Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Exam.2014

Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Exam.
2014
DELHI STATE JUDICIARY SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2014
S. No Common subjects Question number

1. Constitution 71-90
2. CPC 131-150
3. CRPC 111-130
4. Indian Evidence Act 26-50
5. Indian Contract Act 6-25
6. Limitation Act 51-60
7. Specific Relief Act 66-70
8. TP Act
9. IPC 91-110
10. Negotiable Instr Act
11. Law of torts
12. Registration Act
13. Partnership Act 61-65
14. Sale of Goods Act
15. Hindu Law
16. Muslim Law
17. Arbitration law 1-5
18. Delhi rent control Act
Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Exam.2014
1. An international commercial arbitration award under Section 34
arbitration is an arbitration where of the Arbitration and Conciliation
at least one of the par ties is Act, 1996?
(a) a body corporate incorporated in (a) incapacity of a party.
any country other than India. (b) arbitration agreement not being
(b) a body of individuals whose valid under the law in force.
central management and control is (c) award contains decisions on
exercised in any country other than matters beyond the scope of the
India. submission to arbitration.
(c) the Government of a foreign (d) None of these [d]
country. 5. In which of the following cases it
(d) All these [d] was held by the Supreme Court
2. As per Section 3(2) of the that Part 1 of the Arbitration and
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, Conciliation Act, 1996 would have
1996, a communication is deemed no application to International
to have been received on the day commercial arbitrations held
when outside India and therefore such
(a) it is dispatched to the addressee. awards would only be subject to
(b) it is delivered to the addressee. the jurisdiction of Indian courts
(c) written acknowledgement of the when the same are sought to be
receipt is sent to the sender. enforced in India in accordance
(d) written acknowledgement of the with Part II of the said Act?
receipt is received by the sender. [b] (a) Bharat Aluminium Company etc.
3. Which of the following is not an v. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Service
essential condition for an Inc. etc. (Balco) 2012 (9) SCC 552.
arbitration agreement as per (b) Bhatia International v. Bulk
Section 7 of the Arbitration and Trading SA and Anr. 2002 (4) SCC 105.
Conciliation Act, 1996? (c) Sachin Gupta and Anr. v. K.S.
(a) The agreement must be Forge Metal Pvt. Ltd. (2013) 10 SCC
registered. 540.
(b) The agreement must be to submit (d) Kanpur Jal Sansthan and Anr. v.
to arbitration all or certain disputes Bapu Construction 2014 (1) SCALE
which have arisen or which may arise 207. [a]
in respect of a defined legal relation 6. The term consensus ad idem
ship whether contractual or not. means
(c) The arbitration agreement must (a) no agreement can have more
be in writing. than one meaning.
(d) None of these [a] (b) to agree the same way.
4. Which of the following is not a (c) to agree on the same thing with
ground for setting aside an same sense.
(d) to agree for different objects in (b) the theory of just and reasonable
the same sense. [c] solution.
7. In which case it was held that a (c) supervening impossibility or
ontract through telephone is illegality as laid down in Section 56 of
concluded at the place where the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
acceptance is heard? (d) the principle of unjust
(a) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913) enrichment. [c]
XL ALJR 489 (AH). 11. An agreement is void if its object or
(b) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. consideration is
(1981-4) All ER Rep. 127. (a) forbidden by law.
(c) Bhagwandas Goverdhandas Kedia (b) of such nature that if permitted, it
v. M/s Girdhari Lal Parshottamdas & would defeat the provisions of law or
Co. AIR 1966 SC 543. is fraudulent.
(d) Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram (c) the Court regards it as immoral or
Bangur & Co. AIR 1954 SC 44. [c] against public policy.
8. 'A' saves 'B's property from fire, (d) All these are correct. [d]
the circumstances indicated that 12. Which of the following is not a
he had done ; so gratuitously. quasi contract?
Whether 'A' is entitled to (a) Obligation of a person enjoying
(a) compensation from 'B' benefit of non-gratuitous act.
(b) no compensation (b) Responsibility of finder of goods.
(c) compensation from the (c) Quantum meriut.
Government (d) Novation [d]
(d) compensation from heirs of 'B' 13. 'A' applies to a banker for a loan at
[b] a time when there is stringency in
9. The doctrine of privity of contract the money market. The banker
means that declines to make the loan except at
(a) a contract is a private affair an unusually high rate of interest.
between the parties. 'A' accepts the loan on these
(b) consideration can be supplied terms. In this case the contract is
only by the parties to contract. (a) vitiated by undue influence.
(c) the contract can be enforced only (b) valid because this is a transaction
by a civil and private action. in the ordinary cause of business.
(d) only parties to contract can sue (c) void because the banker took
and be sued upon the contract. [d] unfair advantage of stringency in the
10. In India, the doctrine of money market.
impossibility of performance of a (d) voidable at the option of 'A' who
contract being void, is based on was deceived by the banker. [b]
(a) the theory of implied term.
14. Inadequacy of consideration is them into his custody, is subject to
relevant in determining the the same responsibility as alan
question of (a) bailor
(a) fraud (b) indemnitee
(b) misrepresentation (c) agent
(c) undue influence (d) bailee [d]
(d) free consent [d] 19. 'A' contract to sing for 'B' at a
15. 'P' a wholesale dealer in sugar, concert for Rs. 50,000/- which are
sells sugar to 'Q' with a condition paid in advance. 'A'is too ill to sing
that 'Q' shall not sell the sugar on the day of the concert. The
beyond one kilometer of 'P's consequence is
godown. The agreement is (a) 'A' is bound to make
(a) valid compensation to 'B' for the loss of
(b) without free consent the profits which 'B' would have
(c) in restraint of trade and thus void made if 'A' had been able to sing.
(d) voidable at the option of 'P'. [c] (b) 'A' is bound to refund to 'B' Rs.
16. While determining damages for 50,000/- paid in advance.
breach of contract, which of the (c) 'A' can be forced to sing at the
following are taken into account? concert.
(a) Motive (d) 'A' is bound to refund only that
(b) Indirect loss money out of Rs. 50,000/- that he has
(c) Means or remedying the not spent. [b]
inconvenience caused by non 20. Where persons reciprocally
performance. promise, firstly to do certain things
(d) All of these [c] which are legal and secondly,
17. In case of acceptance by post, at under specified circumstances, to
what point the acceptance is do certain other things which are
complete as against the proposer? illegal the
(a) When the letter of acceptance is (a) first set of promise is a contract,
put in the course of transmission so but the second is a void agreement.
as to be out of power of the acceptor. (b) first et of promise is voidable but
(b) When the letter of acceptance has the second set is a void agreement.
been written. (c) entire set of promises is void.
