Biology Genetics A-Level Paper One

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BIOLOGY

GENETICS A-LEVEL PAPER ONE

1. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a double recessive gene and sufferers usually die before
maturity. The continued existence of the sickle cell allele among the human population
demonstrates
A. Drug resistance
B. Heterozygous advantage
C. In – breeding
D. Genetic drift

2. At which one of the following stages of cell division does a cell have the same nucleic content as
that at metaphase I?
A. Anaphase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Telophase II
D. Prophase II

3. An occurrence of a phenotypic ratio 3 : 1 in a Dihybrid cross is an indication of


A. Linked genes
B. Crossing over chromosomes
C. Failure of homologous chromosomes to separate
D. Dominance

4. Which one of the following is correct about the first division of meiosis but not that of mitosis?

A. Nucleolus disappears
B. Spindle is formed
C. Centrioles move to opposite poles of the nucleus
D. Homologous chromosomes associate to form bivalents.

A.

5. Which one of the following statements is not correct about a test cross?

A. It is carried out on an organism with a dominant phenotype


B. The offspring of the cross may all have dominant phenotype
C. The organism of the unknown genotype is crossed with a homozygous dominant individual
D. The offspring of the cross may have the ratio of 1 dominant phenotype: 1 recessive
phenotype

6. Which of the following conditions result from gene mutation?

A. Klinefelter’s syndrome
B. Turner’s syndrome
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Down’s syndrome

7. If the triplet of mRNA is AAG what is the complementary triplet of the bases on the tRNA
molecule?

A. TTC
B. UUC
C. CCT
D. CCU

8. Which one of the following factors does not increase the chances of fertilization in mammals?

A. Seasonal breeding cycles


B. Female receptiveness to the male only during ovulation
C. Internal fertilization
D. Development of secondary sex characteristics

9. Which one of the following does not lead to change in allele frequency of a population?

A. Mutation
B. Selection
C. Sexual recombination
D. Genetic drift

10. Mendelian expected probabilities of genotypes in a cross occur when

A. Small numbers of offspring are produced


B. Migrations occur in a population
C. Mutations arise
D. Fertilization is random

11.The process of changing the information on mRNA into formation of polypeptides is known as

A. Transcription
B. Translation
C. Transduction
D. transformation

12. Establishing the genotype of an organism by crossing it with a homozygous recessive individual is
carrying out a

A. Test cross
B. Dihybrid cross
C. Back cross
D. Monohybrid cross

13. In guinea pigs, the allele for rough coat (R) is dominant over the smooth coat (r) and that for black
coat (B) is dominant over one for white coat (b). The allele for coat type and colour are not linked. A
cross between rough black guinea pig and rough white one produced 28 rough black, 31 rough white, 11
smooth black and 10 smooth white. Which one of the following could be the genotype of the parents?

A. RrBb × Rrbb
B. RRBB × RRbb
C. RRBb × Rrbb
D. RrBB × Rrbb

14.Figure 1 below represents a stage of cell division

Which one of the following stages is represented in the figure?

A. Metaphase of mitosis
B. Interphase
C. Anaphase of mitosis
D. Metaphase I of meiosis

15. Which one of the following is true about sex-linked characters in humans?

A. Females never suffer from the trait


B. Females do not pass on the character to their sons.
C. Females are either normal or carriers
D. Males are either carriers or sufferers

16. Which one of the following cannot be parents of a child of blood group O?

A. Man of blood group A and woman of blood group B.


B. Both man and woman of blood group A
C. Both man and woman of blood group B
D. Man of blood group AB and woman of blood group O.

