31.1.1.

1 (1489)
The centre of gravity of a body is that point
a) through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to
act.
b) where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to
zero.
c) where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
d) which is always used as datum when computing moments.
31.1.1.1 (1490)
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of
the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a direction
a) parallel to the gravity vector.
b) always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis.
c) at right angles to the flight path.
d) governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane.
31.1.1.1 (1491)
When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically
a) through its centre of gravity.
b) through its centre of pressure.
c) through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly.
d) through a point defined as the datum point.
31.1.1.1 (1492)
The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act
a) vertically through the centre of gravity.
b) vertically through the centre of pressure.
c) vertically through the datum point.
d) always along the vertical axis of the aeroplane.
31.1.1.1 (1493)
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane
a) can be allowed to move between defined limits.
b) may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aeroplane's
certificate of airworthiness.
c) is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aeroplane loading.
d) must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.
31.1.1.1 (1494)
The centre of gravity is the
a) point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated
b) centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
c) focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
d) neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
31.1.1.2 (1495)
What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ?
a) The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point.
b) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab.
c) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
d) The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.
31.1.1.2 (1496)
When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be :
a) extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
b) extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
c) extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
d) extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
31.1.1.2 (1497)
If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator
control will :
a) become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch
b) become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch.
c) become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
d) become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
31.1.1.2 (1498)
An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will
result in :
a) an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment
b) a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag.
c) an increase in longitudinal stability.
d) a reduction in power required for a given speed.

(1499)
During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates
much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that :
a) the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
b) the aeroplane is overloaded.
c) the centre of gravity is too far forward.
d) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
31.1.1.2 (1500)
If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will:
a) require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption.
b) benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack.
c) require less power for a given airspeed.
d) tend to over rotate during take-off.
31.1.1.2 (1501)
An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to:
a) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit.
b) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit.
c) be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity.
d) cause the centre of gravity to move forwards.
31.1.2.0 (1502)
The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:
a) high gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
b) low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
c) low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
d) high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
31.1.2.0 (1503)
With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be
expected?
a) A decrease in range.
b) A decrease in the landing speed.
c) A decrease of the stalling speed.
d) A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.

Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density
of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are
carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aeroplane is
a) lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
b) lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low
c) heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
d) heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low.
31.2.4.1 (1630)
An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is
not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than
expected and calculated take-off safety speeds
a) will give reduced safety margins.
b) will not be achieved.
c) will be greater than required.
d) are unaffected but V1 will be increased.
31.2.4.1 (1631)
Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load
and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they
will notice that
a) speed at un-stick will be higher than expected
b) V1 will be reached sooner than expected
c) V1 will be increased.
d) the aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected.
31.2.4.1 (1632)
When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the
following is true?
a) Stalling speeds will be higher.
b) Stalling speeds will be lower.
c) Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
d) Flight endurance will be increased.
31.2.4.2 (1633)
A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at
destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The
landing mass will be higher than planned and
a) the landing distance required will be longer.
b) the landing distance will be unaffected.
c) the approach path will be steeper.
d) the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.
31.2.4.4 (1634)
If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle
of attack will
a) be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.
b) be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.
c) remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease.
d) remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.
31.2.4.4 (1635)
In order to provide an adequate ""buffet boundary"" at the commencement of the
cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots.
If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be
a) increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will
decrease.
b) unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack.
c) increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase.
d) increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will
remain the same.
31.2.4.6 (1636)
The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest:Performance
limited take-off mass 93500 kgExpected landing mass at destination 81700
kgMaximum certificated landing mass 86300 kgFuel on board 16500 kgDuring the
flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is not 'performance
limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is 10300 kg. The landing mass
a) is 87300 kg and excess structural stress could result
b) is 83200 kg which is in excess of the regulated landing mass and could result in
overrunning the runway
c) must be reduced to 81700 kg in order to avoid a high speed approach.
d) is 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is a diversion and not a normal
scheduled landing.
31.2.4.6 (1637)
At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which
is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number
one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the
aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely
result of this action will be
a) a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure.
b) a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.
c) a landing further along the runway than normal.
d) a landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very high
aeroplane mass.

Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle
of climb?
a) Weight, drag and thrust.
b) Weight and drag only.
c) Thrust and drag only.
d) Weight and thrust only.
32.1.3.0 (1765)
How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing
altitude?
a) Both decrease.
b) Both increase.
c) Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
d) Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
32.1.3.0 (1766)
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
a) the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
b) the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.
c) true airspeed to rate of climb.
d) rate of climb to true airspeed.
32.1.3.0 (1767)
A higher outside air temperature
a) reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
b) increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
c) does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
d) reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.
32.1.3.0 (1768)
A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind
condition, (assuming IAS is constant)
a) has no effect on rate of climb.
b) does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
c) improves angle and rate of climb.
d) decreases angle and rate of climb.
32.1.3.0 (1769)
A constant headwind
a) increases the angle of the descent flight path.
b) increases the angle of descent.
c) increases the rate of descent.
d) increases the descent distance over ground.
32.1.3.0 (1770)
A constant headwind component
a) increases the angle of flight path during climb.
b) increases the best rate of climb.
c) decreases the angle of climb.
d) increases the maximum endurance.
32.1.3.1 (1771)
(For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.1)An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is
reproduced in annex.Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runwayActual
conditions are:pressure altitude: 1 500 ftoutside tempereature: +18°Cwind
component: 4 knots tailwindFor a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance
will be:
a) 525 m
b) 415 m
c) 440 m
d) 615 m
32.1.3.1 (1772)
(For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given :O.A.T.: ISA
+16°CPressure altitude: 4000 ftPower: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM
a) 865 NM
b) 739 NM
c) 851 NM
d) 911 NM
32.1.3.1 (1773)
(For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions:Given :O.A.T.: ISA
-15°C Pressure altitude: 12000 ftPower: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM
a) 902 NM
b) 875 NM
c) 860 NM
d) 908 NM

33.2.1.1 (2182)
A ""current flight plan"" is a :
a) filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included.
b) filed flight plan.
c) flight plan with the correct time of departure.
d) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between
aeroplane and ATC.
33.2.1.1 (2183)
Which of the following statements regarding filing a flight plan is correct?
a) In case of flow control the flight plan should be filed at least three hours in
advance of the time of departure.
b) Any flight plan should be filed at least 10 minutes before departure.
c) A flight plan should be filed when a national FIR boundary will be crossed.
d) A flying college can file repetitive flight plan for VFR flights.
33.2.1.1 (2184)
In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet
would be entered as :
a) F320
b) FL320
c) S3200
d) 32000
33.2.1.1 (2185)
When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes,
points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than
:
a) 30 minutes flying time or 370 km
b) 20 minutes flying time or 150 km
c) 15 minutes flying time or 100 km
d) 1 hour flying time or 500 km
33.2.1.1 (2186)
In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as :
a) N0470
b) KN470
184
In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the
departure time entered is the :
a) estimated off-block time
b) estimated time over the first point en route
c) estimated take-off time
d) allocated slot time
33.2.1.1 (2188)
In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach
number, cruising speed is expressed as :
a) TAS
b) IAS
c) CAS
d) Groundspeed
33.2.1.1 (2189)
For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular
basis on at least :
a) 10 occasions
b) 20 occasions
c) 30 occasions
d) 50 occasions
33.2.1.1 (2190)
In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a
serviceable transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is :
a) C
b) B
c) A
d) P
33.2.1.1 (2191)
(For this question use annex 033-11261A)Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the
ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 13: ""Time""
is:
a) estimated off-block time.
b) planned take-off time.
c) planned engine start time.
d) the time of flight plan filing.
33.2.1.1 (2192)
(For this question use annex 033-11262A)Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the
ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 16: ""Total
estimated time"" is the time elapsed from:
a) take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination
aerodrome.
b) taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing.
c) take-off until landing.
d) taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.
33.2.1.1 (2193)
(For this question use annex 033-12275A)In the ATS flight plan Item 10,
""standard equipment"" is considered to be :
a) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILS
b) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponder
c) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder
d) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder
33.2.1.1 (2194)
(For this question use annex 033-12276A)In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a
flight along a designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on or
connected to that route :
a) the letters ""DCT"" should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS
route
b) it is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route
c) the words ""as cleared"" should be entered
d) it is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the ATS
unit.