(c) When the letter of acceptance has (d) entire set of promises is valid. [a]
been received 21. If the compensation to be paid on
(d) When the letter of acceptance has breach of contract is the genuine
been read by the proposer. [a] pre-estimate of the prospective
18. A person who finds goods damages, it is known as
belonging to another and takes (a) special damages
(b) penalty
(c) un-liquidated damages (b) Parties cannot contract
(d) liquidated damages [d] themselves out of the provisions of
22. Mark the correct answer in respect the Evidence Act.
of Contract of Guarantee. (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) It may be in writing (d) Neither (a) nor (b) [c]
(b) It may be oral 27. Which of the following qualities to
(c) Both (a) and (b) be treated as "Fact" within the
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) [c] meaning assigned to it under the
23. An agreement which is enforceable Evidence Act?
by law at the option of one or more (a) That a man heard or saw
of the parties thereto, but not at something
the option of the other or others, is (b) That a man holds a certain
a opinion
(a) valid contract (c) That a man acts in good faith
(b) unenforceable contract (d) All of these [d]
(c) voidable contract 28. According to the Evidence Act, a
(d) quasi-contract [c] fact is said to be "not proved",
24. An agency can be terminated by when the
(a) the principle revoking his (a) court believes that the fact does
authority not exist
(b) the agent renouncing the (b) fact is vague
business of agency (c) fact is neither proved nor
(c) either the principle or agent dying disproved
(d) All of these [d] (d) All of these [c]
25. If the time of performance of 29. 'A' prosecutes 'B' for adultery with
contract is the essence of contract 'C', wife of 'A'. 'B' contested by
and the promisor fails to perform denying the allegation. 'B' was
the contract by the specified time, found guilty and convicted in said
the contract is case. Subsequently, 'C' was
(a) void prosecuted on charge of bigamy on
(b) valid allegations that she had married
(c) voidable at the option of the 'B' during subsistence of her
promise marriage with 'A'. 'C' contested by
(d) infructuous [c] denying that she was ever married
26. Which of the following is/are to 'A'. In the case against 'C', the
correct statement(s)? judgment in the first case against
(a) Evidence excluded by the 'B' is
Evidence Act is inadmissible even if it (a) relevant
seems essential for ascertainment of (b) irrelevant
truth. (c) binding
(d) None of these [b] (i) statement is made by a person as
30. Mark the incorrect statement. to the cause of his death.
A court may take the assistance of (ii) statement is made by a person as
expert for forming opinion on to any of the circumstances of the
point of transaction which resulted in his
(a) foreign law death. person must have been under
(b) art expectation of death at the time of
(c) Both (a) and (b) making the statement.
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) [d] Which of the above propositions
31. Which of the statements given is/are correct?
below is/are correct? (a) (i) and (ii)
(a) In civil cases, the character o (b) (ii) and (iii)
prove the conduct imputed to a party (c) (i) and (iii)
is not relevant. (d) All these [a]
(b) In criminal proceedings bad 34. Which of the following statements
character of the accused is not is correct?
relevant, unless evidence of good (a) Confession caused by
character has been given. inducement, threat or promise
(c) In criminal proceedings previous flowing from person in authority,
conviction of accused is relevant as giving reasonable impression to the
evidence of bad character. accused that he would thereby avoid
(d) All these [d] punishment is relevant.
32. 'A' is on trial for the murder of 'C'. (b) Confession by accused while in
There is evidence to show that 'C' custody of police, even if made in the
was murdered by 'A' and 'B', and immediate presence of a magistrate,
that 'B' said 'A' and I murdered 'C'. shall not be proved.
As against 'A', this evidence is (c) The confession of the accused
(a) not to be taken into consideration made while in custody of police may
as the evidence is hearsay. be proved if as a consequence of
(b) to be taken into consideration as information received thereby a
it is direct. relevant fact is discovered.
(c) not to be taken into consideration (d) None of these [d]
as 'A' and 'B' are not being jointly 35. 'A' is accused of receiving stolen
tried. goods knowing them to be stolen.
(d) to be taken into consideration as He offers to prove that he refused
'A' and 'B' are accomplices. [c] to sell them below their value.
33. The essential conditions for the Which of the following is correct?
dying declaration to be relevant (a) 'A' may prove the statements,
include the though in the nature of admission,
because they are explanatory of amounts received by him. He is
conduct influenced by facts in issue. prosecuted on the charge of
(b) 'A' may not prove the statements criminal breach of trust in respect
because they are self-serving of rupees ninety thousand on the
admissions. basis of evidence showing he made
(c) 'A' may not prove the statements an entry showing that he had
because as accused he cannot be a received rupees ten thousand only
witness in his own defence. whereas he had actually received
(d) All these are incorrect. [a] rupees one lakh. 'C' has taken the
36. Which of the following is incorrect plea that the wrong entry was
under the Evidence Act? accidental and unintentional. The
(a) In a case where 'A' is charged fact that other entries made in the
with receiving a particular stolen same ledger are false, each
wristwatch knowing the same to be showing receipt of less amount by
stolen-The fact that at the same time 'C' is
he was in possession of other such (a) relevant as it has a bearing on the
stolen articles is relevant. question of intention.
(b) In a case where 'A' is tried for the (b) not relevant as the other entries
murder of 'B' by intentionally are not basis of charge.
shooting him to death-The fact (c) not relevant as the evidence is
that'A' was in the habit of shooting at extraneous.
people with intent to murder them is (d) not relevant as other entries are
relevant. not in issue. [a]
(c) In a case where 'A' is sued for 38. Mark what is not a 'public
damages for bite injury caused by his document within the meaning of
dog to 'B', 'A' having known the dog the expression used in the
to be ferocious—The fact that the Evidence Act?
dog had previously bitten 'X', 'Y' and (a) The records of Motor Accident
'Z' is relevant. Claims Tribunal.
(d) In a case where 'A' is accused of (b) The register of private documents
defaming 'B' by publishing an maintained in the office of Sub
imputation intended to harm the Registrar under the Registration Act.
reputation of 'B—The fact of previous (c) The record of proceedings of the
publications by 'A' respecting 'B', House of the People maintained in
showing ill-will on the part of 'A' the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
towards 'B' is relevant. [b] (d) Pronote executed by 'A' while
37. 'C' is employed as cashier by a firm taking loan from a money lender.
to receive money at its sale [d]
counter. It is his duty to make 39. Which of the following is correct?
entries in the ledger showing the
(a) There is a presumption that maps (b) 'A' hired lodgings of 'B' for a year.
of various States and Union A regularly stamped agreement was
Territories made by the Survey of drawn up by an attorney and signed
India are accurate. by both of them. The document is
(b) There is a presumption that map silent on the subject of board. 'A' in a
prepared by a registered architect for suit wants to prove verbal agreement
the purpose of a civil dispute is that the terms included partial board.
accurate. (c) Both in (a) and in (b)
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither in (a) and nor in (b) [b]
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) [a] 42. The burden of proving that the
40. The evidence of contents of the case of the accused comes within
information recorded or stored in a any of the General Exceptions in
computer may be given through the Indian Penal Code is upon the
computer output, without (a) prosecution
production of the original, (b) court
provided certain conditions are (c) accused
satisfied. The said conditions (d) investigating police officer [c]
include that 43. The facts of which the court must
(a) if the computer was not operating take judicial notice include the
properly during the material part of (a) Gazetted Holidays observed by
the period over which it was used to the Government of India.
store or process the information for (b) rules of road.
purposes of the relevant activities, it (c) Neither (a) nor (b)
was not such as to affect the (d) Both (a) and (b) [d]
electronic record or the accuracy of 44. Leading questions may be asked in
its content. examination-in-chief
(b) the information contained in the (a) with permission of the court as to
electronic record is derived from matters which are introductory.
such information fed into the (b) If in the opinion of the court the
computer in the ordinary course of matter involved has been already
such activities. sufficiently proved.