17. Which of the following factors would contribute least to the development of new species?
A. Gene mutation
B. Chromosomal mutation
C. Geographical isolation
D. Environmental stability

18. A rhesus positive foetus whose mother is rhesus negative may not be born alive
because the
A. Mother’s body produces antigens against foetal antibodies
B. Foetus lacks antibodies against the mothers antigens
C. Mother’s body produces antibodies against the foetal antigens
D. Mother’s red blood cells mix with the foetal blood

19. Which one of the following is true of linked characteristics? They

A. Are always transmitted as a single block


B. Are allelic to each other
C. Occur on non- homologous chromosomes
D. Can be transmitted independently ]

20. A muscle cell of an animal was found to contain 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would a
germinal epithelium cell within the ovary of the animal contain?

A. 24
B. 12
C. 48
D. 36

21.Which one of the following is not a form of inbreeding?

A. Cross-breeding off springs of same parents


B. Self-fertilization
C. Back crossing
D. Test crossing

22. A coffee plant known as to be heterozygous for a recessive defect which makes the plant fail to
produce viable seeds, was self-pollinated and gave rise to 600 seedlings. How many of the seedlings
were heterozygous?

A. 150.
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
23. Which of the following hereditary characteristics is known to be sex limited?

A. Heamophilia
B. Baldness
C. Albinism
D. Colour-blindness

24. Which one of the following shows the correct coding sequence during protein synthesis?

A. DNA → mRNA → tRNA → rRNA → amino acids


B. rRNA → tRNA → mRNA → polypeptide
C. RNA → mRNA → tRNA → protein
D. DNA → mRNA → rRNA → tRNA → amino acids

25. In a plant species, the allele for tallness (T) and blue flowers (B) is dominant to that for shortness (t)
and white flowers (b). A tall plant with blue flowers was crossed with a short plant with white flowers.
The results obtained were:

1 Tall blue : 1 Tall white : 1 Short blue : 1 Short white

The genotype of the tall blue flowered parent was

A. TtBb
B. ttBB
C. TTBb
D. Ttbb

26. Which one of the following statements is true of first division of meiosis but untrue of mitosis?

A. The chromosomes number maintained in the daughter cells


B. Four daughter cells are formed
C. The chromosome number is doubled in the daughter cell
D. Homologous chromosomes come together at the equator

27. Which of the following show divergent evolution?


A. Wings of a cockroach and a bat
B. Skeleton of a mouse and cray fish
C. Fore limbs of a pigeon and a monkey
D. Eyes of a locust and a kite

28. Which one of the following is caused by a defect on a recessive sex linked allele?

A. Albinism
B. Colour blindness
C. Sickle cell
D. ABO blood group system

29. In sexually reproducing organisms, maintenance of a species is achieved at meiosis by

A. halving DNA amount


B. Doubling DNA amount
C. Maintaining DNA amount
D. increasing DNA amount by fourfold

30. The two strands of DNA easily separate during replication because of the

A. helical nature of the nucleotides


B. The closeness of the base pairs
C. weak hydrogen bonds between base pairs
D. the weak hydrogen bonds between phosphate and sugar

31. In flowering plants, the number of chromosomes in the structure which gives rise to the embryo sac is
A. n
B. 2n
C. 3n
D. 4n

32. If a father has blood group A and the mother blood AB then the number of possible genotypes of their
offspring is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
33. If a messenger RNA has a base sequence of CUGACGAGU, which one of the following would be the
possible maximum number of amino acids coded for, if the code is overlapping?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3
34. In flowers, the heterozygous condition of the alleles for Red petals (R) and white petals (W), are pink.
Which one of the following proportions and colour of petals is correct if a pink flowered
plant is crossed with a red flowered plant?
A. 3 red : 1 white
B. 3 red : 1 pink
C. 1 pink : 1 red
D. 1 pink : 1 white

35. Figure 1 below shows an animal cell during meiosis

Chromatid

Fig.1

Which one of the following stages is illustrated?


A. Prophase I
B. Prophase II
C. Metaphase I
D. Metaphase II

Use the information to answer questions 36 and 37

In mice, yellow fur (Y) is dominant over fur (y). When two mice were mated, the offspring were
in the ratio of 2 yellow to 1 grey.

