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BASIC GAS TURBINE PAPERS.

Phase “A”

01. In the international system of units, the unit of thermodynamic temperature is .


a) Degree F * b) Kelvin
c) Rankin d) Degree C
02. Under standard sea level conditions the value of atmospheric pressure is.
a) 1014 milibar*
b) 76 N/M of mercury
c) 101400 N/M
03. Density of fresh water in S.I. Units is .
a) 1 kg / c.m3
b) 1 kg / m 3
c) 103 kg/ m 3
d) non of the above *
04. The specific gravity or relative density of the mercury is 13.6 the density for the mercury would be .
a) 13.6 x 62.4 lbs/ft2
b) 13600 kg/m3 *
c) 13.6 kg/m3
d) a & b both are correct
05. The magnitude of thrust produced by a jet gas turbine engine can be calculated from.
a) Newtons first law of motion
b) Newtons second law of motion *
c) Newtons third law of motion
06. During flight one pound of thrust is equal to one T.H.P. at :
a) 760 mph b) 375 mph *
d) 600 mph
07. The propulsive efficiency is ( Max: 100%) when :
a) The speed of the engine exhaust gases from engine is higher than aircraft speed
b) The a/c is moving half the speed of exhaust gases
c) When the a/c speed reaches engine exhaust gases speed as the thrust becomes zero.*
08. The device to convert heat energy of a fuel into mechanical energy is known as :
a) Engine b) Machine
d) Heat Engine * c) Jet Engine.
09. The unit of energy in S.I.System is :
a) Kilogram weight
b) Dyne
c) Joule *
10. Entropy of the system remains constant in the :
a) Isothermal process as the temp: is constant
b) Isobaric process as pressure is not allowed to change
c) Adiabatic reversible process as no heat interchange is allowed with the surrounding. *
11. Pulse jet engine.
a) is a gas turbine engine
b) can be used in high speed A/C
c) a & b both are correct
d) can run under static pressure *
12. A ducted fan system may be regarded as.
a) better than pure jet propulsion system
b) Equivalent to turbo prop engine arrangement.
c) Intermediate between prop propulsion and jet propulsion *
d) Better for very high speed A/C
13. Altitude has no detrimental effect on
a) pulse jet engine b) RAM jet engine
c) Rocket engine * d) Turbo jet engine
14. One of the following is correct.
a) Thrust = mass x velocity
b) T.H.P = T x V / 375
c) Mass = thrust / acceleration *
d) momentum = 1/2 x density x
15. One of the following is correct definition of horsepower.
a) 3300 ft lbs of work per sec
b) 375 miles lb. of work per hour *
c) 1/476 watts per second
d) 550 ft lb.
16. The thermal efficiency of an engine is determined by the ratio of .
a) heat energy input / work output
b) heat out put / heat energy input
c) work out put / heat energy input *
d) work input / heat energy input
17. Specific gravity of kerosene is approx.
a) 0.80 * b) 0.72
c) 8 lbs per gallon d) 7.2 lbs per gallon
18. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is .
a) Cp = 0.1715 BTU/lb deg.F
b) Cp = 2.4 BTU / lb, deg. F
c) Less than Cv
d) Non of the above *
19. If the pressure of a gas is held constant, its volume will
a) decrease as its temperature is increased
b) decreased as its temperature is decreased *
c) increase as its temperature decreased
d) remain contant as its temperature is increased
20. T.S.F.C. of jet engine is
a) average pounds of fuel burned per hour
b) amount of fuel required to generate one pound of thrust for one hour *
c) amount of thrust produced by one pound of fuel
d) amount of fuel consumed during one hour of operation
21. An aircraft is required to fly at a cruise speed .82 mach . which power plant would be
Most suitable for this aircraft.
a) turbo fan engine *
b) turbo jet engine
c) turbo prop engine
22. Rocket engine on a commercial aircraft is not desirable because of
a) manufacturing difficulties and control problems
b) its starting and noise level problems
c) high rate of fuel consumption
23. In a supersonic aircraft the speed of the exhaust gases
a) has got to be subsonic, otherwise the nozzle would choked the problem of
Shockwave and backpressure would effect engine efficiency
b) has got to be supersonic and much higher than aircraft *
c) has got to be sonic or supersonic but less than the speed of aircraft
24. To provide diffusion of air at supersonic speeds the duct should be
a) Divergent b) convergent-divergent *
c) divergent-convergent c) convergent
25. The second law of thermodynamic also states that
a) the energy can be transformed and can not be destroyed
b) a given quantity of work can be converted completely into heat but the
opposite is possible
c) a given quantity of work can be converted completely into heat and that heat can
be completely converted into work
d) all of above are wrong *
26. One of the following statements is correct.
a) static thrust of a turbo jet is less than thrust available at 300 mph
b) static thrust of a turbo jet is approximately equal to the thrust at 600 mph
c) static thrust is always maximum and is never exceeded by the thrust available at
any speed condition *
d) static thrust increases with increase in ram pressure
27. One of the following is a force.
a) mass b) power
c) work d) weight *
28. The operation of gases when there is no change in the volume is known as .
a) Isothermal b) isobaric
c) isochoric * d) adiabatic
29. A line equidistant from the upper and lower surfaces of an aerofoil is known as .
a) chord line b) master line
c) mean line * d) straight line
30. The most efficient engine would be.
a) A type that would received heat at highest temp: conceivable and exhaust its gas
at the highest temp: possible
b) a type that would received heat at lowest temp: conceivable and exhaust its gas at
lowest temp: possible
c) a type that would received heat at lowest temp: conceivable and exhaust its gas at
highest temp: possible.
d) a type that would received heat at the highest temp: conceivable and exhaust its
gas at the lowest temp: possible. *
31. The compressor efficiency is defined as (ideal).
a) it is the ratio of the outlet pressure/inlet pressure
b) it is the ratio of the S.H.T./input H.P.
c) it is the ratio of the actual work required/isentropic work required to compress the air
d) it is the ratio of the isentropic work required / actual work required compressing the air. *
32. Theoretically if one pound of air is permitted to expand due to one degree F, rise in
Temp: than the energy available for expansion will be.
a) 0.24 BTU * b) 0.1715 BTU
c) 0.0685 BTU d) 53.35 lbs/ft
33. Specific gravity of substance.
a) in CGS system is numerically equal to its density
b) is independent of the systems of units used and has no dimensions
c) indicates how much a given volume of substance is relatively heavier than an equal volume of a standard
substance.
d) All the above answers are correct*
34. With increase in temp: the value of Cp/Cv
a) increase as the rate of Cv rise is slower than Cp
b) decrease as the rate of Cv rise is faster than Cp*
c) remains constant as both increase or decrease with the same rate
35. The total length of vernier scale in a 24/25 system vernier caliper is
a) 0.6 inches b) 0.06 inches
c) 0.024 inches d) 0.025 inches
36. The 3 main divisions and 2 sub divisions on the barrel of 0-1" outside micrometer are
Uncovered and the division of the level edge of the thimble is coinciding with the
Longitudinal line on 7 div: the barrel, the reading.
a) 0.327" b) 0.357"
c) 1.327" d) 1.357"
37. Mass of a body is :
a) the force with which a body is pulled towards the center of the earth
b) quantity of matter contained in a body and changes with change in altitude i.e.
Decreases as the altitude increases.
c) the quantity of matter contained in a body and remain constant i.e does not
change with change in altitude.*
d) equal to force x acceleration
38. The ratio of thermal capacity of substance to the thermal capacity of water is called
a) specific gravity b) joule's equivalent
c) specific heat * d) garmna "0"
39. The value of J ( joule is equivalent) is :
a) 1400 ft lb per CHU*
b) 1400 ft lb per BTU
c) 778 ft lb per CHU
d) both b and c are correct
40. The unit of work in MKS system is
a) joule * b) newton
c) watt d) erg
41. The altitude where there is no further reduction in temp: is called
a) tropopause b) stratosphere *
c) troposphere d) stratopause
42. Acceleration is equal to
a) f/g b) f x m
c) (v - u)/ t * d) both a and c are correct
e) both b and c are correct
43. Ist gas turbine engine a/c was flown in
a) 1908 b) 1939*
c) 1941 d) 1933
44. Common screw drivers size depends upon
a) number 1 to 5 b) length of blade*
c) length of body d) non of the above is correct
45. 18 TPI hacksaw blade to used to cut
a) brass and soft material
b) thin tubes and metal sheets
c) cast iron and brittle materials
d) none of the above is correct
46. To cut high carbon steel lubricant used is
a) thin oil
b) soapy water
c) no lubricant is required
47. The size of drill increases with
a) 80-1 b) Z - A
c) 1 - 80 d) a & b are correct
d) b & c are correct
48. In a micrometer of 2-3 inch size circular scale reading is 23, sub main scale reading
Is 2 and main scale reading is zero. The size between spindle and anvil is.
a) 0.073 inch b) .173 inch
c) 2.073 inch d) 2.730 inch
49. soldering spelter is made of .
a) bronze b) cut in alloy
c) steel alloy d) all above are correct
50. oxidizing flame.
a) has more accetiline
b) has 50 % oxygen
c) has more than 50 % oxygen
d) is used for best welding
51. Cast iron is
a) brittle b) easy to cast
c) self lubricant d) b and c are correct
e) a , b, c are correct *
52. Corrosion appears due to rubbing of two parts is called
a) friction corrosion
b) exaoliation
c) fretting corrosion *
d) pitting corrosion
53. 15 OC temp: is equal to
a) 273o K b) 59 0 R
o
c) 460 F d) 32 o F e) 288o K*
54. Density of air at sea level is
a) 1 lb / 12 ft3 b) .0024 slug/ft3 *
c) .89 lb/ft3 d) all of above are correct
e) only a & b are correct
55. Specific volume of air is
a) 13 ft3/lb * b) 13/32 slug/ft3
3
c) .0024 slug/ft d) non of above is correct
56. The formulas w/g(V2/r)is for
a) kinatic energy b) centripetal force*
c) potential energy d) centrifugal force
f) b & d are correct
57. If S.H.P is 2000 and thrust H.P = 520 lbs. ES.H.P is :
a) 2200 b) 2000
c) 2260 d) non of above is correct *
58. If local mach number on all point is more than one the flow is
a) transonic flow
b) super sonic flow *
c) hyper sonic flow
d) subsonic flow
59. Rate of pressure fall with altitude is.
a) 1 PSI/1000 ft b) 1.98 PSI/1000 ft
c) 1 PSI/2343 ft * d) 1 inch mercury/1000 ft
59. Absolute pressure (Pa) is
a) static pressure + ambient pressure
b) ram pressure + static pressure
c) gauge pressure + standard atmospheric pressure *
d) non of above is correct
60. L/D is maximum at angle of attack of
a) 15o b) 0o
o
c) above 15 d) 4o *
61. The speed of sound
a) directly proportional to the temperature
b) inversely proportional to the square root. of absolute temperature
c) directly proportional to the square root of temp:
