AE Reviewer Volume II

BELONIO
AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING
COMPREHENSIVE
BOARD EXAM
COMPREHENSIVE BOARD EXAM

AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING
REVIEWER
REVIEWER Volume II
Volume II
Agricultural Processing,
Structures, and Allied Subjects
Alexis T. Belonio
UNIVERSITY PRESS
Central Philippine University Department of Agricultural Engineering and
Iloilo City, Philippines Environmental Management
CPU Press
College of Agriculture
Central Philippine University
Iloilo City, Philippines
2004
AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING
COMPREHENSIVE BOARD
EXAM REVIEWER
Volume II
Agricultural Processing, Structures,
and Allied Subjects
Alexis T. Belonio
Department of Agricultural Engineering

and Environmental Management
College of Agriculture
Central Philippine University
Iloilo City, Philippines
2004
The Author:
Alexis T. Belonio is a Professional Agricultural Engineer. Presently, he is an Associate
Professor and Chairman of the Department of Agricultural Engineering and
Environmental Management, College of Agriculture, Central Philippine University,
Iloilo City. He finished his Bachelor of Science in Agricultural Engineering and
Master of Science degrees from Central Luzon State University, Muoz, Nueva Ecija.
He has been deeply involved in teaching, research, project development, and
entrepreneurial activity on various agricultural engineering projects since 1983.
He was awarded by the Philippine Society of Agricultural Engineers (PSAE) as Most

Outstanding Agricultural Engineer in the field of Farm Power and Machinery and by
the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) as Outstanding Professional in the
field of Agricultural Engineering in 1993. In 1997, he was awarded by the TOYM
Foundation and the Jerry Roxas Foundation as the Outstanding Young Filipinos
(TOYF) in the field of Agricultural Engineering. He is presently a PSAE Fellow
Member.
As a dedicated professional, he serves as technical consultant to various agricultural

machinery manufacturers in Region VI. He also serves as a Reviewer of the TGIM
Foundation Review Center on the field of Agricultural Power, Machinery and Allied
Subjects, and Agricultural Processing, Structures and Allied Subjects since 1998. He
has written and published several research and technical papers .
Acknowledgement:
The author is very much thankful to the Lord God Almighty who inspired him to
prepare this material for the graduates of agricultural engineering who will take the
Professional Agricultural Engineering Licensure Examination.
He also wishes to acknowledge Dr. N. Orcullo for the encouragement to serve as a

reviewer for the aspiring agricultural engineers at the TGIM Review Center , Manila.
To Salve and their children: Mike, Happy, Humble, Jireh, Justly, Tenderly, and Wisdom
for their prayer and support. No part of this book is allowed to be photocopied or reproduced in any form
without any written permission from the author.
Trial Edition
PREFACE
This book, Agricultural Engineering Comprehensive Board Exam

Reviewer Volume II was prepared primarily for the agricultural
engineering students and graduate who are preparing for the licensure
examination for the professional agricultural engineers.
The contents of the book are series of questions and problems to make the
students recall the fundamental theories and concepts in agricultural
engineering. Most questions are tricky and practical in nature to test
whether the students has digested the principles in each of the different
subject matter in agricultural engineering. At the end of the book, the
answer key for each question and problem are provided.
This is the second of the three volumes of the Reviewer. The content
deals with the various processes involved in agriculture and food
operation, agricultural building and infrastructure, farm electrification,
refrigeration and cold storage of food, environmental engineering and
management, and agricultural waste utilization
This book is still in draft form and is produced in limited copies.

Additional items will be included in the future to make this material more
comprehensive. Comments and suggestions are welcome for the
improvement of this manuscript.
God bless and may this book become useful to you at the moment!
ALEXIS T. BELONIO
Copyright 2004 by Alexis T. Belonio
1
1. A dryer in which the material being dried moves through the 5. It is the ratio of the total heat utilized to vaporize moisture in the
drying chamber is substantially in continuous stream without being material being dried to the amount of heat added to the drying air.
recirculated. a. Dryer efficiency
a. Recirculating-type dryer b. Thermal efficiency
b. Continuous-flow type dryer c. Heat of vaporization efficiency
c. Concurrent flow dryer d. All of the above
d. None of the above
6. A fraction of grain with its length equal to or greater than three-
2. A continuous-flow dryer in which the product being dried moves forth of the average.
in the same direction as the drying air. a. Large broken grain
a. Cross-flow type dryer b. Small broken grains
b. Counter-flow type dryer c. Head grain
c. Concurrent-flow type dryer d. None of the above
d. All of the above
7. An air moving device to force heated air through the mass of grain
3. A continuous-flow type dryer in which the drying bin is similar to at a desired air-flow rate and pressure.
a columnar drying bin except that it includes louvers causing a. Blower
mixing to occur as the grain flows through the system. b. Aspirator
a. Mixing type c. Fanning mill
b. Non-mixing type d. None of the above
c. Recirculating type
d. None of the above 8. A mechanical grain dryer wherein grain is passed intermittently in
cycles or stages through a drying chamber either by mechanical
4. A dryer in which the product of combustion comes into contact means or by gravity with subsequent cooling and tempering until
with the product being dried. the grain reaches the desired moisture content.
a. Indirect fired dryer a. Batch-in-bin dryer
b. Direct fired dryer b. Flat-bed dryer
c. Combustion fired dryer c. Multipass dryer
d. All of the above d. All of the above
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. One year
d. Two of the above
2 3
9. A chamber wherein air pressure forms uniform distribution of 14. It is the ratio of the heat released by the fuel to the theoretical heat
heated air through the grain mass. available from the fuel.
a. Plenum a. Burner efficiency
b. Bin b. Thermal efficiency
c. Duct c. Combustion efficiency
d. All of the above d. None of the above
10. The minimum requirement for drying efficiency based on the 15. It is the percentage of grain free from foreign matter.
standard performance criteria for a mechanical dryer. a. Percentage foreign matter
a. 90% b. Percentage Cleanliness
b. 75% c. Purity
c. 50% d. None of the above
16. Pressure build up in the plenum chamber to maintain uniform
11. The minimum requirement for heating efficiency of direct-fired distribution of air flow through the grain mass.
biomass-fueled grain dryer. a. Velocity pressure
a. 75% b. Static pressure
b. 65% c. Dynamic pressure
c. 50% d. Two of the above
17. It is the temporary holding of grains between drying passes to
12. The minimum requirement for heat utilization efficiency based on allow the moisture in the center of the grain equalize with that on
the standard performance criteria of direct-fired petroleum-based its surface.
fuel for mechanical dryers. a. Tempering
a. 90% b. Static drying
b. 80% c. Dryaeration
c. 70% d. None of the above
18. It is the amount of moisture in the grain expressed as percentage of
13. Warranty period requirement for mechanical grain dryers. the total weight of the samples.
a. Moisture content dry basis c. Free moisture
b. Moisture content wet basis d. All of the above
c. Moisture content
d. All of the above
4 5
19. It is the amount of moisture in the grain expressed as percentage of 24. The blending of ingredients or materials in agricultural processing
the weight of dry matter. operation.
a. Moisture content dry basis a. Sorting
b. Moisture content wet basis b. Molding
c. Moisture content c. Mixing
d. None of the above d. All of the above
20. Screen cleaners that employ an air blast to assist in cleaning. 25. It is a burr or plate mill.
a. Screen separator a. Micro mill
b. Fanning mill b. Attrition mill
c. Blower c. Roller mill
21. It is a part of a belt conveyor that is used to discharge materials 26. A process of reducing the size of materials by applying force to the
over the end of the belt by a diagonal scraper. product in excess of its strength.
a. Scraper a. Shearing
b. Tripper b. Crushing
c. Head pulley c. Milling
d. None of the above d. None of the above
22. A moisture meter that determines the moisture content of the 27. A process of reducing the size of materials by pushing or forcing a
product based on the ability of current to pass through the material. thin sharp knife into it.
a. Capacitance type moisture meter a. Shearing
b. Resistance type meter b. Crushing
c. Infrared moisture meter c. Cutting
23. Moisture that can be found at the surface of the material. 28. It indicates the uniformity of grind in the resultant product.
a. Unbound water a. Uniformity sex
b. Bound water b. Particle size
c. Fineness modulus a. 1.8%
d. All of the above b. 18%
c. 22%
6 7
29. A process of reducing materials by a combination of cutting and 34. What is the percentage moisture content of paddy above when
crushing actions. expressed in dry basis?
a. Milling a. 22%
b. Grinding b. 30%
c. Shearing c. 12%
30. If the amount of water in a product is determined based on its dry 35. What is the amount of moisture to be removed from a material
matter content, the moisture content is expressed in: whose moisture content is 14.5% with dry matter weight of 76 kg?
a. Wet basis a. 12.9kg
b. Dry basis b. 24.1kg
c. Semi wet basis c. 14.5kg
31. A method of measuring the moisture content of the product by 36. If a product has a percentage moisture content of 12% wet basis,
direct extraction of water. the equivalent percentage moisture content in dry basis is:
a. Primary method a. 13.6%
b. Secondary method b. 16.3%
c. Tertiary method c. 13.4%
32. The process of detaching or separating rice grains from the 37. A product expressed in dry basis has a percentage moisture content
panicle. of 25%, what is the percentage moisture content of the product in
a. Stripping wet basis?
b. Reaping a. 20%
a. Harvesting b. 22%
b. All of the above c. 26%
33. If 20 kg of water is removed from 110kg of paddy, what is the
percentage moisture content of paddy in wet basis?
c. of the length of paddy grain
8 9
38. If 9 ton of a product is to be dried from 24% to 14%, the final 43. Manufacturers prescribed peripheral velocity of a disk huller is:
weight of the product would be: a. 10m/s
a. 7953.4 kg b. 14m/s
b. 8837.3 kg c. 18m/s
c. 9741.4 kg d. None of the above
44. Manufacturers recommendation for the speed of cone in a vertical
39. What is the moisture loss of the product in item above? abrasive whitening cone must not exceed.
a. 1046.5 kg a. 13m/s
b. 2285.6 kg. b. 14m/s
c. 2634.4 kg c. 15m/s
40. It is the measure of the power output of fan in relation to its power 45. Manufacturers recommendation for the speed of a horizontal
input. abrasive whitener.
a. Fan thermal efficiency a. 800 rpm
b. Fan performance index b. 1000rpm
c. Fan efficiency c. 1200 rpm
41. The recommended depth of grain in a shallow bed dryer is: 46. The process in which air moves through stored grains at a low rate
a. Up to 12 inches to maintain its quality.
b. Up to 18 inches a. Cooling
c. Up to 24 inches b. Aeration
d. All of the above e. Fanning
f. None of the above
42. Recommended clearance for disk huller to achieve higher brown
rice recovery with less breakage. 47. Maximum allowable safe height of sack pile in bag storage.
a. of the length of paddy grain a. 12-16 sacks
b. of the thickness of paddy grain b. 18-25 sacks
c. 28-30 sacks d. None of the above
10 11
48. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter of space for palay. 53. A storage method wherein the gas concentration in storage
a. 5 bags atmosphere is changed.
b. 10 bags a. Sealed storage
c. 15 bags b. Modified atmosphere
d. None of the above c. Controlled atmosphere
d. All of the above
49. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter of space for corn.
a. 12 bags 54. A process of separating lower density materials from grains.
b. 14 bags a. Aspiration
c. 16 bags b. Cleaning
d. None of the above c. Fanning
d. All of the above
50. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter of space for rice.
a. 10 bags 55. A primary cleaner which separates larger particles or performs
b. 15 bags rough cleaning of grains.
c. 20 bags a. Rotary sieve
d. None of the above b. Scalper
g. Vibrating screen
51. If a pile of rice is 8-m. long, 6-m. wide, and 3.6-m. high, how h. All of the above
many bags of rice are safe to be piled?
a. 2592 bags 56. Recommended size of scalper for paddy is
b. 2952 bags a. 0.2-0.25sq.m. per ton
c. 2295 bags b. 0.3-0.35sq.m. per ton
d. None of the above c. 0.4-0.45sq.m. per ton
52. If 5000 bags of palay is to be piled 20-bags high, how many square
meters of floor space is required? (0.23 m/bag) 57. What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator whose head pulley
a. 111sq.m. diameter is 0.2m. and the bucket projection is 0.1m.? (N=29.9/
b. 121sq.m. R).
c. 211sq.m. a. 77 rpm
b. 120 rpm c. 70-80kg. brown rice per hour
c. 160 rpm d. None of the above
12 13
58. If the operational efficiency of the bucket elevator above is 85% of 63. The amount of foreign materials in a sample of grains.
the theoretical speed, what is the operation speed of the elevator? a. Impurities
a. 65 rpm b. Chalky grain
b. 102 rpm c. Dockage
c. 136 rpm d. None of the above
64. A storage practice in which grains are stored in loose form in a
59. What is the theoretical horsepower requirement of a bucket large container.
elevator whose capacity is 545kg./min. and lift of 10.7m. The a. Bag storage
elevator is loaded down side. b. Bunker storage
a. 2.19 hp c. Bulk storage
b. 1.92 hp d. All of the above
c. 2.91 hp
d. None of the above 65. A small metal probe for taking samples of paddy.
a. Sampling tube
60. A hydrothermal treatment of paddy before milling. b. Trier
a. Parboiling c. Sampler
b. Drying d. None of the above
c. Water treatment
d. None of the above 66. Wooden frame used in staking bags of rice.
a. Dunnage
61. In a disk huller, the stationary disk is located at: b. Loading platform
a. Top of the huller c. Bag holder
b. Bottom of the huller d. All of the above
c. Side of the huller
d. None of the above 67. A warehouse used for storing paddy or rice either in bulk or in
bags.