33.2.1.1 (2195)
(For this question use annex 033-12277A)In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed
by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight plan will the SELCAL
code be entered ?
a) OTHER INFORMATION
b) EQUIPMENT
c) ROUTE
d) AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION
33.2.1.1 (2196)
An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating
at take-off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence
category is :
a) heavy ""H""
b) heavy/medium ""H/M""
c) medium ""M""
d) medium plus ""M+""
33.2.1.1 (2197)
For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an
aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :
a) medium ""M""
b) heavy ""H""
c) light ""L""
d) unclassified ""U""
33.2.1.1 (2198)
(For this question use annex 033-12280A)When completing Item 9 of the ATS
flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be
185
entered :
a) ""ZZZZ"" followed by an entry in Item 18
b) ""XXXX"" followed by an entry in Item 18
c) the most descriptive abbreviation
d) ""NONE""
33.2.1.1 (2199)
(For this question use annex 033-12281A)Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes
""NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT"". In this case ""NUMBER"" means :
a) the number of aircraft flying in a group
b) the registration number of the aircraft
c) the number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight plan (RPL)
d) the ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc 8643
33.2.1.1 (2200)
When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55
minutes should be entered as :
a) 155
b) 1H55
c) 115M
d) 115
33.2.1.1 (2201)
When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to
be expressed in :
a) UTC
b) Local mean time
c) local standard time
d) Central European Time
33.2.1.1 (2202)
In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters
schould be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight) :
a) N
b) N/S
c) G
d) X
33.2.1.1 (2203)
(For this question use annex 033-12285A)In the ATS flight plan item 7, for a radio
equipped aircraft, the identifier must always :
a) be the RTF callsign to be used
b) include the aircraft registration marking
c) include the operating agency designator
d) include an indication of the aircraft type
33.2.1.1 (2204)
In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change
of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a ""change of speed"" is defined as :
a) 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more
b) 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more
c) 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more
d) 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more
33.2.1.1 (2205)
In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure
(SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist :
a) both should be entered in the ATS plan where appropriate
b) SIDs should be entered but not STARs
c) STARS should be entered but not SIDs
d) neither SID nor STAR should be entered
33.2.1.1 (2206)
(For this question use annex 033-12289A)In the ATS flight plan Item 19,
emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by :
a) crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried
b) circling the relevant box
c) placing a tick in the relevant box
d) listing the items carried on the ""REMARKS"" line
33.2.1.1 (2207)
When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly
changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be :
a) Y
b) N/S
c) G
d) X
33.2.1.1 (2208)
In the ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is not
known when the plan is ready for filing :
a) ""TBN"" (to be notified) may be entered in the relevant box
b) the plan should be filed with the relevant box blank
c) an estimate may be entered but that number may not subsequently be exceeded
d) the plan may not be filed until the information is available
33.2.1.1 (2209)
In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and
distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of :
a) VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles
b) VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometres
c) VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometres
d) full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres
33.2.1.1 (2210)
An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at
1215 UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with
:
a) EDDM 0215
b) EDDM 1415
c) EDDM 1215
d) EDDM 2H15
186
33.2.1.1 (2211)
In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a
significant point at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as :
a) 4135N00415E
b) 41°35' N 04° 15'E
c) N04135E0415
d) N4135 E00415
33.2.2.0 (2212)
An aeroplane is flying from an airport to another.In cruise, the calibrated airspeed
is I50 kt, true airspeed 180 kt, average groundspeed 210 kt, the speed box on the
filed flight plan shall be filled as follows:
a) N0180
b) K0210
c) K0180
d) K0150
33.2.2.0 (2213)
On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box marked ""speed"" the
planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise.This speed is:
a) The true airspeed
b) The equivalent airspeed
c) The indicated airspeed
d) The estimated ground speed
33.2.2.0 (2214)
In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be
used to indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes
transponder with altitude reporting capability is :
a) C
b) P
c) S
d) A
33.2.2.0 (2215)
In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time of
departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to :
a) go off blocks
b) take-off
c) start-up
d) pass the departure beacon
33.2.2.0 (2216)
When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category.