d) 32.5 T miles/hrs
e) c and d are correct
62. A tangential force of 1 dyne/cm2 of a surface maintaining velocity of 1 cm/second
Between two layers 1 cm apart is known as
a) Viscosity b) density
c) poise * d) Jules erg
63. Reynolds number
a) is ratio between inertial force and cohesive force
b) decreases with height
c) is ratio between cohesive and adhesive force
d) a and b are correct *
64. Ist law of thermodynamics states that
a) H directly prop: to J
b) H directly prop: to W
c) W = JH *
d) Non of above is correct
65. Maximum lift is produced at angle of attack of
a) 4o b) 15o * c) 0o d) 90o
66. Q =  U +  W is equation for
a) isochoric process
b) isobaric process *
c) adiabatic process
d) isothermal process
67. The volume of a gas is 260 cc at 26 oC. If pressure is constant its volume at 0oC is appx..
a) 239 cc * b) 0 cc
c) 10 cc d) non of above
68. n = Cp / Cv for air is equal to
a) 1.4 * b) 1.33 c) 1.2
69. Ist law of thermodynamics
a)  Q =  U +  W *
b)  U = W +  Q
c)  W =  Q +  U
70. Isochoric process
a) pressure is constant b) volume is constant *
c) temperature is constant d) Q = O
71. Isobaric process
a) temperature constant b) pressure constant *
d) volume constant d)  Q = 0
72. Isothermal process
a) pressure constant b) volume constant
c) temperature constant * d)  Q = 0
72. Adiabatic process
a) temperature constant b) pressure constant
b) volume constant d)  Q = 0 *
73. Adiabatic process
a) Q = U + P(V2-V1) b) Q = U
c) Q = W d)  U = -W *
74. Work is equal to
a) PT b) PVn c) PV *
n
75. PV is process
a) Isothermal b) isobaric
c) isochoric d) adiabatic *
76. Work done by P=constant cycle is greater than V= constant cycle
a) True * b) False
77. Pressure constant cycle is
a) Otto cycle b) brayton cycle *
78. Aircraft Gas Turbine is
a) Otto cycle b) brayton cycle *
79. Compression is a process
a) adiabatic * b) isothermal
c) isobaric d) isochoric
80. Expansion in turbine is a process
a) isothermal b) isobaric
c) adiabatic * d) isochoric
81. Adiabatic compression work is
a) W(compressor)=Vi2 / 2g
b) W (compressor) + Vj2 /2g
c) W(compressor) +Vi2/2g *
82. Adiabatic expansion work in turbine is
a) W(turbine) + Vi2/2g
b) W(turbine) - Vi2/2g
c) W(turbine) + Vs2/2g
83. Turbine blades are divergent nozzles
a) True b) False*
84. Compressor Blades are convergent nozzels
a) True b) False*
85. Unit of Specific fuel consumpsion
a) kg/newton .hr * b) newton / kg. Hr c) kg.hr/neuton
86. In composite materials strength /weight ratio is
a) low b) high *
87. Mechanical advantage is equal to
a) force/resistance
b) effort./resistance
c) resistance/effort *
88. Types of electric arc welding process most widley used in aircraft are
a) metallic arc welding, carbon arc welding, atomic arc welding
b) metallic arc welding, inert gas welding
c) atomic arc welding, inert gas welding, inert arc welding
89. One H.P is equal to
a) 778 watts b) 746 watts *
c) 787 watts d) 767 watts
90. Specific heat
a) heat required to raise pressure
b) heat required to raise its temp: 1oC *
c) heat release after combustion
91. If n= Cp/Cv and if n increases, speed of sound
a) increases * b) decreases
92. Speed of sound is equal to
a) nRT * b) PVT c) T d) RT
93. Specific gravity is equal to
a) density of the water / density of the substance
b) density of the substance / density of the water *
94. When removing dent from aluminum alloy cowllin you will use
a) ball pin hammer
b) cross pin hammer
c) straight pin hammer
d) plastic tips hammer *
95. For delivering effective hammer blown the required handle length will be
a) full length
b) half length
c) 3/4 length
d) biking length
96. When sawing thin wall tubing the blade should be
a) 32 TPI *
b) 24 TPI
c) 18 TPI
d) 12 TPI
97. High speed steel drill retain their cutting edge at high temp: owing to the content of
a) nickel
b) chromium
c) titanium
d) tungsten *
98. The included lip angle of twist drill used for general work should be
a) 140o
b) 150
c) 180
d) 118 *
99. When cutting keyways in shafts gears and pulleys the chisal used is
a) flat chisal
b) cross cut chisal *
c) round nose chisel
d) diamond point chisal
100. The cutting angle of flat chisel used for general chipping work is
a) 40 o
b) 60 *
c) 80
d) 100
101. The size on the small end of a double handed spanner is 1/4" the other end would be
a) 3/8"
b) 5/16" *
c) 5/8"
d) 5/32"
102. For opening multisize nuts from an assembly the spanner needed is
a) plug spanner
b) pin spanner
c) adjustable spanner
d) spanner
103. For making eye ends of wire for connection on terminal screw you will use
a) continuation pliers
b) side cutting pliers
c) round nose pliers *
d) flat nose pliers
104. Pliers are classified by
a) type and length *
b) type and weight
c) length and weight
d) over all length
105. Pilot holes while drilling are essential when using
a) large drills
b) small drills
c) number drills
d) center drills
106. The length of a file is measured from
a) heel to point *
b) teng to point
c) length with handle
d) length without handle
107. The pressure of the gas is kept constant, its volume always be directly proportional
To its absolute temperature can be stated as.
a) Boyl's law b) Charl's law *
c) Adiabatic d) Isothermal
108. At 51 &1/2 on north or south of the equator when the Q.A.T. is 15oC and air is
Perfectly dry, it corresponds to:
a) 14.7 lbs. PSI b) 2116 lbs. PSI
c) 29.92 " HG * d) 1013.2 mm.HG
109. The bypass ratio is the ratio between.
a) the cold air flow and hot air flow *
b) the hot air flow and the cold air flow
c) the prop thrust and the exhaust nozzle jet thrust
d) the amount of heat by passed into spill and the amount of fuel sprayed through burner of spill type.
110. Specific heat at constant volume is.
a) .1240 BTU b) .240 CHU
c) .1715 BTU * d) .1715 CHU
111. Critical Mach number is defined as.
a) true speed of aircraft over the speed of sound
b) speed of sound over the true speed of aircraft
c) it is the flight mach number on the true speed of the A/C attesirs the speed of sound
d) It is the flight mach number of the aircraft and which any local airflow reaches the speed of sound. *
112. Pt5 on a duel compressor turbo jet indicates.
a) pressure and temperature at high pressure turbine
b) a station on engine at outlet to H.P. compressor
c) total pressure at inlet to low pressure turbine
d) total pressure at inlet to high pressure turbine *
113. The law of inertia is the same as.
a) Newton's 3rd law of motion b) Newton's 2 nd law of motion
st
c) Newton's 1 law of motion * d) Charl's law
114. One of the following statement is correct.
a) static thrust of a turbo jet is less than thrust available at 300 mph
b) static thrust of a turbo jet is approx. equal to the thrust at 600 mph
c) static thrust is always maximum and is never exceeded by the thrust available at any speed condition *
d) static thrust increases with increase in ram pressure.
115. Viscosity is defined as.
a) Fluid friction on the body of an oil *
b) The temperature at which the oil will just flow
c) The ability of an oil to resist crushing force
d) The ability to resist high temperature
116.A turbo prop of 4,000 H.P consumes 2,100 lbs. of fuel per hour if heating value of
fuel is 10,300 CHU then its thermal efficiency.
a) 660.7 % b) 26.2 % * c) 30.2 % d) 33.7 %
117.The flow through a duct depends upon.
a) viscosity of the fluid
b) pressure difference across the duct
c) p.d. and the area of the duct
d) a & c are correct *
e) a & b are correct
118.Temperature of -10oC equal what temp: on farhenheit scale.
a) -14o b) 19o c) -3o d) 14o *
119.A cubic ft of air at 500oC has a pressure of 200 lbs/sq inch, if it is allowed to expand
Until volume becomes 4 cu ft and pressure becomes 43.52 lbs/sq on its final temperature will be .
a) 1073oC lbs b) 400 oC *
c) 673oC d) 435oC
120. As the rpm of the centrifugal compressor engine increases the thrust output.
a) decreases almost directly
b) decrease at a slower rate as other factors try to compensate for the loss.
c) Increase directly with the change of rpm because the mass of air flow varies almost directly with the change
of rpm.
d) Increase due to ram effect becoming more pronounced.
121. After about 400 mph speed if the a/c speed is to be increased then the thrust
required from the jet engine.
a) increase directly with the induced drag
b) is decreased because the less density of air results in lesser drag
c) increases directly with the profile drag *
d) is decreased because the ram/pressure rise automatically meats the requirements above this speed
122. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is.
a) Cp = 0.1715 BTU/lb Fo
b) Cp = 2.4 BTU/lb Co
c) Less than Cv
d) Greator than Cv. *
123. If an adiabatic process is reversible it is called.
a) entropy b) isentropic * c) enthalpy d) polytropic
124. If the temperature of a gas is held constant, its pressure will.
a) increase as its volume is increased
b) decrease as its volume is decreased
c) increase as its volume is decreased *
d) very dir3ectly, proportional to any cahnage in its volume
125. One of the following statements is correct.
a) a rocket engine has unlimited speed and altitude range *
b) a turbo prop engine is more efficient at higher a/c speed
c) turbine fuels are expensive than aviation gasoline
d) blow off valves is provided to eliminate high speed stalling.
126. The effective thrust developed by the engine during flight taking into consideration
The initial momentum of the air massprior to entering the influence of the engine in the definition of .
a) reverse thrust b) gross thrust
c) static thrust d) net thrust *
127. In applying newton's laws to the operation of a jet engine, we can see that.
a) the 1st law explains why thrust is obtained and the 2nd law indicates the amplitude of thrust
b) the 2nd law explains why thrust is obtained and the 3rd law indicates the magnitude of thrust
c) the 3rd law explains why thrust is obtained and the 1st law indicates the magnitude of thrust
d) the 3rd law explains why thrust is obtained and the 2nd law indicates the magnitude of thrust *
128. While holding Vj constant, thrust may be increased by.
a) increasing the nozzle area *
b) decreasing the nozzle area
c) decreasing the mass density
d) increasing Tt2
129. If the take off HP of a turbo prop engine is 1700 and the static jet thrust 495 lbs, the
T.E.H.P is .
a) 2195 b) 190 c) 1890 * d) 1980
130. In international system of units the unit of thermodynamic temp: is.
a) o F b) kelvin * c) rankin d) oC
131. One microvoit means.
a) millionth part of a volt *
b) one million volts
c) one thousand volts
132. Under standard sea level conditions the value of atmospheric pressure is.
a) 1.0`14 milibar b) .76 NM of mercury
d) 101400 N/M2 *
133. The density of fresh water in S.I unit is.
a) one kg/cm3 b) one kg/m3
3 3
c) 10 kg/m *
134. All gasses have the same co-efficient of expansion ( increase of volume per unit
Volume per degree rise in temperature
a) 1/273 of the volume occupied by gas *
b) 0.00366 C.C/degree of its volume at 0oC
c) .24 C.C./degree
135. The specific gravity or relative density of the mercury is 13.6. the density of the
Mercury would be.
a) 13.6 x 62.4 lbs/ft3
b) 13600 kgm3
c) 23.6 kg/m3
d) a & b are correct *
136. Pressure may be expressed as fill up the blanks ax
a) p = F/x *
b) p = x 8 x
c) p = m T x / x
137. During flight one pound of thrust is equal to one T.H.P at.
a) 760 mph b) 375 mph * c) 600 mph
138. If the propulsive efficiency of a gas turbine is higher it would result is.
a) bigger propulsive force, less loss in exhaust but the aircraft would be allowed to accelerate.
b) better fuel economy and shorter run for take off *
c) bigger propulsive force and hence greater load can be moved
139. Entropy of the system remains constant in the.
a) isothermal process as the torque is constant
b) isobaric process pressure is not allowed to raise
c) adiabatic reversible process as no heat interchange is allowed with sorrow: *
140. The turbo jet cycle is known as the Brayton or constant pressure cycle, it operations at much lower pressure than
does the otto constant volume cycle, the statement is.
a) True * b) False
141. The following are vector quantities.
a) acceleration, velocity *
b) force, density
c) displacement, time
142. Gravity of substance.
a) in CGS system is numerically equal to its density
b) is independent of the systems of units used and has no dimensions
c) indicates how much a given volume of a substance is relatively heavier than an equal volume of a standard
substance *
d) all the above answers are correct.
143. With increase in temperature the value of Cp / Cv.
a) increases as the ratio of Cv rise in slower than Cp
b) decreases as the ratio of Cv rise is faster than Cp *
c) remains constant as both increase or decrease with the same rate
144. The total length of vernier scale in a 24/25 system vernier caliper is.
a) 0.6 inches * b) 0.00 inches
c) 0.024 inches d) 0.025 inches
145. One of the following tool is commonly used to set out the distances.
a) steel rule * b) outside caliper c) inside caliper d) divider
146. One of the following element induces red hardness property when alloyed the tools.
a) chromium b) tungsten * c) vanadium d) nickel
147. The contact of two dissimilar metals in the presence of moisture causes.
a) intorgranular corrosion
b) surface corrosion
c) galvanic corrosion *
d) exfoliation corrosion
148. Steel parts are chemically protected against corrosion by.
a) anodizing b) chromating
c) phosphating d) cadmium plating *
149. In one of the following hardness testing machine the hardness value is obtained by
The amount of rebound of a steel
a) brinell tester b) rockwell tester
c) shro durometer * d) vickers terter
150. An alloy of lead and tin serves as an adhesive in one of the following joining process
a) soft soldering * b) braxing
c) gas welding d) electric are welding
151. In one of the following process, the steels are heated to little above its supper
Critical temp: soaked at that temp: for a specified length of time, and then cooled
Very slowly in the furnace, it self.
a) hardening b) carlonrising
c) normalising d) annealing *
152. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is 14.7 PSI ; this pressure is same as.
a) 1764 lb/sq.ft b) 2116 lb/sq.ft. *
c) 1470 lb/sq.ft d) 2000 lb/sq.ft
153. Centigrade thermometer and Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in the same liquid
The reading on the centigrade thermometer is 40oC the reading on the Fahrenheit is.
