa ng

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

A. 4-6-3-2-7-1-5
B. 4-1-6-3-5-7-2
C. 4-1-3-5-7-2-6 D. 4-2-3-5-7-6-1

33. isang ang buhay gulong ay

1 2 3 4 5

A. 2-5-3-4-1
B. 2-4-5-1-3
C. 2-5-3-1-4 D. 2-3-5-1-4

34.Celso ang hinihintay ano mo pa

1 2 3 4 5 6

21
 A. 4-6-2-3-5-1
B. 4-5-6-2-3-1
C. 1-2-6-5-4-3 D. 1-4-5-3-2-6

35. kabataan ang ay mahalagang isang ng buhay

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 yugto

A. 2-5-1-6-7-8-3-4
B. 2-1-3-4-6-7-5-8
C. 2-1-3-5-4-8-6-7 D. 2-5-6-1-4-7-3-8

36. Neither of her Oscar awards, however, _____ been polished for a
long time.
A. have
B. is
C. has
D. have already

37. By the time the operation ends, Billy _____ a total of 1,300 hours
for his friend and _____ countless outdated magazines in the
emergency room waiting area.
A. will have waited…will have read
B. have waited…have read
C. waited…read
D. will have waited…read

38. Patungo ______________ ang mga kandidato.

A. roon

22
 B. doon
C. dito
D. rin

Questions 39 – 41: Read the paragraph and then answer the questions
that follow it.

“The Challenge”
It started when she was in elementary school. Sonia knew that she
wanted to be a champion synchronized swimmer. Today’s
competition would determine whether she would earn the
opportunity to go to the national contest. She performed the
required technical routines flawlessly and led the other swimmers
going into the free competition, the portion of the program that
counted most. This series of choreographed moves performed to
music required a couple of qualities. For one particularly difficult
element, Sonia had to remain upside down in the water for over half
a minute. She could tell by the audience’s thunderous applause
when she emerged from the pool that the performance had gone
well. Seconds later the judges confirmed it; Sonia was on her way to
the national contest.

39. This series of choreographed moves performed to music required

a couple of qualities?
Good writers describe the subject using details. How can the underlined
words be better written to include exact details?
A. some abilities that she had to develop
B. specific physical qualities
C. special moves
D. great strength and control

40. Which sentence would not belong in this paragraph?

A. Sonia had worked hard for many years to get to this point.

23
B. The routine had gone smoothly, and Sonia had done even better
than she had anticipated.
C. The cool water always felt wonderful to Sonia; she loved the smell of
chlorine.
D. Her dream, since childhood, was finally coming true.

41. Which of these would be the best topic sentence for this paragraph?
A. A synchronized swimming team will be sent to the Olympics.
B. Sonia got a new swimsuit and cap for the competition.
C. Only a few extremely talented athletes win competitions.
D. For almost as long as she could remember, Sonia had wanted to go
to the Olympics.

Questions 42 – 56: Choose the alternative that best expresses the

idea in standard written English and is worded most consistently
with the tone of the passage. If you believe the original version is
best, then choose “NO CHANGE.” There will also be questions
about sections of the passage or about the passage as a whole.
Read the entire passage before answering any of the questions. For
some questions you may need to read beyond the underlined
section in order to determine the correct answer.

Building the Plaza de Toros

Thousands of tourists from all over the world gather in Seville,

Spain each year, two weeks after Easter Holy Week, to witness the
La Real Maestranza. La Real Maestranza is part of the Seville Fair,
and the Fair (42) originated back in 1847 when (43) it was originally
organized as a livestock fair. Of central importance to the festival
are the bullfights that took place (44) in the Plaza de Toros, a
circular ring on Baratillo Hill.
Construction on the stunning and beautiful (45) Plaza de Toros first
begun in 1749 but had not completed (46) for many years after. The

24
inner facade of the plaza (called the Palco del Príncipe or Prince’s
Box) was completed in 1765, and this box consists of two parts; the
(47) access gate through which the successful bullfighters exited
(48), and the theater box itself, which was reserved for the exclusive
use of not only the Spanish King and Queen, but for (49) other
members of the Royal Family. [50]

When monarch Carlos III prohibited bullfighting celebrations in 1786,

work halted, and (51) only one-third of the plaza had been
completed (52) at the time. The construction of the ring was finally
completed in 1881, two thirds (53) were constructed in stone, the
rest in wood.

Choosing to redo them in brick, the stone grandstands were replaced

between 1914 and 1915 by architect Anival
Gonzalez. (54) All the rows were reconstructed with a smoother
slope. Ten to twelve rows of shaded seating were constructed as
well as fourteen rows in the sun and three rows of barrier. A row of
armchairs was built in the superior part of the shaded area, and
they (55) were placed in front of the theater boxes. [56]

42.
A. NO CHANGE
B. which originated
C. which did originate
D. and the Fair originated

43.
A. NO CHANGE
B. in which
C. after which
D. as

44.

25
A. NO CHANGE
B. had taken place
C. did take place
D. take place

45.
A. NO CHANGE
B. stunning yet beautiful
C. beautiful
D. stunning, however beautiful,

46.
A. NO CHANGE
B. was began in 1749 and was not completed
C. had begun in 1749 and had completed
D. began in 1749 but was not completed

47.
A. NO CHANGE
B. parts: the
C. parts, the
D. parts the

48.
A. NO CHANGE
B. did exit
C. are exiting
D. will exit

49.
A. NO CHANGE

26
B. not only the Spanish King and Queen, yet for
C. not only the Spanish King and Queen, but also for
D. not the Spanish King and Queen, but also for

50. Which of the sentences below does not belong anywhere in the
second paragraph?
A. The bullring is the oldest bullring constructed entirely of stone,
because most others were constructed with a combination of stone
and brick.
B. The stands were constructed in two levels of seating of 5 raised
rows per level and 136 Tuscan sandstone columns.
C. Seville’s fair is officially known as the April Fair, but in fact, it hasn’t
always been celebrated entirely in April and once, it even had to be
celebrated in May.
D. The Royal Box has a sloping roof covered in Arabic tiles.

51.
A. NO CHANGE
B. nevertheless
C. because
D. even though

52.
A. NO CHANGE
B. were completed
C. will complete
D. are completed

53.
A. NO CHANGE
B. 1881; two thirds
C. 1881, two thirds,

27
D. 1881—two thirds

54.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Choosing to redo them in brick, between 1914 and 1915 architect
Anival Gonzalez replaced the stone grandstands.
C. Choosing to redo them in brick, architect Anival Gonzalez replaced
the stone grandstands between 1914 and 1915.
D. Choosing, between 1914 and 1915, to redo them in brick, architect
Anival Gonzalez replaced the stone grandstands.

55.
A. NO CHANGE
B. those
C. these chairs
D. it

56. Which of the following sentences best completes the passage? A.

Today spectators from around the world enjoy watching this
traditional Spanish sport in this world-class ring.
B. Between 1729 and 1733 Felipe V stayed in Seville and received
support from the Corporation in spite of being French and the first
Bourbon king of Spain.
C. More than 12,500 spectators can watch the fight between the
torero and the bull in this ring.
D. During the Seville Festival, men and women dress up in their
finery, ideally the traditional "traje corto" (short jacket, tight trousers
and boots) for men and the "faralaes" or "trajes de flamenca"
(flamenco style dress) for women.

28
Questions 57 – 64: Determine which of the following synonyms on
the given choices best corresponds to how the underlined word/s
were used on each sentence.

57. His stoic attitude earned him the title "man made of stone."
A. active
B. heavy
C. hard
D. indifferent

58. Samuel could not stand the gelid surroundings of the Alpine
Mountains.
A. very cold
B. very hot
C. humid
D. tepid

59. Do not worry about running short of rice because we had a copious
harvest last month.
A. weak
B. innumerable
C. depleting
D. abundant

60. Jojo is suffering from asphyxia. Noxious gases during fire have
suffocated him. A. an unconscious state
B. a state of trance
C. a state of suppression
D. a state of affliction

61. Her hair was full and lightly curled.

A. chubby

29
B. filled
C. detailed
D. thick

62. The judge exculpated the accused for lack of evidence.

A. proved guilty
B. exonerated
C. banished
D. proved innocent

63. The politician was criticized for his preposterous remarks.

A. lengthy
B. witty
C. absurd
D. promising

64. Having lived with three old maids, Lucy projects a reticent
attitude. A. meek
B. effusive
C. effulgent
D. offensive

65.________________ni Aling Nena ang mga pinamalengke dahil sa

takot.
A. Nabitawan
B. Nabitiwan
C. Nalaglag
D. Nabuhos

30
66. Ang pagbabasa ng mga iba’t ibang aklat sa Filipino ay isang
mabisang paraan upang lalong ______________ang kaalaman ng
mag-aaral tungkol sa wika. A. malinang
B. maayos
C. masinop
D. masubukan

67._____________-Negros ang tagapag-alaga ni Norma.