(c) Neither (a) nor (b) (c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b) [d] (d) Both (a) and (b) [d]
41. In which case oral evidence cannot 45. For deciding whether or not a
be given? witness shall be compelled to
(a) 'A' hired lodgings of 'B' and gives answer questions, the court shall
to 'B'a card on which he wrote have regard to considerations
‚Rooms, Rs. 2000/- a month". ‘A’ in a which include as to whether such
suit wants to prove verbal agreement questions are
that the terms included partial board.
(a) proper if the truth of imputation Afterwards the plot of land became
conveyed thereby would seriously the property of 'A'. 'A' brought a
affect the opinion of the court as to suit to set aside the sale in favour
the credibility of the witness on the of 'B' on the ground that, at the
subject matter of his deposition. time of sale, he had no title. In
(b) improper if the truth of such suit
imputation conveyed thereby would (a) 'A' may prove want of title at the
affect in a slight degree the opinion time of sale.
of the court as to the credibility of the (b) 'A' cannot be allowed to prove
witness on the subject matter of his want of his title.
deposition. (c) It depends on the value of the
(c) Both (a) and (b) property.
(d) None of these [c] (d) All these are incorrect. [b]
46. Which of the following is correct? 49. All persons are competent to
(a) Rebuttable presumption arises testify unless the court considers
that a man is alive if it is shown that that they are prevented from
he was alive within thirty years. understanding the questions put
(b) Rebuttable presumption arises to them because of
that a man is dead if it is proved that (a) tender years
he has not been heard of for seven (b) extreme old age
years by those who would naturally (c) mental disease
have heard from him if he had been (d) All these [d]
alive. 50. The Judge's power to put questions
(c) Both (a) and (b) or order production of documents
(d) None of these [c] does not include authorization to
47. The court may presume that (a) compel a witness to answer any
(a) when a document creating an question which such witness is
obligation is in the hands of the entitled to refuse to answer if the
obligor, the obligation has been question were asked by the adverse
discharged. party.
(b) judicial and official acts have not (b) to ask a question which would be
been regularly performed. proper for any other person to ask.
(c) a bill of exchange, accepted or (c) to elicit clarity on a point.
endorsed, was accepted or endorsed (d) None of these [a]
for deficient consideration. 51. Section 5 of the Limitation Act,
(d) All these are incorrect. [a] 1963 does not apply to
48. 'A' intentionally and falsely led 'B' (a) suits
to believe that a plot of land (b) execution petitions under Order
belonged to him. On that basis, he 21 CPC.
induced 'B' to buy and pay for it.
(c) petitions for divorce under the 55. In case of a suit by a person
Hindu Marriage Act, 1956 excluded from a joint family
(d) All these [d] property to enforce a right to
52. Which of the following is not a share therein, the time from which
disability under Section 6 (legal the period of limitation (12 years
disability) of the Limitation Act, under Article 110 of the Schedule of
1963? the Limitation Act, 1963) begins to
(a) Minority run is
(b) Insanity (a) from the date of exclusion.
(c) Insolvency (b) when the exclusion becomes
(d) Idiocy [c] known to the plaintiff.
53. In case of a suit for property which (c) when the plaintiff makes known
the plaintiff has conveyed while his intention to recover possession.
insane, the time from which the (d) the date of refusal to hand over
period of limitation (three vears possession to the plaintiff. [b]
under Article 102 of the Schedule of 56. The Supreme Court in Collector
the Limitation Act, 1963) begins to Land Acquisition, Anantnag v.
run is Katiji, AIR 1987 SC 1353 laid down
(a) when the plaintiff is restored to the
sanity. (a) guiding principles for deciding an
(b) the date the property was application under Section 5 of
conveyed. Limitation Act, 1963.
(c) when the plaintiff has knowledge (b) principles governing the nature of
of the conveyance. acknowledgement under Section 18
(d) Both (a) and (c) [d] of the Limitation Act, 1963.
54. A suit to set aside a transfer of (c) Both (a) and (b).
property made by the guardian of (d) None of these [a]
a ward, by the ward who has 57. The period of limitation for
attained majority, can be filed preferring an appeal from a decree
within three years (Article 60(1) of passed by a court subordinate to
the Schedule of the Limitation Act, the High Court to a High Court
1963) from when the from the date of the decree is
(a) transfer of the property was (a) 90 days
made. (b) 60 days
(b) person in possession is served (c) 30 days
notice. (d) One year [a]
(c) ward attains majority. 58. Section 21 (Effect of substituting or
(d) person in possession refuses to adding new plaintiff or defendant)
hand over possession [c] of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not
apply in case of which of the 62. The authority of a partner to bind
following? the firm by his acts aone in the
(a) Addition of a new defendant for usual course of business is called
the first time. his implied authority'. Such
(b) Substitution of a new plaintiff for authority does not include
the first time. (a) selling the firm's goods.
(c) Transposition of parties. (b) to borrow in a trading firm.
(d) Addition of a new plaintiff for the (c) settling accounts with the persons
first time. [c] dealing with the firm.
59. Which of the following is correct (d) withdraw a suit or proceeding
with regard to acknowledgement filed on the firm's behalf. [d]
of liability under Section 18 of the 63. A partnership firm may be
Limitation Act, 1963? dissolved
(a) Acknowledgement cannot be (a) with the consent of all partners.
undated. (b) in accordance with a contract
(b) Acknowledgement can be made between the partners.
to a person other than the person (c) Both (a) and (b)
entitled to the property. (d) None of these [c]
(c) Acknowledgement need not be in 64. When a minor elects to become a
writing partner he becomes personally
(d) Acknowledgement can be made liable to third parties for all acts of
after the expiry of the period of the firm done since
limitation. [b] (a) he was admitted to be benefits of
60. Under Section 18 of the Limitation partnership.
Act, 1963 fresh period of limitation (b) from the date of his attaining
has to be computed from the date majority.
of (c) from the date of his becoming a
(a) expiry of half of the extended partner.
period of limitation (d) Both (b) and (c) [a]
(b) delivering the acknowledgement 65. In which of the following cases, a
(c) signing of the acknowledgement partner may cease to be a partner
(d) expiry of the initial period of without the dissolution of the
limitation [c] firm?
61. The relation of partnership (a) Retirement
according to Section 5 of Indian (b) Insolvency
Partnership Act, 1932 arises from (c) Death
(a) status (d) All of these [d]
(b) contract 66. A court may deny specific
(c) friendship performance of an agreement to
(d) None of these [b] sell an immovable property
(a) it is of the option that the sold it to 'J' a jeweller. 'N' filed a
consideration is inadequate. suit for recovery of ring against 'J'.
(b) the court feels that the contract is ‘J' contended that he is ready to
onerous to the defendant. pay the price of the ring. Whether
(c) the performance of the contract the decree for recovery of diamond
would involve hardship on the ring can be refused on the ground
defendant which he did not foresee that
and non performance would involve (a) compensation in terms of money
no such hardship on the plaintiff. would be adequate relief for the loss
(d) All of these [c] of ring.
67. The relief of injunction cannot be (b) 'T' is bonafide purchaser of ring
granted for consideration.