62. The capacity of a compartment type separator is: a. Silo
a. 20-30kg. brown rice per hour b. Godown
b. 40-60kg. brown rice per hour c. Farmstead
d. None of the above c. 475.85 kg
14 15
68. Rough cleaning of paddy to remove most foreign materials prior to 73. What is the amount of rice hull produced during milling in item
drying and storage. above?
a. Aspiration a. 1000 kg
b. Scalping b. 1050 kg
c. Sieving c. 1100 kg
69. A drying temperature of 45 C is equal to: 74. The optimum relative humidity for storing fruits and vegetables is
a. 113 F a. 60-70%
b. 131 F b. 80-90%
c. 121 F c. 90-100%
70. Five tons of paddy milled in 6 hours produces 3950 brown rice and 75. A two-ton mechanical dryer dries paddy from 24% to 14% in 8
3250kg. of milled rice. What is the milling recovery? hours. What is the final weight of the product after drying?
a. 60% a. 1767.4 kg
b. 65% b. 1677.4 kg
c. 70% c. 1776.4 kg
71. What is the hulling coefficient of the huller in item above? 76. What is the drying capacity of the dryer in the item above?
a. 0.79 a. 200 kg/hr
b. 0.89 b. 250 kg/hr
c. 0.99 c. 125 kg/hr
72. If the head rice recovery of paddy in item above is equal to 85%, 77. What is the moisture reduction per hour in the item above?
what is the amount of broken grains? a. 29.07 kg/hr
a. 487.50 kg b. 27.09 kg/hr
b. 478.50 kg c. 20.97 kg/hr
16 17
78. The coefficient of friction of rice to a steel material is 0.41. What 82. The angle whose tangent equals the coefficient of friction between
is the minimum angle of hopper required for the system? surfaces of the stored materials.
a. 22 deg. a. Angle of contact
b. 30 deg. b. Angle of friction
c. 50 deg. c. Angle of repose
d. None of the above d. All for the above
79. The divisional layer between the dried and the undried products in 83. Expression of moisture content commonly used in commercial
a drying system. scale.
a. Drying layer a. Moisture wet basis
b. Drying zone b. Moisture content dry basis
c. Drying front c. Moisture content
80. Amount of heat required to raise one gram of water one degree 84. A solar dryers is used to reduce the moisture content of four tons
centigrade. of paddy rice from 25% to 15% wet basis. The amount of
a. One BTU moisture removed is about:
b. One calorie a. 471 kilos
c. One joule b. 417 kilos
d. All of the above c. 714 kilos
d. none of the above
81. What is the peak storage capacity of a 5-m diameter grain storage
bin with an average height and a minimum angle of fill of 6 m and 85. A device that remove excess moisture generally by forced
28 deg., respectively? ventilation with or without addition of heat.
V=(D/4) (EH) + (D/4) (D/2 tan/3) a. fryer
a. 126.5m. b. dehydrator
b. 162.5m. c. dryer
c. 156.2m. d. none of the above
a. paddy husker
b. rice whitener
c. rice mill
d. all of the above
18 19
86. A batch-type dryer with vertical holding bin and is used for deep- 91. An example of rice husker.
bed drying. a. rubber roll huller
a. recirculating dryer b. disk huller
b. vertical bin dryer c. steel-huller
c. batch-type dryer d. all of the above
92. One ton of coconut will produce approximately ______ of oil.
87. A batch-type dryer equipped to circulate or mix grain during a. 400 kg
drying operation. b. 500 kg
a. vertical-bin dryer c. 600 kg
b. recirculating dryer d. None of the above
c. flat-bed dryer
d. none of the above 93. A machine used to remove bran .
a. polisher
88. A batch dryer with horizontal grain holding bin is passed b. husker
continuously through a drying chamber utilizing agitator until the c. whitener
grain reaches the specified moisture content reduction per pass. d. all of the above
a. batch dryer
b. continuous flow dryer 94. It is a part of a belt conveyor that is used to discharge materials
c. recirculating dryer over the end of the belt by a diagonal scraper.
d. none of the above a. idler pulley
b. tripper
89. An air chamber maintained under pressure usually connected to c. head pulley
one or more distribution duct in a drying system. d. none of the above
a. drying bin
b. plenum chamber 95. It is the ratio of the quantity of light on the working place to the
c. air duct quantity of light output from the source.
d. none of the above a. Room index
b. Coefficient of utilization
90. A machine that converts paddy to milled rice. c. Light intensity
d. None of the above a.
of the thickness of paddy grain
b.
c.
d.
none of the above
20 21
96. A log has a smallest diameter of 24 inches and a length of 18 101. A vertical-axis hammer mill is more advantageous than the
inches. What is the net total number of board foot that can be horizontal-axis hammer mill for the reason that
obtained from the log? a. It is more effective in grinding grains with higher moisture
a. 450 bd ft content of up to 25%.
b. 500 bd ft b. The power requirement of the vertical-axis hammer mill is
c. 550 bd ft much lower than the horizontal-axis hammer mill
d. None of the above c. Less broken grains can be derived from vertical-axis hammer
mill
97. A dryer component that converts velocity pressure of the fan to d. None of the above
static pressure.
a. drying bin 102. A grain milling machine consisting of two cast iron disk plate with
b. plenum chamber teeth or serration on one or both faces.
c. manometer a. Hammer mill
d. none of the above b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
98. The percentage speed difference between rubber rollers. d. All of the above
a. 15 %
b. 20 % 103. A grain milling machine suitable for grinding grains with moisture
c. 25 % content of up to 30%
d. none of the above a. Hammer mill
b. Attrition mill
99. The maximum percentage of milling recovery obtained from a rice c. Roller mill
mill is d. All of the above
a. 69 %
b. 75 % 104. A type of mill used for crushing grains by allowing it to pass
c. 80 % through a two rotating cylinder steel one of which is smaller than
d. none of the above the other
a. Hammer mill
100. Recommended clearance of disk huller to achieve higher brown b. Roller mill
rice recovery with less breakage. c. Plate mill
d. All of the above b. Increase
c. The same
22 23
105. The density of pig and poultry feed is approximately 110. A type of a conveyor feeder used for feeding birds in cages on a
a.
250 kg/m3 poultry farm
b. 450 kg/m3 a. Flat chain feeder
c. 650 kg/m3 b. Auger feeders
d. None of the above c. Round chain feeders
d. All of the above
106. The auger that is centrally located at the vertical feed mixer
usually rotates at a speed of 111. An electrically-operated device commonly used for automatic
a. 100-250 rpm bagging of grains or feeds.
b. 250-400 rpm a. Solinoid switch
c. 400-650 rpm b. Transducer
d. None of the above c. Load cell
107. Horizontal feed mixer is not advantageous for feed mixing as
compared with vertical feed mixer for the reason that 112. Manufacturers prescribed peripheral velocity of disc for disk
a. Horizontal feed mixer has lower capacity huller.
b. Horizontal feed mixer has high power requirement a. 10 m/s
c. Horizontal feed mixer has lesser life span b. 14 m/s
d. None of the above c. 18 m/s
108. A type of bearing used for tightening bucket elevator belts
a. Pillow block bearing 113. Recommended peripheral speed of rubber roller for hulling
b. Flange bearing operation
c. Take-up units a. 10 m/s
d. None of the above b. 14 m/s
c. 18 m/s
109. When a bucket elevator is to be fed at the downside section instead d. none of the above
of the upside section of the elevator booth, its power requirement
will 114. Manufacturers recommendation for maximum speed cone on a
a. Decrease vertical abrasive whitening machine.
a. 13 m/s a. 65 rpm
b. 14 m/s b. 102 rpm
c. 18 m/s c. 136 rpm
d. none of the above d. none of the above
24 25
115. An element used primarily to support axial compressive load and with a 120. What is the theoretical horsepower requirement of a bucket
height of at least three times its least lateral dimension. elevator with a capacity of 545 kg/min and lift of 10.7 m and the
a. Pier elevator is loaded down side.
b. Column a. 2.19 hp
c. Beams b. 1.92 hp
d. None of the above c. 2.91 hp
116. A primary cleaner which separates larger particles or rough
cleaning of rough rice. 121. A rice mill huller which produces high milling recovery.
a. rotary sieve a. steel huller
b. scalper b. rubber huller
c. vibrating screen c. stone disk
d. all of the above d. all of the above
117. Recommended size of scalper for paddy cleaning. 122. On the disk huller, the stationary disk is located on.
a. 0.2-0.25m2/ton a. top of the huller
b. 0.3-0.35m2/ton b. bottom of the huller
c. 0.4-0.45m2/ton c. outside of the huller
118. What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator whose head pulley 123. An air moving device which produces high airflow but low head
diameter is 0.2 m and the bucket projection is 0.1 m. a. fans
a. 77 rpm b. blower
b. 120 rpm c. compressor
c. 160 rpm d. all of the above
124. A device that is used to move oil.
119. If the operational speed of the bucket elevator in item above is 85 a. blower
% of the theoretical speed, what is the operational speed of the b. pump
elevator? c. compressor
d. all of the above
26 27
125. If mixing is needed to carryout during conveying, the suitable 130. A machine which separates paddy from brown rice.
conveyor is. a. screen sifter
a. bucket b. paddy separator
b. screw c. paddy husker
c. belt d. none of the above
d. all of the above
131. A machine that smoothen milled rice.
126. The horsepower requirement of belt conveyors includes power a. whitener
a. to drive empty b. polisher
b. to drive at horizontal c. sifter
c. to drive vertical d. all of the above
d. all of the above
132. Recommended for conveying product with less damage.
127. A conveyor with high power requirement per unit capacity. a. bucket elevator
a. bucket b. screw conveyor
b. belt c. belt conveyor
c. pneumatic d. all of the above
d. all of the above
133. An air moving device commonly used for drying which produces
128. An air moving device suitable for grain cleaning. high pressure but low airflow.
a. axial fan a. blower
b. propeller fan b. fan
c. cross flow fan c. compressor
d. all of the above d. none of the above
129. If the diameter of a blower is increased, the pressure will 134. Recommended to remove metallic element during conveying.
a. increase a. screen separator
b. decrease b. magnetic separator
c. the same c. pneumatic separator
c. whitener
28 29
135. A machine that separates brown rice from paddy. 140. A type of whitener consisting of a fluted roller rotating inside the
a. scalper hexagonal chamber with slot-type perforations.
b. paddy separator a. abrasive-type whitener
c. rice whitener b. frictional-type whitener
d. paddy husker c. all of the above
136. The speed of fixed rubber roll from the adjustable roller on a
rubber roll huller is slower by 141. Commonly used material handling equipment.
a. 20 % a. bucket elevator
b. 25 % b. screw conveyor
c. 30 % c. belt conveyor
d. none of the above d. all of the above
137. A machine that is used to remove the bran from the brown rice. 142. A conveyor which is essentially made of an endless belt operating
a. polisher between two or more pulleys with its load supported by idlers.
b. grader a. bucket elevator
c. whitener b. screw conveyor
d. none of the above c. pneumatic conveyor
138. A machine that is used to make milled rice shiny after removing
the bran layer. 143. A conveyor used for fine materials and is made of a helical plate
a. polisher which rotates on a trough and moves the product by dragging.
b. grader a. chain conveyor
c. whitener b. pneumatic conveyor
d. none of the above c. screw conveyor
139. A machine that is used to segregate various fractions/sizes of
milled rice. 144. A material handling equipment which consists of cups attached to
a. whitener a chain or belt that revolves around a bottom-and-top pulley where
b. grader the cups are discharged.
a. chain conveyor b. Glass jar
b. belt conveyor c. Dessicator
c. bucket elevator d. All of the above
30 31
145. A conveyor which utilizes high terminal velocity air to move the 150. It is the ability of the machine to remove hulls from the grains.
product. a. Coefficient of hulling
a. vibratory conveyor b. Hulling percentage
b. screw conveyor c. Husking efficiency
c. pneumatic conveyor d. All of the above
151. Outer layer of brown rice consisting of aleurone cells covering the
146. It is the method of determining grain moisture by directly endosperm of the rice grain
extracting the moisture from the product. a. Hull
a. Primary method b. Embrayo
b. Secondary method c. Bran
c. Tertiary method d. All of the above
152. The ASAE standard agricultural pallet bin for square shape bin.
147. An example of moisture determination using primary method a. 100 cm x 100 cm
a. Resistance type meter b. 120 cm x 120 cm
b. Capacitance type meter c. 150 cm x 150 cm
c. Oven d. none of the above
d. All of the above
153. The ASAE standard agricultural pallet bin for rectangular shape
148. It is a method of determining moisture from the product which is bin
based on the electrical properties of the product a. 120 cm x 100 cm
a. Primary method b. 150 cm x 120 cm
b. Secondary method c. 150 cm x 100 cm
c. Tertiary method d. none of the above
154. Overall height of agricultural pallet bin as recommended by
149. A device used in oven-drying to prevent dehydrated samples to re- ASAE.
adsorb moisture while undergoing cooling process a. 72 or 133 cm
a. Distilling flask b. 62 or 122 cm
c. 52 or 112 cm c. compact powered product
32 33
155. An auger capable of discharging materials to one or more 160. The husking ratio of rubber roll huller is about
locations. a. 60-70 %
a. feeding auger b. 80-90 %
b. portable auger c. 95-98 %
c. distributing auger d. none of the above
161. A rice thresher that is fed at one end and discharges threshed
156. An auger which releases conveyed materials essentially uniformly product at the other end is
along a substantial portion of its length. a. radial-type thresher
a. feeding auger b. hold on type thresher
b. portable auger c. axial-flow thresher
c. distributing auger d. none of the above
162. Commonly used threshing units for throw-in type thresher
157. An auger whose accessories include a suitable support system a. peg-tooth
which provides mobility. b. wire loop
a. feeding auger c. rasp bar
b. portable auger d. none of the above
c. distributing auger
d. none of the above 163. Part of rice thresher that causes the movement of panicles from
one end to the other end of the threshing cylinder.
