IMPORTANT - 100 MCQs For OJS Preliminary Exam

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IMPORTANT: 100 MCQs for OJS Preliminary Exam http://www.judicialservicesindia.com/odisha-judicial-services-ex...

IMPORTANT:
100 MCQs for
OJS
Preliminary
Exam
Arcle Shared by

100 Important Multiple


Choice Questions (MCQs) for
Odisha Judicial Service (OJS)
preliminary exam!

1. On which date the


statue of the
International Criminal
Court has come into
force:

(a) 10 December, 2003

(b) 24 October, 2002

(c) 01 July, 2002

(d) 01 January, 2003.

Ans. (c)

2. Under which Article of


the U.N. Charter the
Security Council has the
power to use force
against a State:

(a) Article 41
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(a) Article 41

(b) Article 42

(c) Article 2(4)

(d) Article 24.

Ans. (d)

3. Who can request the


International Court of
Justice to give an
advisory opinion on any
legal question:

(a) Any member of the United


Nations

(b) The highest court of


Justice of any nation

(c) The General Assembly of


the United Nations

(d) Any permanent member


of the Security Council.

Ans. (c)

4. Which one of the


following organs of the
United Nations Performs
legislative functions:

(a) The General Assembly


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(a) The General Assembly

(b) The Economic and Social


Council

(c) The Trusteeship

(d) The Security Council.

Ans. (a)

5. Which one of the


following is correctly
matched:

(a) Information in cognizable


offence Sec. 154

(b) Police Officer’s power to


require attendance of
witnesses Sec. 161

(c) Search by Police Officer


Sec. 166

(d) Cases to be sent to


Magistrate when evidence is
sufficient Sec. 171.

Ans. (a)

6. Which one of the


following combinations
are not correctly
matched:
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A. Anticipatory bail 1. Sec.
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matched:

A. Anticipatory bail 1. Sec.


437, Cr.P.C.

B. Summary Dismissal 2. Sec.


384, of appeal Cr.P.C.

C. Appeal in case of 3. Sec.


376, acquittal Cr.P.C.

D. Reference to 4. Sec. 397,


High Court Cr.P.C.

Select correct answer


using the codes given
below: Codes:

(a) A-1; B-2 and D-4

(b) A-1; C-3 and D-4

(c) A-1; B-2 and C-3

(d) B-2; C-3 and D-4.

Ans. (b)

7. Who of the following


cannot claim
maintenance under
Section 125(4) of the
Cr.P.C.:

(a) Wife living in adultery

(b) Wife living separately by


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mutual consent
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(b) Wife living separately by


mutual consent

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Either (a) or (b).

Ans. (c)

8. Save in exceptional
circumstances, no
woman shall be arrested
after Sunset and before
Sunrise, and where such
exceptional
circumstances to arrest
exist, the woman police
officer shall obtain the
prior permission of the
following:

(a) District Magistrate

(b) Superintendent of Police

(c) Judicial Magistrate of the


First Class

(d) Sessions Judge.

Ans. (c)

9. Who said that


“Ownership is a plenary
control over an object”:
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(a) Hibbert
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control over an object”:

(a) Hibbert

(b) Austin

(c) Holland

(d) Salmond.

Ans. (c)

10. The concept of


“Living Law” was
expounded by which
jurist:

(a) Austin

(b) Ehrlich

(c) Pound

(d) Holland.

Ans. (b)

11. Who presides over the


Lok Sabha in the absence
of the Speaker and
Deputy Speaker:

(a) Leader of the opposition

(b) Senior most member of


the House

6 of 52 (c) A member of the six 1/10/2019 4:53 PM


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the House

(c) A member of the six


members panel determined
by the Speaker.

(d) Secretary General of the


Lok Sabha.