(a) when equally efficacious relief can (c) there is no jural relation between
be obtained by any other usual mode 'N' & ‘J'.
of proceeding. (d) None of these [d]
(b) the plaintiff has not come to the 70. It is the principle of law that a
court with clean hands. person who has been in long and
(c) to prevent nuisance when it is not continuous possession can protect
reasonably clear. the same by seeking injunction
(d) All of these [d] against any person in the whole
68. 'S'a shopkeeper has kept the goods world other than the true owner.
for sale on the pavement outside The above Statement is
the shop and constructed (a) True
temporary overhead shed. Flying (b) False
squad of NCT of Delhi demolished (c) Partly true
the temporary construction and (d) Partly false [a]
seized the goods from the 71. Which of the following statements
payment, without giving him any is/are correct in the light of
notice. After one year, 'S' filed a provisions of Article 356?
suit for recovery of possession of (a) President must proclaim
pavement against NCT of Delhi emergency only on the basis of a
under Section 6 of Specific Relief report from the Governor of the
Act, 1963. The suit is barred as filed State.
(a) against the Government (b) Governor can recommend
(b) after the period prescribed President to proclaim emergency on
(c) without the title over the the basis of personal information
pavement suggesting large scale defection of
(d) Both (a) and (b) [d] legislators.
69. The engagement diamond ring of
'N' was stolen by 'T', a thief who
(c) President can proclaim emergency (d) All authorities including armed
only on the advice of Council of forces in the territory of India shall
Ministers. act in aid of the Supreme Court. [b]
(d) All of these [c] 75. Which of the following writ is not
72. In which case it was held by the amenable to the principle of 'res
Supreme Court that—'Delay in judicata'?
deciding mercy petition is a (a) Mandamus
sufficient ground for commuting (b) Certiorari
the death sentence to life (c) Quo Warranto
imprisonment'? (d) Habeas Corpus [d]
(a) Shatrughan Chouhan y. Union of 76. 'Curative Petition' may be
India entertained by the Supreme Court
(b) Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of in the following situation/
India situations
(c) Rajat Prasad v. CBI (a) when a Judge on the Bench
(d) Uday Gupta v. Aysha [a] having heard the matter did not
73. Which of the following is correct disclose his connection with the
about the preamble to the subject matter.
Constitution of India? (b) the petitioner filing the petition
(a) It was adopted after adoption of was not a party before the Court but
operative Articles of Constitution. has suffered a grave prejudice by the
(b) It envisages that all citizens have decision.
fundamental rights. (c) the grounds mentioned in the
(c) It seeks to secure good livelihood Curative Petition had been agitated
to all. in the Review Petition which was
(d) It is not a part of the Constitution. dismissed in circulation.
[a] (d) All these [d]
74. Which of the following is true 77. The President shall have the power
about Supreme Court of India? under Article 72 of the Constitution
(a) Supreme Court shall sit in such of India where
places, as are approved by the Chief (a) punishment or sentence is by a
Justice of India under intimation to Court Marshal.
the President of India. (b) punishment or sentence is for an
(b) Nojudgment shall be delivered by offence against law relating to a
the Supreme Court save in open matter to which the executive power
Court. of the Union extends.
(c) President of India can enlarge the (c) sentences is a sentence of death.
jurisdiction and powers of Supreme (d) All these [d]
Court. 78. Which of the following is not a
requirement under Article 311 of
the Constitution while dealing with (d) To have compassion for living
disciplinary proceedings for creatures. [c]
dismissal, removal or reduction in 82. Which of the following is a
rank of a civil servant? Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) A departmental inquiry is held (a) To provide paternity leave.
against the delinquent employee (b) To organize Gram Sabhas:
after serving him with the charge- (c) To provide for participation of
sheet. workers in management of
(b) A reasonable opportunity of being industries.
heard in respect of the charges. (d) To take steps for separation of
(c) A reasonable opportunity of judiciary from legislature. [c]
making representation on the 83. Which of the following is a
penalty proposed. Fundamental Right?
(d) None of these [c] (a) To assemble with arms.
79. Amendment to which of the (b) To form co-operative societies.
following provisions of (c) Right to employment.
Constitution require ratification by (d) Right of religious denominations
the state? to own immovable property only for
(a) Article 242 charitable purpose [b]
(b) List-I of Seventh Schedule 84. Which of the following is a State for
(c) Chapter V of Part IV the purposes of Article 12?
(d) Chapter II of Part XI [b] (a) National Council of Educational
80. Right to form association under Research and Training.
Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution (b) Institute of Constitutional and
includes Parliamentary Studies.
(a) Right to strike (c) Indian Oil Corporation.
(b) Right to collective bargaining (d) High Court of Delhi. [c]
(c) Right to lockout 85. Which of the following Articles was
(d) None of these [d] amended by the 42nd
81. Which of the following is not a Constitutional Amendment Act?
Fundamental duty under Article (a) Article 330
51A? (b) Article 13
(a) To abide by the Constitution and (c) Article 131
respect its ideals and institutions. (d) Article 354 [a]
(b) To value and preserve the rich 86. Which of the following writs can be
heritage of our composite culture. sought to be issued to quash
(c) To provide opportunity of unconstitutional appointment to a
education to the child below the age public office:
of six by his parent or guardian. (a) Quo-Warranto
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition (a) whereas in Section 34 there must
(d) Certiorari [a] be at least five persons, Section 149
87. Parliament of India shall consist of requires only two persons.
(a) two Houses (b) Section 149 is only a rule of
(b) two Houses and Ministers. evidence whereas Section 34 creates
(c) two Houses, Ministers and a specific offence.
Attorney General. (c) Section 34 requires active
(d) two Houses and the President. participation in action whereas
[d] Section 149 requires mere passive
88. Which of the following is not a membership of the unlawful
Constitutional body? assembly.
(a) Election Commission (d) Both (b) and (c) [c]
(b) Planning Commission 92. 'A' is carried off by a tiger. 'Z' fires
(c) Finance Commission at the tiger in good faith intending
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-General to rescue 'A', knowing it to be
[b] likely that the shot may kill 'A'. The
89. Which of the following is not a shot fired by 'Z' gives 'A' a mortal
requirement to be satisfied by the wound. 'Z' has committed
State to exercise their discretion (a) no offence
while providing for reservations in (b) culpable homicide not amounting
promotions in favour of SCs & STs? to murder.
(a) Backwardness of the class. (c) offence of causing death by
(b) Not crossing of 50% ceiling in a negligence.
particular year. (d) murder [a]
(c) Inadequacy of representation in 93. Which is not the 'stolen property'?
Public Employment. (a) Possession whereof was obtained
(d) Efficiency in administration. [b] by cheating.
90. Which of the following Articles was (b) Possession whereof was obtained
inserted by the Constitution by robbery.
(Ninety-Eighth Amendment) Act, (c) Possession whereof was obtained
2012? by extortion.
(a) 371-J (d) Possession whereof was obtained
(b) 19(1)(h) by criminal breach of trust. [a]
(c) 243-P 94. In which of the following cases, the
(d) 396 [a] offence of 'house-breaking' is
91. The difference between Section 34 committed?
and Section 149 of the Indian Penal (a) A commits house-trespass by
Code is that entering Z's house through the door,
having lifted a latch by putting a wire
through a hole in the door.