158. Auger size refers to a. louvers
a. the diameter of the auger b. concave
b. inside diameter of the auger tube c. pegs
c. outside diameter of the auger tube d. none of the above
164. The recommended rpm of rice thresher cylinder.
159. Hammer mills are designed purposely to a. 400-600 rpm
a. chop forage materials b. 800-1200 rpm
b. reduce the sizes of granular products b. 2000-3000 rpm
c. none of the above c. Percentage milling capacity
34 35
165. It is a dehulled paddy but the bran layer remains intact. 170. It is an unhulled grain of Oryza sativa
a. Rough rice a. Palay
b. Milled rice b. Paddy
c. Brown rice c. Rough rice
166. Measures the ability of the machine to remove hulls with minimum 171. An auxillary device of a rice mil which receives the remaining
breakage small bran particles of milled rice and gives a glossy appearance to
a. Coefficient of hulling the product
b. Coefficient of breakage a. Whitener
c. Coefficient of wholeness b. Grader
d. All of the above c. Polisher
d. All of the above
167. It is the extent by which the bran layer of brown rice is removed as
a result of whitening 172. An example of rice huller
a. Milling degree a. Steel-fluted
b. Degree of whitening b. Rubber roll
c. Milling recovery c. Disk
d. All of the above d. Centrifugal
e. All of the above
168. A multi-pass rice mill is determined by
a. having two or three separate hullers in the system 173. A process of reducing the corn kernel into pieces of grits, germ,
b. having a series of two or three whitening machines and pericarp with or without conditioning
c. paddy is loaded several times in the rice mill a. Dry milling
d. none of the above b. Hammer milling
c. Attrition milling
169. It is the ratio of the weight of milled rice to the weight of paddy d. None of the above
multiplied by one hundred
a. Percentage head rice recovery 174. A machine used to remove the germ and pericarp from the corn
b. Percentage milling recovery kernel
a. Conditioner
b. De-germinator
c. Corn mill
36 37
175. A major component of a corn mill used to reduce corn kernel into 179. It is the process of rewetting of dried corn kernels to about 18 to
grits 22% moisture content and tempered to make the pericarp and the
a. Roller mill germ more pliable and easier to remove during de-germination
b. Ball mill process
c. Attrition mill a. Tempering
d. All of the above b. Conditioning
c. Drying
176. A kind of cleaner that uses air to separate lower density material d. None of the
from corn kernel/corn grits such as floured corn, germ, and bran
a. Aspirator 180. A storage system for holding buffer stocks and are is usually
b. Oscillating screen located at shipping receiving terminals
c. Cleaner a. Village level storage system
d. Cyclone separator b. Commercial level storage system
e. All of the above c. Centralized storage system
d. All of the above
177. A kind of rice mill that employs only one whitening machine
a. Kiskisan rice mill 181. It is a storage structure made of pre-fabricated reinforcement
b. Single pass rice mill concrete of pre-fabricated metal siding, which is either a hopper
c. Rubber roll rice mill bottom or a flat bottom.
d. None of the above a. Warehouse
b. Silo
178. Minimum hulling efficiency requirement for rice mill based on the c. Bulk container
standard performance criterion. d. All of the above
a. 90%
b. 80% 182. Size of wire mesh used in storage to protect stored product from
c. 70% insects and rodents
d. None of the above a. inch mesh
b. inch mesh
c. inch mesh
d. All of the above
a. less than 2.0
b. between 2 to 3
c. more than 3.0
38 39
183. GPEP stands for 188. The uneven expansion and contraction of the inner and outer layers
a. Grain Productivity Enhancement Project of the grains that cause fissuring is a factor of
b. Grain Productivity enhancement Program a. Mechanical stress
c. Grain Production Enhancement Program b. Thermal stress
d. All of the above c. Physical stress
d. All of the above
184. Areas of concern of Philippine Postharvest Industry e. None of the above
a. Research and development
b. Training, extension, and commercialization 189. Broken rice is a quality deterioration index during
c. Postharvest facility assistance a. Drying
d. Government support to the private sector b. Threshing
e. All of the above c. Milling
f. None of the above d. None of the above
185. It is the fibrous layer of paddy when hull is removed and is 190. Changes in texture, odor, flavor, and nutritive value of grains
frequently known as the silver skin of brown rice during prolonged storage, even in the absence of insects and
a. Lemma and Palea microorganisms, are due to
b. Pericarp a. moisture and temperature
c. Bran layer b. vapor pressure and temperature
d. None of the above c. Vapor pressure and moisture
d. All of the above
186. The free space between the husk of rough rice and the brown rice e. None of the above
kernel greatly affects milling in the sense that
a. the larger the free space increases the amount of broken grains 191. It is recommended that paddy should be harvested when 80% of
b. the smaller the free space the lesser its abrasive effect to the the panicle are fully ripe for that reason that
rubber roll huller a. harvesting paddy below 80% will produce more broken grains
c. the larger the free space, the smaller the breakage and losses b. harvesting paddy above 80% will produce more empty grains
d. all of the above c. harvesting paddy above 80% will produce more shattered and
broken grains
187. Slender type paddy has a length to width ratio of d. All of the above
40 41
192. It is the manual method of harvesting paddy using yatab 195. It is the process which is the result of diffusion from region of
a. Sickle harvesting high concentration to region of low concentration
b. Panicle harvesting a. Energy transfer
c. Stripper harvesting b. Mass transfer
d. All of the above c. Heat transfer
193. Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be dried to 14%. If the initial
weight of corn is 1000 kilos, what is its final weight? 196. In grain drying theory, drying will occur if
a. 782 kg a. the vapor pressure of grains is higher than the vapor pressure of
b. 827 kg air
c. 872 kg b. the vapor pressure of grains is lower than the vapor pressure of
d. None of the above air
c. the vapor pressure of grains is equal with the vapor pressure of
192. What is the moisture loss of corn grains above? air
a. 128 kg d. None of the above
b. 173 kg
c. 218 kg 197. The usual depth of grain in deep bed batch dryer is
d. None of the above a. 18 inches
b. 2 to 8 ft
193. It is a plot representing the equilibrium moisture content of grains c. 8 to 10 ft
at different relative humidity but with constant temperature d. None of the above
a. Isothermal graph
b. Sorption isotherms 198. What is the relative humidity of air if the psychrometer measures
c. Isothermal humidity 40 C for both dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures?
d. None of the above a. 40%
b. 80%
194. Factors that cause migration of moisture during storage c. 100%
a. variation of ambient temperature within the grain mass d. All of the above
b. moisture gradient within the grain mass
c. all of the above
42 43
199. If the point is moved horizontally to the left of the psychrometric 203. Maximum speed requirement of vertical abrasive whitening cone
chart, the process is machine
a. Heating a. 13 m/s
b. Cooling b. 14 m/s
c. Drying c. 15 m/s
200. If the end-product in milling is brown rice, the grain has just 204. Normal setting speed of horizontal abrasive whitener
passed through a a. 800 rpm
a. Paddy cleaner b. 1000 rpm
b. Rubber roll huller c. 1200 rpm
c. Whitener d. None of the above
d. Sifter
e. None of the above 205. Recommended clearance setting between stones of a disk huller
a. of the length of paddy
201. What machine is usually used before brown rice will undergo b. of the length of paddy
whitening process c. of the length of paddy
a. Husker d. All of the above
b. Aspirator
c. Paddy separator 206. If the rubber roll huller becomes worn-out, the peripheral speed of
d. Rice polisher the roller will
e. None of the above a. decrease
b. increase
202. Adjustment clearance for rubber brakes in vertical abrasive c. be the same
whitening cone d. none of the above
a. 1 to 2 mm from cone coating
b. 2 to 3 mm from cone coating 207. It is the process of compressing mash feeds with the aid of live
c. 3 to 4 mm from cone coating steam to produce small chunks or cylinders of feed.
d. None of the above a. Mixing
b. Crumbling
c. Pelleting a. Horizontal mixer
d. All of the above b. Inclined mixer
c. Vertical mixer
d. All of the above
44 45
208. It is the process of grinding pellets into coarse granular form. 213. It is the assembling and measuring out of the required qualities of
a. Coarse pelleting solid raw feed materials into a batch of the desired composition.
b. Crumbling a. Mixing
c. Milling b. Blending
d. None of the above c. Pelleting
d. All of the above
209. A feed mixer which have an auger that elevates the feed on top of
the mixing bin and spread evenly in the bin by gravity for another 214. Feed materials are mixed purposely to _______
mixing cycle. a. obtain homogenous feed to ensure that animals are given the
a. Horizontal mixer same proportions of nutrient
b. Vertical mixer b. reduce the density of the feed material so that it can be easily
c. Inclined mixer transported.
d. All of the above c. improve the digestability of feeds.
210. A mixer which consist of a U shaped bin which contains a central
mixing blade or ribbon mounted on a rotating shaft. 215. Grinding feeds basically will ____
a. Horizontal mixers a. make the feed attractive to the animals.
b. Inclined mixer b. improve digestability of feeds materials.
c. Vertical mixer c. improved storage period of the feeds.
211. Feed mixers that is characterized by high capacity, short mixing 216. Average velocity of hammer tip of a hammer mill.
time, and high power requirement. a. 50 m/s
a. Horizontal mixer b. 100 m/s
b. Inclined mixer c. 150 m/s
c. Vertical mixer d. None of the above
d. All of the above
212. Feed mixer that is characterized by low capacity. longer mixing

time, and low power requirement.
b. Grit
c. Bran
d. Pericarp
e. None of the above
46 47
217. It is used to control the flow of materials in a feed milling plant to 222. By-product in corm milling refers to _____.
ensure that it will enters in the full width of the mill chamber and a. corn grit # 20 and # 24
at the same time optimum capacity is obtained while the motor is b. corn grit # 16 and #18
overloaded. c. corn grit # 12 and #14
a. Discharge chute d. All of the above
b. Feeder
c. Auger 223. It is a milled corn kernel with particle size between 1.5 mm to 1.7
d. None of the above mm.
a. Corn grit # 12
218. Optimum mixing time of vertical-type feed mixer b. Corn grit # 14
a. 5 minutes c. Corn grit # 16
b. 10 minutes d. Corn grit # 18
c. 15 minutes e. All of the above
224. It is a milled corn kernel with particle size between 1.10mm to
219. Approximate speed of horizontal type feed mixer. 1.19 mm.
a. 10 rpm a. Corn grit # 12
b. 15 rpm b. Corn grit # 14
c. 25 rpm c. Corn grit # 16
d. None of the above d. Corn grit # 18
e. All of the above
220. Required mixing time for horizontal feed mixer.
a. 5 minutes 225. It is a by-product after pressing copra when oil having light color and
b. 10 minutes very low fatty acids has been removed.
c. 15 minutes a. Copra meal
d. None of the above b. Copra meat
c. Copra cake
221. It is a coarse powder from outer covering of the corn kernel d. None of the above
removed during milling process.
a. Corn cob
48 49
226. It is the process of rewetting of dried corn kernels to about 18 to 230. It is the major component of a corn mill that reduce corn kernel
22% moisture content and tempered to make the pericarp and the into grits.
germ more pliable and easier to remove during degermination a. Burr mill
process. b. Hammer mill
a. wet milling c. Steel roller mill
b. degermination process d. All of the above
c. conditioning
d. none of the above 231. It is the minimum main product recovery required in the
performance criteria for corn mill.
227. The main product of corn milling. a. 44%
a. Corn grit # 10 b. 54%
b. Corn grit # 12 c. 64 %
c. Corn grit # 14 d. None of the above
d. Corn grit # 16
e. All of the above 232. Shelled corn kernels where the germ and pericarp have been
removed.