Ans. (c)

12. The Finance


Commission, as laid
down in Article 280 of
the Constitution, is
constituted by:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President of India

(c) Chief Justice of the


Supreme Court of India

(d) Parliament

Ans. (b)

13. The Right of Children


to Free and Compulsory
Education Act came into
force from:

(a) 1st April, 2008

(b) 1st January, 2009

7 of 52 (c) 1st April, 2010 1/10/2019 4:53 PM


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(b) 1st January, 2009

(c) 1st April, 2010

(d) 1st July, 2011

Ans. (c)

14. A proposal is revoked:

(a) Only by the death or


insanity of the proposer itself

(b) By the death or insanity if


the fact of the death or
insanity comes to the
knowledge of the acceptor

(c) By the death or insanity of


the proposer if the fact of his
death or insanity comes to the
knowledge of the acceptor
before acceptance

(d) None of the above is


correct.

Ans. (c)

15. Which one of the


following combinations is
correctly matched:

(1) Responsibility of finder


Sec. 71 of goods

(2) Surety’s liability Sec. 128


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(2) Surety’s liability Sec. 128

(3) Sub-agent Sec. 191

(4) Bailee’s particular lien


Sec.

Select the correct answer


using the codes given
below:

(a) (1), (2), and (4)

(b) (1), (2), and (3)

(c) (2), (3), and (4)

(d) (3), (4), and (1)

Ans. (b)

16. Who among the


following is not entitled
to claim maintenance
under Section 125,
Cr.P.C.:

(a) Divorced wife so long as


she does not marry

(b) Unmarried sister

(c) Adoptive mother

(d) Illegitimate minor child.

9 of 52 Ans. (b) 1/10/2019 4:53 PM


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Ans. (b)

17. When the High Court


or any Sessions Judge
calls for to examine the
record of any proceeding
before any inferior
criminal court, it is
known as:

(a) Reference

(b) Review

(c) Revision

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (c)

18. A report of person


arrested without warrant
shall be given by the
officer-in-charge of police
station to:

(a) Only District Magistrate

(b) Only Sub-divisional


Magistrate

(c) Judicial Magistrate of First


Class

(d) Either to the District


10 of 52 Magistrate or Sub- divisional 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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(d) Either to the District


Magistrate or Sub- divisional
magistrate.

Ans. (d)

19. When a search is


required to be conducted
outside India, a criminal
court may under Section
166A of the Cr.P.C. issue
a:

(a) Search warrant

(b) Letter of requisition

(c) Letter of request

(d) Written order.

Ans. (c)

20. Analytical positivism


does not mean that:

(a) Laws are in the nature of


commands

(b) Law as it is and as it ought


to be have to be separated

(c) Certain inherent moral


quality is an essential feature
of law

11 of 52 (d) Analysis of legal concepts 1/10/2019 4:53 PM


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(d) Analysis of legal concepts


is distinct from critical
evaluation.

Ans. (c)

21. “Nature has placed


man under the empire of
pleasure and pain”. It has
been said by:

(a) Bentham

(b) Austin

(c) Pound

(d) Hobbes.

Ans. (a)

22. Application for


anticipatory bail may be
made before:

(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(b) High Court

(c) Sessions Court

(d) Both (b) and (c).

Ans. (d)

12 of 52
23. Point out the 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
incorrect statement:
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23. Point out the


incorrect statement:

(a) In cognizable offence any


police officer may without an
order from a Magistrate and
without a warrant arrest any
person

(b) A private person may


arrest or cause to be arrested
any person committing a
cognizable offence

(c) An Executive Magistrate


may arrest the offender when
any offence is committed in
his presence and within his
jurisdiction

(d) None of these.

Ans. (b)

24. The power of the


Supreme Court to
transfer cases and
appeals from one High
Court to another High
Court can be exercised on
an application by which
one of the following:

(a) Registrar of the High


Court concerned
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(a) Registrar of the High


Court concerned

(b) Attorney General of India

(c) Chairperson of the Bar


Council of India

(d) Solicitor-General of India.

Ans. (b)

25. Which section of the


Cr.P.C. provides for
confirmation by the High
Court of an order of
death sentence passed by
the Sessions Court prior
to its execution:

(a) Section 366

(b) Section 368

(c) Section 369

(d) Section 371.