A. Taga
B. Tiga
C. Mala
D. Parang

68. Nakipaghuntahan na naman _____ ang kasama mo _____ sa

kabilang ibayo.
A. raw, roon
B. raw, doon
C. daw, roon
D. daw, doon

69. Mrs. Santos is very happy because her pupil who used to be very
vociferous doesn’t talk much anymore.
A. lazy
B. active
C. talkative
D. sleepy

31
Questions 70 – 83: Select the word or pair of words that appropriately
completes the following relationship.

70. ode : poetry;

A. theme : essay
B. conflict : short story
C. fable : prose
D. tragedy : drama

71. each : somebody;

A. that : oh
B. gracefully : dance
C. sing : song
D. which : whom

72. peal : peel;

A. steal : still
B. fair : fare
C. buy : vie
D. great : greet

73. herd : cattle;

A. colony : termites
B. pack : peacocks
C. hive : wolves
D. covey : whales

74. epic : elegy;

A. allegro : plot
B. sonata : satire
C. radar : allegory
D. couplet : sonnet

32
75. golf : hole;
A. baseball : glove
B. archery - bull's eye
C. bowling : pin
D. tennis : racket

76. protein : meat;

A. energy : sugar
B. calories : water
C. vitamins : minerals
D. starch : potatoes

77. fern : plant;

A. shark : water B.
cat : lion
C. collie : boxer
D. dog : animal

78. try : tried;

A. came : come
B. fly : flew
C. go : gone
D. dead : died

79. lion : cub;

A. duck : drake
B. child : baby
C. horse : colt
D. goat : lamb

80. rabies : dogs;

33
A. malaria : mosquitoes
B. fever : ants
C. cough : worms
D. AIDS : rat

81. gloves : hand;

A. welder : steel
B. gun : combat
C. field : football
D. helmet : head

82. gun : holster;

A. sword : scabbard
B. sword : slay
C. sword : bayonet
D. sword : cadet

83. canvas : painting;

A. clay : pottery
B. clay : mold
C. clay : art
D. clay : statue

Directions: Choose the alternative that best expresses the idea in

standard written English and is worded most consistently with the
tone of the passage. If you believe the original version is best, then
choose “NO CHANGE.” There will also be questions about sections
of the passage or about the passage as a whole. Read the entire
passage before answering any of the questions. For some
questions you may need to read beyond the underlined section in
order to determine the correct answer.

34
For questions 84 – 98:

Passage 1
“Hair-raising Problems”
Why is it that we are so completely obsessive (84) with the hair on
our heads? Millions of dollars are spent each year on cutting hair,
lengthening hair, bleaching hair, straightening hair, curling hair,
highlighting hair, and even growing hair; whatever you can do to hair,
someone is willing to pay the money (85) to do it.

Natural redheads long for to be (86) brunettes and dishwater

blondes dream of shiny golden tresses. Both men and women cringe
at the sight of each gray hair, so (87) teenagers enjoy weekly
experiments with magenta dyes, spikes, and tangerine streaks.

All of these thoughts cross my mind as I examine the result of (88)

my most recent hair adventure. As a mature woman watching the
gray hairs mixing in rapidly (89) with my natural brunette tones, I
decided over a year ago, to (90) approach my stylist with the idea of
highlights. Having seen many of my peers go this route, I figured
that highlighting was for to be (91) the answer to my reluctance to
look my age.

[1] The monthly highlighting went well: excepting (92) for those times
when my hair turned out a little too subdued, making me look
partially gray instead of brunette. [2] I suffered through it
remarkably well, saying to myself, “She’ll get it right the next time.”

[3] For the most part, (93) I’ve enjoyed my year of highlights, so
much so that I bravely approached Donna, my stylist, two months
ago and proclaimed that I was done with wimpy highlighting and
ready to go blonde.

[4] The result was not quite what I expected, but I resolved to live
with it! (94). [5] Donna was surprised at my suggestion, but quickly
began sharing my unbridled enthusiasm as she gathers (95) the

35
appropriate chemicals and concoctions that would soon transform
me.

Three months later, I find myself seesawing between tears and (96)
laughter as I attempt to cover up a patch of nearly bald scalp on the top
of my head.

For someone who has long been fanatical about the appearance of
her hair, this absence of hair has proven to be quite a challenge to
my ego and self-confidence. I’ve always enjoyed styling my hair, and
suddenly, I have nothing to style.

Each time I begin to experience a new pang of disgust and despair over
this new hair anomaly, I once again ask myself why we are so obsessed
with the hair on our heads. The answer always comes to me in a flash,
in a simple two-word phrase: pure vanity. Soon after this realization, I
cease my crying. (97)

84.
A. NO CHANGE
B. obsessed
C. obsessing
D. obsessioned

85.
A. NO CHANGE
B. pay
C. paying money
D. have paid

86.
A. NO CHANGE
B. to have
C. to be

36
D. becoming for

87.
A. NO CHANGE
B. however
C. yet
D. and

88.
A. NO CHANGE
B. result for
C. result with
D. result by

89.
A. NO CHANGE
B. rapidly mixing
C. mixed rapidly in
D. rapidly mix in to

90.
A. NO CHANGE
B. ago to
C. ago: to
D. ago to,

91.
A. NO CHANGE
B. was being
C. could of been
D. was

37
92.
A. NO CHANGE
B. well, except
C. well except
D. well. Except

93.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Also
C. Instead
D. In light of this

94.
For the sake of logic and coherence, Sentence 5 should be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. before Sentence 1.
C. after Sentence 2.
D. before Sentence 4.

95.
A. NO CHANGE
B. she was gathering
C. she had been gathering
D. she gathered

96.
A. NO CHANGE
B. along with
C. or
D. as well as

38
97. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence. If the
sentence was deleted, the essay would primarily
lose:
A. a summary of the essay.
B. the narrator’s ability to put her situation into perspective.
C. a stylistic link to the essay’s introduction.
D. an understanding of the author’s purpose in writing the essay.

98. Suppose the writer had chosen to write a how-to article for
people wanting to change their hair color. Would this essay fulfill the
writer’s goal?
A. Yes, because the author’s approach to changing her own hair
color would ease the anxiety of others wishing to do the same.
B. Yes, because this essay emphasizes the universality of people
changing their hairstyles and hair color.
C. No, because this article only deals with the narrator’s own
experimentation with her hair and does not provide steps for others to
do the same.
D. No, because the essay discourages people from changing their
hair color.

For questions 99 – 113:

Passage 2
“A Modern Blacksmith”
You will probably never find his name in a history book, but to this
day, Walker Lee continues to contribute to America heritage (99).
Walker Lee is an old-fashioned, modernday blacksmith who still
practices (100) the fine art of manipulating metal over a hot fire. In his
words, “Blacksmithing is no dying art!”

39
Walker Lee had began (101) his career in hand-forged ironwork at
the age of 30. The idea of creating an object out of iron, a most
intractable material (102), appealed to him. He started on this new
venture by collecting and reading every book he could find that
described the process of blacksmithing: its history, its practical and
decorative uses, and the equipment needed to establish and outfit
his own smithy. During the course of his research, Lee discovered a
tool necessary for the success of any blacksmith: the anvil, a heavy
block of iron or steel upon which the blacksmith hammered and
shaped the malleable metal.

Lee bought his first anvil from 84-year-old Hurley Alford Templeton
of Philadelphia, lugging (103) it home to Michigan in the back of a
4-H county bus. This anvil weighed 100 pounds, about the minimum
size Walker Lee needed to get started (104) in his craft.

Lee’s first anvil cost him $100, and four months later, he paid $75
for an additional implement—a vice—from Cornell University in New
York. This important tool also made its (105) way back to Michigan
in the back of Lee’s 4-H bus.

Lee had spent the summer carting 4-H groups out from Michigan to the
east coast for various county fairs and expositions. (106)

Once Lee obtained his first portable forge, he was ready to build his
blacksmith shop, commonly referred to as a “smithy.” (107) In the
interest of economy, he constructed this shop out of inexpensive oak
planks and tarpaper. It was a crude little shack but stood for (108)
only nine years. Lee, who by then was completely hooked on
blacksmithing, replaced his first shop with a finer one made of more
expensive wood; this shop also had glass windows, a definite
improvement over Lee’s original “smithy.”

[1] The very first object Lee forged was a long, pointed (109)
Hudson Bay dagger. [2] Many people refer to this type of knife as a
“dag.” [3] As he recalls that event he says, “From the minute I first saw
the thing take shape, I was hooked . . . still am. There’s an element of

40
magic in it to me. You heat it up and pound it with a hammer and it
goes where you want it to go.”

[4] Years later at a family event Lee (110), Discovered that his Italian
ancestors were accomplished coppersmiths. [5] During the
gathering, Lee’s great uncle Johnny was proclaiming (111) that
Lee’s propensity for blacksmithing was “in the blood” as he happily
presented Lee with a new 125-pound anvil. (112)

As an outside observer watches (113) Walker Lee bending and

shaping a hot metal rod into some recognizable form, it is difficult to
discern the origin of the magic Lee spoke of; is it in the glowing, orange
steel or in Walker himself?

99.
A. NO CHANGE
B. American heritage.
C. Americas heritage.
D. American’s heritage.

100.
A. NO CHANGE
B. who still continues to practice
C. who continues to still practice
D. who practices still

101.
A. NO CHANGE
B. had begun
C. begun
D. began

41
102.
Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion would NOT
be acceptable?
A. one of the most intractable metals, iron,
B. a most intractable material, that being iron
C. iron (a most intractable material)
D. a most intractable material, iron,

103. Which choice most emphasizes the difficulty in moving the large
anvil?
A. NO CHANGE
B. taking
C. driving
D. transporting

104. At this point, the writer wants to express how Lee first
began the craft of blacksmithing. Which choice would most
effectively accomplish this task?
A. NO CHANGE
B. continue
C. keep going
D. move on

105.
A. NO CHANGE
B. it’s
C. its’
D. the

42
106.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Carting 4-H groups out from Michigan to the east
coast for various county fairs and expositions, Lee
had spent the summer.
C. Lee had spent the summer, for various county fairs
and expositions, carting 4-H groups out from
Michigan to the east coast.
D. OMIT the underlined portion.