228. It is the milled corn kernel where the outer covering and germs a. Milled corn kernel
have been removed and with particle size of not less than 0.86 b. Degerminated corn kernel
mm.. c. Polished corn kernel
a. broken corn kernel d. None of the above
b. cracked corn kernel
c. corn grits 233. It is the ratio of the weight of corn kernel input to the total
d. None of the above operating time.
a. Input capacity
229. It is the ratio of the weight of corn grits to the total weight of corn b. Output capacity
kernel input expressed in percent. c. Milling capacity
a. % input capacity d. All of the above
b. % main product recovery
c. % milling recovery 234. It is the minimum by-product recovery required in the performance
d. all of the above criteria for corn mill.
a. 21 %
b. 31%
c. 41%
50 51
235. A rice processing plant operates at 5 tons per hour. The milling 239. It is the process of subjecting food product to a temperature of
and head rice recoveries of the rice mill are 69% and 95%, about 65 C for 30 min which causes the death of many but not all
respectively. What is the input capacity of the rice mill? of the organism present.
a. 7.24 tons per hour a. dehydration
b. 3.45 tons per hour b. sterilization
c. 4.75 tons per hour c. pasteurization
d. None of the above d. none of the above
236. What is the throughput rate of the rice mill in kg broken grains per 240. It is the termination of entire organism in the product using heat at
hour? a temperature of about 50 to 100 C.
a. 0.172 ton per hour a. pasteurization
b. 0.250 ton per hour b. heat sterilization
c. 0.350 ton per hour c. dehydration
e. none of the above d. none of the above
237. If the machine rice huller has a hulling coefficient of 0.90 and 241. It is the process of removing solid particles from liquid such as
wholeness coefficient of 0.80, what is the output in kg of brown wine, fruit juices, vinegar, and vegetable oil.
rice per hour of the rice huller in problem above? a. screening
a. 6.52 tons per hour b. filtration
b. 4.50 tons per hour c. leaching
c. 4.00 tons per hour d. none of the above
242. A process of segregating alcohol, sugar, and some soluble
238. It is the process of preserving food materials in hermetically-sealed materials with the use of water.
container which has been sterilized with the use of heat. a. leaching
a. drying b. hydrolysis
b. canning c. water adsorption
c. steaming d. none of the above
52 53
243. A process of separating volatile compound from less volatile 247. A process which is used to clean fruits and vegetables to soften the
materials. dirt and other foreign materials adhering to the skin thus making
a. distilling the washing by spray more efficient.
b. leaching a. water soaking
c. diffusing b. water agitation
c. none of the above c. scalding
244. One ton nuts is equivalent to _______
a. 4000 pieces of nuts 248. A term given to the process of heating fruits and vegetables in live
b. 5000 pieces of nuts steam or in water before canning to clean, to reduce volume, to
c. 6000 pieces of nuts eliminate undesirable flavor or odor, and to remove slime forming-
d. None of the above materials.
a. scalding
245. The process of separating coarse from fine materials. b. blanching
a. sifting c. sterilizing
b. cleaning d. none of the above
c. sorting
d. none of the above 249. It is an instrument that is used to determine the salt content of
brine.
246. It is a device that separates materials such as oil from water, and a. hydrometer
crystals from mother liquor by means of whirling action. b. pH meter
a. liquid separator c. manometer
b. centrifuge d. none of the above
c. crystalizer
d. none of the above 250. It is the weight of animal minus 3 percent of its total weight to
account for the content of the digestive tract.
a. slaughter weight
b. live weight
c. dead weight
54 55
251. It is the weight of carcass or meat and bones together with the fat 255. Drying temperature of copra is
and first-and second-class by-product of an animal. a. less than 50 C
a. slaughter weight b. between 50 to 95 C
b. dead weight c. above 95 C
c. live weight d. none of the above
256. A spiral kind of positive displacement pump used in food industry
252. It is a facility where the primary processing of animal yielding wherein the product comes into contact with a flexible kind of
meat carcasses, raw fat, internal organ, and hides are carried out. materials instead of steel and in which air is utilized as a displacing
a. slaughter house medium
b. dressing Plant a. Peristaltic pump
c. animal Butchering Plant b. Jet pump
d. all of the above c. Diaphragm pump
d. All of the above
253. Pump commonly used in food processing industry.
a. Piston displacement pump 257. An equipment used in food industry for feeding solid/liquid
b. Rotary displacement pump mixture into a screw press or wringers in the form of sheets, rods,
c. Centrifugal pump or other shapes
d. None of the above a. Extruder
b. Screw press
254. A type of pump used in food industry that is characterized by c. Screw feeder
pulsating or periodic output d. All of the above
a. Piston displacement pump
b. Rotary displacement pump 258. A process of combining different materials until a certain degree of
c. Centrifugal pump homogeneity is achieved.
d. All of the above a. Milling
b. Mixing
c. Feeding
b. Chocolate
c. Juices
d. All of the above
56 57
259. Basically, the purpose of mixing is 264. An example of Non-Newtonian fluid with high viscosity
a. To promote the transfer of heat between hot or cold product a. Juices
b. To obtain good contact between materials being mixed b. Drinks
c. To promote reactions between reactants c. Mashed vegetables
e. Two of the above
265. It is the prevention or the protection of products against spoilage.
260. A type of mixer suitable for free flowing or non-free flowing a. Preservation
materials. b. Drying
a. Rotating mixer without stirrers c. Dehydration
b. Rotating mixer with stirrers d. None of the above
c. All of the above
d. Two of the above 266. A process of preservation by means of heating the product at a
temperature below 100 C to kill pathogenic bacteria
261. A machine used for mixing solids and liquids in such a ratio that a. Drying
very viscous mixture is formed such as paste and doughs. b. Dehydration
a. Kneader c. Pasteurization
b. Roller d. All of the above
c. Mixer
d. None of the above 267. A type of dryer commonly used in food industry where dried
materials are injected in the dryer in automized form to produce
262. An equipment used for heating and cooling of flowing products. powdered product
a. Condenser a. Spray dryer
b. Evaporator b. Drum dryer
c. Heat exchanger c. Pneumatic dryer
263. An example of Newtonian fluids of low viscosity

a. Soup
268. A drying technology which has the ability to maintain the original c. Frying
appearance of the product with no shrinkage, retain shape and d. None of the above
structure.
a. Heated air drying
b. Conduction drying
c. Freeze drying
d. All of the above
58 59
269. It is the complete destruction of all forms of life in the product 273. A process of pumping product against a steel plate through a very
being processed. small opening of 0.0001 diameter at a pressure of about 3500 psi
a. Cooking to reduce the size of fat globule such as those in milk, mayonnaise,
b. Sterilization and others to a point that fats have no tendency to rise.
c. Pasteurization a. Homogenizing
d. None of the above b. Conching
c. Pressing
270. It is the process of heating the product nearly at boiling point to d. None of the above
render it stable against spoilage by microorganism.
a. Cooking 274. It is the process often used in heating of can and its content under
b. Sterilization vacuum condition to remove air and other entrapped gases before
c. Pasteurization sealing.
d. None of the above a. Exhausting
b. Sterilizing
271. It is the indicator of the quality of food which determines whether c. Heating
or not it is acceptable to the consumers. d. All of the above
a. Taste
b. Flavor 275. A process used for many food products by giving deaeration
c. Palatability treatment to improve the color, flavor, aroma retention, or reduce
d. None of the above the volume of the product.
a. Degassing
272. It is the process applied in the manufacture of chocolate and b. Blending
similar products to produce a very marked effect on appearance c. Exhausting
and flavor through the elimination of moisture, harshness, and d. All of the above
acidity.
a. Conching
b. Roasting
276. A process usually applied to nuts and beans of various sorts in b. Sulfuring
order to bring about a desired flavor rather than to effect on c. Sterilizing
sterilization. d. All of the above
a. Drying
b. Blanching
c. Roasting
d. Pasteurization
60 61
277. A processing used in canning in which there is rigid regulation of 281. Roasting temperature for pumpkin seeds, sunflower seeds, and
the cooking temperature in such a manner that packages are not peanuts
misshapen or broken by too rapid cooling a. 200-250 F
a. Tempering b. 250-300 F
b. Freezing c. 300-350 F
c. Refrigeration d. None of the above
282. Pre-drying temperature requirement for mushroom
278. Brown spots on dried vegetables is caused by
a. 80-90 F
a. Too high drying temperature used
b. Low drying temperature used b. 120-125 F
c. Optimum drying temperature used c. 250-300 F
e. All of the above
279. A pretreatment method used for vegetables to destroy enzymes that
can cause undesirable changes in color and flavor during drying 283. A case formed like a leathery material over the outside of very
and storage. high sugar food such as fruit which doesnt allow water to pass
a. Cleaning through during drying is a factor of
b. Blanching a. Slow drying
c. Drying b. Rapid drying
d. None of the above c. Normal drying
280. A pretreatment method for fruits and vegetables to retard spoilage
and darkening of fruits 284. Pretreatment of fruits and vegetables are recommended to
a. Blanching
a. stop enzymatic activity which results in color, flavor, and d. none of the above
nutrient losses or changes
b. stop ripening and spoilage 289. Sulfured food are recommended for storage using
c. hasten drying rate and improve storageability of the product a. Metal can container
d. none of the above b. Plastic container
c. Bottle with can cover container
d. All of the above
62 63
285. Another term used for citric acid 290. Recommended temperature for drying vegetables
a. Table salt a. 125 F
b. Lemon salt b. 150 F
c. Acid salt c. 175 F
d. All of the above
e. 200 F
f. All of the above
286. Requirements for a good dehydrator
a. Some form of temperature control
291. Which of the following statement is true
b. A fan to circulate air and remove moisture
a. Different foods requiring similar drying times and temperature
c. Easily removable and washable trays
can be dried together
d. All of the above
b. Vegetables with strong odors or flavor should be dried
separately
287. Rotating trays or exchanging trays on a dehydrator when drying
c. Dont dry strong-smelling vegetables outside in an electric
fruits and vegetables is recommended for the purpose of
dehydrator because dehydrators are not screened and insect
a. to reduce drying time
may invade the food
b. to increase the efficiency of the dryer
d. All of the above
c. to promote even drying of product
292. Sulfur treatment on fruits and vegetables can be replaced by
288. Conditioning dried fruits after drying basically is done to
a. Sulfite dips
a. allow moisture to equalize through all the food so that there
b. Steam blanching
will no damp spots where mold will grow
c. Water blanching
b. increase the quality of dried fruit prior to packaging
d. All of the above
c. improve the color and taste of fruit
e. None of the above a. Fruit rolls
b. Dried fruit
293. An example of chemicals used as sulfite dips c. Fruit leathers
a. sodium bisulfite d. All of the above
b. sodium sulfite
c. sodium metabisulfite
e. all of the above
64 65
294. Pasteurizing is recommended for foods that had been contaminated 298. Drying time requirement for solid yellow or slightly brown-flecked
or used as second treatment for vegetables held in storage if the bananas in a dehydrator
vegetables do not have any mold on them a. 4-8 hours
a. Before drying b. 8-10 hours
b. Before and during storage c. 10- 16 hours
c. After storage d. All of the above
d. All of the above
e. None of the above 299. It is the process of decomposition of carbohydrates by
microorganism or enzyme.
295. Commonly methods used for pasteurizing foods a. Fermentation
a. Freezing and oven drying b. Spoilage
b. Steaming and Blanching c. Preservation
c. Boiling and drying d. None of the above
d. All of the above
e. None of the above 300. It is the preservation of food in brine or vinegar with or without
bacterial fermentation.
296. Recommended storage time for dried food a. Pickling
a. 2 4 months b. Salting
b. 4 12 months c. Blanching
c. 12 24 months d. None of the above
d. all of the above
301. A pre-treatment procedure to keep the color and quality of
297. Fruits rolls that is characterized by tasty chewy dried fruit made by vegetable before drying.
pouring pursed fruit into a flat surface for drying a. Trimming
b. Blanching 305. It is the aseptic practice in the preparation, processing, and
c. Salting packaging of food products.
d. None of the above a. cleaning
b. sanitation
c. housekeeping
66
302. It is the process of boiling whole fruits or pieces of fruit pulp with 67
sugar to a moderate thick consistency, without retaining the shape 306. Substances used to prevent food by retarding deterioration,
of the fruit. rancidity, or discoloration due to oxidation.
a. Jams a. Additives
b. Jellies b. Antioxidants
c. Marmalades c. Emulsifiers
303. It is a product prepared by extracting the juice from boiled fruits, 307. Substances that modify surface tension in the component phase of
and then boiled with sugar and cooked to such consistency that an emulsion to establish a uniform dispersion.
gelatinization takes place when cooled. a. Additives
a. Jams b. Antioxidants
b. Jellies c. Emulsifiers
c. Marmalades d. None of the above
d. All of the above
308. Any substance including a food additive used as a component in
304. It is a clear jelly which contains evenly suspended slices of fruits the manufacture or preparation of a food and present in the final
or peel. product.
