Agriculture and Fisher Arts Questionnaires

REVIEWER: AGRICULTURE AND FISHERY ARTS
1. It refers to the art and science of systematic production of useful plants and animals for
man’s use and
consumption through human management.
a) Agriculture
b) Farming
c) Horticulture
d) Olericulture
2. It refers to the art and science of growing vegetables, fruits, ornamental plants for
landscape gardening, and
other plantation crops.
a) Agriculture
b) Farming
c) Horticulture
d) Olericulture
3. The cultivation of land for the production of crops, the raising of farm animals for egg, milk
and meat, the
production of fruit and other horticultural and agronomic crops.
a) Agriculture
b) Farming
c) Horticulture
d) Olericulture
4. The following are the importance of agriculture EXCEPT

a) Key to economic advancement
b) Key to unhealthy biosphere
c) Production for raw materials for industries
d) Source of foreign exchange (export and import)
5. The following are divisions of horticulture EXCEPT

a) Olericulture
b) Pomology
c) Floriculture
d) Farm Engineering
6. Multicellular organisms that typically produce their own food from inorganic matter
through the process of
photosynthesis.
a) Mushroom
b) Animals
c) Plants
d) Human
7. The following are importance of plants EXCEPT

a) Source of food, shelter, and medicine
b) Slow the wind speed
c) Some plants become weeds and invasive
d) Source of raw materials for the industry
8. The following are negative effects of plants EXCEPT

a) Some plants are toxic
b) Plants’ pollen evokes allergic reactions
c) Some plants become invasive
d) Slow the wind speed
9. The part of plant that absorbs water and nutrients.

a) Root
b) Stem
c) Leaf
d) Flower
10. The following are the functions of root EXCEPT

a) Anchor the plant in place
b) Transports water and nutrients to the stem
c) Stores food and water
d) Transport system for the water and minerals coming from the ground
11. Type of root system wherein primary root grows down from the stem with some
small secondary roots forming.
a) Primary root system
b) Secondary root system
c) Tap root system
d) Fibrous root system
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12. Type of root system wherein small lateral roots that spread out just below the
soil’s surface.
a) Primary root system
b) Secondary root system
c) Tap root system
d) Fibrous root system
13. The part of the roots that provides protection for the root tip.
a) Cortex
b) Root Cap
c) Root Hair
d) Testa
14. The part of the roots considered to be the site of absorption.

a) Epidermis
b) Cortex
c) Root hair
d) Vascular tissue
15. The part of the roots which stores starch and other substances necessary for
the growth of the roots.
a) Epidermis
b) Cortex
c) Root hair
d) Vascular tissue
16. The part of the plant wherein it serves as transport system for water and
minerals coming from the ground.
a) Root
b) Stem
c) Leaf
d) Flower
17. The following are the functions of the stem EXCEPT

a) Support the leaves and reproductive structures
b) Used for food storage
c) Used for reproduction of plants
d) Brown stems manufacture food just as leaves do
18. A type of stem which is usually soft and bendable.

a) Woody
b) Herbaceous
c) Aggregate
d) Simple
19. A type of stem which is hard and cannot bend easily.

a) Woody
b) Herbaceous
c) Aggregate
d) Simple
20. An external stem structure which consider to be an area from where side
branches and leaves develop
a) Node
b) Internode
c) Lenticles
d) Leaf scar
21. External stem structures which consider as small holes located in the stem.
a) Node
b) Internode
c) Lenticles
d) Leaf scar
22. An internal stem structure which carries manufactured foods down.

a) Phloem
b) Xylem
c) Cambium
d) Lenticles
23. An internal stem structure which produces all new cells. It al also separate
the phloem and xylem.
a) Node
b) Internode
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c) Cambium
d) Lenticles
24. An internal stem structure which carries water and minerals up.
a) Phloem
b) Xylem
c) Cambium
d) Lenticles
25. It is consider being the manufacturing organ of the plant.

a) Root
b) Stem
c) Leaf
d) Flower
26. The following are the functions of leaf EXCEPT

a) Conducts photosynthesis
b) Conducts transpiration
c) Conducts perspiration
d) Storage of water of succulent plants
27. The process of losing water and exchange of carbon dioxide in leaves.
a) Photosynthesis
b) Transpiration
c) Perspiration
d) Carbonization
28. The process that allows plants to take energy from the sun and create
sugars.
a) Photosynthesis
b) Transpiration
c) Perspiration
d) Carbonization
29. Leaf serves many functions to the plants such
a) Serves as defense system in some plants
b) Serves as defense system to all kinds of plants
c) Server as anchorage to all kinds of plants
d) Serves as storage of water all kinds of plants
30. The type of leaf which has undivided blade with a single auxiliary bud at the
base of its petiole.
a) Simple leaf
b) Compound leaf
c) Peltate leaves
d) Perfoliate leaves
31. The type of leaf wherein the petioles are attached to the middle of the blade.
a) Simple leaf
b) Compound leaf
c) Peltate leaves
32. The type of leaf wherein the blade is divided into leaflets.
a) Simple leaf
b) Compound leaf
c) Peltate leaves
33. The type of leaf wherein the sessile leaves surrounds and are pierced by
stems.
a) Simple leaf
b) Compound leaf
c) Peltate leaves
34. The main body of the leaf.

a) Apex
b) Petiole
c) Blade
d) Stipule
35. The large central vein of the leaf.

a) Midrib
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b) Petiole
c) Blade
d) Stipule
36. The two appendages at the base of the petiole of the leaf.
a) Midrib
b) Petiole
c) Blade
d) Stipule
37. It is responsible for gas and water exchange in the leaf.

a) Stipule
b) Epidermis
c) Stomata
d) Mesophyll
38. The opening in epidermis where gas and water exchange.
a) Stipule
b) Epidermis
c) Stomata
d) Mesophyll
39. The middle layer of the leaf where photosynthesis occurs.

a) Stipule
b) Epidermis
c) Stomata
d) Mesophyll
40. It refers to arrangement of leaves on a stem.

a) Venation
b) Phyllotaxy
c) Whorled
d) Basal
41. The following are types of phyllotaxy of leaves EXCEPT

a) Opposite
b) Alternate
c) Basal
d) Palmate
42. It refers to the arrangement of veins in a leaf.

a) Venation
b) Phyllotaxy
c) Whorled
d) Basal
43. Characterized for having one or few prominent mid-veins from which
smaller minor veins branch into a meshed network.
a) Netted-venation
b) Parallel venation
c) Dichotomous venation
d) Basal venation
44. Veins are parallel to one another and it is characterized of many monocot
plants.
a) Netted-venation
b) Parallel venation
c) Dichotomous venation
d) Basal venation
45. The following are functions of flower EXCEPT

a) Facilitate pollination
b) Give rise to fruit and seeds
c) Attracts animal to be vectors for the transfer of pollen
d) Used by humans only for beautification
46. The female part of a flower.

a) Stamen
b) Petals
c) Pistil
d) Corolla
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47. The male part of a flower.

a) Stamen
b) Petals
c) Pistil
d) Corolla
48. The sticky surface at the end of the pistil that catches the pollen.
a) Style
b) Stigma
c) Ovary
d) Ovule
49. It is where the eggs are produced and seeds develop.

a) Style
b) Stigma
c) Ovary
d) Ovule
50. It produces and holds the pollen.

a) Anther
b) Filament
c) Corolla
d) Sepals
51. The stalk that holds up the anther.

a) Filament
b) Sepals
c) Pedicel
d) Receptacle
52. It refers to the collection of petals in a flower.

a) Filament
b) Corolla
c) Calyx
d) Pedicel
53. It refers to the small green structures on the base that protect the flower bud.
a) Filament
b) Sepals
c) Pedicel
d) Receptacle
54. The place where floral organs are attached and originate.
a) Corolla
b) Calyx
c) Sepals
d) Receptacle
55. It refers to the stem of the flower.
a) Filament
b) Sepals
c) Pedicel
d) Receptacle
56. It refers to the collection of petals in a flower.

a) Corolla
b) Calyx
c) Sepals
d) Receptacle
57. A classification of flower characterized by having all the four (4) basic parts.
a) Complete flower
b) Incomplete flower
c) Perfect flower
d) Imperfect flower
58. A classification of flower characterized by missing one of the four basic parts.
a) Complete flower
c) Perfect flower
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d) Imperfect flower
59. A classification of flower characterized by having stamen and pistil.

a) Complete flower
c) Perfect flower
d) Imperfect flower
60. A classification of flower characterized by lacking one sex structure.

a) Complete flower
c) Perfect flower
d) Imperfect flower
61. Type of flower wherein stamen and pistil found in separate flowers on the
same plant.
a) Complete flower
c) Monoceious
d) Dioecious
62. Type of flower wherein male flowers found on one plant and female flowers
found on another plant.
a) Complete flower
c) Monoceious
d) Dioecious
63. The classification of fruit that develops from a single flower with many ovaries
example of this is strawberry.
a) Aggregate
b) Multiple
c) Simple
d) Fleshy
64. The classification of fruit which results from the ripening of a single or
compound ovary in a flower with only one pistil.
a) Aggregate
b) Multiple
c) Simple
d) Fleshy
65. The classification of fruit that develops from a group of tightly clustered
flowers.
a) Aggregate
b) Multiple
c) Simple
d) Fleshy
66. The product of the ripened ovule of gymnosperm and angiosperm plants
which occurs after fertilization.
a) Flower
b) Roots
c) Seed
d) Stem
67. The structure of seed wherein an immature plant from which a new plant
grow under proper conditions.
a) Cotyledon
b) Embryo
c) Hilum
d) Micropyle
68. It protects the seed from fungi, bacteria, and insects.

a) Cotyledon
b) Embryo
c) Hilum
d) Testa
69. A tiny pore in the testa opposite the tip of the radicle.
a) Cotyledon
b) Embryo
c) Hilum
d) Micropyle
70. It admits water to the embryo before the active germination.