a) 90oF B) 96oF c) 104oF * d) 112oK
154. When converted to absolute temp: is equal to.
a) -470oR b) 470oK c) 283oR d) 283oK
155. The british thermal unit is a heat unit it is same as a.
a) calori b) CHU
c) FHU d) non of the above *
156. Mass of water vapor present in unit volume of air is known as.
a) vapor pressure b) absolute humidity *
c) relative humidity d) dew point
157. In a Bramah's process, the area of one piston A is 10 sq. inch and area of the other
Piston B is 25 sq. inches. A force of 60 lbs is applied, on A, the weight that you can
Support on piston B is
a) 250 lbs b) 100 lbs
c) 120 lbs d) 150 lbs *
158. Density is defined as.
a) weight per unit volume of a substance
b) inter-molecular space
c) weight as compared with water
d) mass per unit volume of substance *
159. The mode of transmission of heat in which the heated materials actually move in.
a) conduction b) convection *
c) radiation d) ventilation
160. Power may be defined as.
a) rate of change of acceleration *
b) rate of change of momentum
c) mass x acceleration
d) b and c both are correct
e) the difference between the two states of an object
161. The unit of energy is joule this is the same as.
a) 107 ergs * b) 10 5 dynes
c) 550 ft lb /sec d) 105 5 dynes/sec
162. If the pressure of a gas is held constant, its volume will.
a) decrease as its temp: is increased
b) decrease as its temp: is decreased *
c) increase as its temp: is decreased
d) remain constant as its temp: is increased
163. If the temperature of a gas is held constant its pressure will.
a) increase as its volume is increased
b) decrease as its volume is decreased
c) increase as its volume is decreased *
d) very directly proportional to any change in its volume
164. The volume of a given mass is increased its density will .
a) increase b) decrease * c) remains unchanged
165. When a body is accelerating the thrust is.
a) equal to drag
b) more than drag *
c) equal to drag and inertia
d) non of the above
166. Acceleration is equal to.
a) F / M * b) W / F c) M x F d) none is correct
167. One of the following is correct.
a) weight is the amount of matter contain in a body
b) w / g = mass *
c) weight x 981 = mass
d) 32.2 / weight = mass
168. Centripetal force is counter balanced by.
a) momentum b) gravity
c) inertia d) centrifugal force *
e) c & d both are correct
169. The distance through which weight acts around an axis is called.
a) moment b) couple
c) fulcrum d) arm *
170. The temperature at which the actual vapor pressure is equal to the saturation
Vapor pressure is known as dew point the statement is.
a) True * b) False
171. Impulse is expressed as.
a) mass x velocity
b) force x velocity
c) force x time *
d) mass x time
172. Temperature scale in use for metric system is.
a) Centigrade *
b) farehenhiet
173. Work and heat are mutually convertible , statement is.
a) True *
b) False
174. Brazing (hard soldering) is.
a) is a combination of Cu+Zn *
b) is a combination of Tin+lean
c) soldering b/w similar metals
d) a & c are correct
175. Find the thermal efficiency of turbo prop whose fuel flow is 2100 lb/hr of 1 pound
Of fuel contain 10300 CHU/lb. It has total HP of 4000 H.P.
a) 30 % b) 26.6 % * c) 18 %
176. One of titanium is.
a) Retile * b) Boxite c) pynte
177. What will be the standard pressure at 15 o C .
a) 14.7 lb/ft2 b) 2116 lb/ft2 *
c) 30 mm of hg d) all of the above are correct
178. If an a/c ready for landing making 60 degree angle from ground and having a height
Of 1000 ft, what will be the a/c travel from air to ground.
179. 1800oC is in degree F.
a) 5760 oF b) 3272 oF *
180. At constant pressure, the volume of gas is directly proportional to the absolute
Temperature.
a) Charl's law * b) Boyl's law
181. The L.C.M of 150,30,25 is.
a) 150 * b) 25 c) 300 d) 50
182. 5135 represent in SAE.
a) 1 % alloying element and 3.5 % of carbon
b) 1 % alloying element and 35 % of carbon
c) 1 % chrome vanadium and 0.35 % of carbon
d) 1 % chrome and 0.35 % of carbon *
183. Titanium one is.
a) Rutile * b) pynte c) hematite
184. Phantom line of.
a) cross-sectional line
b) one big two small dashes *
c) center line
185. Size of philips screw driver is.
a) length of blade and the size of tip
b) the no which indicate size of tip *
c) length of blade
186. The lead of british micrometer is.
a) 0.024 inch b) 0.001 inch
d) 1 / 40 inch *
187. The steel used for H.S cutting tool is.
a) medium carbon steel with suitable percentage of suitable material
b) tool steel of containing 14-22 % tungsten *
c) high carbon steel
188. When the subsonic flow passing through convergent duct.
a) no shockwave takes place *
b) normal shock weave will becomes on throat
c) oblique shock wave takes place
189. If one a/c flying at 1325 ft/sec velocity the flight is.
a) supersonic * b) subsonic
190. The point on an aerofoil where laminar flow changes to turbulent flow is known as
a) transition point * b) stagnation point
c)dew point
191. When pressure increases, velocity decrease through a duct on passing super sonic
Flow the duct will be of the shape.
a) convergent b) divergent
c) diffuser d) a & c are correct *
192. Hacksaw blade of 24 TPI use for .
a) cutting pipes * b) cutting tubes
d) cutting medium carbon steel and copper
193. The ratio b/w useful work done to the heat supplied to the engine.
a) thermal efficiency * b) propulsive efficiency *
c) mechanical efficiency d) overall efficiency
194. The ratio b/w THP to increase in K.E of gases by means of jet.
a) thermal efficiency b) propulsive efficiency
c) mechanical efficiency d) overall efficiency
195. Amount of fuel in lb/hr to produce 1HP.
a) specific fuel consumption *
b) thrust specific fuel consumption
196. The brittleness test for materiel is.
a) Izod test * b) shore scalar ascap test
c) creep test
197. A/C approaches for landing having speed of 200 ft/sec find the total distance travel before a/c stops retarted
acceleration of c/c to 16 ft /sec2.
a) 1250 ft *
198. If a/c throttle fully opened and EGT to maxim. On verying atmospheric condition
Thrust is decreasing so the engine is.
a) thrust rotted
b) fully veled engines *
c) part power
d) de-vated engine
199. If the specific gravity of lead is 11.34 % so what will be the density of lead.
a) 708 b) 6.6 c) 0.33 d) 0.8
200. Acme thread angle is.
a) 29o * b) 55o c) 22 1/2o d) 47 1/2o
201. The constant pressure cycle is represented by.
a) U =Q-W *
b) U= Q
c) Q = W
202. Ability of metal to resist fracture on apply stress is.
a) toughness * b) tensity
d) brittleness
203. On bending to metal which type of force acting.
a) tension b) twisting
b) compression and tension both acting *
204. The best steel obtained by a process of .
a) open hearth b) bismer process
c) electric process d) oxygon process *
205. In brayton cycle compression is of the type.
a) Isochoric b) Isothermal c) Isobaric* d) Isentropic *
206. The cable size taken by american to.
a) outer diameter
207. Clase 3 fit Ans: medium fit.
207. At constant pressure as volume increases the temp: of gas.
a) increases * b) decreases*
b) remains same
208. Split pin is used for .
a) one line
b) till spring nen is present
c) up to one leg broken up
209. Jet engine is.
a) external combustion engine
b) internal combustion engine *
c) same as gas turbine engine
210. Brass is.
a) Cu=Zn * b) Cu = Tin c) Tin = lead
211. If jet velocity is 1350 ft/sec the flight will be .
a) super sonic *
b) subsonic.
212. The power consumed to rotate the compressor is about.
a) 4/3 of the total power generated in the engine.
b) 3/4 of total power. *
c) 50 % of total power.
d) Non of above is correct
213. Thermal efficiency is .
a) net work / heat supplied *
b) QR - QS / QR
c) 1 + QR / QS
d) QS + QR / QS
214. Friction horse power is.
a) I.H.P + B.H.P b) PLANK / 33000
c) 2  TN / 33000 d) I.H.P - B.H.P*
215. Gross thrust is.
a) thrust when initial momentum of air is zero*
b) static thrust
c) mvj-mvi, vx is velocity of incoming air
d) wa/g vi + Aj (Psj - Pamb)
216. Thrust produced by engine in test bench is.
a) gross thrust b) net thrust
c) static thrust d) all of above are correct *
217. Amount of fuel consumed by engine per hour in order to presence one pound of
Thrust is.
a) fuel flow in pounds/hour/pound of thrust
b) thrust specific fuel consumption (TSFC)*
c) equivalent shaft horse power
d) a & b are correct
218. One of the following is the formula for calculating the E.S.H.P of a jet engine.
a) S.H.P + static thrust /2.6*
b) Thrust x velocity (ft/sec) of a/c
550
c) Thrust x velocity (ft/sec) of a/c
550 Prop. efficiency
c) S.H.P x prop. Efficiency
219. Advantage of the turbo prop system over piston engine system.
a) continuos rotary power and fewer working parts
b) simplified stess problems and inherent simplicity
c) more speed range, lass weight, less fuel consumption*
d) a & b are correct
220. If an P.D of 9 PSI across an orifice causes a flow of 10 per min. then a P.D
Of 81 PSI will cause a flow of.
a) 20 gallons per min
b) 30 gallons per min
c) 40 gallons per min
d) 90 gallons per min*
221. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is.
a) Cp = 0.1715 BTU/lb deg F
b) Cp = 2.4 BTU/lb deg F
c) Less than Cv
d) Greater than Cv*
222. If a turbo jet a/c is moving at 220 ft/sec and exhaust jet velocity relative to the a/c is
300 mph, its propulsive efficiency.
a) 50 % b) 66.7 % *
c) 80 % d) 100 %
223. The mathematical definition of net thrust is.
a) outlet velocity of air minus inlet velocity in ft/sec
b) inlet momentum of gases minus static thrust
c) gross thrust minus ram drag*
d) gross thrust minus static thrust
e) non of the above is correct
224. The gross thrust and the net thrust in case of one of the following is same.
a) turbo prop engine b) turbo jet engine
c) rocket engine* d) ram jat engine
225. The velocity, which changes with uniform acceleration, is called.
a) uniform velocity b) absolute velocity
c) relative velocity d) variable velocity *
226. The charactristic equation of gas is.
a) the some of continuity equation
b) AV = C
c) PV = mRT *
d) S = V2 - U2 / 2 a
227. In the equation PV / T = R.
a) P is total pressure is sum of Pa and 1/2 V2
b) R is joule equivalent
c) T is absolute standard temperature in Ro
d) V is specific volume *
e) all the above are correct.
228. If a body is accelerating at a uniform rate, the distance travel can be calculated with
The equation "S" = ut - 1/2 at 2
a) True * b) False
229. Static pressure is equal to.
a) 1/2 ev2 b) g RT
c) egrt* d) gRt / e
230. Relative velocity refers to.
a) the velocity of a body as compared to another moving body *
b) the initial velocity of air into and engine air inlet duct in relation to the engine
during static ground run.
c) velocity of an object as compared to a fixed surface
d) both b & c are correct
231. The work a pound of water can do when heated at constant pressure is.
a) 1400 ft lbs, if the temperature rist is through 10 o
b) equivalent of .1715 CHU if temp: rise is 1 oF
c) equivalent of .24 CHU if temperature rise is 1 oC
d) 86 ft lbs, if temp: rise is 10 oC
232. When gas expands without any loss of heat, the phenomenon is called.
a) isothermal expansion b) adiabatic compression
c) adiabatic expansion* d) isothermal compression
233. When air is heated at constant pressure the symbol for specific heat is.
a) Cp b) Cv
c) R d) J
234. If the pressure of gas is kept constant, its volume will always be.
a) inversely proportional to its absolute temp:
b) directly proportional to its absolute temp:*
c) directly proportional to its relative velocity
d) directly proportional to its temperature in oK
235. The critical mach is.
a) the ratio of the velocity of a body and the local sound speed
b) the ratio of the velocity of a moving aerofoil and the local sound speed when
air velocity on any part of the aerofoil has reached sound speed.*
c) the speed of a moving body when it has reached speed of sound
d) the maximum mach number a moving aerofoil can achieve
236. The energy possessed by a moving body is known as momentum and is equal to
M x V.
a) True b) False*
236. The effective thrust developed by an engine during flight is.
a) always power than gross thrust*
b) always higher than static thrust because the air mass increases faster than the
fall of acceleration.
c) net thrust *
d) both "b" and "c" are correct.
237. Mathematically THP = T x V / 375 when "V" is velocity in IPH.
a) True * b) False
238. A turbo fan has higher propulsive efficiency.
a) then a turbo jet at high altitude
b) than a turbo prop at high forward speeds*
c) than a turbo prop at low forward speeds
d) than a turbo jet at high forward speeds
239. The thrust laps rate with increase in altitude is.
a) less in a turbo prop than a turbo jet*
b) more in a twin spool compressor engine as compared with single spool
compressor engine.