107. Given that all of the choices are true, which one would
most effectively introduce the subject of this paragraph?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Obtaining a portable forge for the shop proved to be
Lee’s biggest challenge.
C. Blacksmith shops can be difficult to construct, but
the most challenging task is moving the necessary
equipment into it.
D. A blacksmith’s forge requires some type of blower
in order to keep the fire hot enough to bend the
steel.

108.
A. NO CHANGE
B. that stood for
C. which standing for
D. and stands for

109.

43
A. NO CHANGE
B. long pointed,
C. long, and pointed
D. long-pointed

110.
A. NO CHANGE
B. later at a family, event Lee
C. later, at a family event, Lee,
D. later, at a family event, Lee

111.
A. NO CHANGE
B. proclaimed
C. had been proclaiming
D. having proclaimed

112. Which of the following sentences in this paragraph is

LEAST relevant to the main focus of the essay and,
therefore, could be deleted?
A. Sentence 2
B. Sentence 3
C. Sentence 4 D. Sentence 5 113.
A. NO CHANGE
B. was watching
C. had been watching
D. watched

For questions 114 – 128:

Passage 3

44
 “Unfulfilled Promises”
If you have ever entered a contest of any sort—you (114) are well
aware of the legal requirements, exclusions, and disclaimers that
always accompany (115) the contest’s entry form. Many laws today
regulate a contest sponsor’s responsibilities to the entrants, and
courts are filled with lawsuits asserting with non-compliance (116) on
both sides.

However, this was not always the case. In 1896, a contest motivated
a Norwegian immigrant, Helga Estby, to travel nearly 3,500 miles on
foot (117) from the state of Washington to New York City.
Unfortunately, as is still sometimes true, Helga won the competition
only to find that the promise (118) $10,000 award was mysteriously
absent.

[1] Helga had been living (119) on her farm with her husband and
nine children in Spokane, Washington, when she read of a $10,000
prize being offered to a woman who was willing to walk across the
country. [2] Because the Estby farm was facing foreclosure, Helga
decided that walking across the country in a bicycle skirt for that kind
of money was a small price to pay for a greater rewarding. (120)

[3] At the time, this style of skirt was considered to be inappropriate

because it revealed the female ankle. [4] The only requirement,
from all accounts, was that she wear a modern, newfangled bicycle
skirt as she traveled. (121)
So, in May of 1896, Helga and her 18-year-old daughter, Clara, had set
off (122) on their long journey.

Helga carried a revolver and a spray gun containing red pepper for
protection. (123) Presumably, Helga and Clara found food and shelter
along the way, and they arrived in New York City in December, seven
months after their departure. The contest sponsors, however, were to
be found nowhere. (124)

This story of bravery and persistence had therefore been kept a

secret (125) for nearly a century, primarily because Helga’s

45
sevenmonth absence from the farm wreaked havoc on her family.
Two of her children died of diphtheria while she was gone. Even
worse, her husband had sequestered the surviving children in an
unheated shed, thinking that this was the only way to keep them from
being infected with the disease. Since the contest sponsor failed to
award Helga the money, the Estbys ended up losing the farm; her
expedition had been a disaster.

At the time, Helga’s trip was considered an embarrassment by the

Norwegian-American community and was kept utterly quiet. After
Helga’s death, her own children burned the hundreds of pages
Helga had written through the years, leaving only (126) a small
scrapbook of newspaper clippings and very few details of Helga’s life
or her ill-fated trip.

Looking back 100 years, one can only marvel at the boldness and
bravery that must have energized Helga Estby to make that journey
on foot across the country in an effort to save her family farm.(127)
(128)

114.
A. NO CHANGE
B. sort; you
C. sort you
D. sort, you

115.
A. NO CHANGE
B. always are accompanying
C. accompany always
D. are accompanying

116.
A. NO CHANGE
B. lawsuits asserting non-compliance

46
C. lawsuits of non-compliance asserting
D. non-compliance lawsuits asserting

117.
A. NO CHANGE
B. on foot, 3,500 miles
C. 3,500 miles on feet
D. 3,500 miles per foot

118.
A. NO CHANGE
B. promise for the
C. promised
D. promising

119.
A. NO CHANGE
B. been living
C. has been living
D. had lived

120.

A. NO CHANGE
B. greatly rewarding
C. great reward
D. greatest reward

47
121. Which of the following sequences of sentences makes this
paragraph most logical?
A. NO CHANGE
B. 1, 3, 2, 4
C. 3, 2, 4, 1 D. 1, 4, 3, 2

122.
A. NO CHANGE
B. have set off
C. set off
D. went to set off

123.
A. NO CHANGE
B. For protection, Helga carried a revolver as well as a
red pepper-containing spray gun.
C. Helga, for protection, she carried a revolver and a
spray gun containing red pepper.
D. Carried by Helga for protection were a revolver and
a spray gun containing red pepper.

124.
A. NO CHANGE
B. were nowhere when found
C. to be found nowhere
D. were nowhere to be found

125.
A. NO CHANGE
B. had been kept a secret
C. had been actually kept a secret

48
D. had in fact been kept a secret

126.
A. NO CHANGE
B. years leaving only
C. years; leaving only D. years leaving only,

127. Given that all of the choices are true, which one would best
conclude the sentence while providing the reader with the most
specific explanation for Helga’s motivation to walk across the country?
A. NO CHANGE
B. to win $10,000.
C. in an effort to save her children from diphtheria.
D. to help her daughter Clara gain experience.

128. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following

sentence:
In 1984, Helga’s great-great-grandson wrote a story about his
ancestor for a history assignment. Should the writer make this addition
here?
A. Yes, because it links the ending of the essay to its introduction.
B. Yes, because this information is highly relevant to the rest of the
essay.
C. No, because this story might not focus on Helga’s farm.
D. No, because this information introduces a new subtopic of the essay.

Questions 129 – 133: Choose the word closest to the meaning to the
underlined word in the sentence.

129. The corrupt policeman was discharged from service due to his
ignominious act of accepting bribes.
A. honorable

49
B. disrespectable
C. unwanted
D. remarkable

130. Jacqueline is an irascible girl who frequently has tantrums.

A. impatient
B. cheerful
C. hot-tempered
D. jolly

131. The piquant mouse was able to find its way out of the maze in a
short while.
A. dumb
B. clever
C. small
D. unusual

132. Only a ruffian could do such a heinous act of killing a helpless

child.
A. an insane person
B. a brutal person
C. a lovable person
D. a confused person

133. The plane overshot the runway and landed on a ditch.

A. passed through
B. passed by
C. went beyond
D. did not reach

50
Questions 134 – 138: Choose the word opposite in meaning to the
underlined word in the sentence.

134. The garrulous girls were distanced from each other.

A. mute
B. talkative
C. behaved
D. quiet

135. The players were confused when the kibitzers suddenly butted-in
during the team’s huddle.
A. advisers
B. spectators
C. onlookers
D. crowd

136. Mahirap pakinggan ang sinasabi ng taong garil.

A. utal
B. bulol
C. matalino
D. matatas

137. Hungkag ang bigasan dahil nasira ng bagyo ang mga palay.
A. salat
B. puno
C. bulok
D. bago

138. Maantak ang sugat kapag napatakan ng kalamansi.

A. malaki
B. maliit

51
C. manhid
D. mahapdi

Questions 139 – 140: Piliin ang salitang kasing-kahulugan ng salitang

nakapahilig.

139. Dahil sa paulit-ulit na pagsisinungaling, basa ang papel niya sa

karamihan.
A. ayaw nang paniwalaan
B. ayaw nang pagbigyan
C. ayaw nang pakinggan
D. ayaw nang makasama

140. Ni ayaw man lamang humarap sa tao ang talo-saling na si Eula.

A. masungit
B. isnabera
C. mahiyain
D. pangit

Questions 141 – 143: Choose the sentence that best combines the
underlined sentences.

141. The airport is called the Glynco Jetport. The airline reservations
and travel systems refer to its location as Brunswick, Georgia.
A. Where the airport is called the Glynco Jetport, the airline
reservations and travel systems refer to the location as Brunswick,
Georgia.
B. But the airport is called the Glynco Jetport, the airline
reservations and travel systems refer to the location as Brunswick,
Georgia.

52
C. Even though the airline reservations and travel systems refer to
the location as Brunswick, Georgia, the airport is called the Glynco
Jetport.
D. When the airport is called the Glynco Jetport, the airline
reservations refer to the location as Brunswick, Georgia, and the
travel systems.

142. Plato believed that boys and girls should be given an equal
education. This idea is rarely mentioned in textbooks.
A. Plato believed that boys and girls should be given an equal
education, where this idea is rarely mentioned in textbooks.
B. Plato believed that boys and girls should be given an equal
education, an idea that is rarely mentioned in textbooks.
C. Believing that boys and girls should be given an equal education,
Plato’s idea is rarely mentioned in textbooks.
D. Plato believed that boys and girls should be given an equal
education, whereupon this idea is rarely mentioned in textbooks.

143. Recently there have been government cutbacks in funds.

Experts foresee steady hiring in the government’s future.
A. Despite recent government cutbacks in funds, experts foresee
steady hiring in the government’s future.
B. Whereupon recent government cutbacks in funds, experts foresee
steady hiring in the government’s future.
C. So that there have been recent government cutbacks in funds,
experts foresee steady hiring in the government’s future.
D. Nonetheless, there have been recent government cutbacks in
funds, experts foresee steady hiring in the government’s future.