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a) Cotyledon
b) Radicle
c) Hilum
d) Micropyle
71. The following are the importance of plant classification EXCEPT

a) Simplifies plant collection initiatives, research, breeding and specialized
development efforts.
b) Important due to commonality of some diseases.
c) Indicates that these crops have no similar uses, adaptation, growth habits
and method of culture.
d) Standardized botanical names facilitate efficient communication,
dissemination and retrieval of scientific information.
72. The mode of reproduction wherein plants reproduce by any

vegetative means without the union of sexual gametes.
a) Sexual
b) Asexual
c) Bisexual
d) Multi-sexual
73. The mode of pollination wherein both pollen and embryo sac are in
the same floral structure or in different flowers but within the same plant.
a) Naturally self-pollinated crops
b) Naturally cross-pollinated crops
c) Naturally multi-pollinated crops
d) Naturally aggregate-pollinated crops
74. The mode of pollination wherein pollen transfer from the anther of one
flower to the stigma of another flower in a separate plant.
a) Naturally self-pollinated crops
b) Naturally cross-pollinated crops
c) Naturally multi-pollinated crops
d) Naturally aggregate-pollinated crops
75. The plants which germinate, grow flower, produce seeds and die
soon after producing seeds all in one season.
a) Annual
b) Biennial
c) Perennial
d) None of the above
76. Plants that live indefinitely, they grow and produce seeds year after year.
a) Annual
b) Biennial
c) Perennial
77. Plants that require two (2) growing seasons to complete its life cycle,
the first for the vegetative growth and accumulation of food reserves and
second for the production of reproductive parts.
a) Annual
b) Biennial
c) Perennial
78. The plants is classified in terms of growth habit where succulent plants with
self-supporting stems.
a) Vines
b) Herbs
c) Lianas
d) Shrubs
79. The plants is classified in terms of growth habit where herbaceous

climbing plants without self-supporting stems.
a) Vines
b) Herbs
c) Lianas
d) Shrubs
80. The plants is classified in terms of growth habit where woody plants
which depends on other plants for vertical support to climb.
a) Vines
b) Herbs
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c) Lianas
d) Shrubs
81. The plants is classified in terms of growth habit characterized for

being small, erect, woody plants which produce several trunk from the
base, considered to be tree-like plants.
a) Vines
b) Herbs
c) Lianas
d) Shrubs
82. Plants having erect and continuous growth with large development
tissues with a single distinct stem or trunk.
a) Vines
b) Trees
c) Lianas
d) Shrubs
83. Plants that maintain their leaves throughout the year, abscised
leaves are continually replaced by new flushes.
a) Evergreen
b) Deciduous
c) Monociduous
d) Polyciduous
84. Plants adapted to growing in water or waterlogged soil.

a) Hydrophyte
b) Epiphyte
c) Halophyte
d) Lithophyte
85. Plants that grown on rocks or on rocky terrain with little humus,
absorbing nutrients from the atmosphere, rain and decaying matter which
accumulate on rocks.
a) Mesophyte
b) Epiphyte
c) Halophyte
d) Lithophyte
86. Plants that grow above grounds on another plant but are not parasitic,
usually deriving only physical support from the host and obtaining
nourishment from the air and other sources.
a) Mesophyte
b) Epiphyte
c) Halophyte
d) Lithophyte
87. Plants that grow in habits excessively rich in salts or under saline conditions.
a) Mesophyte
b) Epiphyte
c) Halophyte
d) Lithophyte
88. Terrestrial plants which are adapted to moderate conditions.

a) Epiphyte
b) Halophyte
c) Mesophyte
d) Saprophyte
89. Plants that grow on decaying organic matter and have no green tissue.
a) Sciophyte
b) Halophyte
c) Mesophyte
d) Saprophyte
90. Plants that are adapted to low intensity or shade.

a) Mesophyte
b) Sciophyte
c) Terrestrial
d) Xerophye
91. Plants that are adapted to conditions with little or no water.

a) Mesophyte
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b) Sciophyte
c) Terrestrial
d) Xerophyte
92. These are plants that are useful, grown for a purpose and utilized by man
either directly or indirectly.
a) Crops
b) Weeds
c) Shoots
d) Pods
93. These are plants that grow where they are not wanted and compete
with the intended crop for space, soil, water, nutrients and light.
a) Crops
b) Weeds
c) Shoots
d) Pods
94. These plant are considered and called as field crops, mostly annual
herbaceous plants that are grown under extensive or large-scale culture.
a) Horticultural crops
b) Agronomic crops
c) Staple crops
d) Legume seed crops
95. It referred as garden crops which are grown under an intensive system
of culture, generally utilized with high moisture content and are therefore
perishable.
a) Horticultural crops
b) Agronomic crops
c) Staple crops
d) Legume seed crops
96. These are forage crops grown and managed as vegetable feed for
grazing animals, it is being cut and directly fed to animals.
a) Pasture crops
b) Soilage crops
c) Silage crops
d) Fiber crops
97. These are forage crops grown and managed as vegetable feed for
grazing animals, it cut, fermented and preserved before being fed to
animals.
a) Pasture crops
b) Soilage crops
c) Silage crops
d) Fiber crops
98. These plants are grown for their succulent and edible parts such as
roots, stem, leaves, young tops, fruits or seeds for use in culinary
preparations.
a) Fiber crops
b) Olericultural crops
c) Tannin crops
d) Pomological crops
99. Plants wherein seed crops are utilized in the mature, dry form as food
or feed or processed into various products.
a) Fiber crops
b) Olericultural crops
c) Legume crops / pulses
d) Tannin crops
100. These are vegetables characterized for its edible leaves and heads.
a) Cole crops
b) Cucurbit crops
c) Legume vegetables
d) Solanaceous crops
101. These are plants with modified, swollen root or underground stem
which are commonly used as
staple, livestock feed and as raw materials for industrial purposes.
a) Cole crops
b) Tuberous crops
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c) Legume vegetables
d) Solanaceous crops
102. These are grasses grown for aesthetic purpose in the landscape or
for any outdoor recreational use.
a) Cut flowers
b) Cut foliage
c) Edge crops
d) Turf grasses
103. These are short stature plants grown to serve as barrier between
lawn and garden, and also called
as border plants.
a) Cut flowers
b) Cut foliage
c) Edge crops
d) Turf grasses
104. Aesthetically appealing plants grown in the landscape to suppress

weed growth and to control soil
erosion.
a) Ground covers
b) Cut foliage
c) Edge crops
d) Turf grasses
105. These are plants grown at the edges of pathways or boundaries

and continuously pruned to knee-
high height or upper but below eye level.
a) Hedges
b) Cut foliage
c) Edge crops
d) Turf grasses
106. Crop which is intended by the grower to become his main source of
income.
a) Cash crop
b) Main crop
c) Intercrop
d) Relay crop
107. Crop which is planted simultaneously with or before the flowering

season of the main crop.
a) Main crop
b) Intercrop
c) Relay crop
d) Ratoon crop
108. Crop which is planted to fill a gap, usually of different variety species.
a) Intercrop
b) Relay crop
c) Ratoon crop
a) Filler crop
109. The crop which is planted after the flowering period or harvest of the
main crop.
a) Intercrop
b) Relay crop
c) Ratoon crop
d) Filler crop
110. The crop consisting of the regrowth from shoots retained on the
plants after harvest.
a) Intercrop
b) Relay crop
c) Ratoon crop
d) Filler crop
111. A leguminous crop grown to be plowed under the soil to increase

organic matter and serve as
organic fertilizer.
a) Intercrop
b) Relay crop
c) Ratoon crop
d) Green manure crop
112. Plant grown to attract insect pests or parasites, acts as decoy to lure
pests away from the main crop.
a) Contour hedgerow crop
b) Dewy crop
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c) Companion crop
d) Catch crop
113. Crop grown mainly to produce green manure and mulch.

a) Contour hedgerow crop
b) Dewy crop
c) Companion crop
d) Catch crop
114. The following are the uses of contour hedgerow crop EXCEPT
a) Serves as firebreak
b) Stabilize the soil
c) To control soil erosion
d) Serves as decoy to lure pests away from the main crop
115. The stage in plant growth where the roots, stem, and leaves develop.
a) Vegetative stage
b) Reproductive stage
c) Production stage
d) Development stage
116. The stage in plant growth where the production of flower and seeds
occur.
a) Vegetative stage
b) Reproductive stage
c) Production stage
d) Development stage
117. The process of multiplying or increasing the population of a

species and
at
the
same time
perpetuating their desirable characteristics.
a) Fertilization
b) Propagation
c) Modification
d) Innovation
118. The following are importance of plant propagation EXCEPT

a) To multiple or increase the number of plants rapidly
b) To retain the undesirable characteristics of mother plant
c) To hasten or improve the bearing age of the plant especially in fruit trees
d) To prevent extinction of plant species
119. The type of propagation using seeds and spores.

a) Sexual propagation
b) Asexual propagation
c) Direct propagation
d) Indirect propagation
120. The type of propagation using the vegetative parts of the mother
plant.
b) Asexual propagation
121. The following are the characteristics of sexual propagation EXCEPT

a) Reproduction of plants with the use of seeds
b) Requires the union of pollen and egg to produce the seed
c) May require years to produce the desired seed
d) Improvement of plant characteristics is not possible.
122. The following are disadvantages of sexual propagation EXCEPT

a) Seedlings have a long juvenile period
b) Due to segregation of characteristics, the progeny is not true-to-type
c) Viruses don’t transmit through seeds, thus mostly seedlings are free from
viruses
d) It is not economical
123. The process by which pollen is transferred in plants.

a) Fertilization
b) Sexual propagation
c) Pollination
d) Modification
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124. The type of pollination that can mediate without the involvement of
other organisms.
a) Perfect pollination
b) Imperfect pollination
c) Abiotic pollination
d) Biotic pollination
125. The type of pollination that requires pollinators which will carry the
pollen grains from the anther to
the receptive part of the pistil.
a) Perfect pollination
b) Imperfect pollination
c) Abiotic pollination
d) Biotic pollination
126. It refers to abiotic pollination where pollination occurs by wind.

a) Anemophily
b) Hydrophily
c) Pyrophily
d) Microphily
127. Pollination occurs in aquatic plants which release their pollen directly
into the surrounding water.
a) Anemophily
b) Hydrophily
c) Pyrophily
d) Microphily
128. It refers to the method of planting seeds wherein seeds are planted
directly into the soil outdoors
where the plants are intended to be grown.
a) Outdoor seeding
b) Phase seeding
c) Direct seeding
d) Indirect seeding
129. It refers to the method of planting wherein seeds are planted indoor
or in protected conditions in
containers or germination medium.
a) Indoor seeding
b) Phase seeding
c) Direct seeding
d) Indirect seeding
130. It refers to the emergence of a new plant from the mature seed.
a) Germination
b) Viability
c) Dormancy
d) Sowing
131. It refers to the ability of a seed to germinate and produce a new plant.
a) Germination
b) Viability
c) Dormancy
d) Sowing
132. It refers to the state in which seeds are prevented from germinating
even under favorable conditions.
a) Germination
b) Viability
c) Dormancy
d) Sowing
133. Development of a new plant naturally or artificially without a use of

seeds.
b) Asexual Propagation
134. The following are the disadvantages of asexual propagation EXCEPT

a) Hybridization is not possible
b) Short life span
c) Conservation and storage require a lot of space and are expensive
d) Some plants do not bear seed
135. A modified underground stem serving as an organ of vegetative

reproduction.
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a) Tubers
b) Rhizome
c) Bulb
d) Corms
136. Underground stem is swollen and the nodal regions are called the
eyes.
a) Tubers
b) Rhizome
c) Bulb
d) Corms
137. Underground stem that is very small and disc-like.