240. A turbo prop engine is more efficient during take off as.
a) it does not need to accelerate the air to very high velocity
b) the propeller blades comparatively more air per second the gas generator
c) it has less vibration at full power
d) both "a" and "b" are correct*
241. The exhaust gases of turbo prop loose more energy to atmosphere than a turbo jet
a) True b) False*
242. The self igniting propellants are known as.
a) mono propellant b) hypergolic*
c) fuel and oxidizer d) X -1
243. Normal atmospheric pressure at sea level will hold up a column of approximately
a) 30 inches of mercury and 34 feet of water*
b) 30 inches of mercury and 30 feet of water
c) 14.7 inches of mercury and 34 inches of water
d) 30 inches of mercury and 14.7 feet of water
e) 30 inches of mercury and 34 inches of water
244. In view of the efficiency an ideal propulsive system should throw the air straight
Back without giving it any rotary or sideways motion. In view of this if we compare
The efficiencies of the propulsive units then we can say that the order of efficiency would be.
a) propeller-jet rocket b) jet-propeller-rocket
c) rocket-jet-propeller* d) rocket-propeller-jet
f) jet-rocket propeller
245. In a convergent nozzle the velocity of gas flow.
a) gases on increase as more and more pressure head is supplied
b) can never exceed mach 1.0*
c) is directly proportional to the duct area
d) depends on the local temp: of the gas
246. On jet engine the thermal efficiency increases with increase in airspeed of the a/c
This is.
a) a false statement
b) due to ram effect*
247. 10 oC when converted to abolute temperature is equal to.
a) 470 Ro b) 470 Ko
c) 283 Ro d) 283 Ko *
248. One of the following is a scalar quantity.
a) velocity b) force
c) speed* d) drag
249. Momentum of body is defined as.
a) weight x velocity b) force x distance
c) mass x acceleration d) mass x velocity*
250. When an a/c is in steady pevel flight it obey.
a) first law of motion * b) second law of motion
c) third law of motion d) Bernoulli's theorem
251. One of the following is absolute unit of work.
a) Newton b) dyne
c) erg* d) gram weight
252. A body starts from rest with a uniform acceleration of 4 ft/sec 2 , the distance
Covered in 5 seconds.
a) 50 ft * b) 75 ft
c) 40 ft d) 60 ft
253. A body which is moving in a circle of radius "r" the relationship between its linear
Velocity "v" and the and the angular velocity.
a) v x r = w b) r x w = v*
c) v x w = r
254. One of the following is true.
a) units of work and power are same
b) units of work and momentum are same
c) units force and work are same
d) units of work and energy are same*
255. One of the following is correct.
a) the thrust of a flowing liquid is perpendicular to the surface in contact with it
b) the pressure at the two point in a liquid at rest lying in the same horizontal plane
are unequal
c) a liquid transmit pressure equally in all directions*
d) pressure is proportional to density always
256. Thrust produced by engine on test bench is.
a) gross thrust b) net thrust
c) static thrust d) all above are correct *
257. The useful power developed by an engine at speed of 375 miles per hour when one
Pound of thrust is equal to one HP is called.
a) thrust horse power* b) shaft horse power
c) static thrust c) none of above
258. Amount of fuel consumed by engine per hour in order to produce one pound of
Thrust is.
a) fuel flow in pound/hour/pound of thrust
b) thrust specific fuel consumption
c) equivalent shaft horse power
d) specific fuel consumption
e) a & b are correct*
259. Work and heat are mutually convertible the statement is.
a) True* b) False
260. Boils law states.
a) PV = Constant * b) V / T = Const.
c) P /T = Const. d) VT = Const.
261. The unit of pressure is bar this is the same as.
a) 106 dynes/sq. cm* b) 10 3 dyne/sq. cm
c) 14.7 PSI d) 1 n/m2
262. Density of air and at sea level on standard day.
a) .002487 lb b) .002378 slug/ft 3 *
c) 1.4 lb/sq in d) non of the above
263. The volume of a gas is 819 cc at 11oF Temp: find its volume at 0oC and 114 cm
Pressure.
a) 100 cc * b) 558 cc
c) 910 cc d) 628 cc
264. Upward thrust experienced by a body immerged in liquid is called.
a) liquid thrust b) lift
c) buoyancy * d) specific gravity
265. After about 400 rpm speed, if the a/c speed is to be increased than the thrust required from the jet engine.
a) increase directly with the induced drag
b) is decreased because the less density of air resist in less drag
c) increase directly with the profile drag*
d) decrease because the ram pressure rise automatically meets the requirements above this speed
266. A cubic ft of air at 500oC has a pressure 200 lb/sq. inch , if it is allowed to expand
untill volume become 4 cubic ft and pressure becomes 13.52 lb/sq. inch , the final
temp: will be.
a) 475oC b) 108 oC
o
c) 675 C d) 400 oC *
266. In a pulse jet engine the time necessary for pressure into combustion chamber to
Relieve itself, enough to allow the ram air pressure to again open the shutters in the
Work of .
a) shutt on and grills mechainsium
b) pressure difference across the intake and the chamber.*
c) The length of the tail plane
d) Divergent duct
267. Coefficient of expansion.
a) K = L / Lo (T2-T1)*
b) K =Lo / L(T2-T1)
c) K = Lo(T2-T1) / L
268. The velocity energy and temp: energy left in the gases after jet nozzle.
a) produce the thrust & propel the air plane
b) air measured to determine the thrust output of the engine
c) are lost as far as the forward thrust is concerned*
d) are very small and are no concern.
269. Approximate, suitable, speed range of the propulsive unit is one of the following.
a) turbo jet above 1.5 mach
b) turbo jet upto 1.5 mach
c) ram jet upto 3 mach & rocket above 3 mach
d) b & c are correct*
e) a & c are correct
270. The propulsive efficiency of turbo jet increases with.
a) increase of a/c speed
b) increase of a/c altitude
c) a limited a/c speed range ( i.e 400---500 mph) operation only.
d) a & b are correct*
271. If the drag of an a/c at 200 ft/sec is 1000 lb & the power developed by the engine at
This speed is equal to 450 HP the propeller efficiency would be.
a) 80.8 % * b) 72.7 %
c) 90 % d) 60.3 %
272. Lift = ?
a) L = VS CL / 2 b) L = V 2 s CL / 2*
c) L = p2V S CL / 2
273. Drag = ?
a) D = mg b) D = ma
c) D = p V2S CD / 2 * d) D = p V 2 CD / S
274. Correct formula.
a) T1/ T2 = ( P2/P1)n-1/ n b) T2/T1 = (P2/P1)1-n/n
n-1/n
c) T1/T2 = (P1/P2) c) a & c are correct*
275. Correct formula.
a) P1/P2 = (V2/V1)n * b) P2/P1 = (V2/V1)n
n-1/v
c) P1/P2 = (V2/V1)
276. Actual compressor work . (Formula)
277. Actual turbine work . (Formula)
278. Amount of water vapors present and the mass of water vapors required to
Produce saturation.
a) True b) False *
279. With increase in temperature, the value of Cp / Cv.
a) increase b) decrease *
c) same as d) all of the above wrong
280. Thrust is calculated by Fn = Fg + Wa / g the statement is.
a) incorrect b) correct
281. Angle of attack is the angle between.
a) relative air flow and bottom surface of aerofoil
b) relative air flow and mean chamber line
c) relative air flow and chord line *
d) chord line and mean chamber line
282. Transonic flow is.
a) Mach 1 b) Mach 1 to 3
c) Mach 2 d) Mach .8 to 1.4 *
283. Viscosity is.
a) the tendency of a liquid to evaporate
b) the resistance offered by the relative layers of fluid when they are in motion *
c) the ability of oil to withstand temperature
d) the property of slipperiness
284. The turbo prop engine is more efficient at the speed of above 450 m/h the statement is.
a) True b) False *
285. The turbo fan engine is efficient at the speed of.
a) 450 m/h b) 600 m/h *
c) 1100 m/h d) 900 m/h
286. 2325 is the steel .
a) carbon steel b) Nickel steel *
c) Nickel Chrome steel d) Tungsten
287. Aluminum can be protected of corrosion by.
a) anodizing * b) galvanizing
c) annealing d) oxidizing
288. Philips screwdriver can be measured by.
a) length of the blade
b) thickness of the tip
c) numbering which indicate the size of tip *
d) a and b are correct
289. Flat file is used to.
a) remove matel on the surface of object
b) finish the object
c) to cut the object
d) a and b are correct *
290. For cutting of mild steel the hacksaw blade used.
a) 14 TPI * b) 18 TPI
c) 24 TPI d) 32 TPI
291. B.A. thread angle is.
a) 45 o b) 47.5 o *
o
c) 29 d) 90 o
292. One Neuton is equal to.
a) 4.45 lb * b) 2.45 lb
c) 2.20 lb
293. During flight one lb of thrust is equal to 2 THP at.
a) 750 mph * b) 375 mph
c) 600 mph d) 550 mph
294. Which statement is correct in supersonic flow.
a) rate of change in volume is greater than change in velocity *
b) rate of change in volume is less than change in velocity
c) rate of change in volume is equal than change in velocity
295. Unit of momentum is.
a) N-M b) N-Sec * c) lb
-sec
296. Thermal efficiency of principal gas turbine cycle depends on.
a) compression ratio only
b) compression ratio and maximum turbine inlet temp
c) pressure ratio only *
d) non of the above
297. Force is.
a) change of momentum
b) change of velocity
c) rate of change of acceleration
d) non of above *

D I S C R I P T I V E.

Q Define. Exfoliation Corrosion, Newton, Horse Power, Annealing process,


Zyglo process.
Q Draw and explain Brayton Cycle
Q Write the Thermodynamical cycles.
Q Compare the Turbo prop and Turbo Fan, power/weight ratio, fuel consumption,
Efficiency
Q What are the requirements for the corrosion, types, the locations for the
Corrosion formation in the engine.
Q Draw the T-S diagram for the Pressure constant cycle and show all the
Thermodynamic process and Adiabatic & actual works & efficiencies.
Q Draw the stress- strain diagram an show the limitations of different materials,
Define Creep.
Q Draw the velocity vector diagram for the turbine and compressor
Q What will be the temperature after HPC on ground & at 11EM ( Tam=-550)
If RAM=1, 5; LPC=2.; HPC =10.
BASIC GAS TURBINE PAPERS.
Phase “B”

01. If on turbine blades the inlet velocity is less than outlet velocity it is known as.
a) free turbine
b) radial turbine
c) reaction turbine *
d) impulse turbine
02. Stresses from centrifugal loads and high temp: over sufficient length of time at the
Turbine wheels causes what is known as.
a) creep * b) stretch
c) warp d) rupture
03. As the air leaves the diffuser and enters the combustion zone.
a) its velocity relative to the engine is quite less *
b) its velocity relative to the engine is quite high
c) its velocity is decreased as heat energy is added
d) its pressure is increased as its enters the combustion chamber
04. The turbine nozzle guide vanes are.
a) structures with airfoil sections of compounded curvatures to direct the gases
and increase their velocity to a suitable value with respect to the rotating
turbine blades *
b) structure with airfoil sections of compounded curvatures to direct the gases
into the turbine with a little energy change as possible
c) airfoil shaped structures just downstream from the turbine wheel to control the
velocity and direction of the gases leaving the rotor blades
d) designed to convert the heat and kinetic energies of the gases to pressure
energies of the turbine
05. With a dual axial flow turbo jet.
a) the starting torque loads are very high as a result a large heavy starting unit
must be used.
b) the starting torque loads are not higher than average
c) the starting torque loads are greatly reduced since only one rotor is driven by the starter*
d) the starting torque loads are low at first but increase when combustion is established
06. The passage between rotor blade of an axial flow compressor is.
a) divergent * b) convergent
c) uniform d) same as of cascads blades
07. Variable incidence entry vanes are provided to.
a) eliminate high speed stalling of rotor blades
b) compensate for density drop of air at high O.A.T.
c) avoid stalling first few rows of rotor blades, if mass air flow is reduced at high compressor speed *
d) increase the air velocity at the air intake of engine
08. Symmetrical blading is one in which.
a) the degree of reaction is 50 %
b) the pressure change through a stage is not equally shared by stators & rotors
c) no centrifugal force is imparted to the air mass
d) the air flow near the root is the same as near the tip
09. On a hot day, the L.P compressor of dual axial compressor will operate at.
a) slower speed than on a standard day *
b) faster speed than on a standard day
c) speed which is not different than speed on a standard day
d) non of the above is correct
10. The energy utilized by the turbine is composed of.
a) pressure and kinetic energy *
b) thermal, pressure and kinetic energy
c) thermal and kinetic energy
d) thermal energy only
11. Which moving blades of the following type would operate at comparatively lower
Temperature
a) impulse turbine blades *
b) reaction turbine blades
c) impulse reaction type blades
d) nimonic alloy forged type blades
12. Maximum air inlet mach number of axial compressor should not be more than.
a) 1.2 b) 0.7 *
c) 4.1 d) 7.8
13. One of the following is better combination.
a) centrifugal compressor, can type combustion chamber centrifugal type turbine
b) centrifugal compressor, axial flow turbine , can type combustion chamber *
c) axial flow single rotor compressor, annular type combustion chamber , two stage split turbine
d) axial flow double rotor compressor, can type combustion chamber, single stage turbine
14. At constant RPM if the velocity of the inlet air is decreased the effective angle of
Attack of an axial compressor blade will.
a) decrease
b) not change
c) shows tendency to correct itself and then go to low side
d) increase *
15. The speed of the low pressure compressor increases as the inlet temp: becomes
Colder because.
a) the power required to compress cold air to a given pressure is less than the
power required to compress warm air
b) a decreased inlet temp: rise about a decrease in air density and tends to unload the compressor
c) The fuel controller sense the decreased Tt2 and schedules an increase in fuel flow to maintain the proper
fuel air ratio with the denser air. *
d) The high pressure compressor increases its speed also.