This category is a function of which mass?
a) maximum certified take-off mass
b) estimated take-off mass
c) maximum certified landing mass
d) actual take-off mass
33.2.2.0 (2217)
If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your
flight plan, you write:
a) ZZZZ
b) AAAA
c) XXXX
d) ////
33.2.2.0 (2218)
The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a flight plan is:
a) true air speed
b) indicated air speed
c) ground speed
d) calibrated air speed
33.2.2.0 (2219)
In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time
corresponding to:
a) the total usable fuel on board
b) the required fuel for the flight
c) the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes
d) the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel
33.2.2.0 (2220)
The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence
category on a flight plan is:
a) 7 000 kg
b) 2 700 kg
c) 5 700 kg
d) 10 000 kg
33.2.2.1 (2221)
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg, maximum landing mass
56200 kg, maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg, dry operating mass 35 500 kg,
estimated load 14 500 kg, estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg, minimum take-off fuel 7
400 kg.Find: maximum additional load
a) 3 000 kg
b) 4 000 kg
c) 7 000 kg
d) 5 600 kg
33.2.2.1 (2222)
The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 100 kgFlight time: 1h35minTaxi fuel: 3
kgBlock fuel: 181 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
a) 2h 49min
b) 1h 35min
c) 2h 04min
d) 2h 52min
33.2.2.1 (2223)
The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 136 kgFlight time: 2h45minCalculated reserve

fuel: 30% of trip fuelFuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on board)Taxi fuel: 3
kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
a) 3h34min
b) 2h45min
c) 2h49min
d) 3h38min
33.2.3.1 (2224)
How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the
case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
a) 3:00 hours.
b) 1:00 hour.
c) 0:30 hours.
d) 0:10 hours.
33.2.3.1 (2225)
You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is noted
that you will deviate from the ATS route passing the FIR boundary
Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: Cleared to London via flight
planned route.Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The route according to the flight plan is accepted.
b) The filed deviation is not accepted.
c) You will get a separate clearance for the deviation.
d) It is not allowed to file such a flight plan.
33.2.3.1 (2226)
The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTCThe estimated takeoff
time is 1825 UTCThe IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at:
a) 1715 UTC
b) 1725 UTC
c) 1745 UTC
d) 1755 UTC
33.2.3.1 (2227)
It is possible, in flight, to:1 - file an IFR flight plan2 - modify an active IFR or VFR
flight plan3 - cancel an active VFR flight plan4 - close an active VFR flight
planWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
b) 2001-02-04
c) 1 - 2 - 3
d) 2 - 3 - 4
33.2.3.1 (2228)
For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is:
a) the estimated off-block time
b) the time at which the flight plan is filed.
c) the time of take-off.
d) the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off.
33.2.3.3 (2229)
From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan
notification:I - Any Public Transport flight.2 - Any IFR flight3 - Any flight which is
to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the
Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue.4 - Any cross-border
flights5 - Any flight which involves overflying water
a) 2+4
b) 1+5
c) 1+2+3
d) 3+4+5
33.2.4.0 (2230)
If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in
the flight plan, he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is
informed within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination.
This number of minutes is:
a) 30
b) 15
c) 10
d) 45
33.2.5.1 (2231)
When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan
should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by
:
a) 30 minutes or more
b) 45 minutes or more
c) 60 minutes or more
d) 90 minutes or more
33.2.5.2 (2232)
During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight
plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform
to PANS-RAC, are:
a) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes.
b) TAS 3% and time 3 minutes.
c) TAS 5 kt and time 5 minutes.
d) TAS 10 kt and time 2 minutes.
33.2.5.2 (2233)
An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is it
possible?
a) Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase ""cancelling my
IFR flight"".
b) No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan.
c) No, only ATC can order you to do this.
d) Yes, but only with permission from ATC.
33.3.0.0 (2234)
An executive pilot is to carry out a flight to a French aerodrome, spend the night
there and return the next day. Where will he find the information concerning
parking and landing fees ?
a) in the FAL section of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
33.3.2.1 (2243)
A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt
tailwind. What is the still air distance?
a) 406 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
b) 499 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
c) 414 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
d) 511 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
33.3.2.1 (2244)
The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30
minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
a) 174 NM
b) 203 NM
c) 188 NM
d) 193 NM