a) Tubers
b) Rhizome
c) Bulb
d) Corms
138. Underground stem which considered being a bulb-like structure.

a) Tubers
b) Rhizome
c) Bulb
d) Corms
139. It refers to a common practice to vegetative propagated cultivars that

have desirable characteristics.
a) Natural Vegetative Propagation
b) Artificial Vegetative Propagation
c) Alternative Vegetation
d) Alternative Propagation
140. The most common method in asexual propagation in propagating

plants.
a) Cutting
b) Layering
c) Grafting
d) Budding
141. Method of asexual propagation which is being done through cutting

a vegetative part with few buds
and placing it under desirable conditions until it resembles a complete plant.
a) Cutting
b) Layering
c) Grafting
d) Budding
142. A piece of stem is partly buried in the soil, including at least one leaf
node.
a) Stem cutting
b) Root cutting
c) Scion cutting
d) Leaf cutting
143. A leaf is placed in a moist soil producing one plant at the base of leaf.
a) Stem cutting
b) Root cutting
c) Scion cutting
d) Leaf cutting
144. Method of asexual propagation wherein roots are induced on the

shoots while they are still attached
to the mother plants.
a) Cutting
b) Layering
c) Grafting
d) Sowing
145. Rooting is done on the shoot itself when it is still attached to the
mother plant.
a) Air layering
b) Simple layering
c) Mound layering
d) Composite layering
146. Rooting is done in the ground while the branch is still attached to the
mother plant.
a) Air layering
b) Simple layering
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c) Mound layering
147. Similar to simple layering but several layers can result from a single
stem.
a) Air layering
b) Tip layering
c) Mound layering
148. Rooting is done on the new shoots from the ground level.
a) Simple layering
b) Tip layering
c) Mound layering
149. Similar to simple layering the difference is the tip of the branch
nearest to the ground is the one
buried.
a) Air layering
b) Tip layering
c) Mound layering
150. Method of asexual propagation wherein two plant parts (scion and
rootstock) are joined together in
such a manner that they unite and continue their growth as one.
a) Layering
b) Marcotting
c) Grafting
d) Cutting
151. The rootstock is approached to the scion, while it is still attached to

the mother plant.
a) Inarching grafting
b) Approach grafting
c) Bark grafting
d) Saddle grafting
152. This is used to bypass a damaged area of a tree trunk.

c) Bark grafting
d) Saddle grafting
153. The most popular way to graft conifers and usually done on potted
rootstock.
b) Side-veneer grafting
c) Bark grafting
d) Saddle grafting
154. This is usually applied to herbaceous material that knit easily, both
the scion and stock must be of
the same diameter.
a) Splice grafting
c) Bark grafting
d) Saddle grafting
155. A deep cleft is made in the end of the scion by two sloping cuts, and
at the end of rootstock is made
wedge-shaped to fit the cleft in the scion.
a) Splice grafting
c) Bark grafting
d) Saddle grafting
156. A grafting technique in which a single bud from the desired scion is
used rather than an entire scion
containing many buds.
c) Bark grafting
d) Budding
157. A grafting technique used on flowering and fruit tress.

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c) Bark grafting
d) Budding
158. A grafting technique commonly used in citrus plants.
c) Bark grafting
d) Budding
159. A grafting technique commonly used on nursery crops and woody

ornamentals.
c) Whip and tongue grafting
d) Budding
160. This technique is similar to splice grafting except that the whip on
the rootstock holds the tongue of
the scion in place.
c) Whip and tongue grafting
d) Budding
161. It refers to the powered tool machine used in farming

a) Farm implements
b) Equipment
c) Hand tools
d) Utilities
162. It refers to the accessories pulled by animals or mounted on a

machinery to make the work easier.
a) Farm implements
b) Equipment
c) Hand tools
d) Machines
163. These are objects that are usually light and are used without the help
of animals and machines.
a) Farm implements
b) Equipment
c) Hand tools
d) Farm materials
164. It is used for tilling large areas, making furrows and inter-row
cultivation.
a) Harrow
b) Rotavator
c) Plow
d) Thresher
165. It is used for tilling and pulverizing the soil and it is mounted to a
tractor.
a) Harrow
b) Rotavator
c) Plow
d) Thresher
166. An implement attached to a tractor and used for tilling and pulverizing
the soil.
a) Harrow
b) Rotavator
c) Plow
d) Thresher
167. The following are ways on reducing the loss of nutrients from the soil
EXCEPT
a) Applying manure
b) Minimizing losses due to erosion
c) Increasing leaching
d) Minimizing losses due to denitrification
168. It refers to the gradual reduction of earth’s surface soil caused by

water and/or wind.
a) Loss of soil fertility
b) Erosion
c) Salanity
d) Weathering
15
169. Erosion where a fairly uniform layer of soil is removed over an entire
surface area.
a) Gully erosion
b) Rill erosion
c) Sheet erosion
d) Bank erosion
170. It occurs where water runs in very small channels over the soil
surface with abrading effect of
transported soil particles causing deeper incision of the channels into the
surface.
a) Gully erosion
b) Rill erosion
c) Sheet erosion
d) Bank erosion
171. Erosion caused by water cutting into the banks of streams and rivers.
a) Gully erosion
b) Rill erosion
c) Sheet erosion
d) Bank erosion
172. It occurs when rills flow together to make larger streams.

a) Gully erosion
b) Rill erosion
c) Sheet erosion
d) Bank erosion
173. The following are ways in controlling erosion EXCEPT

a) Use of cover materials such as trees
b) Strip cropping
c) Terracing of slopes
d) Creating deeper streams
174. It refers to the covering the ground with organic material, such as
crop residues, leaves, or with other
material such as plastic or gravel.
a) Organic material application
b) Mulching
c) Green manuring
d) Cropping system
175. The following are advantages of mulching EXCEPT

a) Helps the soil from forming crust
b) Protects the soil from becoming dehydrated
c) Mulch layer prevents phosphate in chemical fertilizer from getting contact
with the soil particle
d) Helps in seed germination
176. It refers to the ploughing in green, not woody plants or plant parts.
a) Organic material application
b) Mulching
c) Green manuring
d) Cropping system
177. This plant is a valuable source of nitrogen to the soil.

a) Peanut
b) Citrus
c) Papaya
d) Coconut
178. Soil texture characterized for being loose and the particles are single
grained.
a) Sandy soil
b) Loam soil
c) Silt soil
d) Clay soil
179. Soil texture characterized by being soft, smooth, gritty and feels like a
plastic.
a) Sandy soil
b) Loam soil
c) Silt soil
d) Clay soil
180. Soil texture characterized as resembles plastic when moist and

forms a cast that will bear careful
handling. Hard clods are formed when dry and sticky when moist.
16
a) Sandy loam soil

b) Silt loam soil
c) Clay loam soil
d) Loamy sand soil
181. Type of irrigation where water moves over and across the land by
simple gravity flow in order to wet
it to infiltrate into the soil.
a) Surface irrigation
b) Localized irrigation
c) Sub-irrigation system
d) Manual irrigation
182. It is also known as seepage irrigation, where water is delivered to the

plant root zone from below the
soil and absorbed upwards.
183. It refers to the usage of buckets or hand sprinkler.

a) Traditional irrigation
184. A system where water is distributed under low pressure through a

pipe network.
185. It is also known as trickle irrigation.

c) Drip irrigation
d) Sprinkler
186. Water is sprayed into the air and allowed to fall on the ground surface
resembling rainfall.
c) Drip irrigation
d) Sprinkler
187. A plant disease causes plant to quickly turn brown.

a) Canker
b) Damping-off
c) Galls
d) Blight
188. A plant disease causes open wounds on woody plant stems.

a) Damping-off
b) Galls
c) Blight
d) Canker
189. A fungal disease that causes young plants and seedlings to rot off at
the soil level.
a) Damping-off
b) Galls
c) Blight
d) Canker
190. A plant disease causes round swellings on plants.
a) Galls
b) Leaf spots
c) Canker
d) Mildew
191. A plant disease causes rings of different shades of brown, green,

or yellow that makes spots on
leaves.
a) Galls
b) Leaf spots
17
c) Canker
d) Mildew
192. A plant disease that grows on leaf surfaces as white, gray or purple
spots.
a) Galls
b) Leaf spots
c) Canker
d) Mildew
193. It caused by viruses that make the leaves have irregular mottled
areas with patters ranging from
dark green to light green to yellow to white.
a) Galls
b) Leaf spot
c) Mosaic
d) Rust
194. A plant disease that causes plants to decay and die.

a) Mosaic
b) Root rot
c) Mildew
d) Smut
195. A plant disease causes small spots on leaves that resemble yellow,
orange, brown or red rust mainly
on the underneath side of the leaves.
a) Rust
b) Wilts
c) Mildew
d) Smut
196. A black powdery disease that causes blisters that burst open
releasing black spores.
a) Rust
b) Wilts
c) Mildew
d) Smut
197. A plant disease that blocks the uptake of water in plant stems causing
it to wilt.
a) Rust
b) Wilts
c) Mildew
d) Smut
198. A type of insect pest characterized for having two sponge-like

structures that collect liquid food and
move it into the food canal.
a) Siphoning insects
b) Rasping-sucking insects
c) Sponging insects
d) Piercing-sucking insects
199. A type of insect known for tearing and then sucking the sap.
c) Chewing insects
200. A type of insects known for having a coiled tube that dip into liquid
food such as nectar and draw it
in.
c) Chewing insects
201. Type of insect pest that pierce and then sucks the sap.
c) Chewing insects
202. It refers to a disorder caused by an an infectious pathogen or agent.

a) Damage
b) Disease
18
c) Rushes
d) Fever
203. A control method uses either insecticides or pesticides.