36. From the results, which of the following were the likely genotypes of the parents?

A. Both were homozygous dominant


B. Both were heterozygous
C. One was heterozygous and the other homozygous dominant
D. Both were homozygous recessive
37. Which of the following best explains the results?

A. Double recessive allele for fur colour is lethal


B. Heterozygous condition for fur colour is lethal
C. Fur colour could be sex linked
D. Double dominant allele for fur colour is lethal

38. Which one of the following is true of diploid parthenogenesis?

The eggs are formed by


A. Meiosis and develop without being fertilized
B. Mitosis and develop after fertilization
C. Meiosis and develop after fertilization
D. Mitosis and develop and develop without being fertilized

39. The phenotype resulting from a cross between red eyed and white eyed fruit flies depends on which
parent is red eyed. This means that the gene for eye colour is

A. Polygenic
B. Sex linked
C. Homogametic
D. Sex limited

40. During what stage of prophase I of meiosis are homologous chromosomes attracted to each other
and come together?
A. Leptotene
B. Zygoten
C. Pacytene
D. Diplotene

41. Which base sequence below will pair with AGU?

A. TGC
B. TCA
C. GCC
D. ATT

42. Which one of the following would cause phenotype variation among organisms of the same
genotype?

A. Exposure to different environments


B. Continuous variation within the species
C. Different sexes
D. Mutation

43. Which one of the following phenotype ratios results from a recombination due to linkage?

A. 4:1:1:4
B. 1:2:1
C. 2:1
D. 1:1

44. A woman produced five children. The first two children were girls, followed by a boy. The last
two children were again girls. What is the probability that the sixth child will be a boy?

A. ¼ B. ½ C. 1/6 D. 1/8

45. Which of these is not a likely result of polyploidy in plants?

A. Increased hardiness
B. Resistance to diseases
C. Decreased hybrid vigor
D. Formation of seedless large fruits

46. Two populations of a given species could only evolve into two distinct species if they were
subjected to

A. Disruptive selection
B. Geographical isolation
C. Stabilizing selection
D. Genetic isolation

47. A boy has blood group A and his sister has blood group B. Which combination of genotype cannot
belong to their parents?

Mother Father
A. IAIA IBIo
B. IAIB IAIB
C. IoIo IAIB
D. IBIo IAIo
48. During meiosis crossing-over occurs between one of the following

A. Two centromeres of homologous chromosomes


B. Two homologous chromosomes
C. Two non-homologous chromatids
D. Two homologous chromatids

49. The pastoralist usually retains within his herd, a bull which whose ancestors have got desirable
characteristics. This is an example of

A. Inbreeding
B. Artificial insemination
C. Cross-breeding
D. Artificial selection

50 .The existence of different castes within termites is an instance of


A. Polymorphism
B. Genetic drift
C. Melanism
D. Natural selection

51. What is the maximum number of triplets of nucleotides that could code for the 20 amino acids?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 48
D. 64

52.The following results were obtained from this selfing of the F1 generation of pure breeding parents
for tall and dwarf plants.

Dominant trait Recessive trait Number of F2


Offspring
Tall plants Dwarf plants 825

What would be the actual number of F2 offspring with tall plants?


A. 6189
B. 4126
C. 2063
D. 150

53. Which of the following statements is not true of a recessive sex-linked character in humans?
A. It is found more frequently in males than in females
B. It does not appear in a female unless it also appeared in the paternal parent
C. It rarely appears in both father and son, then only if the maternal parent is heterozygous
D. It is found more frequently in the female than in the male

54. Chromosomal mutation by inversion is represented by


A B C D
a a a a
b b b b
c e c
d d m
e e c n
f f f p

55. Which one of the following tRNA anti-codons will correspond to the MRNA base triplets
CAT?
A. GUA C. GUC
B. GTC D. GTA

56. What would be the proportions of the F1 generation if a double recessive parent is crossed with
a double heterozygous one?