Questions 144 -150: Fill in the blank with the word that creates the
most logical sentence.

144. Ruby loves blueberry pie _________ it is made with freshly picked
blueberries.
A. whether

53
B. because
C. when
D. as if

145. _________ our low annual fee, you will receive a 20% discount
if you sign up this week.
A. Because
B. While
C. In spite of
D. In addition to

146. I ________ the speech you gave last Thursday night, but I was
in bed with the flu.
A. will have heard
B. would hear
C. might hear
D. would have heard

147. . ________ the Beatles’ most popular songs— most of which were
written by Lennon and McCartney—are “I Want to Hold Your
Hand” and “Hey, Jude.”
A. With
B. Considering
C. Among
D. To

148. My neighbor is deathly afraid of dogs; ___________, I never let

my Golden Retriever, Sandy, outside without a leash.
A. moreover
B. yet
C. mainly
D. consequently

54
149. The ticket said the show would start at 8:00, but the curtains didn’t
go up _________ 8:30.
A. less than
B. until
C. about
D. since

150. A large percentage of the class _______ fascinated by the

museum.
A. was
B. be
C. any of the above
D. were

55
Science
Directions: Read the questions carefully and choose the letter that
corresponds to your answer.

1. All of the following are solutions except _____.

A. Brass
B. Coffee
C. Seawater
D. Milk

2. How come a person with type B blood cannot donate to a

person with type A blood?
A. The recipient has antibodies against B blood, which has
Bantigens, resulting in clotting up the donated blood.
B. The recipient has B surface antigens that can be recognized by
antibodies of the donor, resulting in rejection of the donated
blood.
C. Both A and B are true.
D. None of the above statements are true.

3. How many moles of CO2 does 88 grams of Carbon

Dioxide contain?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4 D. 5

56
4. Weathering is the process that changes solid rock into
sediments. With weathering, rock is disintegrated. It breaks into
pieces. However, rocks on the moon are not being weathered.
Which of the following is the reason for this?
A. There is no atmosphere on the moon.
B. There is no water on the moon.
C. There is no volcano on the moon.
D. The gravity on the moon is very small.

5. Each of two replicated strands of a chromosome is called

a(n) A. aster.
B. centriole.
C. synapse.
D. chromatid.

6. Storm surge is an abnormal rise of water generated by a storm. It

creates a change in the water level due to the presence of the
storm. The rise may come rapidly, flooding coastal lowlands in the
process. PAGASA predicted a storm surge will hit the Philippines
even before

Typhoon Yolanda entered the country but they did not expect the
damages to be that massive. The storm surge that accompanied
Yolanda was described as tsunami-like. This is somehow reminiscent
of the tsunami that hit Japan in the year 2011.

Tsunamis can be created when there is a sudden disturbance on

the Earth’s crust and deformation on the sea floor. This deformation
vertically displaces the overlying water and creates violent
underwater disturbance. What is the main characteristic of tsunamis
that differentiates it from a storm surge?

A. Tsunamis are tidal waves.

57
B. Tsunamis are created when a body of water is displaced usually by
an earthquake.
C. Tsunamis are always accompanied by typhoons and other forms of
weather disturbances.
D. Tsunamis are single waves that only hit the shorelines by the
Pacific Ocean.

7. If Wes applies 100 newtons of force on a 2-meter wrench at a right

angle to the wrench and parallel to the plane of rotation, how much
torque, in newton-meters (N-m), is he applying to the bolt?
A. 200 N-m
B. 100 N-m
C. 50 N-m D. 25 N-m

8. If two flies heterozygous for wing length and body color are crossed,
which of the following are possible results?

A. chance of L, long wings = 3/4 B.

chance of l, short wings = 1/2
C. chance of G, grey body = 1/4
D. all of the above are true

9. Which chemical bonds are considered the strongest, requiring the

most energy to break?
A. ionic bonds
B. van der Waals forces
C. hydrogen bonds
D. covalent bonds

10. The eruption of Mt. Pinatubo caused widespread destruction and

loss of human life. Gases and solids injected into the stratosphere

58
circled the globe for three weeks. Volcanic eruptions of this
magnitude can impact global climate, reducing the amount of solar
radiation reaching the Earth's surface, lowering temperatures in the
troposphere, and changing atmospheric circulation patterns. Which
of the following was an effect of the Mt. Pinatubo eruption?
A. an increase of the Earth’s temperature by 2˚C
B. massive global warming
C. El niño phenomenon
D. lowered global temperature by 0.5˚

11. Which of these would be least likely to diffuse across the

phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane?
A. water
B. sodium ions
C. oxygen
D. carbon dioxide

12. The bacteria that causes syphilis is A.

a coccus.
B. E. coli.
C. a bacillus.
D. a spirochete.

13. Give the mass number for an atom that has 10 protons, 10
electrons, and 11 neutrons.

A. 31
B. 20
C. 10
D. 21

59
14. The graph below shows the change in energy that occurs during
a chemical reaction. Which of the following is most likely to happen
as the reaction nears completion?

A. The reaction releases energy to its surroundings.

B. The energy level of the reactants remains constant.
C. The reaction takes in energy from its surroundings
D. The energy level of the reactants increases gradually.

15. Cloud seeding can be done by dispersing Silver Iodide or dry ice
(solid carbon dioxide) into clouds to induce precipitation. Cloud
seeding has also been used to dissipate fog, modify hurricanes, and
decrease lightning and hail in thunderstorms. The results have been
remarkable but never guaranteed increase precipitation on all trials.
The Beijing Weather Modification Office has researched on the
application of cloud seeding to control weather. During the 2008
Beijing Olympics, the Chinese governments executed cloud seeding
to clear the air of pollutants and to keep it from raining over the
Bird’s Nest stadium while the games were going on. They managed
to deliver as they have promised.

What could be an obvious negative effect of cloud seeding in China?

A. Excessive precipitation and unanticipated drought

60
B. Significant increase of Silver contamination on crops and water
C. Unpredictable weather
D. Increase in thunderstorms and typhoons that may hit the country
within the same year of cloud seeding in the area

16. During ______, the chromosomes attach to the spindle and align
at the metaphase plate of the spindle.

A. prophase
B. prometaphase
C. metaphase
D. anaphase

17. Geothermal systems produce electricity from what energy source?

A. heat from the Sun
B. mechanical energy from wind
C. heat from Earth’s interior
D. mechanical energy from waves

18. Gravitational potential energy is energy an object possesses

because of its position in a gravitational field. Which of the following has
the most gravitational potential energy?

A. A truck at the top of a hill

B. A truck speeding down the hill
C. A man on top of the hill
D. A man on his mountain bike speeding down the hill

19. The proportion of adenine bases in a sample of DNA was found

to be 12%. Which of the following statements is true? The proportion
of
A. uracil bases in the sample is 12%.

61
B. thyroxine bases in the sample is 12%.
C. uracil bases in the sample is 88%.
D. cytosine bases in the sample is 38%.

20. If a single-celled saltwater organism is placed in freshwater, it will

not be able to survive. Which statement explains why this is true?
A. The organism’s cell will absorb too much water through osmosis.
B. The organism’s cell will absorb too many sodium ions through
osmosis. C. The organism’s cell will release too many hydrogen
ions through diffusion.
D. The organism’s cell will release too much water through facilitated
diffusion.

21. Starting as a gas at 206°C, a sample of a substance is

allowed to cool for 16 minutes. This process is represented by
the cooling curve below.

Cooling Curve for a Substance

A.
What is the melting point of this substance?
B.

206°C

150°C Time (min)

62
 C. 90°C
D. 50°C

22. Protozoa are placed in different classes according to their A.

movement.
B. color.
C. shape.
D. size.

23. Refer to the diagram below.

Sediments

A B

Igneous Sedimentary
Rocks Rocks

Melting C

Metamorphic
Rocks

Which of the following is TRUE?

I. Path A is uplift, weathering, erosion, deposition II.
Path B is heating and crystallization.
III. Heat and pressure are responsible for path C.

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III

63
24. Agglutination is the
A. clumping of students in hallways.
B. clumping of platelets to help stop bleeding.
C. clumping of white blood cells around bacteria.
D. clumping of blood cells due to an antibody-antigen reaction.

25. The figure below shows resistors connected in series and parallel.
If the total resistance from A to B is 6 Ω, find the resistance of R.
1Ω 1Ω

2Ω 3Ω
AB

R
A. 1
Ω B. 2
Ω C. 3
Ω
D. 4 Ω

26. What mass, in g, of hydrogen gas is formed when 3.0 mol of

aluminum react with excess hydrochloric acid according to the
following equation?

2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq) 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2(g)

A. 3.
0 B.
4.5 C.
6.0
D. 9.0

64
27. Removing all lone pairs of electrons on the central atom of ClF3
would change the geometry from
A. trigonal pyramidal to trigonal planar.
B. from square shaped to trigonal pyramidal.
C. from T–shaped to trigonal planar.
D. from trigonal bipyramidal to trigonal planar.

28. Differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells include all of

the following except ______.

A. eukaryotic cells have mitochondria

B. eukaryotic cells have cilia and flagella with complex structure
C. prokaryotic cells have more complex cell walls
D. prokaryotic cells have no genetic material

29. Which electromagnetic wave has the shortest wavelength?

A. Radio
B. UV
C. Visible Light
D. Gamma

30. I lack respiratory, excretory, and circulatory systems, have bilateral

larva, deuterostome development, and move using a water vascular
system. What am I?
A. echinoderm
B. chordate
C. jellyfish
D. mollusc

31. Assuming that complete dominance is followed, which of the

following genotypes has the same phenotype as QQRrssTt?