16. In the practice the turbine blades of a gas turbine are of.
a) impulse type b) reaction type
c) high creep type d) impulse and reaction type *
17. Stall will occur in high pressure stages of an axial flow compressor.
a) air mass flow is reduced when compressor is turning at high speed *
b) air mass flow is increased when compressor is turning at high speed
c) air mass flow is reduced when compressor is turning at low speed
d) all above answers are incorrect
18. Axial flow compressor compresses the air by .
a) increasing its velocity
b) increasing its temperature
c) decreasing its temperature
d) diffusion *
19. The effect of different stages in an axial flow compressor is.
a) addition of the small pressure rises at each stage
b) to force air from a large area at the inlet to a small area at the exit to increase pressure
c) to multiply the pressure by each succeeding stage *
d) to increase the pressure by forcing the air through the convergent passage ways between the blades and
vanes.
20. While holding Vj, constant, thrust may be increased by,
a) increasing the nozzle area
b) decreasing the nozzle area *
c) decreasing the mass density
d) increasing Tt2
21. Annular combustion chamber can be preferred over the can design combustion
Because.
a) it given a smaller engine diameter for the same cross sectional area of airflow and
has longer life
b) it is easier to construct and has even pressure throughout the chamber *
c) it has multi spray nozzle, less chances of flame out and easy maintenance
d) non of the above is correct
22. When the throttle is moves forwarded in a free turbine engine, the difference of RPM
Between the HP and LP rotating assemblies got less, this is due to.
a) more energy absorbed by HP turbine and comparatively less by LP turbine
b) less energy absorbed by HP turbine and comparatively more by LP turbine
c) their design matching characteristics
d) the behavior of LP compressor which fools slightly off loaded at high speed
23. One of the advantage of twin spool compressor is.
a) it has increasing flexibility, more efficient over wide range engine speed and less
maintenance
b) permit easier starting and quicker acceleration
c) easier to construct and simplified the power transmission *
d) robust can stand some shock from icing up
24. During surge when the compressor is choked and the gases pass through the normal
Shock wave the will.
a) increase in velocity, decrease in pressure and temperature unpropertionaly getting
high energy
b) there will be no change in velocity, pressure and temp: holding total energy constant
c) increase in pressure, decrease in velocity and temp: unproportionaly, loosing total
energy
d) increase in pressure and temp: decrease in velocity unpropertionally, loosing total
energy *
25. There will be shock wave will fully produce in the inlet duct of the supersonic
Transport, this is to decelerate the gases so that the increase in pressure and loose
Total energy, the statement is.
a) True * b) False
26. The function of air through holes in the secondary zone of the combustion chamber is.
a) to admit air to mix with fuel and make a combustile mixture
b) to cool the burner head and prevent carbon formation around the jet
c) to hold the flame back on the burner and control the shape of the flame
d) to absorb the heat energy and, where necessary to supply oxygen to complete combustion *
27. One of the function of the intake duct is.
a) it should provide a low external drag entrance for the large quantities of air which
must be supplied to compressor.
b) it should prevent loss of energy due to ram pressure drop
c) it reduces the work somewhat that compressor must do
d) it should increase the velocity of incoming air and decrease pressure to keep
compressor fuel lighter
e) a, b, & c are correct *
28. The surge is complete breakdown, instability and miss matching of the compressors.
a) it would occur in the LP compressor on acceleration
b) it would occur in the HP compressor on deceleration
c) it would occur in the HP compressor on acceleration and LP compressor on
deceleration *
d) it would occur in the HP and LP compressor both on deceleration
29. One of the advantage of the by pass engine is.
a) there are two independent compressor and this design is mechanically simpler
b) it requires a less maintenance attention
c) it avoid the relationship between specific fuel consumption and specific weight
d) it has a higher thrust as compared with the same size of turbo jet engine *
30. Actual temp: rise on the air divided by the theoretical temp: rise due to the calorific
Value of the given fuel is known as.
a) turbine efficiency b) thermal efficiency
c) combustion efficiency * d) propulsive efficiency
31. The nozzle guide vanes are shaped to introduce the gas on the impulse turbine at.
a) low pressure, high velocity *
b) high pressure, high velocity
c) high pressure, low velocity
d) constant pressure, high velocity
32. The air flow through an engine is 23.5 lbs/sec the fuel flow will be approximately.
a) 2350 lbs/hr b) 84,600 lbs/hr
c) 235 lbs/hr d) 1397 lbs/hr
33 JP-4 and JP-5 fuels have code names, these are.
a) AVTAG and AVCAT respectively
b) AVCAT and AVTAG respectively
c) AVTUR and AVTAG respectively
d) AVTAG and AVTUR respectively
33. Inlet compressor surge, bleed valve is.
a) used to increase engine stall margin at high thrust valve
b) used to increase engine stall margin at low thrust valve
c) to release the esiperure of the N1 compressor to stall especially at altitude
d) b and c both are correct *
34. Pressure ratio rise across an axial or a centrifugal compressor depends upon.
a) inlet pressure b) inlet diameter
c) casing strength d) speed of rotation *
35. In a supersonic intake, the most desirable condition for maximum pressure recovery
When the.
a) normal shock wave is act of the intake duct thus giving minimum drag and
disturbance and increasing pressure *
b) normal shock not allowed to form at all at it causes the pressure to decrease sharply
c) critical operation occurs and normal shock wave is near the intake lip
36. An axial flow compressor consists of servral stages because.
a) we want as high compression rates as possible
b) we want to keep the rate of diffusion and deflection to the minimum *
c) we are handling lot of mass which will give us greater thrust
d) we want to keep the rate of pressure rise per stage as high as possible for higher
output
37. Effect of altitude on the performance of axial compressor is that.
a) the stall line and operating lines of compressor comes down thus no change in stall
margin occurs
b) the stall line moves down and operating line moves up thus putting close limits on
compressors *
c) the stall line moves up and operating line moves down thus increasing stall margin
38. By keeping the output of the engine same, which type of combustion chamber will
Have less font area.
a) can type b) canular type
c) annular type *
39. The exhaust section of an aero turbine engine the exhaust cone forms a.
a) divergent passage, thus reducing the velocity and increasing the pressure, which is
benificial for thrust
b) convergent passage, which increases the velocity and hence thrust
c) a parallel section and than the jet nozzle increase the velocity to the highest
possible value for higher thrust
40. If we want to improve the thermal efficiency of an engine then compression rates of
The compressor should be increased but this rise should also be accompanied by.
a) decrease in T.E.T *
b) increase in T.E.T
c) T.E.T should net change otherwise TSFC would increase
41. With increase in altitude O.A.T reduces, and as the low pressure compressor of a dual
Spool compressor, engine speeds up, this results in.
a) increase thrust laps rate due altitude
b) decreased thrust laps rate due altitude *
c) no change in thrust laps rate as the speeding up of compressor does not effect
42. The velocity can be changed into pressure by passing the air through.
a) nozzle b) normal shock
d) cascade vane arrangement
43. The air intake duct serve to furnish.
a) relatively distortion free air to compressor
b) air to the compressor without any appreciable loss of pressure rise
c) air to the compressor with as little pressure variation as possible
d) all of the above are correct *
44. Long pitot type air intake
a) suffers from inlet turbulence, specially at low air speeds and high angle of attack
b) is preferred for its ability to take advantage of ram pressure rise
c) provides a slightly divergent passage to diffuse the subsonic air flow before its
entry to the compressor
d) both "a" and "c" are correct
e) both "b" and "c" are correct *
45. At supersonic speeds the rate of change of volume .
a) is proportional to the rate of change of velocity
b) is greater than the rate of change of velocity *
c) is less than the rate of change of velocity
d) is double than the rate of change of velocity
46. BUZZ is a damaging airflow instability and.
a) it can be avoided by changing the amount of inlet area variation of the variable
geometry duct
b) it occurs when a shock wave is alternately swallowed and regurgitated by inlet
c) it occurs in the variable geometry duct at high mac number
d) all the above are correct *
47. Shock wave will fully set up in the supersonic flow of air.
a) results in diffusion b) results in expansion
d) results in an increase in temp: d) both a & c are correct *
e) both b & c are correct
48. Both the centrifugal type and axial flow type compressors
a) act on the principle of the transfer of kinetic energy, from a mechanically driven
rotor to a steady flow of air *
b) raise the air pressure by converting the acceleration imparted by stators of the
compressor by a diffusion process
c) have a limited range of RPM because of surging at low speeds and choking at
speeds above design RPM
d) both a & c are correct
e) all the above are correct
49. One of the following statements is correct for the centrifugal type of compressor.
a) pressure rise per stage is lower than axial flow compressor
b) it is comparitional more reliable *
c) it is more suitable for high compression ratio compressor
d) it is less roboust than axial flow type
50. The compressors having shrouded impellers are.
a) called double shrouded *
b) designed with back swept impeller vanes
c) preferred because they are easier to manufacture
d) all of the above are correct
51. The use of double sided impeller.
a) permits higher compression ratios
b) requires bigger overall diameter to handle bigger air mass
c) requires an extra bearing for mechanical support *
d) both a & c are correct
52. To avoid overstressing impellers and to limit the air flow at the diffuser entry, the
Centrifugal type compressors.
a) have a limited tip speed of approximately 1500 ft/sec *
b) have a limiting tip speed of approximately 15000 ft/sec
c) have a limiting tip speed of 1500 ft/minute
d) have a limiting tip speed of 2500 ft/sec
53. The rotating guide vanes at the eye of the impeller of a centrifugal type compressor.
a) straighten the air flow
b) are mode of steel to prevent FOD
c) impart whirl motion to incoming air flow before entry to the impeller vanes
d) both a & b are correct
e) both b & c are correct *
54. In an axial flow compressor more stages are required for achieving the required
Compression ratio because of.
a) to achieve stability
b) to keep the ratio of diffusion low
c) to keep the overall weight low
d) both a & b are correct *
55. An axial flow compressor when pressure rise across the rotor and stators in the same
Is said to have.
a) non symmetric blading
b) symmetric blading *
c) as symmetric blading
d) both a & c are correct
56. If the air mass flow at constant RPM increased in an axial flow compressor.
a) the operating line moves towards stall zone
b) the operating line will move toward choking zone *
c) the compressor efficiency will increase
d) the angle of attack will increase
57. Variable incidence guide vanes are fitted in certain axial flow compressors, this
Is done .
a) to prevent high speed stall of the last few stages which may stall at high speeds
b) to prevent low speed stall of the last few stages
c) to prevent choking of rear stages and stalling of early stage at low engine speeds *
d) to prevent choking of early stages and stalling of early stages at low engine speed
58. The cause for stall during acceleration is.
a) air spilling up in the rear stages
b) extra fuel burnt causes back pressure and the air flow lagging behind the increasing rpm *
c) air piling up in the early stages
d) both b & c are correct
59. With split compressor arrangement high compression ratio can be obtained with
Minimum compressor weight and frontal areas.
a) False b) True *
60. In a duel rotor axial flow compressor
a) low pressure compressor turn faster on a cold day than on a standard day sea level
temperature
b) high pressure compressor turns faster on cold day than standard day sea level
temp: *
c) both the N1 and N2 will run faster on cold day than standard day sea level temp:
d) N1 will rotate at constant speed on a cold or hot day provided the fuel flow remains
Constant
61. For a given compression ratio.
a) the twin spool arrangement needs less compression ratio across each section *
b) the twin spool arrangement needs less compression ratio across one stage
c) stage pressure rise in always higher in a twin spool arrangement as compared with single spool
d) the twin spool compressor required less stages as the pressure per stage is higher than a single spool
arrangement
61. In a twin spool compressor the matching of the two compressors is easier as it needs
Less compression ratio across each section.
a) True * b) False
62. One of the advantages of twin spool compressor is.
a) there is no loss of thrust at high altitude
b) it requires heavy load starters
c) rear compressor could be decreased which permits a wast waist engine configuration *
d) both a & c are correct
63. In a twin spool compressor the N1 .
a) moves towards stall during acceleration
b) moves away from stall during acceleration *
c) doves away from stall during deceleration
d) both a & c are correct
64. In a twin spool compressor.
a) operating line moves up (towards stall) at altitudes.