A. 1:1:1:1
B. 1:2:2:1
C. 9:3:3:1
D. 1:3

57. If x pictograms of DNA are contained are contained in a cell whose nucleus has just mitotically
divided the amount of DNA in the next anaphase stage of mitosis would be
𝑥 𝑥
A. 4
C. 2
B. 2x D. x

58. When does synapsis occur during meiosis?


A. Anaphase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Prophase I
D. Prophase II
59. In an experiment using maize with two contrasting characters, the F2 progeny were made up of 3
: 1 ratio instead of the 9 : 3 : 1 Dihybrid ratio. This is most likely to be a case of
A. Crossing over
B. Sex – linkage
C. Ordinary linkage
D. Incomplete dominance
60. Colorblindness in man is a sex – linked recessive condition. If a normal man marries a woman whose
father was colorblind, what are the chances of their male children being colour blind?

A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%

61. Which one of the following phenotypic ratios results from Dihybrid inheritance?

A. 1:1
B. 1:2:1
C. 3:1
D. 9:3:3:1

62. The following results were obtained from the selfying of the F1 generation of pure breeding pea
parents for round and wrinkled seeds.

Dominant trait Recessive trait Number of F2


Offspring
Round seeds Wrinkled seeds 7524

What would be the actual number of F2 offspring with round seeds?


A. 1881 B. 2508 C. 3762 D. 5643
SECTION B
1. (a) Distinguish between hybrid and hybrid vigour. (02 marks)

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(b) Explain how each of the following may alter the gene frequency.
(i) Closeness of populations. (04 marks)

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(ii) Small population size. (04 marks)

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1. (a) Illustrating with a cell of one pair of homologous chromosomes, draw diagrams in the
space below to show
(i) Mitotic metaphase (02 marks)

(ii) Meiotic metaphase I (02 marks)

(iii) Meiotic metaphase II (02 marks)


(b) Explain how meiosis contributes to genetic variation. (04 marks)

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1. (a) Outline the causes of gene reshuffling. (03 marks)

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(b) In what way may variation resulting from gene reshuffling differ from that caused by
mutation? (03 marks)

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(c) What is the importance of variation in a population? (02 marks)

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(d) Explain how constancy of species may be maintained through natural selection.
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. In Drosophila, the genes for broad abdomen and long wing are dominant over the genes for narrow
abdomen and vestigial wing. Pure breeding strains of the double dominant variety were crossed with a
double recessive variety and a test cross was carried out on the F1 generation.

(a) Using suitable symbols, work out the expected phenotype ratio of the test cross of
the F1 generation, if the genes for abdomen width and length of wing are linked.
(07 marks)

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(b) It was however observed that when the test cross of the F1 generation was carried
out, the following results were obtained. (03 marks)
Broad abdomen, long wing 380
Narrow abdomen, vestigial wing 396
Broad abdomen, vestigial wing 14
Narrow abdomen, long wing 10

Calculate the distance in units, between the genes ,for abdomen width and length of
wing.

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34. (a) (i) What is meant by natural selection? (2 marks)

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(ii) How does it occur? (6 marks)
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(b) What is the importance of natural selection? (2 marks)

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39. (a) What do you understand by gene pool?

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(2 marks)
(b) What may cause a gene pool of a population to be static?

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(2 marks)
(c) (i) State three factors that may contribute to the change in frequency of dominant and
recessive alleles in a population.
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(3 marks)
(ii) Explain how each factor stated in c(i) above may cause changes in the frequency of the
dominant and recessive alleles in a population.

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(3 marks)
1. In poultry, feather colour is controlled by two sets of alleles, W(white) dominant over w
(coloured) and B (black) dominant over b(brown). A fowl heterozygous for both alleles (WwBb)
is white.
(a) Explain why the genetic constitution of WwBb is white.