a. Jam a. Nutrients
b. Jellies b. Microelement
c. Marmalades c. Ingredients
309. Any tag, brand, mark, pictorial, or other descriptive matter, written, a. Sublimation
printed, marked, embossed or impressed on, or attached to a b. Heat of fusion
container of food. c. Refrigeration
a. Nutrition facts d. All of the above
b. Label
c. Trademark 314. Heat moves from a substance naturally to another substance
d. None of the above a. At a higher temperature to lower temperature
b. At lower temperature to higher temperature
c. At either temperature
68 69
310. Canning temperature for fruits, tomatoes, and pickles in water bath 315. It is the intensity of the molecular movement of matter
canner. a. Energy
a. 115 deg C b. Heat
b. 100 deg C c. Work
c. 74 deg C d. All of the above
316. A substance is cold if
311. Canning temperature for low-acid vegetables, meat and poultry in a. Heat is present
pressure canner. b. Heat is absent
a. 115 deg C c. Heat is higher
b. 100 deg C d. All of the above
c. 74 deg C
d. None of the above 317. The quantity of heat in the substance is described in terms of
a. BTU
312. Cooking temperature that destroys most bacteria in foods b. Calories
a. 115 deg C c. Pascal
b. 100 deg C d. All of the above
c. 74 deg C
d. None of the above 318. Ten BTU is equivalent to
a. 2520 calories
313. It is the process of removing heat from a substance or a space at a b. 2250 calories
lower temperature. c. 2045 calories
d. None of the above c. Latent heat
319. One-hundred calories is equivalent to
a. 418.7 Joules 324. The specific heat of water is
b. 481.7 Joules a. 1 BTU/lb-F
c. 471.8 Joules b. 1 kcal/kg-C
d. None of the above c. 1 cal/g-C
d. All of the above
70 71
320. An instrument used to measure heat is 325. It is the amount of heat added or removed from a substance without
a. Thermometer changing its temperature.
b. Watt meter a. Sensible heat
c. Calorimeter b Latent heat
d. None of the above c. Specific heat
d. All of the above
321. It is the measurement of the heat level of a substance
a. Thermometer 326. It is the heat added or removed from a substance causing a change
b. Temperature in its state without changing its temperature.
c. Calorimeter a. Sensible heat
d. All of the above b. Latent heat
c. Specific heat
322. Which of the following statement is true d. All of the above
a. The freezing point of water is 0 F
b. The boiling point of water is 212 C 327. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit mass of a liquid
c. That 32 F and 0 C is the same temperature level into gaseous state without change in temperature.
d. None of the above a. Latent heat of vaporization
b. Latent heat of fusion
323. It is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a c. Latent heat condensation
substance one degree scale d. None of the above
a. Sensible heat
b. Specific heat
328. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit mass of solid to 333. The amount of heat transmitted to a wall is a factor of
liquid state without change in temperature. a. Wall thickness
a. Latent heat of vaporization b. Temperature difference
b. Latent heat of fusion c. Resistance of heat flow of the wall materials
c. Latent heat of sublimation d. All of the above
d. All of the above
334. A material with high emissivity _________.
329. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit mass of gas to a. will collect more heat
liquid state without change in temperature. b. will not collect heat
a. Latent heat of vaporization c. will transmit heat
b. Latent heat of condensation d. None of the above
c. Latent heat of fusion
d. All of the above
72
330. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit mass of solid to 73
gas without 335. The basic uses of insulating materials for refrigeration system are
change in temperature a. To retard heat flow
a. Latent heat of fusion b. To prevent surface condensation
b. Latent heat of vaporization c. To control noise and vibration
c. Latent heat of sublimation d. All of the above
336. Which of the following insulating materials for refrigeration
331. The latent heat of fusion of water is system is efficient and least expensive?
a. 336 kJ/kg a. Asbestos
b. 144 BTU/lb b. Styrofoam
c. All of the above c. Aluminum foil
332. At a higher elevation, 337. It is the amount or quantity of current flowing in a circuit
a. Water will boil at 100 C a. Voltage
b. Water will boil above 100 C b. Amperage
c. Water will boil below 100 C c. Ohms
d. Water will not boil d. None of the above
338. It is the electrical pressure of a circuit

a. Voltage
b. Amperage 343. It is a fluid that easily boils at a lower temperature
c. Ohms a. Water
d. None of the above b. Oil
c. Refrigerant
339. It is the cooling coil of a refrigeration system d. All of the above
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator 344. One ton refrigeration is the amount of heat required to melt one ton
c. Compressor of ice in
d. None of the above a. 12 hours
b. 24 minutes
c. One day
74 75
340. It is the basic part of a refrigeration system which is characterized 345. One ton refrigeration is equal to
by a high pressure side. a. 288,000 BTU/day
a. Condenser b. 12,000 BTU/hr
b. Evaporator c. 200 BTU/min
c. Expansion valve d. all of the above
d. All of the above
346. An example of refrigerant
341. It is the part of a refrigeration system that causes the circulation of a. Ammonia
a refrigerant b. Carbon monoxide
a. Condenser c. Methyl bromide
b. Expansion valve d. All of the above
c. Compressor
d. None of the above 347. Commonly used refrigerant in ice plants.
a. Ammonia
342. A part of a refrigeration system that causes the reduction of b. Carbon dioxide
pressure of the refrigerant. c. Methyl chloride
a. Evaporator d. None of the above
b. Compressor 348. A refrigeration appliance that operates at a higher temperature
c. Expansion valve a. No-frost refrigerator
d. All of the above b. Air-conditioner
c. Domestic freezer d. None of the above
d. All of the above
353. The difference between dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures
349. The introduction of fresh ambient air to an air-conditioned or a. Wet bulb depression
refrigerated space b. Relative humidity
a. Cooling c. Dew point temperature
b. Air changes d. None of the above
c. Air filtration
76 77
350. It is the removal of accumulated ice from the surfaces of cooling 354. The temperature at which a liquid is converted to solid state upon
coils which operate below freezing point the removal
a. Dehumidification of its latent heat of fusion.
b. Defrosting a. Cooling point
c. Ice melting b. Solid point
d. None of the above c. Freezing point
351. A refrigeration system which can be used either to cool or to heat
a given space, normally by exchanging the functions of the 355. To reduce the relative humidity of air, it is recommended to use a
evaporator and the condenser. a a. Humidifier
a. Heat pump b. Dehumidifier
b. Humidifier c. Psychrometer
c. Dehumidifier d. None of the above
356. In a domestic refrigerator, the condenser can be found
352. Air that is flowing into a space through gaps around doors, a. Inside the refrigerator cabinet
windows, and others. b. Outside the refrigerator cabinet
a. Air intake c. Beneath the freezer
b. Air changes d. None of the above
c. Infiltration
357. Freezers in refrigerator compartment are normally found at the 362. The use of plastic polyethylene sheet as packaging material for
upper section of cold storage is
the cabinet for the reason that a. to provide heat insulating effect on the product
a. It is easy to load product to the freezer b. to make the product attractive to the customer
b. It is easy to install the freezer in the cabinet c. to prevent moisture loss in the product
c. Heat will efficiently be distributed to the refrigerator d. none of the above
compartment
e. None of the above 363. The purpose of refrigeration in storing perishable product is
a. to improve the quality of the product
358. Chilling injury of banana will occur at a temperature b. to arrest or retard the natural process of deterioration
a. Below 27 C c. to hasten ripening or maturity of product such as fruits and
b. Below 14 C vegetables
c. Below 5 C d. all of the above
d. All of the above
78 79
359. Lowest temperature that is safe for storage of banana 364. It is the process of exposing freshly-harvested product and
carefully-prepared food to subzero temperatures and holding them
a. Below 14 C
at 32 C during storage period to maintain the quality of the
b. Below 5 C
products
c. Below 0 C a. Cold storage
d. All of the above b. Quick freezing
c. Sharp freezing
360. When a product is termed as frozen storage, it is d. All of the above
a. chilled and stored above freezing point
b. the product is stored between -10 F to 10 F 365. If vegetables are stored at a temperature between 0 C to 30 C, the
c. the product is stored at 10 F to 50 F product is under
d. All of the above a. Frozen storage
b. Refrigerated storage
361. Another important factors in cold storage of perishable products c. All of the above
are . . . d. None of the above
a. Energy and power requirement inside the storage room
b. Temperature and heat loss in the storage room 366. Important factor that contributes in proper refrigeration of
c. Humidity and air motion inside the storage room perishable crops is
d. None of the above a. Constant temperature
b. Free air circulation
c. Control of relative humidity 371. A process of retarding moisture and oxidation loss from the
d. All of the above product during cold storage by providing a continuous film or
coating that will adhere to the surface of the product.
367. It is the process of heating vegetables in steam or in boiling water a. Blaching
to inactivate enzymes and reduce microbial population thereby b. Thawing
prolonging storage at subfreezing temperature c. Glazing
a. Dehydration d. None of the above
b. Blanching
c. Drying 372. A freezer that operates at an air temperature of -30 F and below
d. None of the above and a velocity of 500 to 100 fpm
a. Sharp freezer
b. Air-blast freezer
c. Contact plate freezer
d. All of the above
80 81
368. Most favorable cold storage temperature for eggs 373. A freezer used for fish product wherein the products are placed in
a. 29 30 C shelves or in aluminum pans or plates covered by pipe coils or
b. 29 30 F evaporators at a temperature of 20 to - 29 C
c. 28 F a. Sharp freezer
d. None of the above b. Air-blast freezer
c. Contact plate freezer
369. Freezing temperature for eggs d. All of the above
a. 29 30 C
374. Freezing point of milk
b. 29 30 F a. - 0.545 C
c. 28 F b. - 0.545 F
d. None of the above c. 0. 545 C
370. Factors that change during cold storage of fish due to oxidation of
fish oils and pigments particularly in more fatty species of fish. 375. A frozen product made of a pasturized mixture of sugar, solid milk,
a. Color and flavor stabilizer, food acid, and flavorings such as fruits, fruit juices or
b. Color and texture extract, and water.
c. Flavor and texture a. Ice cream
d. All of the above b. Sherbet
c. Frozen milk
d. All of the above 380. In order to minimize darkening of carcass of poultry meat, it is
recommended that before cold storage poultry meat should be
376. Which of the following are used for packaging frozen poultry a. slowly be frozen and undergo scalding process
products b. frozen rapidly
a. Plastic c. undergo scalding process
b. Edible coating d. None of the above
c. Aluminum foil
d. Waxed cardboard 381. Tenderness of poultry meat can be maintained during cold storage
e. All of the above by
a. Storing it in aluminum foil
b. Storing it in plastic net
c. Storing it unpacked
d. All of the above
82 83
377. A 3 hp engine is to be replace with electric motor. Recommend for 382. Changes in the flavor of meat, fish, or poultry during freezing is
the size of the motor for the drive. due to the
a. 1 hp a. change in temperature of the product
b. 2 hp b. microorganisms that were killed during storage
c. 5 hp c. oxidation of fats
78. Frozen poultry product gave only good for a period of 383. It is a method of freezing the surface of poultry meat using mist of
a. 1 to 6 months liquid prior to storage in an air blast freezer or cold storage room
b. 6 to 12 months a. Liquid immersion freezing
c. 1 to 2 years b. Liquid spray freezing
d. All of the above c. Conveyor tunnel freezing
d. All of the above
379. Term used for the internal organs of poultry suitable for cold
storage 384. If a poultry product is stored at a temperature of 35-40 F, the
a. carcass product quality can be maintained within
b. giblets a. 1 to 2 months
c. gills b. 1 to 2 days
d. none of the above c. 1 to 2 hours
b. Refrigeration
385. It is a flesh obtained from domesticated animals c. Freeze drying
a. Carcass d. Irradiation
b. Meat e. None of the above
c. Giblets f. All of the above
391. It is a meat of less than one-year old cattle
386. It is the meat obtained from hogs a. Beef
a. Beef b. Veal
b. Pork c. Carabeef
c. Veal d. All of the above
d. All of the above
84 85
387. It is the meat of sheep that is less than one year old 392. Which of the following is true
a. Lamb a. When beef is stored at lower temperature it will have longer
b. Muttons storage life than when cold stored at higher temperature
c. Chevon b. Storing beef at lower temperature will reduce its storage life
d. None of the above c. Storing beef at higher temperature will increase its storage life
d. All of the above
388. It is the meat from rabbit
a. Lapan 393. Myoglobin content in meat is responsible for
b. Venison a. Odor of meat after cold storage
c. Chevon b. Appearance of meat
d. None of the above c. Color of meat
d. All of the above
389. It is the meat from goat e. Two of the above
a. Chevon f. None of the above
b. Venison
c. Mutton 394. It is the process of allowing meat to hang at temperature of 0 to 3
d. All of the above C to create tenderizing effect before freezing
a. Aging
390. It is the method used in preserving meat b. Freezing
a. Smoking process c. Tempering
395. Which of the following is true in cold storage of meat 399. It is a method of freezing shrimp into an agitated cold brine
a. Extreme temperature fluctuation during defrosting contributes solution of a fixed concentration and temperature
to short storage life of the meat. a. Blast freezing
b. Freezing meat and its subsequent frozen storage improves the b. Immersion freezing
quality of meat products. c. Tunnel freezing
c. Proper handling of meat prior to freezing reduces the quality of d. None of the above
frozen products.