Ans. (a)

26. Which one of the


following statements is
wrong: It a person
forcibly resists the
endeavour to arrest him,
the Police Officer may:
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(a) Use all the means
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the Police Officer may:

(a) Use all the means


necessary to effect the arrest

(b) Cause the death of such


person irrespective of the
offence he has committed

(c) Cause the death of such


person accused of murder

(d) Cause the death of such


person accused of culpable
homicide not amounting to
murder.

Ans. (b)

27. Point out incorrect


response:

The period of limitation


for taking cognizance of
an offence shall be:

(a) Six months if offence is


punishable with fine only

(b) One year, if the offence is


punishable with
imprisonment for a term not
exceeding one year

(c) Three years, if the offence


is punishable with
15 of 52 imprisonment for a term not 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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is punishable with
imprisonment for a term not
exceeding one years but not
exceeding three years

(d) Five years, if the offence is


punishable with death
sentence.

Ans. (d)

28. In which case has the


Supreme Court held that
Section 125, Cr.P.C. was
applicable to all
irrespective of their
religion:

(a) Mohd. Umar Khan v.


Gulshan Begum

(b) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v.


Shah Bano Begum

(c) Mst. Zohara Khatoon v.


Mohd. Ibrahim

(d) Noor Saba Khatoon v.


Mohd. Quasim.

Ans. (b)

29. Which of the


following offences is not
compoundable:
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(a) Offence under section
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compoundable:

(a) Offence under section


323, I.P.C.

(b) Offence under section


334, I.P.C

(c) Offence under section


448, I.P.C.

(d) Offence under section


307, I.P.C.

Ans. (d)

30. “The choosing


between two rights where
there is a clear intention
that both were not
intended to be enjoyed”,
is known as:

(a) Doctrine of lis pendens

(b) Doctrine of election

(c) Doctrine of part


performance

(d) Doctrine of estoppel.

Ans. (b)

31. Which section of the


Criminal Procedure Code
17 of 52
provides that, the Public 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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Criminal Procedure Code


provides that, the Public
Prosecutor in charge of a
case may, with the
consent of the court at
any time before the
judgment is pronounced,
withdraw from the
prosecution of any
person in respect of any
offence for which he is
tried:

(a) Section 304

(b) Section 306

(c) Section 321

(d) Section 313.

Ans. (c)

32. Which one of the


following sections of the
Indian Evidence Act has
been substituted for the
old section by the
Information Technology
Act, 2000:

(a) Section 39

(b) Section 22

(c) Section 47
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(c) Section 47

(d) Section 65.

Ans. (a)

33. Which one of the


following is not included
in the expression ‘Court’
under the Indian
Evidence Act:

(a) All judges

(b) All persons legally


authorized to take evidence

(c) All Magistrates

(d) Arbitrator.

Ans. (d)

34. The case of Sawal Das


v. State of Bihar is related
to:

(a) Plea of Alibi

(b) Rule of Res gestae

(c) Rule of Estoppel

(d) Rule of Res judicata.

Ans. (b)
19 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
35. Which Section of the
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Ans. (b)

35. Which Section of the


Indian Evidence Act
makes the provision that
there shall be no new
trial on the ground of
improper admission or
rejection of evidence:

(a) Section 166

(b) Section 165

(c) Section 167

(d) Section 161.

Ans. (c)

36. Who has written the


following words: “Law
grows with the growth of
people, strengthens with
the strength of people
and finally it dies away as
the nation loses its
nationality”:

(a) Hart

(b) Savigny

(c) Bentham

(d) Spencer.
20 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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(d) Spencer.

Ans. (b)

37. Who defined law as


the “de psychologised
command”:

(a) Kelsen

(b) Bentham

(c) Austin

(d) Salmond.

Ans. (a)

38. The principal jurist of


the Philosophical School
was:

(a) Herbert Spencer

(b) Sir Henry Maine

(c) Max Waber

(d) Hegel.