a) Cultural control
b) Mechanical control
c) Chemical control
d) Natural control
204. Type of poison that affects the insect’s nervous system and must
come into contact with insect to be
effective.
a) Contact poison
b) Stomach poison
c) Systematic poison
d) Fumigants
205. Type of poison which absorbed by the plant and then ingested by the
pest when it feeds.
a) Contact poison
b) Stomach poison
d) Fumigants
206. Type of poison which is sprayed on plant surfaces or are taken into
the plant through absorption
a) Contact poison
b) Stomach poison
d) Fumigants
207. It is a poisonous gases released into an enclosed place so that

insects breathe the gases.
a) Contact poison
b) Stomach poison
d) Fumigants
208. A control method which involves sanitation, removing insect

breeding and hiding areas and using
insect resistant plant varieties.
a) Cultural control
c) Chemical control
d) Natural control
209. A control method which physically isolating insects from healthy

plants.
a) Cultural control
b) Quarantine
c) Combined control
d) Natural control
210. A control method using physical controls such as traps, screens,

washing plants with soapy water.
a) Cultural control
c) Chemical control
d) Natural control
211. A control method using natural barriers to control insects such as

rivers, woods, mountains and
natural predators.
a) Cultural control
c) Chemical control
d) Natural control
212. It refers to the combination of control methods called as ‘’Integrated

Pest Management’’.
a) Mixed control
b) Combined control
c) Multi control
d) Chemical control
213. It refers to the process of determining the percentage germination of

seeds.
a) Dormancy test
b) Percentage test
c) Viability test
19
d) Germination test
214. The following are methods of germination test EXCEPT

a) Seedbox method
b) Ragdoll method
c) Petri dish method
d) Simple box method
215. It is a method of germination includes using cloth.

a) Seedbox method
b) Ragdoll method
c) Petri dish method
d) Filter paper method
216. The transport of materials between the roots and the shoots is made
possible through _______.
a) Tissue system
b) Vascular tissue system
c) Plant tissue system
d) Stele system
217. It conducts water and dissolved minerals upward from the roots to the
shoots.
a) Phloem
b) Xylem
c) Cambium
d) Stele
218. It transports sugar to the different parts of the plant where they are
needed.
a) Phloem
b) Xylem
c) Cambium
d) Stele
219. A classification of angiosperm where plants have only one cotyledon

or seed leaf.
a) Monocotyledonous
b) Dicotyledonous
c) Monosaccharide
d) Disaccharide
220. A classification of angiosperm where plants have two cotyledon or

two seed leaves.
a) Monocotyledonous
b) Dicotyledonous
c) Monosaccharide
d) Disaccharide
221. Growth stage of plants which starts from seed germination where
young plant embryo absorbs
moisture and nutrients from the stored food inside the seed.
a) Vegetative
b) Reproductive
c) Ripening
d) Senescence
222. Growth stage of plants wherein it is the start of full maturity of the
plant which ends in death.
a) Vegetative
b) Reproductive
c) Ripening
d) Senescence
223. Growth stage of plants which starts with formation of flower until the
time the flower is fully open and
undergoes the process of pollination.
a) Vegetative
b) Reproductive
c) Ripening
d) Senescence
224. Growth stage of plants wherein fruit reaches the period of

maturity and undergoes some
characteristics qualitative changes.
a) Vegetative
b) Reproductive
c) Ripening
d) Senescence
20
225. It is an ancient crop originated in Southeast Asia and it belongs to

the family Graminae classified as
the genus Oryza.
a) Corn
b) Cotton
c) Rice
d) Beans
226. Growth stage of rice which starts from seed germination to panicle
initiation.
a) Vegetative
b) Reproductive
c) Ripening
d) Maturity
227. Growth stage of rice which starts from panicle initiation to flowering
stage of the plant usually takes
for 35 days.
a) Vegetative
b) Reproductive
c) Ripening
d) Maturity
228. Ripening stage from flowering to grain maturity of the rice usually
takes how many days?
a) 15 days
b) 25 days
c) 30 days
d) 50 days
229. Reproductive stage of rice usually takes how many days?

a) 15 days
b) 25 days
c) 30 days
d) 35 days
230. Securing seeds from reputable outlet will ensure the quality of
seeds which has characteristics the
following EXCEPT
a) Yield potential
b) Resistant to pest
c) Grain quality
d) Inadaptability to ecosystem
231. The seedling of rice are raised in seedbed with 1 meter high wide of
any length and ______.
a) 1-3 inches high
b) 2-4 inches high
c) 5-7 inches high
d) 6-8 inches high
232. Transplanting of rice seedling is done after how many days after
sowing?
a) 15 days
b) 18 days
c) 21 days
d) 30 days
233. It refers to the process of determining the nutrient content of the soil.
a) Soil analysis
b) Soil testing
c) Soil gathering data
d) Soil determining
234. The following are some of the common insects of rice plant EXCEPT
a) Whorl maggot
b) Leaf hopper
c) Armyworm
d) Corn borer
235. This is being used in the traditional harvesting of rice also known as
‘’karet’’.
a) Sickle
b) Hand cutter
c) Knife
d) Bolo
21
236. In harvesting, in this stage, the grains at the tip of the panicle are
__________.
a) Hard dough and white
b) Hard and yellow
c) Soft and yellow
d) Soft and white
237. The following are the advantages of mechanical drying EXCEPT

a) Timeless in drying
b) Reduces handling losses
c) Maintains the grain quality
d) Control the drying process only
238. The type of corn which characterized by the dent in the crown of the
kernel as the grain ripens.
a) Dent corn
b) Sweet corn
c) Pop corn
d) Baby corn
239. The type of corn characterized by hard flinty type of starch.

a) Dent corn
b) Sweet corn
c) Pop corn
d) Baby corn
240. It contributes about 18 percent of the total plant protein when

consumed by humans.
a) Rice
b) Corn
c) Legumes
d) Root crops
241. These plants are planted among other crops because of their ability
to enrich soil nitrogen content.
a) Rice
b) Corn
c) Legumes
d) Root crops
242. These are characterized by having true pod and butterfly-like and can
easily grown in poor soils or in
areas of low rainfall.
a) Rice
b) Corn
c) Legumes
d) Root crops
243. This is the reaction to the enzyme system of alive seeds.
a) Formaen
b) Formazan
c) Formain
d) Formaraine
244. It refers handpicking of mature pods of mungbean.

a) Trimming
b) Pickling
c) Priming
d) Cutting
245. In tropical countries like Philippines, these are widely grown as

second important crop to cereal and
they serve as food and as good source of carbohydrates.
a) Legumes
b) Root crops
c) Corn
d) Peanuts
246. Root crop which is highly productive, tolerant of poor soils and
drought and relatively disease-free
and pest resistant. Adventitious roots arise from stem cuttings.
a) Cassava
b) Sweet potato
c) Potato
d) Yam
247. The following are the effects of thorough land preparation EXCEPT
22
a) Improve soil aeration

b) Eradicate weeds
c) Harden the soil
d) Promote growth and development of plants
248. The planting material of cassava by cutting the stem measure must
be __________.
a) 10-15 cm long
b) 16-20 cm long
c) 20-30 cm long
d) 35-40 cm long
249. The following are the methods of planting cassava EXCEPT

a) Slanting
b) Vertical
c) Horizontal
d) Diverted
250. The planting materials of cassava must be planted below the soil
surface.
a) 1-5 cm
b) 5-10 cm
c) 11-15 cm
d) 16-20 cm
251. Slanting as method of planting cassava, the cutting is planted at an

angle of ________.
a) 20 degrees
b) 25 degrees
c) 45 degrees
d) 75 degrees
252. These crops are heavy feeder of soil nutrients.

a) Grains
b) Cereals
c) Root crops
d) Legumes
253. Roots of cassava can be harvested from the period of ______.
a) 3-4 months
b) 5-6 months
c) 6-14 months
d) 8-16 months
254. It is a vine which produces both aerial tubers called bulbis and
underground tubers or roots.
a) Cassava
b) Sweet potato
c) Potato
d) Yam
255. The bulbis of Yam come out of the leaf axile after how many months?
a) 2 months
b) 3 months
c) 4 months
d) 5 months
256. Yam thrives best in a soil having a texture of _______.

a) Loamy soil
b) Sandy loam soil
c) Sandy silt soil
d) Silty sand soil
257. The planting material (setts) of yam must weigh _______.

a) 10g-20g
b) 30g-40g
c) 60g-250g
d) 250g-300g
258. The following are importance of performing mulching EXCEPT

a) Reduce soil temperature
b) Conserve soil moisture
c) Suppress weed growth
d) Increase inorganic matter content of the soil
23
259. Mulching is being done ________.

a) Before planting
b) During planting
c) Prior in planting
d) After planting
260. The following are methods can be adapt to support the vines of ube
EXCEPT
a) Trellis method
b) Modified trellis method
c) Pyramid method
d) Slanting method
261. How can physiological maturity of yam determine?

a) When its foliage is already yellowing or drying up
b) When the leaves is already dark green
c) When the aerial tubers turn into brown
d) When the underground tubers are already hard and firm.
262. This crop is known to be a cheap but excellent source of

carbohydrates, vitamin A, carotene,
calcium, and phosphorus.
a) Cassava
b) Sweet potato
c) Potato
d) Yam
263. It refers to the inherent capacity of the soil to supply nutrients to

plants in adequate amounts and in
suitable proportions.
a) Soil proportion
b) Soil profile
c) Soil fertility
d) Soil composition
264. It refers to the sequence of soil layers which extends from the
soil surface to the parent rock
material.
a) Soil proportion
b) Soil profile
c) Soil fertility
d) Soil composition
265. It is the key to understand the processes that have taken place in soil
development.
a) Soil proportion
b) Soil profile
c) Soil classification
d) Soil composition
266. The top organic layer of the soil comprised of organic material at
various stages of decomposition
made up mostly of leaf letter and humus.
a) O Horizon
b) A Horizon
c) E Horizon
d) B Horizon
267. It is the subsurface horizon that has been heavily leached and it is
made up mostly of san and silt,
having lost most of its minerals and clay as water drips through the soil.
a) O Horizon
b) A Horizon
c) E Horizon
d) B Horizon
268. Also called regolith, where it consists of slightly broken-up bedrock

and plants do not penetrate to
this layer.
a) A Horizon
b) E Horizon
c) B Horizon
a) C Horizon
269. This layer is called the topsoil; largely consist of minerals and organic
matter.
a) A Horizon
b) B Horizon
c) C Horizon
24
d) E Horizon
270. Seeds germinate and plant roots grow in this dark-colored area.
a) A Horizon
b) B Horizon
c) C Horizon
d) E Horizon
271. It is made up of humus (decomposed organic matter) mixed with