d. None of the above 400. At 18 C scallop meat have a frozen storage life of
a. 1- 2 months
b. 3 - 6 months
c. 7 - 12 months
86
396. Freezer burn in meat product is a result of 87
a. Storing meat product in a freezer with plastic sheet to prevent 401. ASHRAE is the acronym for
moisture loss a. Association of Heat, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning
b. Storing meat product without plastic sheet at high relative Engineers
humidity b. American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air
c. Storing meat product without plastic sheet at low relative Conditioning Engineers
humidity c. Association of Sensible Heating, Refrigeration, and Air
d. None of the above Cooling Engineers
397. The recommended time for storing beef cuts at 18 C is
a. 6 to 12 months 402. An equipment that is used to clean, cool, heat, humidify, or
b. 3 to 4 months dehumidify air
c. 1 to 2 months a. Air heat exchanger
d. None of the above b. Air conditioner
c. Air-cooled condenser
398. Ground beef can be stored at 18 C within a period of d. All of the above
a. 6 to 12 months
b. 3 to 4 months 403. The process of removing moisture from air
c. 1 to 2 months a. Dehydration
b. Air suction
c. Dehumidify
d. All of the above 409. It is the cooling equipment of air conditioner
a. Condenser
404. It is the most popular refrigerant used for refrigeration system b. Evaporator
a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane) c. Compressor
b. R- 22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane) d. Expansion valve
c. R-502
d. All of the above 410. Condenser efficiency of an air conditioner can be increased by
a. reducing the condenser surface area
405. It is the most popular refrigerant for air-conditioning b. increasing the condenser surface area
a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane) c. increasing the amount of refrigerant flowing in the condenser
b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane) d. None of the above
c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115)
d. All of the above
88 89
406. A popular refrigerant for low temperature refrigeration systems 411. Operating temperature of evaporator in an air-conditioning system
a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane) a. 20 F
b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane) b. 40 F
c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115) c. 60 F
407. It is the process by which air is cooled, cleaned, and circulated 412. Refrigerated-air conditioning is used in
a. Air conditioner a. Hot temperature with high humidity
b. Air conditioning b. Hot temperature with low humidity
c. Air cooling and cleaning c. Hot temperature with high or low humidity
408. Air conditioning system wherein the condenser is located 413. A refrigerated system that cleans, dehydrates, and cools a
separately from the evaporator and uses an interconnecting compartment.
refrigerant lines a. No frost refrigerator
a. Split-system air conditioning system b. Chiller
b. Package equipment air conditioning system c. Freezer
c. All of the above d. Air conditioner
e. None of the above d. None of the above
414. Which of the following statement is true: 418. A refrigeration system component before the condenser.
a. The motor and compressor of a refrigeration system is a. Filter
separately installed. b. Evaporator
b. The motor and compressor of a refrigeration system is housed c. Capillary tube
in the same compartment. d. Compressor
c. The compressor and the motor of a refrigeration system is non- e. None of the above
hermetic type?
d. None of the above. 419. Lowest temperature zone in refrigeration system.
a. Condenser
b. Capillary tube
c. Evaporator
90 91
415. The highest pressure in the refrigeration system can be found at 420. State of refrigerant at the condenser side immediately after leaving
____. the compressor.
a. the capillary tube a. Superheated gas
b. the entrance of the evaporator coil b. Lukewarm liquid
c. the entrance of the condenser tube c. Saturated gas
d. the evaporator coil immediately before the compressor. d. None of the above
421. Sate of refrigerant at the evaporator side immediately before the
416. A refrigeration system component after the condenser. compressor.
a. Capillary tube a. Superheated gas
b. Filter b. Lukewarm liquid
c. Compressor c. Saturated gas
417. A refrigeration system component after the capillary tube. 422. A newly discovered refrigerant that is not harmful for ozone layer
a. Evaporator or referred to as ozone friendly gas.
b. Compressor a. R12
c. Condenser b. Ammonia
c. Suva Mp 52 (R-134a)
d. All of the above 428. Charging pressure for air conditioning unit using R-12 refrigerant.
a. 19 - 45 psi
423. It is a term used for the overcharging of refrigerant. b. 65 - 75 psi
a. Back frost c. 80 - 90 psi
b. Sweating d. none of the above
c. Supercharging
d. None of the above 429. A dry ice is _____.
a.. Solid H2O
424. It is a mixture of vapor and liquid. c. Solid CO2
a. Saturated gas d. Solid O2
b. Saturated liquid e. None of the above
c. Superheated gas
92 93
425. It is a mixture of liquid and gas. 430. A device used mostly in larger cooling units to cool the water that
a. Saturated gas absorbs the heat from the condenser
b. Saturated liquid a. Cold storage room
c. Superheated gas b. Cooling Tower
d. None of the above c. Heat Exchanger
426. Charging pressure for refrigerator and freezer using R-12
refrigerant. 431. When a condenser of a refrigeration system is cooling, what is the
a. 19 psi common trouble?
b. 65 psi a. Too much refrigerant
c. 75 psi b. Lacks refrigerant
d. None of the above c. No refrigerant
427. Larger floor area for the same height of wall use light _____
a. more efficiently than rooms with smaller floor area 432. It is the passage of from the outside of a leaky room caused by
b. more inefficiently than rooms with smaller floor area cracks in windows, doors, and other possible sources.
c. the same with smaller rooms a. Heat loss
d. None of the above b. Air infiltration
c. Air gap d. none of the above
438. It is the amount of heat transferred per unit temperature per unit
433. Known as Dichlorodifluoromethane used as primary refrigerant for length.
refrigerator. a. emmissivity
a. R-11 b. thermal conductivity
b. R-12 c. heat transfer coefficient
c. R-22 d. none of the above
439. When heat is transmitted through molecular waves, it is
434. Known as Monochlorodifluoromethane used a primary refrigerant transmitted by:
for aircon systems. a. convection
a. R-11 b. conduction
b. R-12 c. radiation
c. R-22 d. none of the above
94 95
435. The transfer of heat from one part of a solid body to the other 440. The amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one
under the influence degree farenheight
of temperature gradient. a. thermal capacity
a. convection b. specific heat
b. conduction c. British Thermal Unit
c. radiation d. none of the above
d. all of the above
441. It is a proportionality factor that represents the property of material
436. The transfer of heat by mixing one parcel of fluid with another. through heat conduction.
a. convection a. thermal resistivity
b. conduction b. thermal conductivity
c. radiation c. thermal coefficient
437. Shape factor for heat by conduction is expressed as: 442. Cooling meat, fruits and vegetables are examples of heat
a. A/dx transmission by:
b. K A/dx a. unsteady state conduction
c. dt/dx b. steady state conduction
c. free convection d. none of the above
448. The shape factor for conduction heating on a cylindrical wall is:
443. Factors influencing thermal conductivity. a. 6.3 L/ln r2/r1
a. chemical composition of materials b. 3.14 L/ln r2/r1
b. temperature of materials c. 3.14 kL/ln2/r1
c. surrounding pressure d. none of the above
d. all of the above
449. The amount of heat transmitted per unit time and temperature for a
444. If the temperature surrounding the material is reduced, the thermal given surface area by a fluid .
conductivity also: a. heat coefficient
a. changes in decreasing manner b. specific heat
b. changes in increasing manner c. heat transfer coefficient
c. does not change d. none of the above
96 97
445. Fluids with low molecular weight have: 450. If a boiling water is pumped from a boiler to a heat exchanger, heat
a. high thermal conductivity is transmitted by:
b. low thermal conductivity a. natural convection
c. no thermal conductivity b. forced convection
d. none of the above c. radiation
446. Heat basically transfers from:
a. lower temperature to high temperature 451. Heat transfer coefficient is lower for . . .
b. high temperature to lower temperature a. liquids
c. lower pressure to high pressure b. gases
d. none of the above c. boiling water
d. condensing vapors
447. If more heat is to be transmitted from one side to the other side of a
solid body, 452. An example of heat conductor.
what would you recommend as an Engineer? a. silica brick
a. increase the thickness of material b. refractory cement
b. decrease the thickness of material c. asbestos fiber
c. maintain the thickness of material d. none of the above
d. all of the above
453. In a vacuum condition, heat transfer by conduction moves . . .
a. faster 458. It is the insulating ability of a material or the resistance of material
b. slower to the flow of heat.
c. at constant rate a. thermal resistance
d. none of the above b. thermal conductivity
c. thermal insulator
454. In sundrying, heat is released from a body by . . . d. all of the above
a. radiation
b. force convection 459. The ability of a body to give up or to receive heat.
c. natural convection a. heat
d. none of the above b. temperature
c. energy
d. all of the above
98 99
455. The amount of heat required to raise a kilogram of water one 460. Temperature of surrounding air.
degree centigrade. a. dry bulb temperature
a. kilo calories b. wet bulb temperature
b. joules c. ambient temperature
c. watts d. all of the above
461. It is the form of energy that provides difference in temperature of
456. Dimensionless numbers used in determining heat transfer molecular materials.
coefficient by natural convection. a. heat
a. Nusselt/Grashof/Prantdl b. temperature
b. Nusselt/Reynolds/Prantdl c. thermal resistance
c. Prantdl/Reynolds/Grashof d. none of the above
462. Nusselt number is a function of . . .
457. The unit of energy in SI system is: a. convection coefficient, pipe diameter, and thermal conductivity
a. newton-meter b. thermal conductivity, viscosity, and diameter of pipe
b. joules c. convection coefficient, velocity of fluid, diameter of pipe
c. w-sec. d. none of the above
463. A thick wall tube of stainless steel (k = 19w/m-C) with 2 cm. ID 467. What is the total board foot of 5 pieces of 2 in x 6 in. x 14 feet
and 4 cm. OD) is covered with 3 cm. layer of asbestos insulation (k wood?
= 0.2 w/m-C). If the inside wall temperature of the pipe is a. 50 bd ft
maintained at 600 C and the outside of the insulation at 100 C, b. 60 bd ft
what is the heat loss per foot length of the tube? c. 70 bd ft
a. 600 w/m d. None of the above
b. 680 w/m
c. 720 w/m 468. What is the heat loss per ft of a brick kiln wall 9-inches thick is
d. none of the above made of a material with thermal conductivity of 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F?
The outside and inside temperature is 1500 F and 400 F,
respectively.
a. 224 BTU/hr-ft
b. 264 BTU/hr-ft
c. 246 BTU/hr-ft
100 101
464. Which of the following has the highest heat transfer coefficient? 469. What is the heat transfer loss per foot of 2 inches nominal pipe
a. gases (OD=2.37 in.) covered with 1-in. thick of an insulating material
b. liquids having an average thermal conductivity of 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-F. The
c. boiling water inner and outer temperatures of the insulation are 380 and 80 F,
d. all of the above respectively.
a. 161 BTU/hr-ft
465. The heat transfer coefficient of liquid in kcal/m-hr-C is at the b. 111 BTU/hr-ft
ranged of: c. 125 BTU/hr-ft
a. 3 to 20 d. none of the above
b. 100 to 600
c. 1000 to 2000 470. The Prantdl number is a function of . . .
d. none of the above a. viscosity, specific heat, and thermal conductivity
b. specific heat, heat transfer coefficient, and thermal conductivity
466. Which of the following is true? c. viscosity, diameter of pipe, thermal conductivity
a. The thermal conductivity of aluminum is higher than silver. d. none of the above
b. Silver is faster to transmit heat than aluminum.
c. Aluminum and silver transfer heat at the same rate. 471. If the flow of fluid is on streamline characteristics, the fluid is at . .
d. all of the above .
a. turbulent condition d. all of the above
b. laminar condition
c. eddies 476. Which of the following statement is true?
d. all of the above a. Heat transfer rate is higher on edges of boxes.
b. Heat transfer rate is higher on corners of boxes.
472. Heat transfer coefficient by force convection is determined by c. Heat transfer rate is lower on the walls of boxes.
what dimensionless numbers? d. none of the above
a. Nusselt, Prantdl, Reynolds
b. Nusselt, Prantdl, Grashof 477. Which of the following statement is true?
c. Reynolds, Grashof, Prantdl a. Layers produce more manure per day than broilers.
d. none of the above b. Broiler produces more manure per day than layers.
c. Both produce the same amount of manure per day.
102 103
473. One British thermal unit is equal to: 478. A good insulator for kiln dryer.
a. 1055 J a. rice husk
b. 1505 J b. brick
c. 1550 J c. concrete
474. If the heated pipe is changed with to a higher pipe schedule, the 479. A material which is poor conductor of heat or has low thermal
heat transfer will: conductivity.
a. increase a. conductor
b. decrease b. insulator
c. remains the same c. resistor
d. all of the above d. all of the above
475. Basically, the thermal conductivity of a material will increase if 480. An example of a good insulating material at high temperature
the: a. iron
a. thickness is increased b. wood
b. temperature is increased c. asbestos
c. temperature is decreased d. all of the above
d. all of the above
481. Which of the following has low thermal conductivity?
a. building brick 486. Moisture in low-temperature insulation material may cause:
b. asbestos a. reduction in the insulating value of the material
c. firebrick b. improvement in the insulating value of the materials
d. concrete c. to decrease the cost of the insulating materials
d. all of the above
482. Insulators used for steam lines are classified into:
a. low temperature range insulator 487. A process of heating copra to facilitate the removal of oil during
b. medium temperature range insulator pressing.
c. high temperature range insulator a. drying
d. none of the above b. steaming
c. conditioning
104 105
483. A good example of a dual temperature insulator. 488. One thousand nuts at 800 grams per nut will produce _______ kg
a. expanded silica of copra.
b. cellular glass a. 220 kg
c. vermiculite b. 320 kg
d. all of the above c. 420 kg
484. Form of insulants used in industrial insulation practice
a. flexible strips 489. It is an extruded foam used for low temperature systems such as
b. foil refrigeration, building, and sub-zero insulation.
c. flexible pipe section and mattresses a. polystyrene foam
d. all of the above b. PVC foam
c. plastic foam
485. Which of the following statement is true? d. all of the above
a. In insulation, heat gain is more costly than heat loss.
b. The cost of extracting heat from refrigerated space is the same 490. It is essentially a ceramic material designed to be resist amount to
with the cost of heat losses from a high temperature system high temperature of 1000 to 1800 C.
c. The cost of insulating high temperature system is the same with a. refractory
that of low temperature system b. asbestos
c. fiber glass
d. none of the above 496. The overall heat transfer coefficient includes . . .
a. thermal conductivity and heat transfer coefficient of the
491. Factor that need to be considered in selecting insulants . . . materials
a. operating temperature b. heat transfer coefficient and emmissivity of the materials
b. maintenance cost c. thermal conductivity and emmessivity of the materials
c. ability to resist mechanical and heat damage d. none of the above
d. all of the above
497. Which of the following statement is true?
492. To protect insulant from mechanical damage, the insulant must be a. When radiant energy falls on a body, part may be reflected,
provided with absorbed and the remainder transmitted.
a. metal sheet cladding b. When radiant energy fall on a body, part may be reflected and
b. nets and asbestos cement absorbed.
c. wire net and bituminous compound c. When radiant fall on a body, all of the energy are absorbed.