(b) A finds the key of Z's house-door, (b) In conspiracy, principal and
which Z had lost, and commits house accessory are distinct.
trespass, by entering Z's house (c) There has to be a distinction
through that key. between principal and accessory in
(c) Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing all offences.
in Y's doorway. A commits house (d) None of these [a]
trespass by entering the house, 98. If a person sitting across to a girl in
having deterred Z from opposing him public transport deliberately
by threatening to beat him. shows a pornographic picture to
(d) All of these [d] her, it amounts to the offence of
95. P is found in possession of a (a) voyeurism
document purporting to be a will (b) sexual assault
of 'Q' in favour of 'P', bearing (c) sexual harassment
forged signatures of 'Q', intending (d) None of these [c]
that the will shall be fraudulently 99. 'B' and his girlfriend 'G', both
used as genuine after the death of adults, engage in consensual
'Q'. 'P' has committed sexual intercourse in the privacy of
(a) no offence as it is mere the bedroom of the latter and 'B'
preparatory to lay a claim. with her consent prepares a video
(b) no offence till the will is used. clip on his mobile camera and later
(c) has committed an offence as mere shows it in total privacy to his
possession of such document in such friend 'F', it amounts to
circumstances is penal. (a) stalking
(d) None of these [c] (b) Voyeurism
96. 'A', finds a gold ring on the road, (c) rape
knowing it be the property of 'Z', (d) None of these [b]
he having unknowingly lost it 100. A woman approaches 'X', an officer
there 'A' picks up the ring and in charge of a police station and
pledges it with a money-lender to alleges that her boyfriend tried to
raise a loan. 'A' as committed forcibly remove her shirt in a dress
(a) dishonest misappropriation of shop, seeking legal action to be
property taken, but 'X' refuses to take note
(b) criminal breach of trust of the incident and asked her to
(c) theft file a criminal complaint before a
(d) no offence [a] magistrate. Here, 'X' committed a
97. Which one of the following (a) misconduct but not any penal
statements is correct? offence
(a) In conspiracy, there is no (b) cognizable offence
distinction between principal and (c) non-cognizable offence able
accessory. orfence
(d) None of these [b] (d) entitled to release after such
101. 'S' is found in possession of period as the court may further direct
property reasonably suspected to on such realisation or deposit. [b]
be stolen by him and is arrested by 103. The right of private defence of
'P', a police officer. 'S'is excited to property extends to causing death
sudden and violent passion by the of the wrongdoer under certain
arrest and fires at him but kills 'D' descriptions. Which one of the
who was standing near 'P', neither following descriptions is not
intending nor knowing himself to included in those?
be likely to kill 'D'. This is (a) Robbery
(a) culpable homicide not amounting (b) House-breaking by night.
to murder, because 'S' had been (c) 'Lurking house trespass.
deprived of the power of self-control (d) Mischief by fire on any human
by grave and sudden provocation. dwelling. [c]
(b) murder, because provocation was 104. Consider the following statements.
given by a thing done by a public To constitute abetment, it is
servant in lawful discharge of his (A) necessary that the act abetted
powers. must be committed.
(c) culpable Homicide not amounting (B) not necessary that the act abetted
to murder, because the death of 'D' must be committed.
occurred by mistake or accident. (C) necessary that the person abetted
(d) None of these [b] must have the same intention or
102. 'A' was sentenced to fine of rupees knowledge as that of the abettor.
one thousand and in case of Which of the statements given
default to suffer simple above represent(s) the correct
imprisonment for six months. He position of law?
did not pay the fine and was taken (a) Only (B)
in custody. After six weeks, an (b) Both (B) and (C)
amount of rupees one hundred (c) Only (A)
was realised through warrant for (d) Only (C) [a]
recovery and he further deposited 105. Consider the following statements:
rupees four hundred the balance (A) every murder is culpable
remaining unpaid. 'A' would be homicide.
(a) entitled to immediate release (B) every culpable homicide is
from custody. murder.
(b) entitled to release as soon as (C) every robbery is either theft or
three months elapse. extortion.
(c) liable to undergo imprisonment (D) every extortion is robbery.
for the period of six months. Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) (A) and (C) (b) as a consequence of the
(b) (B) and (C) intentional inducement, damage or
(c) (A) and (D) harm in body, mind, reputation or
(d) (B) and (D) [a] property is caused or likely to be
106. With respect to the difference caused to the person deceived.
between kidnapping from lawful (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
guardianship and abduction which (d) None of these [c]
of the following statements is 109. 'A' and 'Z', both adults, agree to
correct? engage each other in fencing for
(a) Kidnapping is committed only in amusement. In course of such
respect of a minor or a person of fencing, without any foul play, 'A'
unsound mind. Abduction is causes a superficical hurt to 'Z'.
committed in respect of a person of Here, 'X'
any age. (a) is guilty of causing hurt by sharp
(b) In former, the person kidnapped edged weapon as he attacked 'Z'.
is removed out of lawful (b) is not guilty as there is an implied
guardianship. Abduction has consent on the part of ‚Z' to suffer
reference exclusively to the person such harm.
abducted. (c) is guilty because fencing is a
(c) In kidnapping, consent of the dangerous sport.
person kidnapped or entitled is (d) Both (a) and (c) [b]
immaterial. In abduction, consent of 110. In answer to the charge of
the person moved, if freely and defamation, which of the following
voluntarily given, condones is/are good defence(s)?
abduction. (a) Imputation which is true and
(d) All of these [d] published for the public good.
107 'X' along with four other armed (b) Opinion respecting the conduct of
associates seizes the child of 'Y' a public servant concerning
and threatens to kill him unless 'Y' discharge of duties of office
parts with his watch and diamond expressed in good faith.
ring compelling him to do so. 'X' (c) Both (a) and (b)
has committed the offence of (d) None of these [c]
(a) robbery 111. Consider the following
(b) dacoity statement(s).
(c) attempt to murder A police officer has the power to
(d) extortion [b] arrest any person without an order
108. For the offence of cheating from a magistrate or warrant of
(a) the person deceived must have arrest, if he has reason to suspect
been fraudulently or dishonestly his complicity in a cognizable
induced to deliver property. offence publishable with
imprisonment which may extend Criminal Procedure for the collection
to seven years, provided that he is of evidence conducted by a
satisfied for reasons in writing that magistrate.
such arrest is necessary (d) All of these [b]
(i) to prevent such person from 114. Indicate the correct statement
committing any further offence. regarding the rights of an arrestee.
(ii) for proper investigation of the A person arrested without warrant
offence. has the right to
(iii) to prevent such person from (i) be informed of the particulars of
tampering with or causing the the offence for which he is arrested.
evidence of the offence to disappear. (ii) have a relative or friend named by
(iv) to compel the absconding co- him to be informed about his arrest.
accused to surrender. (iii) have an advocate of his choice
Which of the statements given remain present throughout
above are correct? interrogation.
(a) (i) and (ii) (iv) be medically examined by a
(b) (ii) and (iii) medical officer.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) Which of the statements given
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) [c] above are correct?