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(2 marks)

(b) Work out to show the phenotype ratio of crossing a white cock (WwBb), with a brown hen.

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(7 marks)

(c) State the possible genotypes of a black fowl.

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(1 mark)

40. Figure 4 shows how sickle cell anaemia has affected a family line. Sickle cell anaemia is a recessive
genetic defeat which is not linked. (Individuals are numbered 1,2,3, ……12)

1 2

3 4 5 6

7 8 9 10

Key to phenotypes 11 12

Affected female
Unaffected female
Affected male
Unaffected male Fig. 4
(a) State the numbers of all the individuals in the family line that are certain to be
heterozygous for this gene.

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(2 marks)

(b) What is the probability that individual 6 is heterozygous for this gene?
(Show your working)

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(1 mark)

(c) The parasite which causes malaria digests haemoglobin in the red blood cells. Suggest
two reasons why an individual who is heterozygous for this gene may show resistance to
malaria.

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(4 marks)

(d) State the difference between individuals who have sickle cell anemia and those that
have sickle cell trait.

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(3 marks)

44. (a) Define the following terms; back cross, sex linked and sex limited characters.

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(b) Which cells in cereals are haploid, diploid and triploid?


Haploid …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Diploid ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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(c) Describe one method by which polyploidy can be artificially induced.

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(a) In sugarcane the genes for yellow midrib (y) and long internodes (n) are recessive to green
plants midrib (Y) and short internode (N), and are on the same chromosomes. A yellow
sugarcane with long internode was crossed with a sugarcane heterozygous for yellow midrib
and long internodes. The offspring were: 256 YyNn, 38 Yynn
272 yynn, 34 yyNn
Calculate the cross over value.
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45. (a) State Darwin’s theory of natural selection.

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(b) State three observations and two conclusions from which Darwin derived his theory.

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(c) How does the modern view on evolution differ from Darwin’s view?

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1. (a) (i) What is mutation?

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(ii) State the possible causes of mutation.

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(b) What is the role of mutation in the evolution of new species?

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2. (a) What is a sex linked trait?

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(b) (i) Why are sex linked traits most common in males among humans?

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(ii) Haemophilia is a condition caused by a recessive gene carried on the X chromosome.
Determine the phenotype of the children from a carrier mother and a normal father.

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1. Mary, a student, with blood group A had a baby with blood group O. Peter, a fellow Student
who she named as responsible for the pregnancy, denied responsibility. The case was then
taken to court. The following facts were determined.

Peter’s mother was of blood group A and father, blood group B. State whether the court will
find Peter guilty or innocent. Show how you reached your conclusion.

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2. (a) State Mendel’s first law of inheritance and explain what it means

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(b) (i) State the stages of meiosis that illustrate this law

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(ii) Explain what takes place in the stages you have named in a (ii) above.

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(c) In human beings, brown eye are usually dominant over blue eyes. Suppose a blue-eyed man
marries a brown eyed woman whose father was blue-eye. What proportion of their children
would you predict will have blue eyes?

Show your working

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1. Explain what is meant by each of the following concepts


(a) Continental drift

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(b) Divergent evolution

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(c) Industrial Melanism

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(d) Vestigial organs

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1. (a) With an example in each case, distinguish between homologous and analogous organs.

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(b) (i) What is meant by the pentadactyl limb system?

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(i) How has this system been modified in the following animals to suit their functions?
The monkey,

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The rat.

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(c) What is the evolutionary significance of these modified organs?

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2. In a variety of beans, yellow seed colour is dominant over green and smooth seed coat is
dominant over wrinkled. When yellow smooth beans were crossed with green wrinkled
beans, all F1 had yellow smooth seed. The F2 progeny yielded 556 seeds.
(a) Assuming no linkage, state the four possible characters in the F2 progeny and their
corresponding phenotypic ratios.

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(b) Calculate the number of individuals for each of the characters in the F2 population.

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(c) Calculate the percentage crossover in this experiment.

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