ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING—2

1. The following is not an instantaneous relay

a) Induction disc type
b) Hinged armature type
c) Balanced beam type
d) Polarized type
2. Protective relays are devices which detect abnormal conditions in electrical circuits by
measuring
a) Current during abnormal condition
b) Voltage during abnormal condition
c) Both a & b simultaneously
d) Constantly the electrical quantities which differ during normal and abnormal conditions
3. Fault current is maximum in an impedance relay if the fault has occurred
a) Away from the relay
b) Near the relay
c) Exactly at the middle point of transmission line
d) Fault current is independent of the location of the fault
4. Buchholz relay is operated by
a) Eddy currents
b) Electrostatic induction
c) Gas pressure
d) Electromagnetic induction
5. The time interval between the instant of occurrence of the fault and the instant of closing of the
relay contacts is known aa
a) Making time
b) Breaker time
c) Relay time
d) None of above
6. For which equipment, current rating specification is not necessary?
a) Circuit breakers
b) Load break switch
c) Isolators
d) Circuit breakers and load break switch
7. Which relay is used in protection of long transmission lines?
a) Reactance relay
b) Impedance relay
c) MHO relay
d) None of above
8. Buchholz relay is
a) Installed inside the breaker
b) Installed at the end of breather pipe
c) Located on the top of the conservator tank
d) Connected in the pipe connecting the main tank of transformer and conservator
9. Admittance relay is basically a/an
a) Impedance relay
b) Directional relay
c) Non-directional relay
d) None of the above
10. A MHO relay is a
a) Voltage controlled over current relay
b) Voltage restrained directional relay
c) Directional restrained over voltage relay
d) Directional restrained over current relay
11. Which is the circuit breaker (CB) preferred for the interruption of high voltages and low current?
a) Oil CB
b) Air blast CB
c) Vacuum CB
d) All are correct
12. Arcing between CB contacts can be reduced by
a) Inserting resistance in the line
b) Inserting a capacitor in parallel with the contacts
c) Inserting a capacitor in series with the contacts
d) Inserting an inductance in parallel to contacts
13. The voltage across the circuit breaker contacts after final current zero is
a) Restriking voltage
b) Recovery voltage
c) Supply voltage
d) None of the above
14. Resistance switching is normally used in case of
a) Bulk oil circuit breakers
b) Minimum oil circuit breakers
c) Air blast circuit breakers
d) All types of circuit breakers
15. The symmetrical breaking capacity of a 3-phase circuit breaker is given by
a) X normal voltage X rated symmetrical current
b) X normal voltage X rated symmetrical current
c) Normal voltage X rated symmetrical current X factor of safety
d) None of the above
16. The rating of a circuit breaker is generally determined on the basis of
a) Symmetrical fault current
b) Single-line to ground fault current
c) Double-line to ground fault current
d) Line to line fault current
17. Circuit breakers usually operate during
a) Steady state of short circuit current
b) Transient state of short circuit current
c) Sub-transient state of short circuit current
d) After dc component has ceased
18. Air blast circuit breaker is most suitable for
a) Short duty
b) Repeated duty
c) Intermittent duty
d) Over currents
19. Which of the following circuit breakers is preferred for 400 kV transmission line protection?
a) Bulk oil CB
b) Minimum oil CB
c) Air break CB
d) SF6 CB
20. In a circuit breaker, arc will restrike if
a) RRRV is zero
b) RRRV is more than the rate of building up of dielectric strength
c) RRRV is less than the rate of building up of dielectric strength
d) RRRV is same as rate of building up of dielectric strength
21. Arc in a circuit behaves as
a) An inductive reactance
b) A capacitive reactance
c) A resistance increasing with voltage rise across the arc
d) A resistance decreasing with voltage rise across the arc
22. The time interval from instant of contact separation to time of arc extinction is called
a) Closing time
b) Opening time
c) Arcing time
d) None of the above
23. In which of the following, a circuit breaker must be equipped for remote operation?
a) Inverse time trip
b) Time-delay trip
c) Shunt trip
d) None of the above
24. Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and minimum maintenance?