112. What is the period of limitation (a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
prescribed for taking cognizance of (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
an offence which is punishable (c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
with imprisonment for a term (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) [c]
exceeding three years? 115. In order to compel appearance of a
(a) Three years person who is absconding in spite
(b) Five years of a warrant of arrest being issued
(c) Seven years against him, his property may be
(d) No limitation [d] ordered to be attached
113. Which of the following statements simultaneously with issuance of a
is/are true? proclamation under Section 82 of
(a) Inquiry means every inquiry the Code of Criminal Procedure,
including a trial conducted under the provided that the court is satisfied
Code of Criminal Procedure by a that such person is
magistrate or court. (a) about to dispose of the whole or
(b) Inquiry means every inquiry other any part of his property.
than a trial conducted under the (b) about to remove the whole or any
Code of Criminal Procedure by a part of property from the local
magistrate or court. jurisdiction of the Court.
(c) Investigation includes all the (c) Either condition in (a) or (b) exists.
proceedings under the Code of
(d) Both conditions in (a) and (b) co- the subsequent filling of the charge
exist. [c] sheet under any circumstance.
116. Which of the following is not an (d) None of these [b]
essential search-procedure under 119. 'G', a 17 years old girl, was married
Section 100 of Code of Criminal to 'H'. 'H' during the subsistence of
Procedure? the said marriage entered into
(a) Calling upon two independent another marriage with 'P'. The
and respectable inhabitants of the court may take cognizance for the
locality to witness the search. offence of bigamy, if the complaint
(b) Signing of search-memo by the brought by
witnesses to search. (a) her father, mother, brother, sister,
(c) Attendance of occupant of the son or daughter or by her father's or
place during the search. mother's brother or sister.
(d) Signature of the accused on the (b) any other person related to her by
search list. [d] blood, marriage or adoption, with the
117. No wife shall be entitled to receive leave of the court.
maintenance from her husband (c) some other person on her behalf,
under Section 125 of Code of with leave of court, but where there
Criminal Procedure if she is a guardian appointed in her
(a) has obtained a divorce from her respect, then only after such
husband and has not remarried. guardian has been heard.
(b) is unable to maintain herself. (d) All of these [d]
(c) refused to live with her husband 120. 'A' is accused of an act which may
on the ground that he keeps a amount to theft, or receiving
mistress. stolen property or criminal breach
(d) is living in adultery [d] trust or cheating. At trial, formal
118. On the non-completion of charge is framed only for the
investigation, i.e., failure of the offence of theft. The evidence
prosecution to file charge sheet adduced at trial shows that he
within the prescribed period of 90 committed the offence of criminal
or 60 days, as given in Section 107 breach of trust. He may be
of Code of Criminal Procedure, the convicted
(a) accused person is to be (a) for the offence of theft only for
discharged unconditionally. which formal charge was framed.
(b) accused person shall be released (b) for the offence of criminal breach
on bail if he is prepared to and does of trust though.le was not charged
furnish bail. with such offence.
(c) right of the accused person to be (c) the trial is vitiated.
released on bail could be defeated by (d) None of these. [b]
121. The categories of persons who the incident, though grievous hurt
may, without their consent, be by acid was proved. 'X' seeks
charged and tried together include compensation from the Trial Court.
persons accused of The Trial Court may
(a) different offences committed in (a) dismiss the claim because the
the course of the same transaction. accused was acquitted.
(b) more than one offence of the (b) dismiss the claim because the
same kind committed by them within victim turned hostile during trial.
the period of twelve months. (c) consider making recommendation
(c) Neither (a) nor (b) to the State Legal Services Authority
(d) Both (a) and (b) [a] for compensation to victim.
122. 'F', a French National on a tourist (d) direct the accused to pay
visa to India was raped by a group compensation to the victim on
of four boys, two days prior to her humanitarian grounds. [c]
scheduled departure from India. 124. 'A' faced trial for cheating 'Z' by
FIR was registered on her dishonestly inducing him to lend
statement and the offfenders were money by knowingly pledging fake
charge-sheeted. On being diamonds. 'Z' died during trial and
summoned by the Court to depose was survived by a son 'X'. 'X'
as a witness during trial, she moved an application in the Trial
refused to come to India on the Court to compound the offence.
ground of fear and inconvenience. Which of the following is the
Which of the following options is correct legal preposition?
most appropriate for the Trial (a) 'X' is not competent to compound
Court? the offence.
(a) Issue non-bailable warrant (b) On the death of complainant 'Z',
against 'F' though Ministry of Home the trial proceedings shall abate.
Affairs to compel appearance. (c) Court cannot entertain such an
(b) Initiate proceedings for application after death of the
punishment for non-attendance by complainant.
'F' under Section 350, Cr.P.C. (d) 'X' can compound the offence
(c) Drop 'F' as a witness and acquit with the consent of the Court. [d]
the accused persons. 125. Who can file an application for Plea
(d) Issue a Commission for Bargaining in the court in which an
examination of 'F'. [d] offence is pending for trial?
123. ‘A’ was acquitted of the charge for (a) The Public Prosecutor
voluntarily causing grievous hurt (b) The victim of the offence
by throwing acid on 'X', as the (c) The Investigating Officer
victim did not support the police (d) None of these [d]
version about involvement of 'A' in
126. A criminal court, at conclusion of (b) period for which the prosecution
trial, may order in respect of such offence has been
(a) restoration of possession of stayed by an injunction or order.
immovable property to the person (c) period during which the
who had been dispossessed application of the accused for release
therefrom by use of criminal force or on bail was pending
by criminal intimation by the person (d). Both (a) and (b) [d]
convicted. 129. The proceedings before a criminal
(b) the destruction of pronographic court are vitiated if the presiding
material in respect of which magistrate who is not empowered
conviction was recorded. by law to do so
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) issues search warrant erroneously
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) [c] but in good faith.
127. A Metropolitan Magistrate may (b) holds inquest under section 176 of
release an accused on bail in non- Code of Criminal Procedure
bailable offence except in erroneously but in good faith.
following case(s) if (c) tries an offender summarily.
(a) there are reasonable grounds for (d) All of these [c]
believing that he has been guilty of 130. Prosecution of a case involving
an offence punishable with death or misappropriation of property
imprisonment for life.. belonging to the Central
(b) there are reasonable grounds for Government can be withdrawn by
believing that he has been guilty of a (a) any public Prosecutor on the
cognizable offence and he has been direction of the State Government.
previously convicted of an offence (b) the Public Prosecutor appointed
punishable with imprisonment for by the Central Government on the
seven years. direction of the State Government.
(c) he had been previously convicted (c) the Public Prosecutor appointed
on two or more occasions of a by the State Government on
cognizable offence punishable with permission granted by the Central
imprisonment for three years. Government.
(d) All of these [d] (d) any Public Prosecutor on the
128. In computing the period of direction of the Central Government.
limitation, the period which may [c]
be excluded includes the 131. Consider the following
(a) time during which any person has statement(s);
been prosecuting with due diligence A 'decree' means and includes
another prosecution on the same (i) formal expression of an
facts, in good faith and in a court adjudication which, so far as regards
without jurisdiction. the court expressing it, conclusively
determines the rights of the parties court in whose jurisdiction the
with regard to all or any of the property is situated
matters in controversy in the suit. (b) A suit for partition of immovable
(ii) any adjudication from which an property shall be instituted in the
appeal lies as an appeal from an court in whose jurisdiction the
order. defendant resides or works for gain.