65
 A. AABbccDd
B. QqRRssTT
C. Qqrrsstt
D. QQRrSsTt

32. What percent of a parent isotopes remains after 2 half-lives?

A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 6.25%
D. 2%

33. Which factors are involved in Gay-Lussac’s Law?

A. Pressure and Temperature

B. Pressure and Volume
C. Temperature and Volume
D. Volume and Moles

34. Potassium-40 is used to determine the age of rocks. The diagram

below shows a rock sample in which some of the potassium-40
atoms have undergone radioactive decay. According to the diagram,
how many half-lives has the rock sample undergone?

A. 9 half-lives
B. 3 half-lives
C. 2 half-lives

66
D. 1 half-life

35. The tendency of an object to resist changes in motion is

dependent on:

A. Weight
B. Temperature
C. Speed
D. Mass

36. What the value does 6.02 x 1023 represent?

A. The number of particles in a mole

B. The number of particles per atom in a substance.
C. The density of moles per square nanometer.
D. The length of time for a material to decompose

37. Which of the following pairs are analogous structures?

A. the front leg of a horse and a human arm

B. the front leg of a frog and a bat wing
C. the wing of a bird and a bat wing
D. the front flipper of a porpoise and a human arm

38. What enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars?

A. Aqua-enzymes
B. Amylase
C. Adenine
D. Glyoxalase

67
39. Molality, m, is defined as number of moles of solute per kg of
solvent. If 230 g of ethanol (C2H5OH) is added to 500 g of water,
what is the molality of the solution? A. 0.46 m
B. 1 m
C. 2.17 m
D. 10 m

40. How much time should it take for a traveling bullet to hit the
ground compared to a bullet dropped from rest? Assume the
ground remains flat for the entire distance the bullet may travel.

A. The traveling bullet will take longer to hit the ground than the bullet
dropped from rest
B. The traveling bullet will hit the ground at the same time as the
bullet dropped from rest
C. The traveling bullet will hit the ground before the bullet dropped
from rest
D. The traveling bullet moves so fast that it will never hit the ground

41. A scientist performed an experiment where he knocked out the

genes of a mouse cell responsible for producing the Golgi complex.
Which of the following could be a consequence of the experiment to
mice lacking the gene?
A. Mice would grow to be fat, and obese, since there would be
no regulation of lipid synthesis.
B. Mice would develop uncontrolled mutations over the course
of its life, since production of proteins has been hampered.
C. Mice won’t grow or develop into adults, and will live for only
a few days or weeks, since proteins won’t be processed
properly and they wouldn’t know where to go after they’re
synthesized.
D. The mice will be lethargic since they won’t be able to process
absorbed nutrients to transform them into energy in the form
of ATP.

68
42. What enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars?

A. Aqua-enzymes
B. Amylase
C. Adenine
D. Glyoxalase

43. Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of substance to the

density of water. Suppose the specific gravity of liquid X is 1.2.
Which of the following will not float in liquid X?
A. Water
B. A 1000-cm3 object whose mass is 750 g
C. A solid object whose specific gravity is 0.9
D. A liquid whose specific gravity is 1.3

44. Vitamins help to control chemical reactions in our bodies. Without

vitamins certain reactions cannot take place. We need only tiny
amounts of vitamins, but without them we will suffer from deficiency
diseases, like the lack of vitamin D will lead to
A. beriberi
B. rickets
C. scurvy
D. night blindness

45. In which population would you expect the most rapid evolutionary
change?
A. a small population with a high mutation rate in a changing
environment
B. a small population with a low mutation rate in a stable
environment

69
C. a large population with a high mutation rate in a changing
environment
D. a large population with a low mutation rate in a stable
environment

46. In a species of pea plant, white flowers were completely

dominant over red flowers. Pure breeding, white flowered pea plants
are crossed with pure breeding, red-flowered pea plants. What
proportion of white- and red-colored plants will be produced in the
F1 generation?
A. all white-flowered plants.
B. all red-flowered plants.
C. a 3 : 1 ratio of white-flowered plants to red-flowered plants.
D. a 3 : 1 ratio of red-flowered plants to white-flowered plants.

47. What are the coefficients that will balance the formula equation
below?

A. 1, 3, 1, 3
B. 3, 1, 3, 1
C. 1, 1, 1, 3
D. 1, 3, 3, 1

48. When ice changes from a solid to a liquid at its melting point A.
its temperature increases.
B. heat is given out.
C. its particles gain energy.
D. its particles become more ordered.

49. Flowers are the reproductive organs of angiosperms. These

organs have various parts that fall under three groups: (1) male parts,
(2) female parts and (3) accessory parts.

70
 Depending on the present structures, a flower may be
categorized as complete, incomplete, perfect or imperfect.
Which of the following lists of parts describes a perfect flower
but not a complete flower?
A. Pistil, stamen and accessory parts
B. Pistil and accessory parts only
C. Stamen and accessory parts only
D. Pistil and stamen only

Read the passage below to answer questions 50 and 51.

Eutrophication is a phenomenon where excessive amounts of nutrients
are added to a marine ecosystem. These nutrients cause
plant life like algae to multiply rapidly, leading to very high
population densities. In freshwater ecosystems, the algae can
become so dense that it can turn ponds, lakes or even smaller rivers
green. The algae grows to an unreasonable level at a very fast rate.
The algae are known as phytoplankton and are microscopic, single-
celled organisms.

A body of water that is experiencing eutrophication and a resulting

bloom can be quickly devastated. Eutrophication affects all living
organisms in the area including fish, birds and mammals. The top
layer of phytoplankton causes such a build-up on the surface that they
accumulate sediment. When this occurs the sunlight is blocked
and it will choke off the plant life below the surface. The
phytoplankton will also cause less surface area for the water to
interface with air. As a result, there will be less oxygen available in
the water. As oxygen continues to deplete, the depletion can have a
negative effect on life as there will be less oxygen to support the
organisms below the surface that depend on the oxygen from
plants that diffuses into the water.
Scientist 1
The root cause of eutrophication is not known. However, the
frequency and increasing incidents of eutrophication point to human
farming activity as the potential cause. The growth of the

71
phytoplankton is caused by runoff that contains multiple sources of
nitrates that are also found in fertilizer. The nitrates allow for the
phytoplankton to grow rapidly. The solution to the problem is to either
move the drainage so the runoff from the human farming activity
cannot reach the water source or move the farms.

Scientist 2
Sometimes eutrophication can happen naturally without any real
cause. Sometimes when there are periods of heavy rain, the
increase in rain water leads to an imbalance in the pH of the water.
This in turn creates favorable conditions for the phytoplankton to
grow and proliferate. This is a natural cycle that also ensures that too
many fish and other animals do not build up in a freshwater source.
This type of bloom is nature’s way of eliminating overpopulation with
an abiotic factor. Although many organisms will die as a result, it will
help to thin the numbers of organisms and ensure a healthier
freshwater source.

50. According to Scientist 1, which of the following is the cause of the

eutrophication?
A. A change in the pH of the water.
B. The increasing changes in phytoplankton.
C. Agricultural run-off from human activity.
D. The build-up of phosphates in the body of water.

51. What is the main point of disagreement between Scientist 1 and

Scientist 2?
A. The source of the nitrogen.
B. The root cause of the eutrophication.
C. The effects of the lack of oxygen.
D. The effect of the plant life in the aquatic ecosystem.

52. A container weighs 90 g when empty and 110 g when fully filled
with water. The density of water is 1.0 g/mL. When the container is
filled instead with liquid X, it weighs 140 g. What is the density of
liquid X?

72
 A. 0.80 g/mL
B. 1.4 g/mL C.
2.5 g/mL
D. 3.0 g/mL

53. Which of the following is the function of the cotyledon in a seed?

A. to form the lower portion of the plant.
B. to form the upper portion of the plant.
C. to protect the seed from drying out.
D. to provide nutrients for the germinating plant.

54. Two forces are acting on an object as shown below. What is the
magnitude of the resultant force?

A. 200 N
B. 40 N
C. 66.7 N
D. 185 N

55. Torque is the product of the force and the lever arm. In symbols,

Refer to the diagram below. Two masses, 8 kg and 10 kg, are

hung at both ends of a 90-cm stick. The stick has markings every
10 cm. If the mass of the stick is negligible, where should the
stick be suspended by means of a cord to remain

73
 the stick horizontal?
A B C D

8 kg 10 kg

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

56. Your flashlight has three identical 1.5 volt batteries in it,
arranged in a chain to give a total of 4.5 volts. Current passes first
through battery (a), then through battery (b), then through battery
(c), on its way to the bulb. When you operate the flashlight, the
batteries provide power to the current and they gradually use up
their chemical potential energy. Which battery will run out of
chemical potential energy first?

A. All three will run out at the same time.

B. Battery (a) will run out first.
C. Battery (b) will run out first. D. Battery (c) will run out first.

57. A neutral atom in the ground state contains 16 electrons. What is

the total number of electrons in the 3p sublevel?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6 D. 8

58. If you balance the equation below, what is the least

sum of the coefficients?

74
 MnO2 + HCl Cl2 + MnCl2 + H2O
A. 26
B. 15
C. 9
D. 7

59. What is the probability that a father with a

homogenous dominant trait and a mother with the same
homogenous dominant trait will produce an offspring with
the recessive trait?

A. 25%
B. 15%
C. 0%
D. 100%

60. A graduated cylinder is used to measure liquid volume. The

correct way of reading the level of mercury in a graduated cylinder is
A. read from the top of the meniscus.
B. read from the bottom of the meniscus.
C. use the lowest point of the mercury in the cylinder.
D. take the average of the highest and the lowest points.