a) Oil circuit breakers
b) Air blast circuit breakers
c) Vacuum circuit breakers
d) SF6 circuit breakers
25. Air used in air blast circuit breaker
a) Must have oil mist
b) Must be ionized
c) Must have least CO2
d) Must be free from moisture
26. The area under the load curve gives
a) Average demand
b) Average kWh energy consumption during the period
c) Maximum demand
d) None of the above
27. Which plant can never have 100% load factor?
a) Peak load plant
b) Base load plant
c) Nuclear power plant
d) Hydroelectric plant
28. In order to have lower cost of electrical generation
a) The load factor and diversity factor should be low
b) The load factor and diversity factor shouls be high
c) The load factor should be high but the diversity factor low
d) The load factor should be low but the diversity factor high
29. Plant capacity factor and load factor become identical when
a) Average load is same as peak load
b) Peak load is equal to the capacity of the plant
c) Average load is half the capacity of the plant
d) Group diversity factor is equal to peak diversity factor
30. If a plant has low utilization factor, it indicates that
a) Plant is shut off
b) Plant is used for base load only
c) Plant is used for peak load only
d) Plant is used for standby purpose only
31. In a transmission line having negligible resistance, the surge impedance is
a)
b)
c) 1/
d)
32. Which distribution system is more reliable?
a) Tree system
b) Radial system
c) Ring main system
d) All are equally reliable
33. Alternating current power is transmitted at high voltage
a) To safeguard against pilferage
b) To reduce cost of generation
c) To make the system reliable
d) To minimize transmission losses
34. Any voltage surge travelling on the transmission line, first enters
a) Lightning arrester
b) Switchgear
c) Over voltage relay
d) Step-down transformer
35. As the height of transmission tower is increased, the line capacitance and line inductance
respectively
a) Decreases, remains unaltered
b) Decreases, decreases
c) Increases, decreases
d) Increases, remains unaltered
36. If the span of a transmission is increased by 10%, the sag of line increases by about
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 21%
d) 30%
37. Transposition of conductors is done when
a) The conductors are not spaced equilaterally
b) The conductors are spaced equilaterally
c) A telephone line runs parallel to power line
d) None of the above
38. For transmission line span of “2L”, horizontal tension at tower supports is “T” and weight of
conductor per unit length is “w”. the maximum sag equals
a) (2wL2)/T
b) (wL2)/2T
c) (wL)/2T
d) (2wL)/T
39. Surge impedance Zc may be expressed in terms of ABCD parameters as below:
a) ZC=
b) ZC=
c) ZC=
d) ZC=
40. The following condition relates the line resistance ‘R’ and the line reactance ‘X’ for maximum
steady state power transmission on a transmission line
a) R=X
b) R= X
c) X= R
d) X=R/
41. Charging current due to capacitance ‘C’ when a single-phase line is transmitting power at
voltage ‘V’ and angular frequency ω is
a)
b) JωCV
c)
d)