b) Stall lines moves down (towards operating line) during flight at altitudes
c) Stall margin decreases at altitudes
d) All the above are correct. *
65. N2 in a twin spool compressor.
a) moves towards stall during acceleration
b) moves away from stall during deceleration
c) moves towards stall during deceleration
d) both a & b are correct *
66. In an axial flow compressor.
a) inlet velocity is higher than outlet velocity
b) outlet velocity to equal to inlet velocity
c) temp: rise is proportional to pressure rise
d) temp: rise is proportional less than the pressure rise *
67. The stators in an axial flow compressor also act as guide vanes for the following
Rotors.
a) False b) True *
68. The centrifugal compressor.
a) has good efficiencies over wide rotational speed range
b) has comparatively low weight
c) offers large frontal area for given air flow
d) all the above are correct *
69. The axial flow compressor.
a) has high starting power requirements
b) less low starting power requirements
c) has good efficiencies over narrow rotational speed range
d) both a & c are correct
e) both b & c are correct *
70. The axial flow compressor stages.
a) are classified brendly as symmetric, non symmetric and free vertex
b) are of the smallest number for a given overall compression ratio when symmetric
blading is used
c) required for a given overall compression ratio are smallest in number when non
symmetric type blading is used
d) both a & c are correct *
e) both a & b are correct
71. So far, only liquid hydrocarbon fuels used in aircraft gas turbine are.
a) kerosene, wide out or petrol *
b) diesel fuel, Kerosene and petrol
c) synthetic fuels
d) those having a vapor pressure above 7 PSI
72. E. ENG. R.D. 2488 is the specification of .
a) wide cut fuel b) AVTUR
c) high flush point * d) AVTAG
73. Flash point is the temperature.
a) to which the fuel must be heated to give sufficient vapor for continues fire after
catching fire
b) to which the fuel must be heated before it gives just sufficient vapor which can be
continues burning only in the presence of an external heat source
c) which causes the mixture to flash
d) both a & c are correct
e) both b & c are correct *
74. AVCAT is the international code for.
a) JP1 or DERD 2482
b) JP4 or DERD 2486
c) JP5 or DERD 2488
d) Non of the above
75. The hydrocarbon fuels, which have high specific gravity, have low calorific value.
a) True * b) False
76. D.E.R.D 2486 has lower specific gravity that DERD 2482 therefore.
a) 1 gallon of DERD 2486 gives more heat than 1 gal of DERD 2482
b) 1 pound of DERD 2486 gives more heat than 1 pound of DERD 2482
c) 1 gallon of DERD 2482 gives more heat than 1 gallon of DERD 2486
d) both b & c are correct *
e) both a & b are correct
77. pour point in the temperature of fuel.
a) at which solid was precipitates out from fuel on cooling the fuel
b) at which the fuel causes to flow
c) 5 oF above the temp: at which a fuel will cease to flow *
d) 5 oF above the frazing point of the fuel
78. Water content of aviation fuel is a matter of concern.
a) because water may cause corrosion of tanks or fuel components
b) because water may cause blockage of gilters when water droplets foresee
c) because water is soluble in fuel and may cause engine flame out
d) all the above are correct
e) both a & b are correct *
79. Fuels used for gas turbine aero engine are selected on the score of.
a) anti knock valve
b) calorific valve
c) specific gravity
d) cost and availability to a greater degree than are piston engine fuels
e) b , c , & d are correct *
80. Gross calorific valve ( BTU/lb) = 1200-2100 d2) x 1.8 where d = specific gravity at
60 oF
a) True * b) False
81. Can type or individual combustion chamber.
a) one easy to manufacture and easy to maintain
b) offer minimum overall diameter of the engine
c) are comparatively longer
d) a & b are correct
e) a & c are correct *
82. Combustion chamber design must such that
a) burning is a controlled process with predictable results over the full range of engine
operation *
b) the combustion flame should be as long as possible
c) the combustion flame should be as wide as possible without touching the flame
tube inner wall
d) there is no pressure loss during combustion
83. The snout of a flame tube collects approximately.
a) 12 % of the total air flame *
b) 1/2 of the total airflow which takes part in combustion
c) 25 % of the total airflow
d) a & b are correct
84. The first row of the holes in the flame tube are called primary holes as.
a) the primary air which takes part in combustion enters through these holes into the
combustion zone
b) the air which enters through these holes helps the primary air to stabilizer the flame
c) the air which enters through these holes though the part of the secondary airflow
joins the primary air which is the air used for combustion
d) this is the first to enter the combustion zone
85. The secondary air which passes into the annulers between the flame tube and the air
Asing.
a) keeps the walls of the combustion chamber cool
b) also promotes the flame stability
c) dilutes the combustion product
d) all of the above are correct *
86. The turbine in a gas turbine engine of turbo jet type.
a) extracts almost all the energy from the gas flow leaving about 10 to 20 % to be
converted into thrust at the propelling nozzle
b) extracts about 2/3 of the total energy
c) is normally a pure reaction type
d) is generally a pure impulse type
87. The impulse type turbine has the advantage that is works cooler as compared with a
Reaction turbine.
a) True * b) False
88. Turbine utilizes.
a) thermal and pressure energies only
b) thermal and kinetic energies only
c) thermal, pressure and kinetic energies *
d) non of the above
89. In an impulse turbine the gas expansion takes place.
a) partly at the N.G.Vs and partly at the buckets
b) only across the turbine buckets
c) only at the N.G.VBs. *
d) 80 % across the buckets and 20 % across the N.G.Vs
90. In an impulse re-action turbine.
a) bucket roots are receiving gases with core pressure than bucket tips
b) the degree of re-action is uniform throughout the entire blade length
c) the buckets are were impulse at the root as compared with the tip *
d) the gas temp. at the blade root is higher than the up
91. When the compressor rotor air angle is greater than the blade angle it would result in.
a) a smooth airflow pattern and best matching of the rotors
b) negative incidence of compressor rotors
c) positive incidence of compressor rotors *
d) choking of rear stages of high pressure compressor
92. When the throttle is moved forward in a twin spool compressor engine, the difference
Of rpm between the HP & LP rotating assemblies get less this is due to.
a) more energy absorbed by HP turbine and comparatively less by LP turbine
b) less energy absorbed by HP turbine and comparatively more by LP turbine *
c) their design matching characteristics
d) the behavior of LP compressor which feels slightly off loaded at high speed
93. One of the advantages of twin spool compressor is.
a) it has increasing flexibility, more efficient over wide range of engine speed and loss maintenance
b) permits easier starting and quicker, acceleration *
c) easier to construct and simplified the power transmission
d) robust can stand some shock from icing
94. There will be a shock wave will fully produced in the inlet duct of the supersonic
Transport, this is to decelerate the gases so that they increase in pressure and loose total energy, the statement
is.
a) True * b) False
95. One of the functions of the intake duct is.
a) it should provide a low external drag entrance for the large quantities of air which
must be supplied to compressor
b) it should prevent loss of energy due to ram pressure drop
c) it reduces the work somewhat that compressor must do
d) it should increase the velocity of incoming air and decrease pressure to keep compressor feel lighter
e) a, b, & c are correct *
96. Split entrance intake duct affords the designer greater diffusion of the air and in some
Cases is required where equipment location interference prevails.
a) this type of duct is highly suitable to axial compressor engine
b) this type is highly suitable to dual spool compressor engine
c) this type is highly suitable to centrifugal compressor engine
d) it is very complicated and can not be employed on any type of engine
97. When air is passing through a centrifugal impeller.
a) there is a proportional velocity drop and pressure rise on the air
b) there is a unproportional velocity drop and pressure rise on the air
c) there is a proportional rise in pressure and velocity both
d) there is a pressure rise on the air but velocity rise is faster
98. In all the modern duel spool compressors the air is bled from the compressor, this is a
Function of.
a) fixed rpm b) fixed compression ratio
c) fixed TGT d) varying thrust under varying operating conditions
99. The optimum efficiency of an axial flow compressor is achieved at high speeds,
Therefore.
a) it must run at a speed much higher than surge line giving stable operation
b) it must run at a speed much lower than surge line giving uniform operation
c) it must run close to the surge line without violating it *
d) it must not run close to the surge line because it is a boundary between the regions of stable and unstable
compressor performance
100. The surge is a complete breakdown, instability and mismatching of compressors.
a) it would occur in the LP compressor on acceleration
b) it would occur in the HP compressor on deceleration
c) it would occur in the HP compressor on acceleration and LP compressor on
deceleration. *
d) it would occur in LP and HP compressor both on deceleration
101. A reduction in the compressor inlet total temperature during high power operation of
The engine would result in.
a) an increased surge margin on HP and LP compressors
b) a decreased surge margin on HP and LP compressors
c) on increased surge margin on the LP and decreased surge margin HP compressor *
d) a decreased surge margin on the LP and increased surge margin the HP compressor
102. At a fixed speed of rotation of compressor, any reduction in the air will.
a) increase the effective angle with poor pressure distribution also decrease the surge
margin *
b) decrease the effective angle with poor pressure distribution also increase the surge
margin
c) effective angle pressure distribution and surge margin will remain unchanged.
d) Change the compressor flow relationship with low angle of attack causing
Negative surge on the compressor
103. With a reduction in ambient temp: during ground running the effect on the
Performance of duel spool engine would be
a) decrease in HP & LP speed and narrow down the difference of rpm between them
b) increase in HP & LP speed and increase the difference of rpm between them
c) HP & LP will run at a reduced rpm if no increase in fuel is available *
d) Non of the above is correct
104. The effect on the performance of the engine when water injection is made available
Under colder ambient conditions, would be.
a) increase in thrust percentage, fuel flow and engine speed
b) decrease in thrust percentage fuel flow and engine speed
c) increase in thrust percentage fuel flow and decrease in engine speed
d) decrease in thrust percentage, increase in fuel flow and engine speed
105. The compressor efficiency is defined as ( ideal)
a) it is the ratio of the outlet pressure/inlet pressure
b) it is the ratio of the SHP/ input
c) it is the ratio of the actual work required/isentropic work required to compress the air
d) it is the ratio of the isentropic work required/actual work required to compress the air *
106. When the efficiency of a given axial flow compressor increases, the engine will.
a) produce more thrust with slightly high fuel consumption
b) produce less thrust because compressor will absorb more energy with slightly low
fuel consumption
c) have no affect on thrust and fuel consumption
d) produce more thrust for the same fuel consumption *
107. The higher the compression ratio and the more stages added to axial flow compressor,
Range, the statement is.
a) True * b) False
108. A high power surge at high altitude is caused by.
a) LP compressor only
b) HP compressor only
c) Both HP & LP compressors *
d) The question is incorrect because there is no such terminology as high power surge
109. The velocity can be changed into pressure by passing the air through a.
a) nozzle b) normal shock *
c) cascade vane arrangement
110. Normally the engine is operating close to max. temp. limits, therefore, to have more of
Useful output an increase in fuel flow is impossible, but in order to increase the useful output we can.
a) increase the rpm of the compressor to handle more mass and thus increase the cycle efficiency
b) increase the compressor pressure ratio, but this would increase the SFC
c) increase the compressor pressure ratio which would also lower the SFC *
d) decrease the compressor pressure ratio to have low temp. high density air in the engine and thus have the
thrust increased
111. Intercompressor bleed valve are.
a) used to increase engine stall margin at high thrust values
b) used to increase engine stall margin at low thrust values
c) to reduce the exposure of the N1 compressor to stall especially at altitude
d) b & c both are correct *
e)
112. In a centrifugal compressor a clearance space is provided between impeller tip and the
Diffuser entrance this is.
a) in the order of .7 to 1.2 percent of impeller radius
b) to allow an initial supersonic flow to become subsonic before entering the diffuser and it is from 7 to 10
percent of impeller radius *
c) provided to achieve diffusion of airflow before it enters the diffuser vanes
d) to provide free rotation of impeller so that due to higher centrifugal effect the stretch of impeller will not
cause fouling with diffuser vanes
113. Pressure ratio rise across an axial or centrifugal compressor depends upon.
a) inlet pressure b) inlet diameter
c) casing strength d) speed of rotation *
114. During take off if the compressor air bleed is open it would cause to raise the turbine
Inlet temp. this statement is.
a) True * b) False
115. The material of HP compressor blades of an axial flow compressor is generally.
a) titanium b) steel
c) titanium or steel * d) light alloy
116. To provide the same thrust on a hot day the compressor rpm of a single spool
Compressor will be.
a) higher than that on a standard day *
b) lower than that on a standard day
c) approximately the same
d) non of the above is correct
117. Each row of axial compressor blades has to have slight difference in shape because.
a) gradually the air passage is decreasing recommend
b) speed of tip of each blade of each stage is different
c) air at each row is at different conditions of pressure and temp. *
d) airflow is gradually slowing down
e) b & c both are correct
118. Free turbine is utilized on.
a) large type of turbo jet engines
b) high efficiency turbo jet engines
c) turbo prop engines
d) turbo prop and turbo shaft engines *
119. Compression is needed before combustion because
a) more fuel can be added
b) comparatively less fuel can be added
c) more air mass can be handled
d) a & c are correct *
e) all the above are wrong
120. In practical gas turbine cycle the compression is.
a) isentropic b) adiabatic
c) isothermal d) polytropic *
121. Why does the flow path through the compressor gradually become smaller and smaller
From the entrance to the outlet.
a) this forms a convergent duct to bring about the velocity increase desired through
the compressor section
b) the increase in pressure on the molecules crowds them close together and they
require less space than before the pressure change *
c) this can be compared to the compression stroke of the piston engine, cramming a
large volume of air into a small area to increase pressure
d) this forms a convergent duct to decrease the velocity of the mass flow which
increases its pressure
122. With a split axial compressor the HP compressor runs in heated air therefore.
a) it will require less energy to drive it even at high speed
b) it must be driven at considerably higher speed to provide the desired velocity increase
c) it can operate at high speed before the blade tips attain their limiting Mach No.*
d) it must operate the lower speed as that the blade tips do not attain their limiting
mach number.