Ans. (d)

39. Name the jurist who


is called as “Darwinian
before Darwin” and
“Sociologist before
21 of 52
Sociologists”: 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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“Sociologist before
Sociologists”:

(a) Kelsen

(b) Savigny

(c) Pound

(d) Gray.

Ans. (b)

40. “Law should continue


to support minimum
morality” has been
pleaded by:

(a) Lord Devlin

(b) Hart

(c) Lon Fuller

(d) Dwarkin.

Ans. (a)

41. Which among the


following statements is
true:

(a) The Resolution of United


Nations Organisation (UNO)
is not binding on the member
countries

22 of 52
(b) The Resolution of United 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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countries

(b) The Resolution of United


Nations Organisation is
binding on the member
countries

(c) The Resolution of United


Nations Organisation is
binding upon a country if it is
sanctioned by other country

(d) The Resolution of United


Nations Organisation is
binding if White House
approves it.

Ans. (a)

42. Arrange the following


engines in descending
order of their efficiency:

(I) Diesel

(II) Petrol

(III) Steam

(a) I, II, III

(b) III, II, I

(c) II, I, HI

(d) II, III, I.

23 of 52
Ans. (b) 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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(d) II, III, I.

Ans. (b)

43. Which of the


following is true about s.
15, Specific Relief Act,
1963?

A. It enumerates the persons,


besides the actual
contractors, who are entitled
to sue on a contract

B. It involves no principle
peculiar to the remedy of
specific performance

C. This section corresponds


with s. 23 of the Repealed Act

D. All of these

Ans. D

44. Heart beats…………. in


fever:

(a) Faster

(b) Slower

(c) Unevenly

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)
24 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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Ans. (a)

45. Deficiency of proteins


causes:

(a) Kwashiorkar

(b) Xerophthalmia

(c) Goitre

(d) Tuberculosis.

Ans. (a)

46. Which of the


following transponders
are very crucial for the
VSAT services for
business operations
corporate networks etc.:

(a) S – band

(b) XC-band

(c) C – band

(d) Ku-band.

Ans. (b)

47. Which of the


following is a condition
for valid acknowl-
edgement of paternity by
25 of 52 a Mahomedan? 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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edgement of paternity by
a Mahomedan?

A. The person acknowledged


must not be known to be the
child of another man

B. The person acknowledged


must not have repudiated the
acknowledgement

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B

Ans: C

48. F a Mahomedan
father of 25 years of age,
acknowledges S of 17
years of age as a son.
Which of the following
statements will apply?

A. The acknowledgement is
valid in case of Shia law

B. Acknowledgement is
invalid in case of Sunni law

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B

Ans: B

26 of 52 49. Which of the 1/10/2019 4:53 PM


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49. Which of the


following property will be
considered as
self-acquired property of
a Hindu?

I. Property granted by
government to a member of a
joint family is normally
self-acquired property of
done

II. All acquisitions made by


means of learning are
self-acquired property

III. Ancestral property lost to


a family, and recovered by a
member without assistance of
joint family property

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. Ill and I

D. I, II and III

Ans: D

50. Indian Remote


Sensing (IRS) system was
commissioned with the
launch of IRS – 1A in the
27 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
year:
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commissioned with the


launch of IRS – 1A in the
year:

(a) 1985

(b) 1987

(c) 1989

(d) 1988.

Ans. (d)

51. Where the Remote


Sensing satellite are
usually deployed in:

(a) Sunsynchronous Polar


Orbit at a height of 800-1000
km

(b) Sunsynchronous Polar


Orbit at a height of 800-1000
km

(c) Sunsynchronous Polar


Orbit at a height of 36,000 km

(d) Sunsynchronous
Equatorial Orbit at a height of
36,000 km.

Ans. (a)

52. Which of the


following is true about
28 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
removing the strong
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52. Which of the


following is true about
removing the strong
presumption under s. 10,
Specific Relief Act, 1963?

A. Mere specification in the


agreement of the amount to
be paid in the event of breach
of contract

B. Sufficiency or insufficiency
of such a specification is a
matter of evidence

C. either (A) or (B)

D. None of these

Ans. B

53. Which of the


following is the usual
form of the decree in a
suit of specific
performance?