42. A short transmission line has equivalent circuit consisting of
a) Series resistance R and series inductance L
b) Series resistance R and shunt capacitance C
c) Series resistance R and shunt conductance G
d) Series inductance L and shunt capacitance C
43. Surge impedance of 400 Ω means
a) Open circuit impedance of 400Ω
b) Line can be theoretically loaded upto 400Ω
c) Line can be practically loaded upto 400Ω
d) Short circuit impedance of 400Ω
44. Guy is attached to a transmission pole to
a) Reduce the sag
b) Hold the telephone lines
c) Strengthen the pole
d) None of the above
45. The capacitance between the two conductors of a single-phase two wire line is 0.5 μF/km. The
capacitance of each conductor to the neutral will be
a) 0.5 μF/km
b) 0.25 μF/km
c) 1.0 μF/km
d) 2.0 μF/km
46. The string efficiency of an insulator can be increased by
a) Reducing the number of strings in the insulator
b) Increasing the number of strings in the insulator
c) Correct grading of insulators of various capacities
d) None of the above
47. For high voltage applications, insulators used are of
a) Suspension type
b) Pin type
c) Strain type
d) None of the above
48. On a transmission line, whenever the conductors are dead ended or there is change in the
direction of transmission line, the insulators used are
a) Suspension type
b) Pin type
c) Strain type
d) None of the above
49. During rains, the direct capacitance of suspension type insulator
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains the same
d) None of the above
50. In a string of suspension insulators, maximum potential will appear across the unit
a) Nearest to the conductor
b) Nearest to the cross-arm
c) At middle of the string
d) None of the above
51. Which insulator can be used either in horizontal or vertical position?
a) Strain type
b) Shackle type
c) Pin type
d) Suspension type
52. String efficiency being 100% means
a) Potential across each disc is zero
b) One of the insulator discs is shorted
c) Potential across each disc is same
d) None of the above
53. By using a guard ring, string efficiency of suspension insulators will be
a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Constant
d) Independent of shunt capacitance
54. Porcelain insulators are glazed
a) To improve the appearance
b) So that water should glide down easily
c) To prevent absorption of gases and water vapours
d) Due to all the above
55. If the voltage across the string of a string insulator assembly is 38 kV, number of insulation
discs are 4 and voltage across the lowermost disc is 12 kV, the string efficiency is
a) 76.5%
b) 70%
c) 50%
d) 100%
56. Impurities in the insulator material decreases
a) Dielectric strength
b) Porosity
c) Mechanical strength
d) Toughness of insulator
57. Static shielding ______string efficiency.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not affect
d) Minimizes
58. Petticoats are provided in the pin type insulators
a) To improve the appearance of the insulator
b) To drip off the rain water
c) To protect the pin of the insulators from the effect of sun and rain
d) Due to all of the above reasons
59. Disc type insulators employed as suspension insulators have
a) Discs in vertical plane
b) Discs in horizontal plane
c) Discs at 45˚to the horizontal
d) None of the above
60. Seven discs usually suggest that the transmission line voltage is
a) 11 kV
b) 33 kV
c) 66 kV
d) 132 kV
61. The following data is obtained from a power station;
Fixed cost = 20x105 rupees
Variable cost = 30x105 rupees
Units generated per annum = 175x106 kWh
The cost of generation per unit will be
a) 1.00 rupees
b) 28.57 paise
c) 5 paise
d) 2.85 paise
62. When transmission losses are considered, the criteria of economic operation is given by
a) =λ
b) .Li=λ
c) . =λ
d) Li=λ
63. Optimum fuel economy is achieved, transmission losses being considered, when
a) Summation of incremental fuel cost and penalty factor is same for all plants
b) Penalty factor is neglected
c) Penalty factor is constant
d) Product of incremental fuel cost times penalty factor is constant for all plants
64. A cost function for a power station is represented as
Fc = α + βPi + γPi2
Hence, the incremental fuel cost will be given by
a) IFC = α + β+ γ
b) IFC = α + βPi + γPi2
c) IFC = βPi + γPi
d) IFC = α + γPi
65. The constraint equation in computing economic criteria is given by
a) =Ф
b) =Ф
c) =Ф
d) =Ф
Where Pgi represents generation, PL the load and PD the load demand and φ the residual power.
66. The incremental costs of two power stations are given as
(IC)A = βA+2γAPA
(IC)B = βB+γBPA
If βA = βB and γA=γB, for optimal operation,
a) PA = PB = PD
b) PA = PB = (PD/3)
c) PA = PB = (PD/2)
d) PA = PB = 0
67. Which of the following plants is used as peak load plant?
a) Pumped storage plant
b) Steam turbine plant
c) Nuclear power plant
d) None of the above
68. The choice of number and size of units in a station is governed by best compromise between
a) Plant load factor and plant use factor
b) Plant capacity factor and plant use factor
c) Plant load factor and plant capacity factor
d) None of the above
69. Plant capacity factor is
a) Actual energy produced/maximum possible energy that could have been produced (based on
installed capacity)
b) Actual energy produced/(plant capacity, hours for which the plant has been in operation)
c) Energy generated in a given period (maximum demand is in hours of the given period)