mineral particles.
a) A Horizon
b) B Horizon
c) C Horizon
d) R Horizon
272. This layer contains clay and mineral deposits (like iron, aluminum
oxides, and calcium carbonate)
that it receives from layers above it when mineralized water drips from the
soil above.
a) A Horizon
b) B Horizon
c) C Horizon
d) R Horizon
273. Soil texture affects the process of water movement such as the
following EXCEPT
a) Drainage
b) Water storage
c) Stagnant of roots
d) Suitability for different crops in terms of root development
274. How many mineral elements are necessary or essential for plant
growth?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 18
d) 20
275. The element that contribute the most to plant growth and yield.
a) Nitrogen
b) Phosphorus
c) Potassium
d) Magnesium
276. Lack of this element leads poor growth and mature early of plants.
a) Nitrogen
b) Phosphorus
c) Potassium
d) Magnesium
277. Lack of this element leads foliage get dull in color and may have
bluish tints.
a) Nitrogen
b) Phosphorus
c) Potassium
d) Magnesium
278. Lack of this element leads edges of older leaves scorched or

withered. Scorching usually brown in
color.
a) Nitrogen
b) Phosphorus
c) Potassium
d) Magnesium
279. Lack of this element leads on yellowing between vines of the older
leaves, leaves turns brown when
the deficiency is severe.
a) Nitrogen
b) Phosphorus
c) Potassium
d) Magnesium
280. It refers to the concentration of either essential or other elements are

sufficiently high to reduce plant
growth severely.
a) Deficient
b) Insufficient
c) Excessive
25
d) Toxic
281. It refers to the optimum utilization of a given area that will result to
an increase in production in a
given period of time using available resources.
a) Cropping production
b) Cropping utilization
c) Cropping system
d) Cropping progress
282. This is a cropping system where there is only one type of crop grown
in a particular area throughout
the year.
a) Mono-cropping system
b) Multiple cropping system
c) Perfect cropping system
d) Imperfect cropping system
283. It is the practice of growing several crops in the same piece of land
for a period of one year or more.
a) Mono-cropping system
b) Multiple cropping system
c) Perfect cropping system
d) Imperfect cropping system
284. The following are advantages of multiple cropping system EXCEPT
a) Greater amounts of biomass (organic matter) can be returned to the soil
b) Reduction of water evaporation and erosion from the soil surface
c) Inefficient use of soil nutrients due to diverse crops grown in the same area
d) Increase of microbial activity in the soil
285. The following are disadvantages of multiple cropping system

EXCEPT
a) Competition of crops for light, water, and soil nutrients
b) Harvesting of one crop may cause damage to other crops
c) Lesser amount of absorption for water and soil nutrients
d) Alllelopathic influence between crops planted on the same area at the same
time
286. Two or more crops are grown on the same piece of land within the
year, but one following the other.
a) Sequential cropping
b) Intercropping
c) Relay cropping
d) Cover cropping
287. Two or more crops are grown simultaneously at the same time on the
same piece of land.
b) Intercropping
c) Relay cropping
d) Cover cropping
288. Growing two or more crops simultaneously within the life cycle of
the crops, the second crop is
planted after the flowering stage of the first crop.
b) Intercropping
c) Relay cropping
d) Cover cropping
289. It refers to the preservation of soil against deterioration and

maintaining soil quality.
a) Soil proportion
b) Soil conservation
c) Soil fertility
d) Soil composition
290. A method of plowing leguminous crops under the soil.

a) Mulching
b) Green manuring
c) Cover cropping
d) Relay cropping
291. The importance of green manuring are the following EXCEPT

a) Enrich the soil with organic substances
b) Add nitrogen to the soil
c) Decreases nutrient availability
d) Protects soil from erosion
26
292. A farming practice where the legume crop primarily planted

serves as cover crop, not to be
harvested for food but for soil erosion control, weed control and improving
soil fertility.
a) Contour farming
b) Green manuring
c) Cover cropping
d) Relay cropping
293. A method of farming where tillage nd planting operations are

prepared across or perpendicular to the
slope or elevation of the land.
a) Contour farming
b) Green manuring
c) Cover cropping
d) Relay cropping
294. These are tools made of light materials and are used manually and
used in cultivating the area for
small garden.
a) Farm tools
b) Hand tools
c) Farm implement
d) Farm equipment
295. It is used for digging holes, transplanting fruit trees and digging out
big stones and stamps.
a) Pick-mattock
b) Spade
c) Crowbar
d) Grab hoe
296. It is used for digging, breaking hard and compact soil and the
pointed part is used for digging out
stumps and stamps.
a) Pick-mattock
b) Spade
c) Crowbar
d) Grab hoe
297. It is used for constructing ditches or canals and also used for
digging out a garden plot or breaking
apart large soil clumps.
a) Crowbar
b) Spade
c) Grab hoe
d) Hand trowel
298. It is used for leveling and pulverizing the soil, it is also used for
removing stones and weeds.
a) Crowbar
b) Grab hoe
c) Rake
d) Hand trowel
299. It is used to break up the ground, dig bulbs, and turn soil or compost.
a) Rake
b) Grab hoe
c) Spading fork
d) Pruning shears
300. It is used for cutting unwanted small branches, harvesting vegetables,

and cutting flowers.
a) Tine hand cultivator
b) Pruning shears
c) Hand trowel
d) Crowbar
301. What nutrients are usually lacking from the soil because the
plants consume them in big
amount/quantities?
a) Nanonutrients
b) Macronutrients
c) Micronutrients
d) Giganutrients
302. It refers to the non-muscle parts of an animal such as the kidney and
intestines.
a) Charcuterie
b) Offal
c) Carcass
27
d) Chevron
303. It is the scientific name of cattle.

a) Capra hircus
b) Equus caballus
c) Ovis aries
d) Bos taurus
304. It is the scientific name of goat.

a) Capra hircus
b) Equus caballus
c) Ovis aries
d) Bos taurus
305. It is the scientific name of sheep.

a) Capra hircus
b) Equus caballus
c) Ovis aries
d) Bos Taurus
306. It refers to the grouping of a single species of livestock.
a) Caprine
b) Equine
c) Herd
d) Porcine
307. The type of cattle raising wherein it considered to be the most

challenging because the breeder
needs to be familiar with the reproductive cycle
a) Cattle fattening
b) Cow-calf operation
c) Breeder farm operation
d) Growing-fattening operation
308. Breed of cattle usually colored white but its hump and neck are dark
and it has resistant to Foot and
Mouth disease and Mad cow disease.
a) Santa Gertudis
b) Bali
c) Banteng
d) Ongole
309. Breed of cattle which has prominent hump over the shoulder with
loose, pendulous skin under the
throat and it has a long face with drooping ears.
a) Santa Gertudis
b) Nellore
c) Brahman
d) Brown Swiss
310. Breed of swine characterized for having short legs and medium to
large drooping ears.
a) Landrace
b) Largewhite
c) Berkshire
d) Pietrain
311. This breed of swine is characterized for being entirely white with
medium erect ears.
a) Landrace
b) Largewhite
c) Hampshire
d) Duroc jersey
312. The sows of this swine breed are noted for their excellence in
mothering ability and litter size.
a) Landrace
b) Largewhite
c) Hampshire
d) Duroc jersey
313. It has a small body (1.5 kg) and lays many white eggs.
a) White Leghorn
b) Black Australorp
c) Rhode Island Red
d) Plymouth Rock
28
314. This refers to process of extending the necessary heat to the

chicks to make them warm and
comfortable through natural or artificial means
a) Culling
b) Heating
c) Brooding
d) Molting
315. It refers to the mature male pig that can be used for breeding.
a) Barrow
b) Hog
c) Boar
d) Sow
316. It refers to female pig about 6 months of age it could be pregnant but
has never farrowed yet.
a) Gilt
b) Sow
c) Barrow
d) Boar
317. It refers to mature female pig that has farrowed at least once.
a) Gilt
b) Sow
c) Barrow
d) Boar
318. It refers to the act of giving birth in pigs.

a) Farrowing
b) Sowing
c) Brooding
d) Gilting
319. Breed of swine characterized for being red, muscular, partially

drooping ears, desirable as sires and
they grow the fastest out of all the other breeds.
a) Landrace
b) Hampshire
c) Duroc
d) Largewhite
320. The following are factors which can cause poor performance in a pig
farm EXCEPT
a) Lack of technical breeding know-how
b) Poor feed
c) Poor sanitation and lack of proper medication
d) Effective labor force
321. Which statement best defines brooding?
a) The process of providing chicks with proper temperature naturally or
artificially to make them warm and comfortable
b) The act of separating the male from the female birds
c) The process of separating the productive from the unproductive bird
d) The process of providing birds with proper ventilation
322. This is the brooding of chicks with the mother hen or trained capon
and still the most common type
of brooding practiced in the rural areas.
a) Natural brooding
b) Artificial Brooding
c) Box brooding
d) Cage brooding
323. Rapid growth of a chick is affected by their ____.

a) Carcass quality
b) Color of their shank
c) Feed conversion efficiency
d) Good fleshing and pigmentation
324. Which describes natural brooding?

a) The required heat needed comes from a mother hen.
b) The required heat is supplied with electric bulb.
c) The required heat is supplied through a charcoal.
d) The required heat is supplied by the birds themselves brooding.
29
325. The following may result of overcrowding of chicks EXCEPT

a) Feather picking and cannibalism (picking the feathers and flesh of others)
b) Poor digestion and absorption of foods
c) Fast growth and development
d) Uneven growth among the chicks in the group because some can eat more
than the others
326. The pig pen must be characterized by the following EXCEPT

a) There must be good ventilation
b) There is an ample shade,
c) There must be dampness
d) No overheating
327. It refers to continuous feeding to any livestock or poultry.

a) Gradual feeding
b) Ad libitum
c) Shift feeding
d) Direct feeding
328. Birds are fed for the purpose of supplying nutrients needed for
their_____.
a) Growth and development
b) Life maintenance
c) Reproduction
d) All of the above
329. The greatest percentage of expenses incurred in broiler production is

cost of_____.
a) Antibiotics
b) Feeds
c) Chicks
d) Labor
330. This is a simple and easy method of determining the correct

proportion of two feed ingredients
without changing the feed’s protein content.
a) Pearson Square Method
b) Intensive method
c) Semi-intensive method
d) Extensive method
331. The daily average amount of feed needed by a layer a day is____.
a) 80 grams
b) 90 grams
c) 105 grams
d) 110 grams
332. Which form of feeds is made from crush pellet?