106 107
498. When two fluids in a heat exchanger move in opposite direction,
493. The Stefan Boltzmann constant is equal to the device is classified as
a.
0.147 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F4 a. Parallel flow HE
b.
0.174 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F4 b. Cross flow HE
c.
0.174 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F3 c. Constant flow HE
d.
none of the above d. None of the above
494. The equation for heat transfer by radiation for gray bodies is 499. Configuration factor for parallel planes in calculating the heat
a.
Qr = AT4 radiated is
b.
Qr = AT4 a. higher than perpendicular planes
c.
Qr = AT4 b. lower for perpendicular planes
d.
none of the above c. equal to perpendicular planes
495. It is a device used for transferring heat.
a. insulator 500. It is a mixture of cement, gravel, sand and water to harden in forms
b. heat absorber of the shape and dimension of the desired structure
c. heat exchanger a. Bricks
d. all of the above b. Masonry
c. Concrete
d. All of the above 506. Mixing proportion for class A concrete
a. 1 : 2 : 4
501. It is a project study of determining the quality, quantity, and cost of b. 1 : 2.5 : 5
every materials used in a work of in every finished work c. 1 : 3 : 6
a. Feasibility study d. None of the above
b. Project planning
c. Estimate 507. Recommended mixing proportion for machine foundation
d. None of the above a. 1 : 2 : 4
b 1:3:6
502. It is a slow hardening kind of concrete c. 1 : 2 : 3
a. Portland blast furnace concrete d. None of the above
b. Low heat portland concrete
c. Portland pozzoland concrete
d. All of the above
108 109
503. Which of the following materials has the highest percentage 508. Recommended mixing proportion for floor slabs 4 in. thick
composition in cement a. 1 : 2 : 4
a. Lime b. 1 : 3 : 6
b. Silica c. 1 : 2 : 3
c. Alumina d. None of the above
509. A structure made by laying bricks, stones blocks, and other stone
504. It is considered as refractory material like materials
a. Lime a. Masonry
b. Alumina b. Mortar
c. Silica c. Concrete
505. Class AA concrete has a mixing proportion of 510. Approximate numbers of concrete hallow blocks that can be
a. 1 : 2 : 4 produced per bag of cement
b. 1 : 2.5 : 5 a. 55 to 60 pieces
c. 1 : 3 : 6 b. 30 to 35 pieces
d. None of the above c. 25 to 30 pieces
d. None of the above 515. A mixture of cement and water only, mixed to the consistency of
very thick cream used for coating surfaces of concrete to improve
511. Two bags of cement is equal to their appearance.
a. 2 cubic feet in volume a. Grout
b. 2 cubic meters in volume b. Mortar
c. 200 kilos in weight c. Plastic
d. None of the above d. Solution
e. Cement
512. Although it is a non-homogenous natural product requiring
judgment and critical appraisal, it continues to be the primary 516. The term generally applied to stonework of the simpliest kind
structural materials for farm building when little or no tool work is done on the stones other than to
a. Concrete break them with hammer and roughly dress them
b. Wood a. Flagg
c. Masonry b. Mortar
d. Metals c. Plastic
d. Rubble
110 e. Ashlar
513. By classification, they come from broad leaf deciduous trees
a. Manufactured wood 111
b. Plywood 517. A farm structure used to store and protect the animal fodder so that
c. Softwood it is preserved in an ideal condition for the farm animals
d. Hardwood a. Silo
b. Warehouse
514. A class of softwood lumber used for farm building construction, c. Farm shop
with sub-classes, entitled finish, common boards and common d. Motor pool
dimensions. e. None of the above
a. Yard lumber
b. Structural lumber 518. A barrel of cement consist of
c. Factory lumber a. 3 bags
d. Lumber grade b. 2 bags
e. Manufactured lumber c. 5 bags
f. None of the above d. 4 bag
e. 1 bag
519. One half the horizontal distance of the truss

a. Run c. Board
b. Rise d. All of the above
c. Span
d. Rafter 525. A wide piece of lumber from 4 to 13 cm thick
a. Timber
520. Volume of cement that can be contained in 4 I n. x 8 in. x 16 in. b. Plank
concrete hallow block. c. Board
a. 0.001 m3 d. None of the above
b. 0.003 m3
c. 0.004 m3 526. A dressed lumber having four sides are smoothen
e. None of the above a. S4S
b. 4SS
521. Mixing proportion of cement/sand for class a mortar c. SS4
a. 1 : 1 d. All of the above
b. 1 : 2
c. 1 : 3
d. 1 : 4
112 113
522. A planed lumber having at least one side smooth 527. It is an undressed lumber
a. Dressed lumber a. Surface lumber
b. Rough lumber b. Rough lumber
c. Lumber yard c. Planed Lumber
523. A piece of lumber having a minimum smallest dimension of 5 528. Approximate number of pieces per kilo of GI roofing nails
inches or 13 cm a. 100 pieces
a. Timber b. 120 pieces
b. Plank c. 150 pieces
c. Board d. 200 pieces
d. All of the above e. All of the above
524. A piece of lumber less than 4 cm thick with at least 10 cm wide 529. It is the height of a flight of stairs from landing to landing or the
a. Timber height between successive treads or stairs
b. Plank a. Run
b. Rise b. Hardness
c. Pitch c. Durability
530. One gallon of paint in first coating can cover an area of 535. Most widely used preservative treatment for wood
a. 15 sq. m. a. Asphalt
b. 20 sq. m. b. Black enamel paint
c. 25 sq. m. c. Creosote
531. The rough estimate for the number of kilos of need needed per 536. It is the capacity of material to resist fracture under impact load
1000 bd.ft. of lumber a. Hardness
a. 15 kg b. Toughness
b. 20 kg c. Elasticity
c. 25 kg d. All of the above
114 115
532. The rough estimate number of bags of cement required per cubic 537. A wood which comes from needle-leaved cone bearing trees
meter of concrete a. Hardwood
a. 10 bags b. Soft wood
b. 15 bags c. Medium-hard wood
c. 20 bags d. All of the above
d. All of the above
538. Lumber used for mill work such as window casing and sash, and
533. Dwelling place for workers in the farm cabinets
a. Farmstead a. Factory lumber
b. Farm house b. Yard lumber
c. Granaries c. Structural timber
534. It is the characteristics of materials that retain their strength and 539. Material less than 5 in. thick and is used for general building
other properties over a considerable period of time purposes
a. Reliability a. Factory lumber
b. Yard lumber b. 4 x 6
c. Structural timber c. 4 x 12
540. It includes joist and plank, beams and stringers, and post 545. The largest area in a piece of wood is the
a. Factory lumber a. Edge
b. Yard lumber b. Face
c. Structural timber c. End
541. A lumber that comes from a saw, unfinished and full dimension 546. Nails are bought in the hardware in terms of
a. Planed lumber a. Pieces
b. Rough lumber b. Kilo
c. Factory lumber c. Volume
116 117
542. A lumber finished smooth on two edges designated and one side 547. A screw used commonly in roof construction.
and full dimension a. Cap screw
a. S2E1S b. Tex screw
b. SE2S1 c. Self-tapping screw
c. S2ES1 d. None of the above
d. All of the above
548. The saw recommended for cutting plywood is
543. A jointed frame that is used to support load over a relatively large a. Cross cut saw
span b. Rip saw
a. Beam c. Coping saw
b. Post d. None of the above
c. Truss
d. All of the above 549. Sizes of saw are given in number of teeth, the higher the saw teeth
number
544. The standard dimension of plywood is a. The courser the cut
a. 4 x 8 b. The finer the cut
c. Smaller the cut d. None of the above
555. It is a tool used to make the surface of wood level and smooth.
550. One board foot is equivalent to a. Hammer
a. l in x l in x 1 ft/144 b. Drill
b. l in x l in x l in/144 c. Jack plane
c. l in x l in x l in/12 d. All of the above
556. A saw for making small round openings on wood.
551. It is the method of reducing the moisture of timber using artificial a. Coping saw
heat on a heated chamber. b. Hole saw
a. Air drying c. Circular saw
b. Kiln drying d. All of the above
c. Wood dehydration
118 119
552. Sawing is the process of cutting wood and is classified as. 557. Lattice molding are bought in terms of
a. Shearing method a. Board foot
b. Chip-forming method b. Linear footage
c. Chemical method c. Square footage
553. A fastener used to properly fixed materials to a concrete. 558. If a wood is specified as S4S this mean that
a. Tex screw a. 4 edges of wood are smooth
b. Tox b. All surfaces are smooth
c. Adhesives c. Four sides of wood are smooth
554. Nail used for making furniture or for flooring purposes. 559. A saw used for cutting across a piece of wood.
a. Common nail a. Band saw
b. Box nail b. Rip saw
c. Finishing nail c. Cross-cut saw
560. Materials used in supporting concrete structure. 565. Cement mixture used for beams, slabs, and for all members
Round bar subjected to bending stress.
Square bar a. 1:2:3
Corrugated round bar b. 1:2:4
None of the above c. 1:3:6
561. Paint recommended for wood
Latex paint 566. Ten lumen distributed to an area of 10 square foot is equal to
Enamel paint _______ .
Acrylic paint a. 1 foot-candle
None of the above b. 10 foot-candle
c. 100 foot-candle
120 121
562. Wood is applied with paint for 567. A class A concrete has a mixing proportion of ______.
a. Surface protection a. 1:2:3
b. Decoration b. 1:2:4
c. Moisture protection c. 1:3:6
563. Which of the following does not composed of cement? 568. Mixing proportion for machinery foundation.
a. Lime a. 1: 2:3
b. Silica b. 1:2:4
c. Alummina c. 1:3:6
564. Which of the following is a refractory material? 569. Mixing proportions for walls and footings.
a. Lime a. 1:2:4
b. Silica b. 1:2.5:5
c. Alummina c. 1:3:6
d. None of the above b. 0.003
c. 0.004
570. Approximate time limit before the removal of forms and support d. None of the above
for walls.
a. 14 to 21 days 575. A male breeding pig which is at least 8 months old.
b. 3 to 10 days a. gilt
c. 7 to 14 days b. boar
d. None of the above c. sow
571. One barrel is equal to ______ of 96 lbs Portland cement.
a. 2 bags 576. An area in which a sow is confined during farrowing and lactation
b. 3 bags period and are freely to turn around.
c. 4 bags a. farrowing stall
d. None of the above b. farrowing pen
c. lactating stall
d. All of the above
122 123
572. One bag of cement is equal to ______ 577. It is the act of separating the pigs and the sow.
a. One cubic foot a. farrowing
b. Two cubic foot b. gestating
c. Three cubic foot c. weaning
573. There are _______ concrete hollow blocks per square meter of 578. An unbred female pig at least 8 months old
wall area. a. boar
a. 10 CHB b. gilt
b. 13 CHB c. sow
c. 15 CHB d. None of the above
d. All of the above
579. A device in which a sow is confined during farrowing and lactation
574. The volume of cement for concrete hollow blocks with dimension periods and which prevents sow from turning around.
of 4 in. x 8 in. x 16 in. is _________ cubic meter. a. farrowing pen
a. 0.001 b. farrowing stall
c. farrowing house b. 2.50 sq.m. per animal
d. all of the above c. 7.5 sq.m. per animal
580. Period of time between conception and farrowing.
a. gestation 585. Minimum recommended space requirement for adult pigs in group.
b. lactation a. 1.0 sq.m. per animal
c. farrowing b. 2.5 sq.m. per animal
d. none of the above c. 7.5 sq.m. per animal
581. The process of milk secretion.
a. gestation 586. Minimum slope for pig housing floor.
b. lactation a. 2 to 4 %
c. weaning b. 5 to 7 %
d. none of the above c. 8 to 10 %
124 125
582. It is the production of a litter of one or more live or dead pigs on or 587. Floor thickness for pig housing.
after 110 day of pregnancy. a. 40 to 50 mm thick
a. gestation b. 70 to 80 mm thick
b. lactation c. 90 to 100 mm thick
c. farrowing d. none of the above
588. Recommended concrete mixture for pig housing floor.
583. Recommended orientation of swine house. a. 1:2:3
a. north-south direction b. 1:2.25: 3
b. east-west direction c. 1:2.5:3
c. north west direction d. all of the above
d. south east direction
e. all of the above 589. Materials used as floor slats in swine housing.