d) None of the above
70. The product of diversity factor and maximum demand is
a) Average demand
b) Sum of consumers maximum demand
c) Installed capacity
d) Generated power
71. In optimum generator scheduling of different power plants, the minimum fuel cost is obtained
when for each plant same is its
a) Incremental fuel cost
b) Penalty factor
c) Product of a & b
d) Rate of incremental fuel cost
72. To effectively reduce the cost of generation in a power station, increases its
a) Load factor
b) Diversity factor
c) Both a & b
d) Power factor and load factor
73. Power plant having maximum demand more than the installed rated capacity will have
utilization factor
a) Equal to unity
b) Less than unity
c) More than unity
d) None of the above
74. Most efficient plants are normally used as
a) Peak load plants
b) Base load plants
c) Either 1 or 2
d) None of the above
75. When a plant resorts to load shedding it can be concluded that
a) Peak demand is more than the installed capacity
b) Daily load factor is unity
c) Diversity factor is zero
d) Plant is under repairs
76. The input to the set under Hopkinson’s test is
a) Losses in the generator alone
b) Losses in the motor alone
c) Output of the generator
d) Losses in both the machines
77. In Swinburne’s method of testing dc machines, the shunt machine is run as a
a) Motor at full load
b) Generator at full load
c) Motor at no load
d) Generator at no load
78. The moment of inertia of rotating machine (dc motor) can be obtained by calculations from the
following test
a) Swinburne’s test
b) Brake test
c) Hopkinson’s test
d) Retardation test
79. The complete circle diagram of a 3-phase induction motor can be drawn with the help of
a) Running light test alone
b) Both running –light and blocked – rotor tests
c) Running – light, blocked – rotor and stator resistance tests
d) Blocked rotor test alone
80. Ward-leonard method of speed control is basically a/an
a) Field control method
b) Field diverter method
c) Armature resistance control method
d) Voltage control method
81. Ungrounded neutral transmission system is not recommended because of system
a) Being inadequately protected against ground fault
b) Insulation being overstressed due to over voltages
c) Insulation overstress may lead to failure and subsequent phase faults
d) All of the above
82. A system is said to be effectively grounded when for the portion under consideration, the ratio of
a) Zero sequence reactance to positive sequence reactance is more than three
b) Zero sequence resistance to positive sequence resistance is less than unity
c) Zero sequence reactance to positive sequence reactance is more than three
d) Both a & b
83. Which of the following motors is best suited for the rolling mills?
a) Single-phase motors
b) Dc motors
c) Squirrel cage induction motors
d) Slip-ring induction motors
84. In a paper mill where constant speed is required
a) Synchronous motors are preferred
b) Ac motors are preferred
c) Individual drive is preferred
d) Group drive is preferred
85. _________has relatively wide range of speed control
a) Synchronous motor
b) Slip-ring induction motor
c) Dc shunt motor
d) Squirrel cage induction motor
86. Which of the following motors is preferred when quick speed reversal is the main consideration?
a) Synchronous motor
b) Squirrel cage induction motor
c) Wound rotor induction motor
d) Dc motor
87. For which of the following applications, motor has to start with high acceleration?
a) Oil expeller
b) Flour mill
c) Lifts and hoists
d) Centrifugal pump
88. Which of the following machines has heavy fluctuation of load?
a) Printing machine
b) Punching machine
c) Planer
d) Lathe
89. Which of the following is preferred for automatic drives?
a) Synchronous motors
b) Squirrel cage induction motor
c) Ward-leonard controlled dc motors
d) Any of the above
90. In overhead travelling cranes
a) Continuous duty motors are used
b) Slow speed motors are preferred
c) Short time rated motors are preferred
d) None of the above
91. In hydropower plants
a) Initial cost is high and operating cost is low
b) Initial cost as well as operating cost are high
c) Initial cost is low and operating cost is high
d) Initial cost as well as operating cost are low
92. Heavy water implies
a) H2O
b) B2O
c) W2O
d) D2O
93. The rotor used in alternator for hydroelectric station is
a) Salient pole rotor
b) Cylindrical rotor
c) Non-salient pole rotor
d) Round rotor with ac excitation
94. Water hammer is developed in
a) Penstock
b) Turbine
c) Surge tank
d) alternator
95. Moderator is used to
a) Absorb neutrons
b) Reduce the speed of neutrons
c) Accelerate the speed of neutrons
d) Stop the chain reaction
96. Coolants used in reactors should have ____melting point and ____ boiling point