a) Crumble
b) Mash
c) Grits
d) Pellet
333. The following are the basic requirements for a poultry house EXCEPT
a) It must be rain proof
b) Protect the birds from direct sunlight
c) It must have good drainage around the house
d) It must be unventilated
334. The following are the signs of in heat gilt EXCEPT

a) Restlessness
b) Lack of appetite
c) Always laying on the floor
d) Swelling of the vulva and clear mucous discharge
335. The time duration of the heat for the gilt is ________.
a) 6-12 hours
b) 12-24 hours
c) 12-36 hours
d) 24-48 hours
336. It is a peracute disease of cattle characterized by septicemia and

sudden death with exudation of
tarry blood from the natural body openings.
a) Foot and mouth disease
30
b) Hemorrhagic septicemia
c) Anthrax
d) Pneumonia-disease complex
337. It is a disease of cattle characterized by appearance of vesicles and

blisters with fluid on tongue,
gums, udders and inter-digital spaces.
a) Foot and mouth disease
b) Hemorrhagic septicemia
c) Anthrax
338. Hogs are contaminated with this disease through direct contact or
by eating uncooked slops or
kitchen scraps containing the virus.
a) Hog cholera
b) Swine dysentery
c) Pneumonia-disease complex
d) Anthrax
339. The disease of swine characterized for having watery feces flecked
with mucus or blood.
a) Hemorrhagic septicemia
b) Hog cholera
c) Swine dysentery
340. It is a disease on chicken for having initial symptoms are leg

weakness and paralysis of one or both
legs.
a) New castle disease
b) Chronic respiratory disease
d) Mareks disease
341. It is a disease on chicken characterized for having a sign of severe

anemia (paleness), extreme leg
weakness, emancipation and nervous signs like twisting of the head.
a) New castle disease
b) Avian malaria
d) Mareks disease
342. Which an environmental factor is/are not considered when it comes to

cultivating fish breeders?
a) Humidity
b) Temperature
c) Oxygen
d) Suitable water and pond
343. Cardo had noticed that his cultured milkfish has a surfacing
behavior early in the morning. This
indicates that there is ______.
a) Inadequate feeding
b) Temperature is low
c) Soil is acidic
d) Very low oxygen concentration
344. Which method is used in inducing the propagation of jumbo tiger

prawn artificially?
a) Eyestalk ablation
b) Eye pinching
c) Injecting the ovary with hormone
d) Tail cutting
345. An artificial propagation involves human intervention in the process

and has plenty of advantages
EXCEPT
a) Protection against enemies
b) Better rates of fertilization
c) Develop resistant for growth and survival
d) Better conditions for growth and survival
346. To prevent mortality of stock, this is the process wherein

approximates the salinity and temperature
between the fish container of the fish to be stocked and the fish pond.
a) Acclimatization
b) Deadlock
c) Equalization
d) Approximation
31
347. Crustaceans excrete their exoskeleton many times during their entire
life in order to grow.
a) Regeneration
b) Vertical growth
c) Molting
d) Soft-shelled
348. In selecting the site for mussel farming, the water should be ______.
a) Be very rich in nutrients
b) Have a salinity of 27-35 ppt
c) Be near a densely populated area
d) Have a temperature ranging from 30-35 degree Celsius
349. It refers to the fishery operations involving all forms of raising and
culturing fish and other fishery
species.
a) Aquasilviculture
b) Aquaculture
c) Ichthyology
d) Phycology
350. Temperature has an important role in fish culture because fish

body temperature follows the
surrounding temperature. This means that fish is ______.
a) Euryhaline
b) Poikilothermic
c) Temperature resistant
d) Equilibrium
351. The system/building where can observe where fish and other
aquatic products are reared through
their larval stages.
a) Hatching zone
b) Veterinary zone
c) Fish clinic
d) Hatchery
352. What is the main disadvantage of hypophysation technique in

artificial propagation?
a) The donor fish has to be sacrificed
b) The species of fish will become extinct
c) The process is laborious
d) It is too expensive
353. Which gland of fish will be used in hypophysation technique in induce

spawning?
a) Liver
b) Milt
c) Pituitary gland
d) Endocrine gland
354. A method of fish preservation where fish and other fishery products
are in tightly sealed containers
by the application of heat at a given temperature sufficient to
destroy microorganism that may cause spoilage.
a) Freezing
b) Canning
c) Pickling
d) Jarring
355. Which is a freshwater fish named for its prominent barbells that
resemble a cat’s whiskers?
a) Mudfish
b) Catfish
c) Carp
d) Gourami
356. It is a highly carnivorous but can be trained to feed on formulated

feeds.
a) Sea bass
b) Salmon
c) Trout
d) Barracuda
357. Crustaceans are extensively raised in our country due to its

dollar earnings. Which is NOT a
crustacean?
a) Prawns
b) Shrimp
32
c) Scallop
d) Mudcrab
358. It refers to marine species which migrate to freshwater areas to

spawn.
a) Anadromous
b) Detritus
c) Pelagic
d) Demersal
359. It determined by the number of eggs a fish will lay.

a) Detritus
b) Fecundity
c) Juvenile
d) Dormancy
360. Which is the average growth rate of mussel every month?

a) 1 cm
b) 1.5 cm
c) 2 cm
d) 2.5 cm
361. The commercial name of dried sea cucumber in the world market is
called ______.
a) Nori
b) Ramin
c) Chiron
d) Beche-de-mer
362. An environment-friendly enhanced fisheries production in the wild

that involves the growing of fish
and other aquatic organisms without cutting down a single tree.
a) Aquaculture
b) Aquasilviculture
c) Mangrove farmland
d) Fish cultivation
363. Milkfish has its best characteristic which is its _______.

a) Good growth conversion ratio
b) Adaptability to its environment
c) Fast growth and development
d) Slow swimmer
364. Which of the following species of fish is NOT commonly raised in

fishpond?
a) Mackerel
b) Tilapia
c) Milkfish
d) Rabbit fish
365. What is the local name of a highly-prized fish and is sold mostly live
in the market?
a) Maya-maya
b) Lapu-lapu
c) Labahita
d) Angel fish
366. Taking of fishery species by passive or active gear for trade, business
and profit beyond subsistence
or sports fishing.
a) Direct fishing
b) Indirect fishing
c) Commercial fishing
d) Industrial fishing
367. A stage at which a fish has just been hatched usually with sizes from
1-2.5 cm.
a) Fish fry
b) Juvenile
c) Fingerling
d) Brood stock
368. It refers to mature fish for breeding purposes.

a) Fish fry
b) Juvenile
c) Fingerling
d) Brood stock
33
369. What is Scylla serrate?

a) Mud crab
b) Mussel
c) Oyster
d) Black tiger prawn
370. It refers to the particulate remains of plants and animals.

a) Ashes
b) Fossils
c) Detritus
d) Grave
371. It refers to an artificial body of water surrounded by dikes and with

accessories such as gates, pipes
and canals to facilitate water supply manage.
a) Fish pond
b) Fish cage
c) Fish tank
d) Fish pen
372. It refers to structure fully enclosed by nets on all sides and bottom
supported either by a fix rigid
frame or by floats which rise and fall with the water level or tide.
a) Fish pond
b) Fish cage
c) Fish tank
d) Fish pen
373. It refers to an area enclosed by nets on all sides and utilizes the lake
bed and other bodies of water
as the bottom enclosure.
a) Fishpond
b) Fish cage
c) Fish tank
d) Fish pen
374. It refers to a large container of liquids, rectangular, square or

circular in shape usually used in
culturing fish.
a) Fish pond
b) Fish cage
c) Fish tank
d) Fish pen
375. It is an excellent means of improving the performance and condition

of equipment and facilities.
a) Maintenance
b) Repairing
c) Technical enhancement
d) Checking
376. Refers to an adult fish kept in tanks or cages to produce eggs for
rearing in the hatchery
a) Fish fry
b) Juvenile
c) Fingerling
d) Brood stock
377. It refers to a heavy object, usually a shaped iron weight with flukes,
lowered by a cable or chain to
the bottom of a body of water to keep a vessel from drifting.
a) Stone
b) Cleft
c) Anchor
d) Pods
378. It is a place for the production of fish eggs, larvae and/or fry.
a) Hatchery
b) Aquasilviculture
c) Mangrove farmland
d) Fish cage
379. It refers to the smallest unit of a net.

a) Pod
b) Mesh
c) Moor
d) Knot
34
380. These are the lines, cables, etc. by which water craft or any floating
objects or moored or held in
place.
a) Pod
b) Mesh
c) Mooring
d) Knot
381. This refer to a fabric of thread, cord, rope or twine woven or knotted
to form an open pattern or mesh
used to catch fish.
a) Pod
b) Net
c) Mooring
d) Knot
382. It is a mechanism or instrument filled with grades of gravel and

sand, used to remove particulate
matter from the water before it enters the hatchery.
a) Sand retriever
b) Sand filter
c) Sand filler
d) Sand collector
383. It is a place where large quantity of water is collected and stored to

have a ready supply of water for
use in any eventuality.
a) Reservoir
b) Tank
c) Fish pond
d) Water container
384. The unit of pond which is for the rearing of fish fry to fingerlings size.
a) Nursery pond
b) Rearing pond
c) Breeding pond
d) Transition pond
385. The unit of pond which is for the storage or acclimatization of

fingerlings. It is located adjacent to the
nursery pond in order to have an effective and easy transfer of fry.
a) Nursery pond
b) Rearing pond
c) Breeding pond
d) Transition pond
386. It refers to the unit of pond which is for raising fingerlings up to
marketable size. It is the largest
compartment in the pond system.
a) Nursery pond
b) Rearing pond
c) Breeding pond
d) Transition pond
387. It refers to the unit of pond which is for depositing eggs until these are
hatched.
a) Nursery pond
b) Rearing pond
c) Breeding pond
d) Hatching pond
388. It is a unit of pond which intended for confining and catching fry,
fingerlings and fish of marketable
size. It is constructed at the gate inside the pond where it is intended to be
used.
a) Rearing pond
b) Breeding pond
c) Catching pond
d) Hatching pond
389. It is a unit of pond intended for producing food such as lab-lab, lumut
or plankton.
a) Rearing pond
b) Breeding pond
c) Transition pond
d) Feed pond
390. It refers to the type of fishpond layout consist of one sluice gate
and long water supply canal. This
supplies the different compartments.
35
a) Radiating
b) Conventional
c) Progressive
d) Specialized
391. It refers to the type of fishpond layout consist of having one sluice
gate; wide and short supply canal;
and secondary gates in the different compartments.
a) Radiating
b) Conventional
c) Progressive
d) Specialized
392. It refers to the type of fishpond layout consist of one sluice gate; long
supply canal and a secondary
gates provided to different compartments of progressively increasing areas
a) Radiating
b) Conventional
c) Progressive
d) Specialized
393. It refers to the type of fishpond layout which has one sluice gate;
one or two drainage gates. Two
secondary gates compartment; and a large supply and catching canal/pond
a) Radiating
b) Conventional
c) Progressive
d) Specialized
394. It refers to a pond type usually filled by rainfall or by spring water. A