A. The agreement is ordered


to be specifically performed

B. The agreement is ordered


to be carried into execution
with a further provision about
the details of the steps to be
taken by the parties

29 of 52 C. both (A) and (B) 1/10/2019 4:53 PM


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C. both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Ans. C

54. The satellite passes


over the same spot on
Earth every
_____________:

(a) week

(b) 10-13 days

(c) 16-22 days

(d) month.

Ans. (c)

55. Austin was the first


Professor of
Jurisprudence in the:

(a) University of Chicago

(b) University of London

(c) University of Warwick

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (b)

56. The maximum


30 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
percentage in the
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56. The maximum


percentage in the
atmosphere is of:

(a) Oxygen

(b) Nitrogen

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Helium.

Ans. (b)

57. Rickets is a disease


caused due to deficiency
of:

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin B

(c) Vitamin C

(d) Vitamin D.

Ans. (d)

58. Towards the end of


the Nineteenth century,
changing human affairs
had brought about an
ever-increasing
preoccupation with
………….. and troubled
social conditions:
31 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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………….. and troubled


social conditions:

(a) Conflicting ideologies

(b) Similar ideologies

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these.

Ans. (a)

59. ……………. were the


founders of British
positivism:

(a) Bentham and his disciple


Austin

(b) H.L.A. Hart and Kelsen

(c) Savigny and Roscoe Pound

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)

60. In India who is


supreme:

(a) Constitution

(b) President of India

(c) Chief Justice of India

(d) Prime Minister.


32 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
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(d) Prime Minister.

Ans. (a)

61. The failure to pay rent


is an act of the firm
within the meaning of
which of the following
sections of the Indian
Partnership Act, 1932?

A. Section 22

B. Section 23

C. Section 24

D. Section 25

Ans: D

62. Explanation to which


of the following sections
of the Indian Partnership
Act, 1932 lays down that
participation in profits is
not conclusive, and
cannot of itself constitute
a partnership?

A. Section 3

B. Section 4

C. Section 5
33 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
D. Section 6
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C. Section 5

D. Section 6

Ans: D

63. Gandhiji started


Dandi March in 1930:

(a) Against atrocities


committed on Harijans

(b) Against imposition of Salt


Tax Laws

(c) Against the


commencement of communal
awards

(d) All the above.

Ans. (b)

64. Gandhiji’s
“Champaran Movement”
was for:

(a) Civil Disobedience


Movement

(b) The security of rights of


Harijans

(c) Solving the problem of


Indigo workers

(d) Maintaining the unity of


34 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
Hindu society.
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(d) Maintaining the unity of


Hindu society.

Ans. (c)

65. During the Sultanate


period in ancient India,
the accession of a king
was traditionally done
by:

(a) Battle between probable


candidates

(b) Succession

(c) Nomination

(d) Election.

Ans. (a)

66. Which one of the


following does not find a
place in the Preamble of
the Constitution of India:

(a) Integrity

(b) Sovereignty

(c) Morality

(d) Justice

Ans. (c)
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Ans. (c)

67. In which case did the


Supreme Court give
ruling that the Preamble
was not a Part of the
Constitution:

(a) Berubari’s case, AIR 1960


SC 845

(b) Keshavananda Bharati’s


case, AIR 1973 SC 1461

(c) Golak Nath’s case, AIR


1967 SC 1643

(d) D.K. Basu’s case, AIR 1997


SC 610.

Ans. (a)

68. Preamble to the


Constitution is the Part of
the Constitution itself.
This observation of
Supreme Court was held
in case of:

(a) Keshavananda Bharati v.


State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC
1461

(b) Vishakha v. State of


Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011
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Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011

(c) D.K. Basu v. State of West


Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610

(d) R.S. Nayak v. A.R.


Antulay, AIR 1986 SC 2045.