61. Suppose a cold steel bar (at 10 C) and a hot iron block (at
70 C) are placed inside the same room at the same time. With
time, the steel bar and the iron block are brought to thermal
equilibrium with the room. The final temperature of the room is
25 C. What are the final temperature of the steel bar and the iron
block?
A. Steel bar (at 40 C), iron block (at 25 C)
B. Steel bar (at 25 C), iron block (at 40 C)
C. Steel bar (at 40 C), iron block (at 40 C)
D. Steel bar (at 25 C), iron block (at 25 C)

75
62. Mount Mayon is what type of volcano?

A. Stratovolcano
B. Shield
C. Caldera
D. Cinder

63. The radioactive half-life of a certain isotope is 2 days. What part of

this isotope will remain after 8 days?
A. ½
B. ¼
C. 1/8
D. 1/16

64. The circulatory system has three main components: (1) the
pumping organ – the heart, (2) the circulating medium – the blood
and (3) the passageways of blood – the blood vessels.
Furthermore, there are three types of blood vessels: capillaries,
arteries and veins. Capillaries are the site of gas exchange between
the blood and the bodily tissues. Arteries carry blood away from the
heart while veins carry blood towards the heart. Apart from these
differences in function, these three types of blood vessels all have
different morphological features.

Arteries have much thicker walls than veins. What is the

significance of the thicker walls for arteries?
A. Arteries normally carry oxygenated blood – which require
flowing through thicker vessels in order to preserve the
oxygen content.
B. Arteries receive greater blood pressure than the veins. The
greater blood pressure would threaten destroying thinwalled
blood vessels, warranting thicker walls for arteries.

76
 C. Veins have valves that prevent back-flow of blood. The
valves are designed to work in thin walled vessels.
D. Veins normally carry deoxygenated blood – which does not
require flowing through thicker vessels in order to preserve
the oxygen content.

65. Mixtures can be classified as homogenous or heterogenous and

can be separated by simple means. Solutions and suspensions A.
are both compounds.
B. are both examples of a homogenous mixture.
C. are both examples of a heterogenous mixture.
D. can be separated into components by physical means.

66. Which of the following cases is/are NOT a uniformly accelerated

motion?
(1) A feather falls from a certain height inside a vacuum tube.
(2) A ball rolls along a frictionless plane at uniform speed.
(3) A coin falls from a certain height in air but air resistance is negligible.

A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (2) only
D. (2) and (3) only

67. The main reason why one can possibly walk barefoot on a red-
hot wooden coals without burning the feet is A.
the low thermal conductivity of coal.
B. the high temperature of coal.
C. the low temperature of coal.
D. the stepping techniques.

77
68. Global climate change can be attributed to the increase in what two
gases produced by human activities?
A. nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide
B. methane and carbon dioxide
C. ozone and carbon dioxide
D. ozone and methane

69. A stone is thrown into the air at an angle. Neglecting air resistance,
what is the stone’s velocity upon reaching its maximum height?
A. zero
B. equal to the horizontal component of its initial velocity
C. equal to the vertical component of its initial velocity
D. equal to the acceleration due to gravity

70. Which of the following characterizes water?

A. Water releases only heat quickly.

B. Water releases and gains heat quickly.
C. Water releases and gains heat slowly.
D. Water gains only heat slowly.

71. How many star/s is/are there in our solar system?

A.1
B. 1 million
C. 1 billion
D. infinitely many

72. If the volume of a gas at a certain pressure is halved, ______.

A. its temperature is halved

B. its temperature is doubled

78
C. its temperature remains constant
D. its temperature increases according to a geometric progression

73. The reason why we see eclipses of the Moon more often than
solar eclipses, even though solar eclipses happen more frequently is
that
A. lunar eclipses are visible over more than half of Earth compared
to less than 20% of Earth’s surface for partial solar eclipses. B. the
weather is more cloudy during the new moon.
C. a lunar eclipse lasts longer than a solar eclipse.
D. people are not so interested in the solar eclipse.

74. What measurement is used to quantify the destruction caused by

an earthquake?
A. the Richter scale
B. the modified Mercalli scale
C. the moment magnitude scale
D. the moment destruction scale

75. Igeneous rocks originate when magma or lava cools and

crystallizes or when pyroclastic materials are consolidated. The two
categories of igneous rocks are plutonic rocks, which form within the
earth’s crust, and volcanic rocks, which form at the surface. Volcanic
rocks can usually be distinguished from plutonic rocks by A. its color
B. its composition
C. its iron-magnesium content
D. the size of its mineral crystals

76. When a lit match is touched to the wick of a candle, the candle
begins to burn. When the match is removed, the candle continues to
burn. In this reaction, the match ______.

79
A. behaves as a catalyst.
B. supplies activation energy.
C. is part of the rate determining step.
D. lowers the activation energy barrier

77. Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of substance to the density
of water. Suppose the specific gravity of liquid X is 1.2.
Which of the following will not float in liquid X?
A. Water
B. A 1000-cm3 object whose mass is 750 g
C. A solid object whose specific gravity is 0.9
D. A liquid whose specific gravity is 1.3

78. The solidification of molten rock from inside or outside the earth
causes the formation of igneous rocks. These rocks are characterized
by the presence of large or small crystals, depending on the rate of
cooling of the rocks. Granite is an intrusive igneous rock that cooled
beneath the earth’s crust, and has large crystals.
What is the most probable reason for this?
A. Extreme pressures at the bottom create larger crystals.
B. Gravity causes the heavier crystals to collect at the bottom of
intrusive igneous rocks.
C. Hotter temperatures act as a catalyst to increase the rate of
crystal formation in intrusive igneous rocks.
D. Hotter temperatures beneath the earth’s crust decrease the
cooling rate, allowing more time to grow larger crystals.

79. 1 atm is equal to ______ Torr.

A. 700
B. 720
C. 273 D. 760

80
80. Based on the following periodic table, which two
elements have
a half-filled p orbital?

Be N O
Na Al Si
K Fe Co
Sb I
Ba Os

A. Nitrogen and antimony

B. Iron and cobalt
C. Barium and osmium
D. Sodium and potassium

81. Of the first 101 elements, which is the most unstable?

A. Francium
B. Plutonium
C. Arsenic
D. Uranium

82. Which element is the most electronegative?

A. Neon
B. Francium
C. Sodium
D. Fluorine

81
83. In snapdragons, red flowers represent the RR genotype while
white flowers represent the rr genotype. Upon breeding red and
white flowers, the offsprings were neither red nor white, instead
they were pink. What mode of inheritance is exhibited by the
snapdragons?
A. Codominance
B. Dominance
C. Incomplete Dominance
D. Sex-influenced

84. What is the most common isotope of Carbon?

A. Carbon-12
B. Carbon 16
C. Carbon-14 D. Carbon-13

85. Suppose two hypothetical organisms with blue eyes have an

offspring with red eyes. Assuming that this trait obeys the
Mendelian laws of inheritance, which among the following
statements is TRUE?
A. Red eye color is the dominant trait.
B. The red-eyed offspring has a homozygous dominant genotype.
C. The parents both have a heterozygous genotype.
D. The red-eyed offspring has a heterozygous genotype.

86. Mechanical and chemical weathering result in disintegration and

decomposition of parent material so that it is more nearly in
equilibrium with new physical and chemical conditions. Mechanical
weathering involves forces that break rocks into smaller pieces

82
without changing their chemical composition. Which mechanical
weathering process involved in the origin of exfoliation domes?
A. pressure release
B. expansion and contraction
C. heating and cooling
D. oxidation and reduction

87. Rock and dust samples brought back from the Moon by the Apollo
missions in the 1980s were more similar to Earth’s mantle than to
meteorites that struck the Earth. Which of the following statements is
true about Earth’s tock and moon’s rock?
A. Rocks on Earth are much younger than those on the moon.
B. Rocks on Earth are much older than those on the moon.
C. Rocks on Earth are about the same age as rocks on the moon.
D. Moon rocks do not have age.

88. Newton’s first law of motion states that “Every object remains at
rest or in motion in a straight line at constant speed unless acted
upon by an unbalanced force.” What is the net force acting on an
airplane in level flight at 500 kph due north?
A. 100 N
B. 490 N
C. 980 N
D. 0

89. What is the molar concentration of NaCl solution that contains 30

grams of salt per 200 mL of solution?
A. 0.15 M
B. 0.30 M
C. 1.3 M
D. 2.6 M

83
90. What is the limiting reagent for the following chemical reaction if
24 grams of hydrogen and 48 grams of oxygen react to form water?
2H2 + O2 2H2O

A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Water
D. This reaction has no limiting reagent.

91. Coulomb’s law and Newton’s law of gravitation both involve which
of the following?
A. the inverse square law.
B. the charge on the particle.
C. the mass of the particle.
D. permeability

92. Which among the following is correctly paired?

A. cheddar cheese : heterogeneous

B. liquid soap : homogeneous
C. sugar : element
D. orange juice : compound

93. An analysis of a compound used in the production of aluminum is

32.79% sodium, 13.02 % aluminum and 54.19% fluorine. The
empirical formula of the compound is
A. Na3AlF6
B. Na5AlF8
C. NaAlF
D. Na3AlF3

84
94. Flooding frequently happens in the Philippines. It may occur due
to an accumulation of rainwater on saturated ground. This can
threaten several lives, properties and even livestock. If there is
a flood, what characteristics of soil would make the situation of
flooding worse within the affected area?
A. high porosity and high permeability
B. high porosity and low permeability
C. low porosity and high permeability
D. low porosity and low permeability

95. The height of the column of mercury in a mercury barometer is

dependent on the following EXCEPT on the A.
diameter of the tube.
B. atmospheric pressure.
C. density of mercury and weather condition.
D. altitude at which the measurement is made.