series of ponds in this type
require drainage pipes and overflow ditch.
a) Barrage pond type
b) Diversion pond type
c) Rosary type
d) Parallel type
395. It refers to a pond type which has a diversion canal to serve as a

passageway of water from the
main water body, e.g. creek, brook and the like.
c) Rosary type
d) Parallel type
396. A type in which ponds are built parallel to each other and each pond
of which has an inlet and an
outlet.
c) Rosary type
d) Parallel type
397. A type in which series of ponds are built one after another in a string.
In this type of layout, all ponds
drain into each other; upper pond drains to the lower pond.
c) Rosary type
d) Parallel type
398. The type of dike wherein it is the dike that encloses and protects the
entire pond system.
a) Primary
b) Partition
c) Secondary
d) Tertiary
399. The smallest and lowest in height dikes which enclose the catching
ponds and fry acclimation pond.
a) Primary
b) Partition
c) Secondary
d) Tertiary
400. The type of dike which is smaller than the main dike with gradual
slope
a) Primary
b) Partition
36
c) Secondary
d) Tertiary
401. The height of main dike should be higher than the highest water level
in the site in about ____.
a) 0.3 - 0.5 meter
b) 0.3- 1 meter
c) 1 - 2 meters
d) 1.5 - 2.5 meters
402. The largest and tallest gate/s as waterway depending the size of the
entire pond system and it links
the pond system to the source of water.
a) Directive gate
b) Petitionary gate
c) Primary gate
d) Secondary gate
403. These are gates installed in the catching ponds and have the
smallest gates with opening width of
0.5 - 0.8 m.
a) Petitionary gate
b) Primary gate
c) Secondary gate
d) Tertiary gate
404. These canals serve the purpose of supplying and draining water to
and from the pond.
a) Water supply canals
b) Drainage canals
c) Flumes
d) Primary canal
405. These are open channels or elevated canals constructed on top of

the dike for purpose of supplying
well-oxygenated water into various pond compartments. These can
be made of concrete hollow blocks, prefabricated concrete slabs, or
marine plywood
a) Knot
b) Mesh
c) Flumes
d) Pumps
406. These are devices used to supply oxygen or agitate or break up the
water surface to effect the fast
transfer of oxygen from air to water during which time the oxygen in the pond
is at critical leve
a) Flumes
b) Pumps
c) Aerator
d) Generator
407. These are machines used in pumping water into and out of the
ponds. These are very necessary
during the dry season when water level is low and the salinity of brackish
water ponds becomes too high.
a) Flumes
b) Pumps
c) Aerator
d) Generator
408. The type of fish cage synthetic net cages is attached to bamboo
poles staked to the bottom for
support.
a) Floating type
b) Fixed type
c) Semi-fixed type
d) Semi-floating type
409. Floating net cages are typically suspended from bamboo raft with or
without plastic drums or any
other floating materials to float.
a) Floating type
b) Fixed type
c) Semi-fixed type
d) Semi-floating type
410. A device used to strike or deliver blows to an object like driving nails,
fitting parts and
breaking up
objects.
a) Hammer
b) Plier
c) Wrench
37
d) Cutter
411. It is the most popular type of measuring tools which usually has 6 or
12 inches length.
a) Ruler
b) Speed square
c) Folding ruler
d) Try square
412. It is a curved and hand held aquaculture tool for harvesting grain
crops or cutting grasses for hay.
a) Shovel
b) Rake
c) Sickle
d) Mattock
413. The most versatile and widely used shovel used for digging,
scooping or shoveling dirt from one
point to another.
a) Irrigation shovel
b) Round point shovel
c) Garden shovel
d) Scoop shovel
414. A device for measuring the weight of an object.

a) Paper weight
b) Measuring tool
c) Weighing scale
d) Square
415. The following is not included in taking care of hand tools?

a) Clean your tools after use
b) Tools should be kept in tool box or a tool cabinet
c) When rust form on tools, remove it by using a fine abrasive cloth
d) Store hand tools in a wet, sheltered environment
416. It is a measuring tool used for measuring the distance between two
symmetrically opposing sides.
It can be like a compass with inward or outward facing points and the
tips can be adjusted to fit across the points to be measured.
a) Caliper
b) Folder ruler
c) Ruler
d) Square
417. Quality indicators of using screwdrivers.
a) bade metal
b) handle and bar attachment materials
c) screwdriver tips
d) all of the above
418. The following are the guidelines to avoid hand tools injuries except:
a) right tool for the job
b) good condition
c) proper storage
d) watch your body
419. A tool used to tighten or loosen screws.

a) hammer
b) screwdriver
c) wrench
d) pliers
420. What is the most important reason why we maintain our facilities?
a) Assures readiness of installed equipment
b) Extends the useful life of facilities
c) Improves morale of human resources
d) Properly discards hazardous wastes
421. It is a comprehensive list of maintenance and its incidence.

a) Housekeeping Maintenance
b) Maintenance Schedule
c) Maintenance Program
d) Maintenance Checklist
38
422. This is the best reference for the proper use and maintenance of
equipment.
a) Inspection checklist
b) Maintenance program
c) Maintenance Schedule
d) Manufacturer‘s manuals
423. The 5 Ms in the maintenance program.

a) Manpower, management, machines, methods and money
b) Manpower, management, materials, machines and money
c) Manpower, materials, methods, machines and money
d) Manpower, materials, methods, maintenance and money
424. The key factors that contribute to successful maintenance program.

a) Reliability of equipment and facilities
b) Maintainability of equipment and facilities
c) Documentation
d) All of the above
425. Which of the following is the main cause of a project failure?

a) low cost of development
b) poor planning
c) economic considerations
d) proper record keeping
426. What is needed to analyze the demands of a particular job in

relation to the qualification of a job
applicant?
a) job requirement
b) educational qualification of applicants
c) materials needed to complete a work activity
d) financial requirements
427. What should be prepared in order to estimate the quality of

materials and resources needed to
complete a work?
a) schedule of development
b) bill of materials
c) feasibility study
d) project proposal
428. What is not included when preparing a bill of materials?

a) kind of materials
b) quality of materials
c) quantity of materials
d) cost of materials
429. If the unit cost of one elf load of gravel is Php 1400, how much is the
cost of 3 elf loads of gravel?
a) Php 2,200
b) Php 3,200
c) Php 4,200
d) Php 5,200
430. How will you estimate the time needed to complete a work activity?
a) Hire plenty of laborers.
b) Prepare a work schedule or program of work.
c) Make a feasibility study.
d) Follow a project proposal.
431. What is that listing of activities in relation to manpower requirements.

a) project estimation
b) project development
c) project programming
d) project proposal making
432. The number of days allotted to complete a work activity is dependent

on what?
a) daily labor requirement
b) weekly labor requirement
c) monthly labor requirement
d) yearly labor requirement
433. Which of the following is a function of a project caretaker?

a) Prepare a feasibility study
39
b) Form a functional working team

c) Secure loan from a bank
d) Delegate work to others
434. Reporting needed materials for a project to appropriate persons

facilitates _______
a) funding of the project
b) hiring of needed laborers
c) recording of income
d) record keeping
435. If the total weight of 20 pcs fish samples is 1000g, what is the
average body weight of fish?
a) 20 g
b) 25 g
c) 50 g
d) 60 g
436. What is the equivalent of 1 ton to kilogram?

a) 10,000 kg
b) 1,000 kg
c) 100 kg
d) 10 kg
437. It is a preventive measure or remedial process to increase

alkalinity of the ponds and improve
aquatic organism survival, optimize growth and ensure desirable water
quality.
a) liming
b) feed formulation
c) sampling
d) computation
438. It is the process of mixing together various ingredients at right

proportion to produce a nutritionally
balanced diet.
a) liming
b) feed formulation
c) sampling
d) computation
439. The neutralizing value of lime (NVL) for agricultural lime.

a) 1.73
b) 1.35
c) 1
d) 1.5
440. Refers to any fixed quantity, amount, distance, etc. used as standard.
a) unit of measurement
b) unit of competency
c) Computation
d) None of these
441. The process of estimating average body weight (ABW) and standing
crop weight of fish.
a) liming
b) feed formulation
c) sampling
d) computation
442. How many square meters are there in 1 hectare?

a) 10,000 m2
b) 1,000 m2
c) 100 m2
d) 100,000 m2
443. How many feet are there in 1 meter?

a) 30.48 ft.
b) 3.28 ft.
c) 32.8 ft
d) 3.048 ft.
444. How many inches are there in 1 foot?

a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
40
d) 13
445. Why are fishpond layouts drawn to scale?

a) To lessen labor exerted in the construction.
b) To show the layout in a smaller space.
c) To show all the compartment units of a fishpond project.
d) To display the common accessory units of a fishpond.
446. Which of the following fishpond facilities control the water of the pond
system?
a) Main gate
b) Secondary gate
c) Tertiary gate
d) All of the above
447. What type of fishpond layout that has one sluice gate and long
water supply canal which supplies
the different compartment?
a) Conventional
b) Radiating
c) Progressive
d) Specialize
448. What fishpond unit is intended for rearing fingerlings to marketable
size?
a) Transition pond
b) Nursery pond
c) Rearing pond
d) Brood pond
449. Which among the fishpond units is used as water reservoir?

a) Head pond
b) Catching pond
c) Rearing pond
d) Transition pond
450. Which is intended for the confinement of breeders?

a) Breeding pond
b) Rearing pond
c) Head pond
d) Hatching pond
451. What common accessory unit of a fishpond controls the water in the
pond system?
a) Secondary gate
b) Main gate
c) Tertiary gate
d) Water supply canal
452. In brackish water fishpond, where should fingerlings be acclimatized?
a) Transition pond
b) Rearing pond
c) Catching pond
d) Nursery pond
453. What is the biggest and highest block of earth that surrounds the
entire pond system?
a) Main dike
b) Secondary gate
c) Tertiary gate
d) Main gate
454. The following are the advantages of pond layout, except.

a) easy control of pond water
b) low productivity
c) artificial feeding can be conducted easily
d) easy eradication of fish pest and predator.
455. How to remedy a tank with low dissolve oxygen?

a) Start the blower
b) Start the water pump
c) Start the puddle wheel
d) Start the electric fan beside the tank
456. ________ are small aquatic organisms raised in tanks which are
commonly used as the first food of
young fin fishes?
41
a) Larvae
b) Phytoplanktons
c) Rotifers
d) Microalgae
457. What is the term used to indicate a large container of liquid usually
used in culturing fish?
a) reservoir
b) tank
c) basin
d) fishpond
458. Why is it necessary to design the tanks in the hatchery?