Ans. (a)

69. The Preamble to the


Indian Constitution is:

(a) Not a part of the


Constitution

(b) A part of the Constitution


but it neither confers any
power nor imposes any duties
nor can it be of any use in
interpreting other provisions
of the Constitution

(c) A part of the Constitution


and can be of use in
interpreting other provisions
of the Constitution in cases of
ambiguity

(d) A part of the Constitution


and it confers powers and
imposes duties as any other
provisions of the
Constitution.

Ans. (c)
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Ans. (c)

70. The concept of


Secular State is that the
State will not make any
discrimination on the
ground of religion, caste
or community against
any person professing
any particular form of
religious faith. The
Secularism is embodied
in:

(a) Preamble of Constitution

(b) Directive Principles of


State Policy

(c) Fundamental Rights

(d) Judicial Independence.

Ans. (a)

71. The Great Bath is the


most famous structure of:

(a) Mohenjodaro

(b) Harappa

(c) Lothal

(d) Kalibangan.
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Ans. (a)
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(d) Kalibangan.

Ans. (a)

72. Which one of the


following is not suspected
to be a cause of decline of
Indus Valley civilization:

(a) Migration

(b) Aryan Invasion

(c) Floods

(d) Earthquake.

Ans. (a)

73. Which of the


following Acts does not
impose disability upon
members of a Hindu
undivided family in the
matter of entering into a
contract inter se with a
stranger?

A. Indian Contract Act

B. Indian Penal Code

C. Code of Criminal
Procedure

D. None of these
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Ans: A
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D. None of these

Ans: A

74. The plaintiff-landlord


could elect to proceed
against the contracting
alone by virtue of the
following sections of the
Indian Partnership Act,
1932?

A. Section 20

B. Section 22

C. Section 25

D. Section 27

Ans: C

75. Which of the


following is an alias for
the partners?

A. Firm

B. Partnership

C. Either (A) or (B)

D. None of these

Ans: B

76. Rig Veda is a


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76. Rig Veda is a


collection of…………..
hymns:

(a) 1028

(b) 1000

(c) 1038

(d) 786.

Ans. (a)

77. There are 108


Upanishads in India
which contain:

(a) Philosophical knowledge

(b) Rituals

(c) Ceremonies

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)

78. One Nautical mile is


equal to:

(a) 12 kms

(b) 2 kms

(c) 1.852 kms

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(d) 1.1 kms.
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(c) 1.852 kms

(d) 1.1 kms.

Ans. (c)

79. Centre for


e-Governance is set up in:

(a) The premises of Electronic


Niketan, New Delhi

(b) The premises of Vigyan


Bhawan, New Delhi

(c) In the premises of


Parliament, New Delhi

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (a)

80. National Highway


No.1 links Delhi and:

(a) Amritsar

(b) Allahabad

(c) Kolkata

(d) Chennai.

Ans. (a)

81. Which of the


following can claim
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following can claim


specific performance?

I. An assignee of an option of
repurchase where the option
has been exercised by the
assignor in due conformity
with the terms of the contract

II. Assignees and successor’s


in interest of parties to a
partition deed containing a
pre-emption clause

III. Co-purchaser who has got


assigned the rights from the
other co-purchaser

IV. A stranger having an


assignment of the right of
reconveyance from one heir
of the party to the sale deed
designated in the sale deed as
beneficiary to the exclusion of
the other heirs

A. II, III, IV

B. II, IV

C. I, III, IV

D. All of these

Ans: D

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82. Which of the
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Ans: D

82. Which of the


following are true about
the word ‘possession’
used in s. 5 of the Specific
Relief Act, 1963?

A. It is prima facie proof of


property

B. It is good title against all


who cannot show better title

C. It constitutes by itself, a
limited title to the property

D. All of these

Ans: D

83. Which of the


following are principles
of mutuality admitted of
exceptions?

A. Conditional contracts

B. Unilateral contracts

C. Contracts in the nature of


undertakings

D. All of these

Ans: D

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84. Which of the
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Ans: D

84. Which of the


following is a riverine
port:

(a) Kolkata

(b) Chennai

(c) Cochin

(d) Mumbai.