96. A 7-m rope is stretched between two poles, which are 6-m apart.
A boy is holding on to the middle of the rope and hanging down. If
the boy weighs 300 N, what is the tension in the rope on the right-
hand side?
A. 183 N
B. 291 N
C. 425 N
D. 291 N

97. What process can be used on a liquid to separate

its components without losing either component in
the process?

A. Distillation
B. Evaporation

85
C. Sieving
D. Paper Chromatography

98. What component of hard water makes it “hard”?

A. sodium and nitrogen
B. oxygen and hydrogen
C. large amounts of calcium and magnesium ions
D. large amounts of sodium and carbon dioxide

99. The graphs below show the effects of temperature and pH on

enzyme activity. Which statement explains the enzyme activity at
the point shown?

A. At P, hydrogen bonds are formed between enzyme and substrate.

B. At Q, the kinetic energy of enzyme and substrate is highest.
C. At R, peptide bonds in the enzyme begin to break.
D. At S, the substrate is completely denatured.

100. Excluding the sun, what is the brightest star in the sky?

A. Sirius
B. Venus
C. Betelgeuse
D. The Big Dipper

86
Mathematics
Directions: The Mathematics subtest will test your ability to solve
quantitative problems quickly and accurately. Analyze each problem
and select the best answer from the multiple choices.

To mimic the actual test conditions, you’re not allowed to use

calculators. Because UPCAT is a time-pressured exam, we also
recommend using a timer when taking the practice test.

87
1. A scuba diver descends 80 feet, rises 25 feet, descends 12 feet,
and then rises 52 feet where he will do a safety stop for five minutes
before surfacing. At what depth did he do his safety stop?

A. -15
B. -14
C. 16
D. 14

2. Evaluate the algebraic expression y 3) − 4a} when

a=3
x=6
y=

A. y{( 3) − 4a} = -5
B. y{( 3) − 4a} = -7

C. y{( 3) − 4a} = 5

D. y{( 3) − 4a} = -6

3. If x is an even integer and y is an odd integer, which of the following

must be an odd integer?

A. 2x + 2y
B. 2x – 2y
C. x + y + 1 D. x + y + 2

4. 35% of 15% of x is equivalent to which of the following?

88
 A. 0.0525x
B. 0.125x
C. 0.25x
D. 0.525x

5. A farmer has a rectangular field that measures 125 feet by 200 feet.
He wants to enclose the field with a fence. What is the total length,
in feet, he will need for the job?

A. 450
B. 550
C. 650 D. 750

6. A farmer is raising a hog that weighed 20 lbs. when he bought it. He

expects it to gain 12 pounds per month. He will sell it when it weighs
200 lbs. How many months will it be before he will sell the animal?

A. 14
B. 15 C. 24
D. 25

7. Twenty-five more girls than the number of boys participate in

interscholastic sports at a local high school. If the number of girls
participating is 105, how many boys participate?
A. 110 B. 115 C. 120
D. 125

Use the following ndiagram to answer questions 8 to 13:

89
8. How many lines can be drawn through •A that are parallel to line m?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Infinite

9. How many lines can be drawn through •A that are perpendicular to

line l?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 10,000
D. Infinite

10. Which lines are perpendicular?

A. n, m

90
 B. o, l
C. l, n
D. m, l

11. How many points do line m and line l share?

A. 0 B.
1
C. 2
D. Infinite

12. •A is

A. between lines l and n.

B. on lines l and n.
C. on line l, but not line n.
D. on line n, but not line l.

13. Which set of lines are transversals?

A. l, m, o
B. o, m, n
C. l, o, n
D. l, m, n

14. The triangle ABC that is provided has side lengths of a, b.

and c feet and is not a right triangle. Let A’ be the image when the
triangle is reflected across side BC. Which of the following is an
expression for the perimeter, in feet, of quadrilateral A’BAC?

A. 2 (a + b)

91
 B. 2 (b + c)
C. a + b + 2c
D. 2 ab

15. If 60% of a number is 12, what is 165% of the same number?

A. 30
B. 31
C. 32 D. 33

16. What would be the height of a trapezoidal building if, at its

base, it measured 80 feet, its roofline measured 40 feet, and the
surface area of one side was 7,200 ft2? A. 112 ft.
B. 150 ft.
C. 120 ft. D.
135 ft.

17. The volume of a cylindrical aquarium tank is 13,565 cubic feet.

If its radius is 12 feet, what is its height to the nearest foot? A.
73 feet.
B. 27 feet.
C. 42 feet.
D. 30 feet.

18. A cylinder has a surface area of 2,512 square feet. The height of
the cylinder is three times the radius of the base of the cylinder.
Find the radius and the height of the cylinder.
A. r = 5 feet; h = 15 feet
B. r = 10 feet; h = 30 feet
C. r = 15 feet; h = 45 feet D. r = 20 feet; h = 60 feet

92
19. Solve the inequality x − 5 > x – 2.
A. x > 3
B. x > 6
C. x > 9
D. x > 12

20. Which of the following angle measurements would not describe an

interior angle of a right angle?
A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 100°

21. Solve this quadratic equation: 24x2 = 3(43x − 15).

A. x = and x = 6
B. x = and x = -5
C. x = 3 and x =
D. x = and x = 5

22. A 20 ft. beam leans against a wall. The beam reaches the wall
13.9 ft. above the ground. What is the measure of the angle formed
by the beam and the ground?
A. 44°
B. 35°
C. 55°
D. 46°

23. The lines y = 2x and 2y = - x are

A. parallel B. perpendicular
C. horizontal D. vertical

93
24. The inequality corresponding to the statement:"the price is no less
than 100 Dollars" is

A. x < 100 B. x ≥ 100 C. x ≤ 100 D. x > 100

25. Which of these points DOES NOT lie on the graph of y = -x + 3?

A. (9,- 6) B. (3,0) C. (-2,5) D. (2,2)

26. Which of these relations DOES NOT represent a function?

A. {(2,3),(-4,3),(7,3)} B. {(0,0),(-1,-1),(2,2)}
C. {(2,3),(-5,3),(2,7)} D. {(-1,3),(-5,3),(-9,0)}

27. Which property is used to write:3(x y) = (3 x)y?

A. Commutative property of
B. Multiplicative inverse property multiplication
D. Associative property of
C. Distributive propery multiplication

28. Which of these values of x satisfies the inequality -7x + 6 ≤ -8

A. -2 B. 0 C. -7 D. 2

29. The equation |-2x - 5| - 3 = k has no solution if k =

A. -5 B. -3 C. 7 D. 0

94
30. What is the slope of the line perpendicular to the line y = -5x + 9?
A. 5 B. -5 C. 1/5 D. -1/5

31. If x > 0, which of the following must always be true?

<x II. x2 > x III. x
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. none of these

32. Find the value of k such that the quadratic equation 4x2 + 7x + 3 =
2k have equal roots.
A.
B. -
C.
D. -

33. What is the slope of the line containing (0,1) and (6,8)? A.

B.
C.
D. 2

34. Three concentric circles whose radii are in the ratio 2:3:5. If the
area of the smallest circle is 36 , what would be the area of the largest
circle?
A. 75

95
B. 81
C. 100 D. 225

35. If a = 3c − 4 and b = 2(3 − c) what is 3b expressed in terms

of a? A. 10 – 2a
B. 5 – 2a
C. 10 - a
D. 5 - a

36. Which of the following cannot yield an odd integer when divided by
10?
A. The sum of two odd integers.
B. The product of two prime numbers.
C. The product of two odd integers.
D. The sum of three consecutive integers.

37. The value of 2-|-2| is

A. 4 B. 0.25 C. -4 D. -0.25

38. If f(x) = 4x3 - 4x2 + 10, then f(-2) =

A. 26 B. -38 C. 10 D. 38

39. In which quadrant do the lines x = 3 and y = -4 intersect?

A. I B. II C. III D. IV

96
40. Simplify: A.

B.
C.
D.

41. Subtract and simplify: A.

B. C.

D.

42. Multiply and simplify:

A. 2x
B. 5
C. 4x
D. 6

43. Divide and simplify: ÷ (x - 2)

A. x + 2
B. 2
C.
D.

97
44. Solve the inequality 3(1 − 3x) ≥ −3 (x + 27)
A. 3 ≥ x
B. 7
C. 14x
D. 14 ≥ x

45. Simplify the equation (3xy5)2 – 11x2y2(4y4)2

A. 176x2y10
B. -176x2y10
C. -167x2y10
D. 167x2y10

46. Factor the following polynomial: v4 − 13v2 – 48

A. v4 − 13v2 − 48 = (v2 + 3)(v + 4)(v − 4) B.
v4 + 13v2 − 48 = (v2 + 3)(v + 4)(v − 4).
C. (v + 4) = v2 − 4v + 4v − 16 = v2 – 16
D. (v − 4) = v2 − 4v + 4v − 16 = v2 – 16

47. Simplify the following radical expression:

A. 18ab2
B. 9ab
C. a2b
D. 27a2b

48. Which choice below has the most points?

A. a line
B. a line segment C.
a ray
D. No determination can be made.

98
49. Lines are always A.
solid.
B. finite.
C. noncollinear.
D. straight.