(iii) any order of dismissal of suit for (c) Both (a) and (b)
default. (d) Neither (a) nor (b) [a]
(iv) rejection of plaint. 135. Consider the following
Which of the statements given statement(s).
above are correct? (i) A defendant may set up, by way of
(a) (i) and (ii) a counter-claim against the claim of
(b) (ii) and (iii) the plaintiff any right or claim in
(c) (i) and (iv) respect of the cause of action
(d) All these [c] accruing to him.
132. Which is the correct essential (ii) The counter-claim may be
conditions for applicability of the submitted by the defendant even
rule of sub judice? after he has delivered his defence
(a) The matter in issue in the (iii) The counter-claim shall not
subsequent suit must be directly and exceed the pecuniary jurisdiction of
substantially in issue in the previous the court.
suit. Which of the statements given
(b) The parties must be litigating above are correct?
under the same title in both the suits. (a) (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (a) and (b) (b) (i) and (iii)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) [c] (c) (i) and (ii)
133. The expression 'former suit' in the (d) All these [b]
context of rule of res judicata 136. Which of the following statements
means a suit which has been is incorrect?
(a) instituted prior to the suit in (a) A representative suit may be
question. instituted by one or more persons for
(b) decided prior to the suit in the benefit of all interested persons
question. with the permission of the court.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (b) Notice of the institution of a
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) [b] representative suit must be given by
134. Which of the following statements public advertisement at the plaintiff's
is true? expense to all interested persons
(a) A suit for recovery of immovable whereby reason of their number,
property shall be instituted in the personal service is not reasonably
practicable.
(c) Any person for whose benefit a opposite party to a civil suit by way
representative suit has been of notice
instituted may apply to join as a party (i) of admission of the case
thereto. (ii) to admit documents (iii) to admit
(d) The person(s) who instituted the facts
suit or person(s) who joined as party Which of the statements given
have unrestricted right to above are correct?
compromise with the defendant. [d] (a) None of these
137. Where the defendant is absent at (b) All these
the time when service of summons (c) Only (i) and (ii)
is sought to be effected on him at (d) Only (ii) and (iii) [b]
his residence, there being no 140. When a civil suit reaches the stage
likelihood of his availability within of hearing and examination of
reasonable time and in absence of witnesses
an empowered agent, the service (a) the plaintiff has the right to begin.
may be made on (b) if the defendant admits the facts
(a) any adult male member of his alleged by the plaintiff and contends
family. that on some additional facts alleged
(b) any adult female member of his by the defendant, the plaintiff is not
family. entitled to any relief, the defendant
(c) a servant engaged by the has the right to begin.
defendant at his residence. (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b) [d] (d) Neither (a) nor (b) [c]
138. A suit may be dismissed where 141. Which of the following statements
(a) summons are not served on the is incorrect?
defendant in consequence of the (a) Where issues both of law and of
failure of the plaintiff to take proper fact arise and if the court is of
steps like filing of court fee, postal opinion that the case may be
charges or requisite number of disposed of on an issue relating to
copies of plaint. jurisdiction, it may postpone the
(b) neither party appears when the settlement of other issues until after
suit is called on for hearing. the issue of jurisdiction has been
(c) plaintiff, after summons to determined.
defendant has returned unserved, (b) Where a suit may be disposed of
fails to apply for fresh summons for on preliminary issue, the court need
seven days. not pronounce judgment on other
(d) All these [d] issues settled in the case.
139. Consider the following statements. (c) The preliminary issue may relate
Admissions for forming the basis of to a bar to the suit created and law
judgment may be secured from the for the time being in force.
(d) None of these [b] (d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect. [d]
142. Which of the following statements 145. Which of the following statements
is correct? is correct?
The court which passed the decree (a) Where on the death of a
may transfer it to another defendant the right to sue survivors
competent court if the against the other surviving defendant
(a) judgment debtor carries on alone, the case may proceed against
business within the jurisdiction of the the surviving defendant.
latter court. (b) Where on the death of a
(b) judgment debtor has no property defendant the right to sue does not
within the jurisdiction of the former survive against the other surviving
court sufficient to satisfy such decree defendant alone, the case (shall
but has property within the abate against the deceased
jurisdiction of the latter court. defendant if no application is made
(c) decree directs the sale of within the time limited by law for the
immovable property situated outside legal representative of the deceased
the local jurisdiction of the former defendant to be made a party.
court. (c) There shall be no abatement by
(d) All these [d] reason of death of either party
143. A money decree may be executed between the conclusion of the
by hearing and the pronouncing of the
(a) attachment and sale of any judgment.
property of the judgment debtor. (d) All these [d]
(b) arrest and detention in prison of 146. In the context of withdrawal of
the judgment debtor for indefinite suit, which is the correct
period. statement?
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) If the Court is satisfied that a suit
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) [a] must fail by reason of some formal
144. Which of the following statements defect, the plaintiff may be allowed to
is correct? withdraw the suit with liberty to
(a) No suit, not involving urgent or institute a fresh suit in respect of the
immediate relief, may be instituted same subject matter.
against the Central Government (b) If the plaintiff withdraws from a
except after serving a notice of two suit without permission of the court
months. he may bring fresh suit in respect of
(b) A decree against the Union of the same subject matter.
India may not be executed unless it (c) If there are more than one
remains unsatisfied for a period of plaintiffs, one of them may withdraw
three months. the suit without the consent of other
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct. plaintiffs.
(d) All these [a] (c) notwithstanding the objection
147. Which is the correct statement in taken by the opposite party.
context of summary procedure for (d) if it considers the same necessary
civil suits? for disposing of the case fairly. [d]
(a) May be invoked for recovery of a 150. A decree becomes final when
liquidated demand in money payable (a) it conclusively determined the
by the defendant arising out a right of the parties.
written contract. (b) no appeal has been preferred
(b) May be applied suo motu by any against the decree.
civil court in its discretion in the (c) Both (a) and (b)
interest of expeditious adjudication. (d) Neither (a) nor (b) [c]
(c) Requires the defendant to seek Directions (Questions 151-153): In each
leave to defend which, if granted, of these questions, choose the pair
must be unconditional. from the options that is similar in
(d) All these statements are not relationship to the one expressed
correct. [a] in the given pair.
148. In case of breach of any of the 151. SCULPTOR : CHISEL ::
terms on which temporary (a) Time: Seconds
injunction was granted, the court (b) Tailor: Needle
may order (c) Pathology: Disease
(a) the person in breach to be (d) Engineer: Site [b]
detained in civil prison for indefinite 152. WRIST : WATCH ::
period but not after the breach has (a) Buckle : Belt
ceased. (b) Shoes : Socks
(b) attachment of the property of the (c) Neck: Chain
person in breach and, if the breach (d) Cuff : Cufflinks [c]
continues for more than one year, 153. CONSTELLATION : STAR ::
sell the attached property and award (a) Center: Circle
the entire sale proceeds to the (b) Earth : Moon
injured party as compensation. (c) Rain : Water
(c) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect. (d) Archipelago : Islands [b]
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct. [c] Directions (Questions 154-156): In each
149. The leave may be granted by the of these questions, choose the
civil court to deliver meaning of the idioms and
interrogatories phrases.