123. A turbulent or distorted airflow in the inlet duct, due to possibly to a sharp angle of
Attack, may cause.
a) an out of balance condition in the compressor due to uneven air mass distribution
b) an increase in thrust due to the increase in pressure which results free turbulence
c) the compressor to cough and snort which sometimes happens when the blades
aerodynamically stall *
d) high TSFC due to a decrease in mass airflow.
124. During take off if the engine compressor air bleed valve is not closed than it would
a) raise the compressor rpm
b) raise the turbine outlet temperature
c) raise the turbine outlet temperature *
d) cause the last stages of the compressor to choke
125 For the same output which one will cause lesser noise.
a) turbo fan b) turbo prop *
c) turbo jet d) rocket engine
125. The ram effect compensates the thrust drop due to increase in Vi static becomes equal
At.
a) about 300 mph
b) about 600 mph *
c) then forward rool on take off starts
d) Fn & F static can never become equal
126. Hot thrust refers to the thrust which is developed by fan in a ducted fan engines.
a) True b) False *
d) not applicable
127. One of the function of air inlet is.
a) to convert static pressure into dynamic pressure
b) to convert K.E of R.A.F into static pressure *
c) to convert K.E of R.A.F into thermal energy
d) non of the above
128. The shape of sub sonic air intake is.
a) variable duct b) S/P duct
c) divergent duct * d) convergent duct
129. The function of compressor in gas turbine engine is.
a) to increase thermal energy of R.A.F
b) to increase pressure energy of R.A.F *
c) to increase K.E of R.A.F
d) to increase pressure, but decrease temp. of R.A.F
130. Centrifugal compressor is most suitable for.
a) high powered engine b) medium powered engine
c) small turbo prop engines * d) turbo fan engines
131. Rotating Guide vanes (R.G.V) in a centrifugal compressor is.
a) stationary part b) a reacting part *
c) it is a part of casing d) non of the above
132. The maximum velocity of air leaving impeller tip in case of centrifugal compressor is.
a) 1.5 mach b) 1500 ft/sec
c) about 1.2 mach d) a & b are correct
e) b & c are correct *
133. For 16 stage axial flow, compressor, there should be.
a) 16 rows of I.G.Vs b) 12 rows of I.G.Vs
c) 15 rows of I.G.Vs d) only one row of I.G.V *
134. One stage of axial flow compressor consists of.
a) one row of stator vanes followed by one row of rotor blades
b) one row of rotor blades followed by one row of stator vanes *
c) only one row of stator vane
d) only one row of rotor blades
135. The pressure ratio in one stage of an axial compressor is.
a) about 5 : 1 b) we can have any pressure rise
c) about 1.2 : 1 * d) about 4.5 : 1
136. In an axial flow compressor, the air flows.
a) radially out wards
b) parallel to the axis of compressor *
c) as the air takes many turns, so its direction can not be determined
d) first in axial direction and than radially outwards
137. Compressor rotor blades are secured by.
a) nut bolt arrangement
b) by welding
c) by dovetail arrangement *
d) by fir tree root arrangement
138. One of the following is stall preventing device.
a) fuel flow divider b) by referring the number of stages
c) diffuser d) impeller
e) surge bleed valve *
139. In a twin spool compressor N1 is driven by.
a) high pressure turbine
b) low pressure turbine *
c) through a reduction gear box
140. Stall will occur in high pressure stages of an axial flow compressor.
a) air mass flow is reduced when compressor is turning at high altitude *
b) air mass flow is increased when compressor is turning at high speed
c) air mass flow is reduced when compressor is turning at low speed
d) all the above are incorrect
e) a and c both are correct
141. Axial flow compressor compresses the air by.
a) increasing its velocity b) increasing its temp.
c0 decreasing its temp. d) diffusion *
142. The effect of different stages in an axial flow compressor is.
a) addition of the small pressure rises at each stage
b) to force air frontal large area at the inlet to a small area at the exit to increase
pressure
c) to multiply the pressure by each acceding stage *
d) to increase the pressure by forcing the air through the convergent passage ways
between the blades and vanes
143. On a turbo jet engine the maximum thrust may not be lowered but the maximum rpm
May not be obtained on.
a) dual spool compressor engines at high altitude
b) centrifugal compressor engines with water metheynd in operation
c) single spool compressor engines at altitude above 36300 ft air
d) a very cold day *
144. One of the statement regarding axial flow compressor is incorrect.
a) the axial compressor vibrations are of near complex nature
b) it is easier to match the sharp peak characterizations of axial flow compressor with those of the turbine
and still maintain stability the such a full operating range
c) it is more critical to air bleed
d) it is more sensitive to eresion or fouling of blading with thrust and oil
144. Operation of surge bleed valve is a function of.
a) inlet pressure b) fixed pressure ratio
c) fixed rpm d) EGT
145. Short pitot air inlet ducts are usually used on multiengine a/c because.
a) there is no pressure losses in this type of duct
b) it is located in such a position the its collects undisturbed air from infront of the air
plane & little pressure loss duct to friction
c) it avoids air
146. General design of air inlet duct for a turbo prop is .
a) to have a short pitot type duct to keep the pressure losses minimum
b) a ducted spinner arrangement which is considered best as for as air flow and aerodynamic characteristics
are concerned
c) to have stream line spinner design in which nose section to turbo prop is off set
from main engine axis
d) all above answers are incorrect because in turbo prop engine, propeller directly
supplies air to the compressor
147. Bell mouth type of air inlet duct.
a) is of divergent shape to reduced velocity and increase the velocity
b) is design with single objective of obtaining very high aerodynamic efficiency
c) is convergent in shape and is usually fitted with protected screen
d) a & b are correct
e) b & c are correct
148. Inlet guide vanes used before compressor section in gas turbine engine.
a) direct airflow to the compressor rotor in an axial direction
b) are usually hollow to enable hot air to be circulated for anti icing
c) are not always necessary, because their elimination serves to reduced engine
weight and engine noise
d) both a & c are correct
e) both b & c are correct
149. Inlet guide vanes used before compressor section in gas turbine engine.
a) direct airflow to the compressor rotor in an axial direction
b) are usually hollow to enable hot air to be circulated for anti icing
c) are not always necessary, because their elimination serves to reduced engine
weight and engine noise
d) both a & c are correct
e) both b& c are correct
150. Multistage centrifugal compressor are more efficient than axial flow compressor
Because centrifugal compressor has high pressure ratio per stage, this statement is.
a) True b) False
151. A double side centrifugal compressor
a) can handle same amount of airflow with a smaller diameter than single sided
impeller
b) can handle more airflow than single sided impeller with same diameter
c) gives higher pressure ratio than same size of single sided impeller
d) a & b are correct
e) a, b, & c are correct
152. Find total pressure ratio of a 10 stage axial flow compressor when pressure ratio per
Stage is 1.15.
a) 11.5 b) 14.5 c) 12. 5 d) 9.5
153. In all modern dual spool compressor engines air bleed from b/w low and high pressure
Compressor to unload the compressor during certain operating conditions, this air bleed is a function of .
a) fixed rpm b) fixed pressure ratio
c) fixed EGT d) compressor discharge pressure
154. Surge is the common characteristic of gas turbine engine compressor, it can be
Avoided.
a) bleeding inter stage compressor air during certain operating condition
b) by splitting the compressor into two section, with each section running at it best speeds
c) by using variable inlet guide vanes which change this angle automatically to prevent choking of the
compressor engine operating condition vary
d) a & c are correct
e) a, b, & c are correct
155. Main function of compressor airfoil is to.
a) packing of energy into the air
b) causing a smooth flow of air from low to high pressure
c) to produce thrust by increasing the K.E of air
d) to produced lift and keep drag to minimum to increase thrust
e) a & b are correct
156. For a constant temp: and pressure a inlet of an axial flow compressor, if rpm is
Increased.
a) angle or attacked will increased and surge margin will decrease
b) angle of attacked will decrease and surge margin will increase
c) change of rpm within operating range does not change the angle of attack
d) all the above are wrong
157. In dual axial flow compressor engine, if N2 rpm are held constant, and compressor
Inlet temp. increases, it will result in.
a) increase in turbine inlet temp.
b) decrease in turbine inlet temp.
c) no change in turbine inlet temp.
158. Fundamental operational difference b/w turbo fan and turbo prop is that the airflow
Through the fan controlled by design so that air velocity relative to fan blades in unaffected by the airspeed of
the aircraft, the statement is.
a) True b) False
159. In dual axial flow compressor, keeping thrust constant if jet nozzle area is increased
Than .
a) N1 surge margin decrease
b) N2 surge margin increase
c) Total pressure at outlet of LPT decrease
d) a & c are correct
e) b & c are correct
160. Tt9 in a dual compressor turbo fan engine with afterburner indicates.
a) total temp. at outlet of exhaust nozzle
b) total temp. at outlet of after burner c/c
c) total temp. at out let of turbine
d) total temp. at out let of diffuser
161. In a free vertex compressor blading.
a) velocity is inversely proportional to radius of blades
b) highest no. of stages are required because pressure ratio per stage is very low
c) minimum no. of stages are required because per stage pressure ratio is very high
d) higher pressure of air towards blade tip balance the centrifugal action of rotor and air leave the rotor
e) a, b, d are correct
162. Function of swinler vanes in the combustion chamber is.
a) to maintain air fuel ratio
b) to thoroughly mix fuel and air
c) complete combustion in short distance
d) a & b are correct
e) a, b, and c are correct
163. Latest jet engine use smokeless burners to avoid pollution problem, this design.
a) improves the burning efficiency to a highest degree
b) reduces smoke emission by leaning the fuel/air ratio in primary combustion zone
to promote the complete burning
c) reduces the smoke emission to what is known as the visibility
d) b & c are correct
e) all above are correct
164. Primary and secondary fuel manifolds.
a) primary is called main manifolds and secondary a pilot manifold
b) primary fuel is sprayed through a no. of orifices located around the single orifice
c) when primary fuel flows, the spray pattern is quite wide and when both primary
and secondary fuel flows the spray pattern shorter in size to prevent fuel
imponging on combustion liner.
d) all above wrong
165. In a dual spool gas turbine engine, the N1 turbine is large than N2 turbine.
a) N1 runs at slower speed than N2
b) N1 utilizes high percentage of available energy
c) N2 utilizes high percentage of available energy
d) Statement is incorrect because N2 turbine is always larger than N1 turbine
166. In reaction pulse type of turbine blade.
a) root is reaction and tip is impulse
b) higher gas pressure is available at the tip than at the root
c) the tendency of the root of the turbine blade to do less work is countered by supplying it with a large
d) b & c are correct
e) a, b, and c are correct
167. In a pure impulse turbine .
a) absolute velocity of gases leaving the rotor blade is less in absolute inlet velocity
because work done on blade
b) relative velocity of gases leaving the rotor is more than relative velocity at inlet
c) relative velocity at inlet = relative velocity at outlet
d) a & c are correct
e) a & b are correct
168. An exhaust duct in a gas turbine engine.
a) is used to collect and straighten the gases discharged from the turbine
b) may not be necessary if the gases from the turbine are discharged in axial direction
c) increase the velocity of the gases before they are discharged from exhaust nozzle
d) is often refered to as engine tail pipe
e) all the above are correct
169. At a very high flight mach no. of turbo jet, when pressure ratio across exhaust nozzle I
Is sufficiently high, it is better to use.
a) convergent nozzle to get additional thrust with choked nozzle
b) a convergent divergent nozzle and convert all the pressure with in the engine
to velocity to develop additional thrust
c) C.D nozzle can not be employed because velocity of gases become supersonic
d) Divergent nozzle in order to avoid formation of shock wave
170. Noise suppressor of jet engine reduces the raise by.
a) inducing atmospheric air for slower mixing with exhaust gases of eddies created
b) increasing total perimeter of nozzle area and reducing the size of eddies created
c) increasing the frequency of the waves, which are more highly attenuated by atmospheric absorption than
low frequency
d) a & c are correct
e) b & c are correct
171. The after burner system of jet engine.
a) is fundamentally a ram jet engine attached to the turbine exhaust case
b) is used on occasion when more than the full thrust of an engine is required for long periods to reduce
journey time.
c) Is used to augment thrust on very hot days
d) a & c are correct
172. An after burner fitted on a jet engine.
a) is started with either by a special igniter or by flash of flame through the turbine of
basic engine
b) is started automatically taken fuel is burnt in the combustion chamber of main
engine
c) must have a two position or variable area propelling nozzle
d) a & c are correct
173. A turbofan will flying at speed of 400 mph, fan discharge velocity 800 =lb exhaust jet
Velocity 1000 ft /s mass air flow through both fan and engine =50 lb/sec fine gross
Thrust produced bny the engine.