50. Collinear points A.

determine a plane.
B. are circular.
C. are noncoplanar.
D. are coplanar.

99
51. The shortest distance between any two points is A. a plane.
B. a line segment.
C. a ray.
D. an arch.

52. Which of the following decribes the values of x for which 16 – x2 ≥ 0?

A. x ≤ - 4 or x ≥ 4
B. -4 ≤ x ≤ 4

53. Find the area of the rectangle below.

A.
B.
C.
D.

54. If 16x + 8y represents the perimeter of a rectangle, and 5x – 2y represents its

width, then its length is represented by the expression A. 3x + 2y
B. 3x + 6y
C. 11x + 6y
D. 21x + 6y

55. A class contains 2 boys for every 1 girl. 75% of the boys have taken Algebra 2,
whereas 50% of the
girls have taken Algebra 2. What is the ratio of boys who have taken Algebra 2 to
girls who have taken Algebra 2?
A. 2 : 1
B. 2 : 2
C. 3 : 1 D. 3 : 2

56. A patient must take his medication every 7 hours starting at 7:00 A.M., Sunday.
On what day will the patient first receive his medication at 6 P.M.?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday

57. Tommy had a bag containing colored marbles. The colors are red, green,
and white. There are thrice as many green marbles as red marbles and twice
as many white marbles as green marbles. If a marble is drawn from the bag,
what is the probability of getting a white marble? A.

100
 B.

C.

D.

58. Find the values of k for which the equation - kx + k = 0 has two real roots.
A. k = 2
B. -2 < k < 2
C. k < - 2 or k > 2
D. – 2 ≤ k ≤ 2

59. A company’s profits increased by 12% from 2010 to 2011 and by 18% from
2011 to 2012. By what percent did the company’s profits increase from 2010 to
2012?
A. 37%
B. 54%
C. 12% D. 32%

60. Solve for x: 92x + 5 = 81x + 1

A. - 4
B. 4
C. 1
D. no solution

61. What is the average of the solution set of the inequality |−2x + 4| < 6?
A. -2
B. -3
C. 2 D. 3

Answer questions number 62 to 66 using the description below.

Ann, Bill, Carl, and Dan
work in the same office building. Dan works in the basement while Ann, Bill, and
Carl share an office on level X. At any given moment of the day, they are all typing
at their desks.
Bill likes a window seat; Ann likes to be near the bathroom; and Carl prefers a
seat next to the door. Their three cubicles do not line up.

62. Level X can also be called

A. Plane Ann, Bill, and Carl.
B. Plane Ann and Bill.
C. Plane Dan.
D. Plane Carl, X, and Bill.

63. If level X represents a plane, then level X has A. no points.

B. only three points.
C. a finite set of points.
D. an infinite set of points extending infinitely.

101
64. If Ann and Bill represent points, then Point Ann
A. has depth and length, but no width; and is noncollinear with point
Bill.
B. has depth, but no length and width; and is noncollinear with point
Bill.
C. has depth, but no length and width; and is collinear with point
Bill.
D. has no depth, length, and width; and is collinear with point Bill.

65. If Ann, Bill, and Carl represent points, then Points Ann, Bill, and
Carl are
A. collinear and noncoplanar.
B. noncollinear and coplanar.
C. noncollinear and noncoplanar.
D. collinear and coplanar.

66. A line segment drawn between Carl and Dan is A. collinear and
noncoplanar.
B. noncollinear and coplanar.
C. noncollinear and noncoplanar.
D. collinear and coplanar.

67. Which term of the arithmetic sequence 2, 5, 8... is equal to 227?

A. 74th term
B. 75th term
C. 76th term D. 77th term

68. How many consecutive odd integers of an arithmetic sequence, starting from 9,
must be added in order to obtain a sum of 15,860?
A. 119
B. 120
C. 121 D. 122

69. The semicircle of area 1250 pi centimeters is inscribed inside a rectangle. The
diameter of the semicircle coincides with the length of the rectangle. Find the area
of the rectangle.
A. 1500
B. 5000
C. 4500 D. 2500

70. Which of these numbers cannot be a probability?

A. -0.00001
B. 0.5
C. 0 D. 1

71. The blood groups of 200 people is distributed as follows: 50 have type A
blood, 65 have B blood type, 70 have O blood type and 15 have type AB blood.

102
If a person from this group is selected at random, what is the probability that this
person has O blood type? A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 0.35
D. 0.45

72. A number, x, is decreased by 40% then increased by 25%. What is the final
result in terms of x?
A. 0.55x
B. 0.65x
C. 0.7x
D. 0.75x

73. The expression (x + y) [z − (x − y)] is equivalent to which of the following?

A. xz – x2 + 2xy + y2
B. xz – x2 + yz + y2
C. xyz + y2 − xy + yz + y2
D. xz + x2 − yz – y2

74. There are 32 marbles in a jar: 14 blue, 10 red, 5 green, and 3 yellow. Sally pulls
one marble, randomly, from the jar. Without replacing the marble, she pulls another
marble. What is the probability that both marbles will be red?
A.
B.
C.
D.

75. If x + y = 7 andn x – y = 3, what is x2 – y2 = ?

A. 4
B. 21
C. 25
D. 36

76. The circumference of a large wedding cake is 60 inches. If the cake is divided
evenly into 12 slices, what is the length of the arc, in inches, made by 5 combined
slices?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20 D. 25

77. If ƒ(x) = x2 + 2x + 2, what is ƒ(x + h)?

A. x2 + 2x + 2xh + 2h + h2 + 2
B. 2x2 + 4hx + h2 − 2x − 2h
C. x + h2 + 2xh + 2 + h
D. x2 + 4xh + 4h2 + 2x

103
78. In the figure below, lines d and f are parallel and the angle measures are as
given. What is the value of x?

A. 35 B. 60
C. 85
D. 100

79. Which of the following represents the equation of the line that passes through the
point (2, 3) with a slope of −⅓?
A. y = 2x + 4
B. y = 4x + 2
C. y = -
D. y = -

80. What is the sum of the x and y coordinates of the midpoint between the points
(−2, 9) and (10, −4)?
A. 3.5
B. 5
C. 6.5 D. 7.5

81. A group of 6 students are going to have a vote to determine who should be
President, Vice
President, Secretary, and Treasurer with only 1 person per job. How many different
groups can be formed from the 6 students?
A. 100
B. 250
C. 180 D. 360

82. In the figure below, A, C, D, and E are collinear; B, C, and F are collinear; and
the angles at B, D, and F are right angles, as marked. Which of the following
statements is NOT justifiable from the given information?

104
A. AB is parallel to EF.
B. BC is congruent to CF.
C. EF is perpendicular to BF.
D. Triangle BAC is similar to triangle DCF.

83. A triangle is composed of angles represented as: 3x + 10, −2x + 40, and x + 40.
What is the value of x?
A. 45
B. 50
C. 55 D. 60

84. If the number 89.8756 is rounded to the nearest hundredth, what will be the
sum of the tenths and hundredths place of the resulting number?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16 D. 20

85. The sum of 4 consecutive even integers is 36, what is the 3rd largest integer in
the set?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10 D. 12

86. A company will be using a pie chart to represent the total expenditures of its
various departments. If the breakdown of its expenditures is as follows: 19%
Research and Development, 33%
Marketing, 22% Payroll. If the remaining expenditures represent $12,250, what is the
dollar amount spent on Research and Development (Round to nearest unit)?
A. 8952
B. 7488
C. 8289 D. 5690

87. Solve for x: log 16x = log81

A. 0
B. 3
C. 16 D. 20

105
88. The diameter of a sphere measures 5 inches. If a cube is inscribed inside
the sphere, sharing its diagonal with the sphere’s diameter, what is the side
length of the cube? A. 5 in.
B. in.
C. in.
D. 3 in.

89. Find the sum of the series 91 + 85 + 79 + 73 + … + (-29).

A. 144
B. - 144
C. 651
D. – 651

90. What is the median of the first 100 non-negative integers?

A. 49
B. 49.5
C. 50
D. 50.5

91. What are the x-intercepts of the function ƒ(x) = x³ + 3x² − x − 3 ?

A. -3, -1, 1
B. -3, 0, 1
C. 0, 3
D. -3, 0

92. How many different ways can five students be seated in a round table?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 24 D. 25

93. If the ratio of milk cartons to juice boxes is 13:x and there are 39 milk cartons
and 18 juice boxes, what is the value of x?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12

94. Give the simplest form of

A. 0
B. 1
C. - 1
D. tan

95. If a = −1 and b = 4, what is the difference between a 3b + 3b and a3b +

3b0?
A. 5

106
B. -3
C. 9 D. 6

96. 4xyz * 2x 2 * z
The equation above is equivalent to which of the following?
A.
B. C.

D.

97. What the ratio of the perimeters of two similar polygon if the ratio of their areas
is 64 : 729?
A. 2 : 3
B. 4 : 9
C. 8 : 27
D. 16 : 81

98. If the average of a and b equals the average of a, b, and c then express c in
terms of a and b.
A. a + b B. 2 (a + b)
C.
D.

99. Rita is selling concert tickets. She sold 4 to her cousins, then gave half of what
she had left to her brother for him to sell. She sold twelve more to her friends and
had 15 tickets left to sell. How many tickets did she have in all?
A. 57
B. 58
C. 59
D. 60

100. Jane had only candies after giving some of them to her playmates. She
gave one-sixth to Catherine, two-fifths to Farah, and pieces to Wendy. How
many candies did Jane originally have?
A.

B.

C.

D.

107
108