Ans. (a)

85. The highest Indian


peak is:

(a) Everest

(b) Godwin Austin

(c) Kanchenjunga

(d) Nanga Parbat.

Ans. (c)

86. Two National


Highways-Kanya Kumari
to Srinagar and
Porbandar to Silcher,
which are being
constructed under
National Highway
Development Project,
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shall meet together at:
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Development Project,
shall meet together at:

(a) Bhopal

(b) Gwalior

(c) Jhansi

(d) Nagpur.

Ans. (c)

87. “Rejection of Plaint”


is mentioned under:

(a) Order VII, Rule 11

(b) Order VI, Rule 13

(c) Order VII, Rule 12

(d) Order VIII, Rule 4.

Ans. (a)

88. Which of the


following combinations
are not correctly
matched:

1. Execution of decree Sec. 77,


C.P.C.

2. Letter of request Sec. 82,


C.P.C.
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3. Legal representative Sec.
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C.P.C.

3. Legal representative Sec.


50, C.P.C.

4. Institution of suit Sec. 28,


C.P.C.

Select the correct answer


using the codes given
below:

Codes:

(a) (1), (2) and (3)

(b) (1), (2) and (4)

(c) (1), (3) and (4)

(d) (2), (3) and (4).

Ans. (b)

89. Which one of the


following cases is on
second appeal:

(a) Madan Lai v. Bai Krishna

(b) Sudhir G. Angur v. M.


Sanjeev

(c) Sheodan Singh v. Daryao


Kunwar

(d) Harshad Chiman Lai Modi


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v. D.L.F. Universal Ltd.
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(d) Harshad Chiman Lai Modi


v. D.L.F. Universal Ltd.

Ans. (a)

90. Dasti summons for


service on the defendant
can be given to the
plaintiff under:

(a) Order V, Rule 9A, C.P.C.

(b) Order V, Rule 9, C.P.C.

(c) Order IV, Rule 7, C.P.C. ,

(d) Order VI, Rule 6, C.P.C.

Ans. (a)

91. Section 115 of the Civil


Procedure Code provides
for the following:

(a) Reference

(b) Review

(c) Revision

(d) Appeal to the Supreme


Court.

Ans. (c)

92. Order XXIII of the


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92. Order XXIII of the


Civil Procedure Code
applies to the following:

(a) Withdrawal of suits

(b) Appeals

(c) Execution proceeding

(d) All the above.

Ans. (a)

93. What is the term of


office of the judges of
International Court of
Justice:

(a) 5 years

(b) 7 years

(c) 9 years

(d) 15 years

Ans. (c)

94. The first Indian


appointed as a judge of
International Court of
Justice was:

(a) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

(b) Justice Nagendra Singh


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(b) Justice Nagendra Singh

(c) Justice Krishna Iyyer

(d) None of the above

Ans. (d)

95. Where is the


headquarters of
International Court of
Justice situated:

(a) Geneva

(b) New York

(c) Hague

(d) London

Ans. (c)

96. In which one of the


following Articles of
U.N.O. the ‘principle of
Self determination’ has
been provided:

(a) Article 1

(b) Article 2

(c) Article 3

(d) Article 4
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(d) Article 4

Ans. (a)

97. How many members


are there in Security
Council of U.N.O.:

(a) 5

(b) 10

(c) 15

(d) 20

Ans. (c)

98. What is the term of


non-permanent members
of Security Council of
U.N.O.:

(a) 2 years

(b) 3 years

(c) 4 years

(d) 5 years

Ans. (a)

99. Which country has


conducted Nuclear Test
in February, 2013:
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(a) Iran
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in February, 2013:

(a) Iran

(b) Israel

(c) South Korea

(d) North Korea

Ans. (d)

100. Which one of the


following is not a
principal organ of the
United Nations:

(a) International Court of


Justice

(b) Economic and Social


Council

(c) Trusteeship Council

(d) International Labour


Organization

Ans. (d)

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