(a) only to the defendant since the 154. Stand on ceremony
plaintiff is the master of the suit. (a) Casual approach
(b) even if they relate to matters not (b) Act with reserve
in question in the suit. (c) Lead from front
(d) None of these [a]
155. Show a clean pair of heals (d) Impossible [c]
(a) To run away 162. LUSTROUS
(b) To confront (a) Slippery
(c) Obsessed with cleanliness (b) Bright
(d) Ready to serve [a] (c) Lopsided
156. The gift of the gab (d) Dreary [d]
(a) Beyond control Directions (Questions 163-165): Fill in
(b) To blunder the blank(s) with appropriate
(c) A talent for speaking pronoun(s).
(d) Lovable [c] 163. Ritu has eaten her lunch already,
Directions (Question 157-159): Choose but I am saving ............... until
the word that is similar in meaning later.
to the word given. (a) her
157. INUNDATE (b) hers
(a) Invite (c) mine
(b) To flood (d) my [c]
(c) Immediate 164. We gave them ................. telephone
(d) Fragile [b] number, and they gave us
158. QUIBBLE (a) our, theirs
(a) Surrender (b) ours, theirs
(b) Play (c) our, their
(c) Petty objection (d) ours, their [a]
(d) Fidget [c] 165. .................. pen is broken. Can I
159. ZANY borrow ......................
(a) Imitator (a) Mine, yours
(b) Intelligent (b) My, yours
(c) Thinker (c) Your, mine
(d) Enthusiastic [a] (d) Yours, mine [b]
Directions (Questions 160-162): Choose Directions (Questions 166-168):
the word that is opposite in Complete the sentence with the
meaning to the word given. most appropriate word from the
160. PROBITY given choices.
(a) Trust 166. Outgoing and ................. by nature,
(b) Deception Kavita became even more
(c) Permit gregarious at the school party.
(d) Support [b] (a) affable
161. INTOLERABLE (b) reclusive
(a) Extreme (c) solitary
(b) Offensive (d) withdrawn [a]
(c) Bearable
167. The Health Ministry rejected the (b) latter
drug because the tests conducted (c) latest
for toxicity showed ............. result (d) last [c]
on the patients. 173. He is .................. than I expected.
(a) non-toxic (a) later
(b) harmful (b) latter
(c) healthy (c) latest
(d) toxic [d] (d) last [a]
168. The District Collector ............... the 174. The ............... chapters are lacking
Minister about the flood situation. in interest.
(a) appraised (a) later
(b) acquainted (b) latter
(c) apprised (c) latest
(d) provided [c] (d) last [b]
Directions (Questions 169-171): Fill in 175. Ours is the ............... house in the
the blank with appropriate street.
preposition. (a) later
169. Don't loiter ............... the street. (b) latter
(a) over (c) latest
(b) about (d) last [d]
(c) across 176. The first cellular phone service in
(d) above [b] India was introduced by
170. He rules ............ a vast empire. (a) Bharti Airtel
(a) over (b) Modi Telstra
(b) about (c) Motorola
(c) across (d) Reliance Telecommunications [b]
(d) above [a] 177. Rapid Action Force, a Central
171. The noise comes from ............... the Armed Force was raised on October
river. 7, 1992 to
(a) over (a) suppress communal and inter-
(b) about caste riots anywhere in India.
(c) across (b) protect public property.
(d) above [c] (c) rescue human lives in the time of
Directions (Questions 172-175): natural calamities.
Complete the sentence with the (d) All these. [a]
correct adjective from the given 178. The first indigenously built
choices. submarine to join the Indian Navy
172. I have not heard the .................. was
news. (a) INS Vikrant
(a) later (b) Shaktimaan
(c) INS Shalki (d) matter [c]
(d) Vajra [c] 185. The year 2014 is observed by the
179. The US whistle blower Edward United Nations as the
Snowden has been granted asylum International Year of
by (a) Small Island Developing States
(a) China (b) Crystallography
(b) Russia (c) Family Farming
(c) Italy (d) All these [d]
(d) Pakistan [b] 186. India's National Coral Reef
180. Who is knwon as the Iron Lady of Research Centre is located at
Manipur? (a) Kavaratti
(a) Mary Kom (b) Port Blair
(b) Binalakshami Nepram (c) Minicoy
(c) Nalini Bala Devi (d) Calicut [b]
(d) Irom Sharmila [d] 187. Kaziranga National Park famous
181. The first Indian to receive the for one horned rhinos is situated
Grammy Life Time Achievement in.
Award is (a) Assam
(a) A.R. Rehman (b) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Satyajit Ray (c) Kerala
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar (d) West Bengal [a]
(d) Anoushka Shankar [c] 188. The planet with largest moon is
182. Human hair is made of the same (a) Venus
substance as (b) Mars
(a) finger nails (c) Jupiter
(b) teeth (d) Saturn [c]
(c) bones 189. Mariana Trench, the deepest part
(d) muscles [a] of the ocean lies in the
183. The thyroid cartilage is commonly (a) Pacific Ocean
known as (b) Atlantic Ocean
(a) Window's peak. (c) Indian Ocean
(b) Adam's apple. (d) Arctic Ocean [a]
(c) Newton's apple. 190. The imaginary lines drawn out on
(d) None of these [b] the global map, from poles to poles
184. The smallest particle of an element and perpendicular to the equator
which is capable of taking part in a are called
chemical reaction (a) Latitudes
(a) molecule (b) Tropics
(b) nucleus (c) Longitudes
(c) atom (d) Meridians [d]
191. Which is the only country in the (b) Diabetes fighting drug
world that won its independence (c) AIDS fighting drug
because of a slave revolt? (d) Tuberculosis fighting drug. [a]
(a) America 197. Name the sport with which
(b) South Africa Calcutta Cup Trophy is associated.
(c) Haiti (a) Football
(d) Italy [c] (b) Rugby Union
192. Which is the first state to achieve (c) Cricket
100% sanitation in rural and urban (d) Badminton [b]
households? 198. The fastest super computer of the
(a) Kerala world is
(b) Sikkim (a) K computers
(c) Gujarat (b) Cray XKZ
(d) Madhya Pradesh [b] (c) Sequoia
193. Which book was withdrawn by (d) Tianhe-2 [d]
Penguin India from the Indian 199. Who was the first woman Chief
market following an out of court Information Commissioner of
settlement? India?
(a) Hinduism: Beliefs & Practices (a) Puneeta Arora
(b) The Hindu Mind (b) Kanchan Chaudhary
(c) Hindutva: Exploring the Idea of (c) Deepak Sandhu
Hindu Nationalism [d] (d) Harita Kaur Dayal [c]
(d) The Hindus: An Alternative History 200. The 61st National Film Award for
194. 2013 All India Football Federation the "Best Feature Film" was given
(AIFF) Award for "The Player of the to
Year” was given to (a) Shahid
(a) Jeje Lalpekhlua (b) Ship of Theseus
(b) Pratap Singh (c) Fandry
(c) Biplab Poddar (d) Bhaag Milkha Bhaag [b]
(d) Sunil Chhetri [d]
195. Who is the Chairperson of the 20th
Law Commission of India?
(a) Justice D.K. Jain
(b) Justice A.R. Lakshmanan
(c) Justice A.P. Shah
(d) Justice Santosh Hegde [c]
196. The Supreme Court dismissed the
petition filed by the Swiss Firm
Novartis for protection of patent of
(a) Cancer fighting drug

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