a) Low, low
b) Low, high
c) High, low
d) High, high
97. Nuclear power plants are used as_______ load plants
a) Base
b) Peak
c) Fluctuating
d) Electric traction
98. In a thermal power plant, the overall efficiency is low due to low efficiency of
a) Boiler
b) Steam turbine and condenser
c) Alternator
d) Non-salient pole motor
99. A positive pressure develops in the penstock if the alternator load is suddenly
a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Made fluctuating
d) Short-circuited
100. Nuclear reactors generally employ
a) Fission
b) Fusion
c) Both fission and fusion
d) None of the above
101. Which enters the superheater of a boiler in a steam power station?
a) Wet steam
b) Superheated steam
c) Cold water
d) Hot water
102. Economizer is used to heat
a) Flue gases
b) Turbine steam
c) Air intake
d) Feed water to boiler
103. Which turbine can be used for low head and high discharge hydel plant?
a) Pelton wheel
b) Jonval turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Francis turbine
104. “spinning reserve” is basically
a) Capacity of the part of the plant that remains under maintenance
b) Reserve generating capacity that is available for service but not in operation
c) Reserve generating capacity that is in operation but not in service
d) Reserve generating capacity that is connected to bus and ready to take the load
105. In pumped storage hydel plants
a) Water is recirculated through turbine
b) Water is stored by pumping to high pressures
c) Power is produced by means of pumps
d) Downstream water is pumped upstream during off load periods
106. Which gas in atmosphere causes green-house effect?
a) Nitrogen
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen sulphide
107. Most of the generators in thermal power plants run at
a) 750 RPM
b) 1000 RPM
c) 1500 RPM
d) 3000 RPM
108. The reflectors of a nuclear reactor are made up of
a) Steel
b) Boron
c) Iron
d) Beryllium
109. Fast breeder reactors are best suited in india because
a) Of good efficiency
b) Of large uranium deposits
c) Of large thorium deposits
d) Of large plutonium deposits
110. The draught produced in a chimney is called
a) Natural draught
b) Induced draught
c) Forced draught
d) Balanced draught
111. Burden of a protective relay is the power
a) Developed by the relay circuit
b) Absorbed by the circuit of relay
c) Factor of the relay circuit including tripping coil
d) Required to operate the circuit breaker
112. Directional relays are based on flow of
a) Voltage wave
b) Current
c) Power
d) Polarity of voltage only
113. A distance relay measures
a) Voltage difference
b) Current difference
c) Distance between two CT
d) Impedance
114. Discrimination between main and backup protection is provide by the use of relays
which are
a) Slow
b) Fast
c) Sensitive
d) All of the above
115. A differential relay measures the vector difference between
a) Two powers
b) Two voltages
c) Two currents
d) Two or more similar electrical quantities
116. In a delta/star transformer employing Merz price percentage differential protection the
CT’s are connected in the primary and secondary windings as
a) Delta-star
b) Star-star
c) Star-delta
d) Delta-delta
117. Large internal faults are protected by
a) Horn gaps and temperature relays
b) Earth fault and positive sequence relays
c) Merz price percentage differential protection
d) Mho and ohm relays
118. A protective relay is energized through 11 kV/110 V PT and 100/5 CT, then the ratio of
secondary impedance to primary impedance ZSEC/ZPRI as shown by relay will be
a) 100/20
b) (100/20)2
c) (20/100)2
d) 20/100
119. Back up protection protects against
a) Over current
b) Transient current
c) Both a&b
d) Short-circuit current
120. If fault occurs near an impedance relay, the V/I ratio is
a) Constant for all the locations of fault
b) Lower than the value if fault occurs away from the relay
c) Higher than the value if fault occurs away from the relay
d) May be lower or higher than the value if fault occurs away from the relay
121. In underground cables, the electrostatic stress is
a) Zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
b) Minimum at the conductor surface and minimum ath the sheath
c) Maximum at the conductor surface and minimum at the sheath
d) Same at the conductor surface and sheath
122. The insulation resistance of the cable decreases with
a) Electric stress
b) The decrease in the length of the insulation of the cable
c) The increase in length of the insulation of the cable
d) None of the above
123. The main utility of intersheaths in cables is/are
a) To provide better thermal stress distribution
b) To provide proper stress distribution
c) Upgrading inferior insulation