a) To have a beautiful tanks
b) To create a beautiful arrangement of tanks.
c) To have a uniform size and shape of tanks
d) To conform with the characteristics of the target specie of fish
459. What is the first phase of a fish production system?
a) construction of aquaculture facilities
b) hatchery
c) nursery
d) grow-out
460. Separating suspended solids from water such as silts, debris and
foreign organisms can be done by
the use of ______.
a) fine mesh screen
b) secchi disk
c) filtration units
d) intake structure
461. Early stage of the fish life cycle?

a) egg
b) fingerling
c) larvae or fry
d) post fingerling
462. The sand filter tank is set up with how many layers of different filter
media?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
463. In a milkfish broodstock tank, what is the design?

a) Triangular
b) Rectangular
c) Square
d) Circular
464. Where are newly hatched fish eggs placed?

a) Hatchery tank
b) Broodstock tank
c) Nursery tank
d) Growout tank
465. What factor usually determines the depth of fish cages?

a) capability of the owner
b) natural productivity of the water
c) the mooring system
d) the specie of fish to be cultivated
466. What is the smallest unit of a net?

a) mesh
b) mesh size
c) knots
d) twine
467. In order to make the fish cage floats on the water, the cage must be
equipped with _____. \
a) mooring system
b) netting system
c) framework
d) floatation system
42
468. As a general rule, what is the length of the mooring lines?

a) two times of the depth of water
b) three times of the length of the cage
c) three times of the depth of the water
d) two meters allowance during high tide
469. Which of the following keeps the whole cage in a certain location and
prevents the cage from drifting
along the water current?
a) mooring
b) floater
c) framework
d) barrier
470. Part of the cage that serves as the walkways for working, feeding
and monitoring?
a) frames
b) floaters
c) mooring
d) nets
471. What type of net cage fabrication refers to a ¼ inch mesh?

a) CC-net
b) DD-net
c) B-net
d) knotless NET
472. What aquaculture facility is usually supported by a fixed rigid

framework of bamboo poles, palm tree
poles and wood poles?
a) floating fish cage
b) fish pen
c) fixed fish cage
d) happa
473. Generally, they are the most suitable in relatively large bodies of
water and along protected coastal
areas where level ranges only from 2.0 meters to a maximum of 7.0 meters.
a) floating fish cage
b) fish pen
c) fixed fish cage
d) fishpond
474. In general, which aquaculture facility has the biggest area?

a) fixed fish cage
b) floating fish cage
c) happa
d) fish pen
475. Why it is important for a student doing the pond draining must wear a
hat and a long sleeve working
clothes?
a) To protect his skin from getting dark.
b) To protect him from getting dirty from soft mud.
c) To protect him from over exposure to heat and sunlight.
d) All of the above.
476. In cleaning the dikes, what should be worn to be safe from snake
bites?
a) Long sleeve
b) Boots
c) Steel-capped foot wear
d) Rubber gloves and shoes
477. Which equipment is to be used to protect feet from puncture,

incision and other injuries while
levelling the pond bottom?
a) Boots
b) Barrier cream
c) Gloves
d) Socks
478. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Used PPE even if not working
b) Wear fitted clothes
c) Jewelries are allowed to wear when working
43
d) Always wear protective clothing when working
479. Personal protective equipment in fishpond operation includes the

following except?
a) Protective clothing
b) Hats
c) Boots
480. Why do shells of snails and other foreign materials removed before
pond leveling?
a) To prevent the pond water for fouling.
b) To avoid the workers‘ feet from incision or puncture from these shells.
c) The composing shells may increase alkalinity of the soil.
d) The shells contribute water turbidity.
481. Why it is important for a student to wear a hat and long sleeve
working clothes in pond draining?
a) To protect his skin from getting dark.
b) To protect him from getting dirty from soft mud.
c) To protect him from over exposure to heat and sunlight.
d) All of the above.
482. What is the proper tool used to dig the soil to form a mud block?
a) Crow bar
b) Grub hoe
c) Shovel
d) Digging blade
483. In cleaning the dikes, what should be worn to be safe from snake
bites?
a) Long sleeve
b) Boots
c) Steel-capped foot wear
d) Rubber gloves and shoes
484. Which equipment is to be used to protect feet from puncture,

incision and other
injuries while
leveling the pond bottom?
a) Boots
b) Barrier cream
c) Gloves
d) Socks
485. Tools and equipment must be cleaned after use in order to ____.
a) Prevent them from rust.
b) Prolong their usefulness
c) Save capital cost
d) All of the above
486. The most practical way of preventing rust on tools and equipment is:
a) Keeping them in dry place
b) Keeping them in open place
c) Keeping them in damp place
d) Placing them in the corner
487. Which of the following statements is a preventive maintenance?

a) Leave tools unattended
b) Wipe tools before using them
c) Store tools inside the room
d) Keep tools in clean dry place
488. Which of the following is a pointer in storing tools, material sand

equipment?
a) Clean tools, materials, and equipment immediately.
b) Leave tools unattended.
c) Store them in a clean dry place.
d) Remove dirt attached to them.
489. Tools and equipment are best place in:

a) Health corner
b) Comport room
c) Dining room
d) Store room
490. Improper disposal of waste can lead to __________.

44
a) safe working area

b) healthy environment
c) destruction of soil and surface water
d) proper protection of natural resources
491. All are considered hazardous waste except one. Which of the
following?
a) Solid waste
b) Ignitable waste
c) Corrosive waste
d) Reactive waste
492. How will you identify hazardous waste?

a) Talk to product suppliers and manufacturers.
b) Read product labels.
c) Ask for Material‘s Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
d) all of the above
493. Tools unattended may lead to.

a) Accident
b) Lost
c) Rust
d) All of the above
494. Farm tools and equipment should always be cared for_____

a) Longer use
b) Rust prevention
c) Saving maintenance and capital cost
d) All of the above
495. These are very large nets for active fishing.

a) Seine
b) Mesh
c) Knot
d) Cleft
496. A common disease of fresh water fish is caused by bacteria and can
be treated with tetracyclines
and the vibrio infections respond to sulphonamide therapy.
a) Furunculosis
b) Trematodes
c) Nematode
d) Parasitic protozoan
497. The pathogen on fish disease that can cause black spots and
yellowish cysts on gills.
a) Trematodes
b) Nematode
c) Parasitic protozoan
d) Fungus
498. He ppathogen responsible on fish disease that causes fish tried to

scrap its body on hard surfaces.
a) Trematodes
b) Nematode
c) Parasitic protozoan
d) Fungus
499. It refers to the type of aquaculture wherein it uses large stagnant

ponds that allow only a low
stocking density and rely on natural production to feed the animals
(i.e. there is no supplemental feeding). Management and skills input
are low.
a) Intensive
b) Semi-intensive
c) Extensive
d) Semi-extensive
500. It refers to the type of aquaculture wherein livestock are maintained

at high stocking densities and
feeding comes solely from introduced feeds. The culture systems
tend to be highly technical and rely on electricity to operate. The
space required is relatively small and the system is designed to
optimize water use and quality. Management and skills input are high.
a) Intensive
b) Semi-intensive
c) Extensive
d) Semi-extensive
45
References
HORTICUL
TURE: an
EXPLORAT
ORY
COURSE
CROP
PRODUCTI
ON an
Exploratory
Course
LET Comprehensive reviewer: Agriculture and Fishery Arts, Volume 5
K to 12 Basic Education Curriculum:Technology and
Livelihood Education Learning Module A Manual for
Rural Freshwater Aquaculture
46

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REVIEWER: AGRICULTURE AND FISHERY ARTS

4. The following are the importance of agriculture EXCEPT

5. The following are divisions of horticulture EXCEPT

7. The following are importance of plants EXCEPT

8. The following are negative effects of plants EXCEPT

9. The part of plant that absorbs water and nutrients.

10. The following are the functions of root EXCEPT

14. The part of the roots considered to be the site of absorption.

17. The following are the functions of the stem EXCEPT

18. A type of stem which is usually soft and bendable.

19. A type of stem which is hard and cannot bend easily.

22. An internal stem structure which carries manufactured foods down.

25. It is consider being the manufacturing organ of the plant.

26. The following are the functions of leaf EXCEPT

34. The main body of the leaf.

35. The large central vein of the leaf.

37. It is responsible for gas and water exchange in the leaf.

39. The middle layer of the leaf where photosynthesis occurs.

40. It refers to arrangement of leaves on a stem.

41. The following are types of phyllotaxy of leaves EXCEPT

42. It refers to the arrangement of veins in a leaf.

45. The following are functions of flower EXCEPT

46. The female part of a flower.

47. The male part of a flower.

49. It is where the eggs are produced and seeds develop.

50. It produces and holds the pollen.

51. The stalk that holds up the anther.

52. It refers to the collection of petals in a flower.

56. It refers to the collection of petals in a flower.

59. A classification of flower characterized by having stamen and pistil.

60. A classification of flower characterized by lacking one sex structure.

68. It protects the seed from fungi, bacteria, and insects.

70. It admits water to the embryo before the active germination.

71. The following are the importance of plant classification EXCEPT

72. The mode of reproduction wherein plants reproduce by any

79. The plants is classified in terms of growth habit where herbaceous

81. The plants is classified in terms of growth habit characterized for

84. Plants adapted to growing in water or waterlogged soil.

88. Terrestrial plants which are adapted to moderate conditions.

90. Plants that are adapted to low intensity or shade.

91. Plants that are adapted to conditions with little or no water.

104. Aesthetically appealing plants grown in the landscape to suppress

105. These are plants grown at the edges of pathways or boundaries

107. Crop which is planted simultaneously with or before the flowering

111. A leguminous crop grown to be plowed under the soil to increase

113. Crop grown mainly to produce green manure and mulch.

117. The process of multiplying or increasing the population of a

118. The following are importance of plant propagation EXCEPT

119. The type of propagation using seeds and spores.

121. The following are the characteristics of sexual propagation EXCEPT

122. The following are disadvantages of sexual propagation EXCEPT

123. The process by which pollen is transferred in plants.

126. It refers to abiotic pollination where pollination occurs by wind.

133. Development of a new plant naturally or artificially without a use of

134. The following are the disadvantages of asexual propagation EXCEPT

135. A modified underground stem serving as an organ of vegetative

137. Underground stem that is very small and disc-like.

138. Underground stem which considered being a bulb-like structure.

139. It refers to a common practice to vegetative propagated cultivars that