174. The starter of a gas turbine engine.
a) is automatically di engages when engine attains idle rpm
b) is automatically dis engages after light up has occurred
c) must continue to arrist engine considerably above self sustaining rpm and to avoid delay in starting cycle
d) must continue to arrist engine up to self sustaining rpm
175. Water injection system on jet engine.
a) is primarily used to boost engine thrust for a shorter take off
b) is capable of increasing engine thrust because water has a high latent heat of evaporation which enables
more fuel to be burnt without exceeding temp.
c) result in a decrease in specific fuel consumption because 10-30 % increase in thrust is obtained
d) b & c are correct
176. Chromel and alumel are the alloys used in thermocouple of on EGT indicating system,
In this system.
a) chromal is non ferrous, non magnetic and has +ve electrical potential
b) chromal is color coded white for indicated identification
c) chromal is ferrous, non magnetic and -ve
d) a & b are correct
e) b & c are correct
177. When a/c fitted with a turbo prop, when a/c forward speed increases
a) blade angle of propeller must reduce to maintain a constant angle of attack
b) blade angle of propeller must increase to maintain a const. angle of attack'
c) angle of attack should be sufficiently higher to maintain a constant blade angle
d) blade angle must be kept constant otherwise angle of attack with reaches stalling angle.
178. Combustion chamber design must such that.
a) flame tube should be as wide as possible that flame should not touch the inner
wall
179. Flame tube collect incoming air only.
a) 25 % of total air flow
180. First row of holes in flame tube are called.
a) primary holes line in primary zone only
181. Secondary air cool the primary zone and help to flame in the center of flame tube and
Also dilute the gases which are reach to turbine.
182. Turbine extract 2/3 of total energy in.
a) turbo jet
183. AVTUR =
a) aviation turbine =kerosene
183. Blade material for turbine.
a) niamonic alloys ( nickel + molybdenum)
184. Compressor blade of axial flow compressor are twisted.
a) to that blade angle at rest is minimum and at tip is max and air strike the blade at
almost 4o angle of attack
185. Long pitot type air intake .
a) provide a slightly divergent passage to defuse the air and super sonic airflow before
its entry to compressor
186. Design of jet engine tail pipe is.
a) an expending passage resulting in decreased velocity and thrust false
187. When pressure ratio across exhaust nozzle is high enough (2:1) to produce gas
Velocity which might exceed mach 1 the thrust may be gained by.
a) using CD duct b) convergent duct
188. In a reaction turbine.
a) Inlet velocity is greater than out let velocity
189. The purpose of knife edge tip on compressor blade is.
a) to provide a thin edge for possible blade tip rubbing at high speed, this arrangement is called squirrel
190. If NGV allow too less (air) gases then: NGV area less.
a) a back pressure would buildup causing the compressor to surge

191. Inter compressor surge bleed valve are.


a) used to increase engine stall margin at low thrust value
192. In practice, turbine blade of a gas turbine are of.
a) impact and reaction
193. At Fn constant if NGVs first area is increased HPC
a) N2 compressor rpm will decrease and LPC N1 rpm not change
194. The highest velocity of gas stream in engine will be.
a) the exhaust nozzle b) at the outlet of 1st stage of NGV
195. Fuel air ratio 60 : 1
196. Base of turbine blade are normally of fire tree design to enable it to be.
a) firmly attached to disc b) allow room for expansion
b) a & b are correct
197. Axis of rotation line and choral line of turbine blade is.
a) stager angle
198. Angle b/w plane of rotation and relative air flow is called
a) helex angle
199. An angle b/w chord line of blade and axis of rotation is termed as.
a) blade angle
200. Centrifugal turning moments tends to move blade of a propeller to
a) low blade angle
201. If water is injected at engine inlet.
a) N1 moves away from stall ( to choking) and N2 moves towards stall
202. Components responsible for distribution of energy evenly on the combustion chamber
Are.
a) swirl vane and dilution holes
203. In jet engine the thermal efficiency increased with increased in air speed of a/c this is
Due to.
a) ram effect
204. In centrifugal compressor in clearance space is provided b/w impeller tip and diffuser
Entrance.
a) to allow an initial super sonic flow to become subsonic b/w entering the diffuser
and it is 7 to 10 % of impeller radius
205. During take off if compressor air bleed is open would cause to raise the turbine inlet
Temperature.
a) True * b) False
206. To provide the same thrust on a hot day the compressor RPM of single spool
Compressor will be.
a) higher than that on standard day
207. If the ram air velocity is changed into higher static pressure will the help of diffusion
at the face of engine this is termed as.
a) ram recovery
208. One purpose of air intake duct is to.
a) supply air at front of compressor which is free of turbulance and which has
minimum pressure variations *
b) to effect minimum ram recovery
c) to offer maximum drag
208. Long pitot air intake duct has an advantage over the short pitot intake.
a) it has better ram recovery *
b) it gives less pressure variations
c) it offer maximum drag
d) non of above
209. Slip on a centrifugal compressor can be avoided by.
a) shrouding the impeller
b) by introducting dummy vanes
c) by increasing the numbers of vanes
d) all the above are correct *
210. Blow in doors fitted around the air intake duct are to.
a) have access for fire extinguisher
b) provide inspaction ports
c) to allow the air to enter the intake when ever the engine is un at maximum power setting and pressure
inside drops *
d) to allow air to blow out during revarse thrust
211. The impeller van of centrifugal compressor are contaminated with oil.
a) you should wash the compressor because the engine thrust is liable to drop
b) there is no harm because oil prevents corrosion on compressor
c) no need to wash but inspect the compressor daily for conition
d) non of above is correct *
212. I.G.Vs are not being used on modern engine.
a) because they are a source of noise *
b) because they are the heavy
c) they are being used on all turbine engines
d) because of manufacturing difficulties
213. Mid span shrounds on compressor fan blades are fitted to.
a) to make division between the engines fan exit air
b) to controle the temp.
c) to give structure strength *
d) they are never fitted on the blades
214. If the AMF through an axial flow compressor decrease with contant RPM.
a) the angle of attack will decrease a blades will stall
b) the angle of attack will increase and blades will tend to stall *
c) the angle of attack will not change but blades will stall
d) the angle of attack will change but blades will not stall even if it becomes 16
215. Most efficient angle of attack is 4 o angle on an axial flow compressor blades.
a) if this angle increases too much blades are liable to stall *
b) if this angle increases too much, blades are liable to chock
c) a & b are correct
216. A twin spool compressor is based on modern engines because it is an anti device and
Provide wasp waist engine for accessory installation.
a) True * b) False
217. Overall fuel air mixtures ratio in a gas turbine engine is.
a) 1 : 15 b) 1 : 60 *
c) 1 : 1.6 d) 1 : 20
218. One of the requirements of a good combustion chamber is that.
a) it should have a high flame intensity *
b) it should bave a low falme intensity
c) it should give a good look
d) it should have long flame length
219. Off idle stall is a stall which occurs during acceleration.
a) True * b) False
220. Variable stator vanes are.
a) anti stall devices *
b) a device to increase engine power
c) a device to reduce the runway length
d) a device to make engine station
221. Action to be take when a stall occurs is retretard the throttle immediately and is still
Does not disappear, engine should be shut down, the statement is.
a) True * b) False
222. The function of tertiary air in combustion chamber is to.
a) help combustion and tie up the falme with fuel nozzle
b) to completed the combustion is still left & dilute the gases
c) dilute the gas to lower their temperature *
223. Turbine rotors need cooling which is provided by engine compressor outlet air, the
Statement is.
a) True * b) False
224. Power extraction by the turbine rotors in a turbo prop engine is approximately.
a) 3/4th of total power approx.
b) 2/3rd of total power approx.
c) 1/3rd of total power approx.
d) 90 % of total power approx.
225. A double entry centrifugal in used to.
a) increase the AMF only *
b) increase the pressure ratio only
c) increase pressure and AMF both
226. Engine station No.5 on a twin spool compressor engine is.
a) out let of combustion chambers or inlet of N2 turbine
b) inlet of combustion chamber and outlet of N2 turbine
c) non of the above
227. Struts in exhaust cone assembly at a gas turbine engine air fitted to.
a) change the axial velocity into whirl velocity
b) change the whirl velocity of gases into axial velocity *
c) to change the pressure & temp. as required
228. Area between the inner cone and outer cone of an exhaust cone assembly is divergent in
Order to reduce the velocity of gases this statement is.
a) True * b) False
229. Purpose of inter connectors in can type combustion chamber is.
a) to provide falme and to equalise pressure *
b) to provide support for mountan
c) a & b both are correct
230.Purpose of a snout in combustion chamber flame tube is to.
a) to meter the fuel
b) to meter the air *
c) to meter fuel and air
d) to provide nozzle to increase velocity
231.Advantage of can type combustion chamber is.
a) easy maintenance, more stength and suitability with centrifugal compressor *
b) engine diameter and length become less
c) even outlet temperatures
d) all the advantages of other types of combustion chambers
232.Duplex type fuel nozzles are suitable for.
a) low power engines, where fuel requirements do not vary much with engine speeds
b) for high powered engines, where fuel requirements are different engine speed *
c) turbo prop engine
233.Turbine totor buckets are attached to disc by means of
a) nuts and bolts
b) fir tree root joint *
c) dove tail root joint
d) welding
234. A/C gas turbine enigne turbine rotor blades are
a) impulse type at tip and reaction type at root
b) reaction type at tip and impulse type at root *
c) they are impulse type all along the length
d) they are reaction type
235. Creep of a turbine rotor blades during an inspection can be confirmed by.
a) measuring the elongation blades *
b) measuring the twist in the blades
c) measuring the pressure between the blades
236. Turbine totor blades in a gas turbine are made of.
a) nimonic alloy or haste alloy *
b) heat and corrosion resistance steel
c) titanium
d) aluminium
237. Radial equilibrium in attained in rotor blades by
a) having a symetrical stage
b) suitable blade twist *
c) shrouded tips
d) decreasing the length of the blades
238. Centrifugal turning movement tends to move the blades of a hydromatic prop towards.
a) high blade angle b) low blade angle *
c) high pitch postion d) negative blade angle
239 One of the following requires external heat to be added.
a) atomization b) vaporisation *
c) precipitation d) increase in viscosity
240. The purpose of nozzle guide vane is to.
a) turn much of static pressure into velocity
b) to change the direction of flow so as to create a large component in the plane of rotation
c) a & b are correct *
241. Dual spool compressor engines are.
a) not very efficient
b) to give the required low compression ratio
c) subjected to stall
d) easy to start *
242. If on turbine blades the inlet velocity is less than outlet velocity it is known as.
a) free turbine b) radial turbine
c) reaction turbine * d) impulse turbine
243. As the air leaves the fiffuser and enters the combustion chamber.
a) its velocity relative to the engine is quite low
b) its velocity relative to the engine is quite high
c) its velocity is decreased as heat energy is added
d) its pressure is increased as it enters the combustion chamber *
244. If petrol is used on a jet enigne instead of kerosene then
a) the max. rpm will be limited
b) the max altitude will be restricted
c) the range would be limited
d) all of the above are correct *
245. A large proportion of fuel heat is lost ( in ajet engine ) by.
a) conduction and radiation
b) conduction, radiation and in overcoming friction
c) cooling air
d) the conversion from heat to mechanical energy *
246. The proportion of heated air and burnt products at the outlet of combustion chamber is about.
a) 15 : 1 b) 20 : 3 ( i.e 100 : 15)
c) 60 : 1 d) 3 : 1 ( i.e 75 : 25 *
247. The angle b/w the chord of the blade and a plane perpendicular to the engine propeller shaft is
a) blade angle * b) angle of attack
c) gerometrical pitch d) teroritical pitch
248. Specific gravity of kerosene is approximately.
a) .80 b) .72 c) 8 lb/gallon d) 7.2 lb/gallon
249. Free turbine is utilised on.
a) high efficiency turbo jet engine'
b) turbo prop engine
c) turbo prop and turbo shaft engine *
250. Compression is needed before combustion because.
a) more fuel can be added
b) comperatively less fuel can be added
c) more air mass can be handled
d) a & c are correct
e) all the above are wrong
251. Fuel sued for gas turbines are
a) equally wuitably for all piston engines
b) of high vapour pressure (more than 7 lb/sq.in)
c) derived from synthetic matcrials
d) combination of hydrogene and carbon derived from crude oil *

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