d) To provide against voltage and current surges
124. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing
a) The resistance of the conductors
b) The inductance of the conductors
c) The capacitances of the insulated conductors
d) All above parameters
125. In capacitance grading of cables, we use
a) Porous dielectric
b) Homogeneous dielectric
c) Hygroscopic dielectric of same permittivities
d) Dielectric of varying permittivities
126. The advantage of cables over transmission lines
a) Is easy maintenance
b) Is low cost
c) Can be used in high voltage circuits
d) Can be used in congested areas
127. Paper used as insulating materials in cables is generally impregnated with oily
compounds, because
a) It is hygroscopic
b) It has many pores
c) It is otherwise good conductor
d) It gets electrostatically charged at high voltage
128. The capacitance between any two conductors of a 3-core cable (with sheath earthed) is
4μF. The capacitance per phase will be
a) 1.33 μF
b) 4 μF
c) 8 μF
d) None of the above
129. Void formation in the dielectric material of the underground cable may be controlled by
a) Using high permittivity solid dielectric
b) Providing a strong metallic sheath outside the cable
c) Filling oil at high pressure as dielectric
d) None of the above
130. Voltage gradient in a cable is highest at the
a) Centre of the conductor
b) Surface of the conductor
c) Surface f the sheath
d) In between b & c
131. When a cable is to cross a road, it should
a) Run as an overhead cable
b) Be buried in trenches
c) Be laid in pipes or conduits
d) Be surrounded by saw-dust to absorb vibrations
132. If power cable and communication cable are to run parallel, the two, to avoid
interference, should be
a) 1 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 50 cm
d) 500 cm
133. When the diameter of the core and cable is doubled, the value of capacitance
a) Will be reduced to one-fourth
b) Will be reduced to half
c) Will be doubled
d) Will become four times
134. In a 3-core cable, the colour of the neutral is
a) Black
b) Red
c) Blue
d) Yellow
135. In cables, the charging current
a) Leads the voltage by 90˚
b) Leads the voltage by 120˚
c) Leads the voltage by any angle between 90˚ and 120˚
d) Leads the voltage by 180˚
136. Commonest type of 3-phase unsymmetrical fault is
a) 3-phase
b) Line to line
c) Single line to ground
d) Double line to ground
137. Which of the following statements is true?
a) a4 = -a
b) a2 = -(1+a)
c) a = 0.5-j0.866
d) a = 0.5+j0.866
138. Which sequence component is always more than the negative sequence component in
asymmetrical fault?
a) Positive sequence
b) Zero sequence
c) Both are correct
d) None of the above
139. In a double line to ground fault (LLG) the positive, negative and zero sequence
networks are
a) Star connected
b) Delta connected
c) Series connected
d) Parallel connected
140. A balanced 3-phase system consists of
a) Zero sequence currents only
b) Positive sequence currents only
c) Negative and zero sequence currents
d) Zero, negative and positive sequence currents
141. To reduce short circuit fault currents _________ are used in substations
a) Resistors
b) Capacitors
c) Reactors
d) diodes
142. In symmetrical component analysis,
a) Ia1 = (Ia + aIb + a2Ic)
b) Ia1 = (aIa + a2Ib + Ic)
c) Ia1 = (Ia + Ib + Ic)
d) Ia1 = (Ia + a2Ib + aIc)

143. Which of the following figures indicate the zero sequence network of alternator whose
star point is grounded through impedance Xn?
a) Fig. a
b) Fig. b
c) Fig. c
d) Fig. d
144. In the adjoining figures, find the fault level at F.
a) 25 MVA
b) 250 MVA
c) 1000 MVA
d) 1300 MVA
145. The _______ sequence network does not contain any voltage source.
a) Zero
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) Mutual
146. While calculating the fault current, the reactances of the machines connected to the
power system are taken to be
a) Zero
b) Constant
c) Increasing with load
d) Decreasing with load
147. The fault MVA is given by
a) (Base MVA) / (p.u. Xeq)
b) (Base MVA) x (p.u. Xeq)
c) (Base MVA) / (p.u. Xeq)2
d) None of the above
Where Xeq is the fault impedance at the point where fault has occurred.
148. Maximum short circuit current occurs due to
a) Dead short circuit
b) Line to line fault
c) Line to ground fault
d) Line to line and ground fault
149. From sequence component voltages ER1, ER2 and ER0, the phase voltages of the lines
will be (pick up false relation)
a) ER = ER1 + ER2 + ER0
b) EY = a2ER1 + aER2 + ER0
c) EB = aER1 + a2ER2 + ER0
d) ERY = aER1 + a2ER2 + 2ER0
150. A 11 kV, 10 MVA alternator has p.u. impedance of 0.1 when referred to its ratings as
bases. The new value for base as 110 kV, 20 MVA will be
a) 0.1 p.u.
b) 0.2 p.u.
c) 0.02 p.u.
d) 0.002 p.u.