a. Wood slats
584. Minimum recommended space requirement for boar pens. b. Concrete slats
a. 0.85 sq.m. per animal c. Steel slats
d. Plastic slats a. north-east direction
e. All of the above b. east-west direction
c. north-south direction
590. Recommended door dimension for pig pens. d. none of the above
a. 40 cm wide x 50 cm high
b. 60 cm wide x 100 cm high 595. Floor space requirement for 4-week old broilers in cages.
c. 80 cm wide x 120 cm high a. 22 birds per m2
d. none of the above b. 43 birds per m2
c. 54 birds per m2
591. Recommended ceiling height for pig housing d. All of the above
a. 2 to 2.5 m
b. 2.5 to 3 m 596. Floor space requirement for broilers in cages more than 4 weeks
c. 3 m to 3.5 m old.
d. all of the above a. 22 birds per m2
b. 43 birds per m2
c. 54 birds per m2
d. All of the above
126 127
592. Minimum ventilation rate for farrowing unit and breeding and 597. Recommended floor height for poultry house.
gestating units. a. 1.0 m above ground
a. 2.8 CFM b. 1.4 m above ground
b. 4.2 CFM c. 1.8 m above ground
c. 9.8 CFM d. none of the above
598. Recommended dimension for entrance door for poultry building.
593. Daily water requirement of boar and sow at normal ambient a. 90 cm wide x 150 cm high
temperature. b. 90 cm wide x 200 cm high
a. 1-5 liters per day-animal c. 90 cm wide x 250 cm high
b. 5-10 liters per day-animal d. All of the above
c. 10-30 liters per day-animal
d. none of the above 599. Minimum height for ceiling in poultry building.
a. 2.0 m
594. Recommended orientation of poultry building to obtain proper b. 2.2 m
sunlight, wind flow and temperature. c. 2.4 m
d. none of the above a. 10 watts per m2
b. 20 watts per m2
600. Recommended brooding temperature for 7 day old chick. c. 30 watts per m2
a. 27-29 deg C d. all of the above
b. 29-32 deg C
c. 32-35 deg C 605. Linear feeder space requirement for broiler 4 weeks and below.
d. All of the above a. 4 cm per bird
a. 8 cm per bird
601. Fourteen day old chicks requires _______ brooding temperature b. 12 cm per bird
than 7 day old chicks. c. None of the above
a. higher
b. lower 606. Number of pieces of 305 mm diameter round feeder for chicks
c. the same above 4 weeks old.
d. None of the above a. 2 pieces
b. 5 pieces
c. 8 pieces
128 129
602. The recommended distance of air inlets from fans in poultry 607. Minimum height of hover required during brooding operation.
building should not be within ________. a. 50-80 mm above the back of the birds
a. 1.0 m and below b. 80-120 mm above the back of the birds
b. 2.5 m and below c. 120-160 mm above the back of the birds
c. 3.5 m and below d. none of the above
e. none of the above
608. Waterer space requirement for linear-type waterer for chicks below
603. Artificial light requirement of chicks during the first 48 hours at 4 weeks old
2.4 m above the floor. a. 2.5 cm per bird
a. 15 watts per m2 b. 5.0 cm per bird
b. 25 watts per m2 c. 7.5 cm per bird
c. 35 watts per m2 d. all of the above
d. all of the above
609. Number of bird required per unit round waterer for chicks above 4
604. Artificial light requirement of chicks after the first 48 hours at weeks of age.
floor level a. 50 birds
b. 75 birds a. 20 m x 48 m
c. 100 birds b. 20 m x 58 m
d. none of the above c. 20 m x 68 m
610. A wooden frame used on concrete floors for stacking bags to
prevent direct contact between the grains and the floor. 614. Recommended dimension for warehouse with 100,000 cavans
a. dunnage capacity.
b. pallet a. 25 m x 78 m
c. tarima b. 25 m x 88 m
d. All of the above c. 25 m x 98 m
e. None of the above d. None of the above
610. A building used for storing paddy or rice in bulk or in bag form. 615. The minimum height of the interior between the beams and the
a. Warehouse floor for normal temperature warehouse.
b. Silo a. 4 meters
c. Grain Complex b. 5 meters
d. None of the above c. 6 meters
d. all of the above
130 131
611. The recommended dimension for warehouse with 10,000 cavans 616. The recommended size of entrance for normal temperature
capacity. warehouse.
a. 10 m x 30m a. 6 meters wide x 4 meters high
b. 10 m x 40 m b. 4 meters wide x 6 meters high
c. 10 m x 60 m c. 5 meters wide x 5 meters high
612. The recommended dimension for warehouse with 500,000 cavans 617. The minimum requirement for illumination of a warehouse.
capacity. a. 3 watts per square meter
a. 75 m x 142 m b. 4 watts per square meter
b. 75 m x 152 m c. 5 watts per square meter
c. 75 m x 162 m d. None of the above
618. Recommended thickness of hallow blocks used for walls of
613. Recommended dimension for warehouse with 50,000 cavans warehouse.
capacity. a. 100 mm
b. 125 mm a. 0.5 meter wide
c. 150 mm b. 1.0 meter wide
d. All of the above c. 1.5 meter wide
619. Recommended size of reinforcing bars for warehouse walls.
a. 8 mm RSB 624. Maximum height of stacks for warehouse using jute sacks.
b. 10 mm RSB a. 3 meters
c. 12 mm RSB b. 6 meters
620. Recommended thickness of concrete slabs for warehouse permitted
for loading and unloading with trucks. 625. Maximum height of stacks for warehouse when using woven
a. 100 mm polypropylene bags.
b. 120 mm a. 3 meters
c. 150 mm b. 6 meters
132
621. Recommended width of concrete strips to be laid around 133
warehouse to prevent rain from eroding the base of the walls below 626. Dimension for maximum piling of stacks to conform with the
the damp course. fumigating sheets in situations where warehouses cannot be made
a. 0.75 m airtight.
b. 1.00 m a. 7.3 m x 21.9 m x 4.5 m
c. 1.50 m b. 6.3 m x 20.9 m x 4.5 m
d. None of the above c. 5.3 m x 19.8 m x 4.5 m
622. Minimum dimension of roof truss span for warehouse.
a. 14.5 meters 627. Recommended stack height for warehouse should not exceed the
b. 15.5 meters height of the walls and a space of at least ______between the tops
c. 16.5 meters of the stacks and the roof frame.
d. None of the above a. 1 meter
b. 1.5 meters
623. Recommended spacing between the stacks and wall of warehouse. c. 2.0 meters
632. A type of electrical load distribution center where the meter and the
628. It is the system of piling grains that provides ventilation space disconnect switch are located at the electric-load center of the farmstead.
between bags and allows circulation of convective air current that a. Indoor-type
provides a medium for heat dissipation. b. Outdoor-type
a. Chinese Method c. Pole-type
b. Japanese Method d. None of the above
c. Philippine Method
d. None of the above 633. Water requirement of a slaughter house for large animals.
a. 227 liters per day per animal
629. Any building or place used for killing of animals where the flesh is b. 114 liters per day per animal
intended for human consumption. c. 57 liters per day per animal
a. Butcher house d. None of the above
b. Slaughter house
c. Large animal pen
134
630. A slaughter hose with required facilities and operational 135
procedures to serve any market. 634. Water requirement of a slaughter house for small animals.
a. A slaughter house a. 227 liters per day per animal
b. AA slaughter house b. 114 liters per day per animal
c. AAA slaughter house c. 57 liters per day per animal
631. A slaughter hose with required facilities and operational 635. Water requirement of a slaughter house for swine.
procedures to serve local market within the country. a. 227 liters per day per animal
a. A slaughter house b. 114 liters per day per animal
b. AA slaughter house c. 57 liters per day per animal
c. AAA slaughter house d. None of the above
636. Minimum distance required of slaughter house when they to be
located near river, streams, or lakes.
a. 10 meters from the bank 641. Lowering of animal into a steam to prepare skin for dehairing.
b. 20 meters from the bank a. flaying
c. 30 meters from the bank b. scalding
d. None of the above c. gambrelling
637. Minimum distance required for slaughter house from buildings
used for human habitation, factory, public road and places. 642. It is the removal of hide of the carcass.
a. 50 meters a. flaying
b. 100 meters b. scalding
c. 150 meters c. gambrelling
638. Minimum pipeline pressure for water supply system in slaughter 643. It is the process or suspending the carcass for particular operation.
houses. a. flaying
a. 20 psi b. scalding
b. 30 psi c. gambrelling
c. 40 psi d. none of the above
136 137
639. Meat which is unfit for human consumption as declared by a 644. It renders the animal insensible before it is killed.
veterinary inspector after veterinary examination. a. stunning
a. Spoiled meat b. pithing
b. Detained meat c. sticking
c. Condemned meat d. None of the above
645. It is the insertion of a rod or coiled wire through the hole in the
640. Meat requiring further examination as declared by a skull of cattle made by captive blot to destroy the brain and spinal
veterinary inspector after veterinary examination. cord to prevent reflex muscular action and possible injury to
a. Spoiled meat operatives.
b. Detained meat a. stunning
c. Condemned meat b. pithing
d. None of the above c. sticking
a. 100 mm
646. It is the severance of the major blood vessels in the neck or b. 120 mm
immediately anterior to the heart by means of a knife. c. 150 mm
a. stunning d. None of the above
b. pithing
c. sticking 651. Size of reinforcement bar for concrete slabs in slaughter houses.
d. None of the above a. 8 mm RSB
b. 10 mm RSB
647. Site for slaughter houses should be elevated ______ above the 12 mm RSB
adjacent ground. None of the above
a. 400 mm
b. 500 mm 652. Recommended height of windows for slaughter houses.
c. 600 mm a. 1 meters above the floor
d. None of the above b. 1.2 meters above the floor
c. 1.5 meters above the floor
138 139
648. Recommended dimension for slaughter house for large animal with 653. Minimum width of doorways for slaughter houses.
throughput rate of 30 animals per day is ____. a. 1.0 meter wide
a. 6 m x 5.8 m b. 1.2 meters wide
b. 2.5 m x 6.4 m c. 1.5 meters wide
c. 23.3 m x 15 m d. None of the above
654. Numbers of drain inlets provided in slaughter houses pr 40 m2
649. Recommended slopes for wall tops of slaughter houses. space.
a. 30 deg a. 1 inlet
b. 45 deg b. 2 inlets
c. 60 deg c. 3 inlets
650. Recommended thickness of concrete slabs for slaughter houses.
655. Two twenty (220) volt line with current flowing at 10 ampere is
equal to 659. What is the power factor of the motor above?
a. 2.2 kw a. 0.4875
b. 2.2 volt-ampere b. 0.4785
c. 2200 watts c. 0.4587
656. A 10 ampere ventilation fan with a power factor of 0.85 was 660. The power output of DC line in wattage is equal to ______
connected to a 220 volt convenience outlet. What is the current a. volts x ampere
and power in the circuit? b. volts x ampere x power factor
a. 1,870 watts c. volt x ampere x efficiency
b. 1,870 volt-ampere d. None of the above
c. 2,200 watts
d. None of the above 661. The power output of AC line in wattage is equal to ______
a. volts x ampere
b. volts x ampere x power factor
c. volt x ampere x efficiency
140 141
657. An electric motor has an rated horsepower of 2 hp, a rated voltage 662. Advantage of 240 volt over to 120 volt.
of 240 volts, and a current of 15 amperes. What is the horsepower a. Economical
rating of the motor in watts? Assume a motor efficiency of 85%. b. Lower power loss
a. 1492 watts c. Smaller power drop
b. 1942 watts d. All of the above
c. 1249 watts
d. None of the above 663. Ampere capacity of AWG no. 12 wire.
a. 15 amperes
658. What is the input power of the motor above? b. 20 amperes
a. 1557 watts c. 30 amperes
b. 1755 watts d. None of the above
c. 1575 watts
664. When AWG # 12 wire is replace with AWG no. 14, the ampere
capacity of the will ______. 669. Determine the monthly consumption of a farm residence having
a. increase the following loads: one-1200 watts electric iron in 2 hours, one-
b. decrease 1000 watt water heater in 3 hours, and one-1300 watt toaster in 30
c. remains the same minutes.
d. none of the above a. 4.05 kw-hour
b. 5.05 kw-hour
665. Electrical conductors which are 8 mm2 (AWG#8) or smaller in c. 6.05 kw-hour
size. d. None of the above
a. Wire
b. Cables 670. What is the size in circular mill of a cable with rating 250 MCM?
c. Cord a. 250 circular mill
d. All of the above b. 25, 000 circular mill
c. 250,000 circular mill
666. Electrical conductors larger than 8 mm2. All of the above
a. Wire
b. Cables
c. Cord
d. All of the above
142 143
667. Consist of a group of wires twisted to form a metallic string. 671. It is a fabricated assembly of insulated conductors enclosed
a. Stranded wire flexible metal sheet primarily used for both exposed and concealed
b. Cord work.
c. Co-axial wire a. Metal clad cable
d. All of the above b. Armored cable
c. Mineral Insulated cable
668. A water heater draws 10 amperes at 240 volt current supply. What d. None of the above
is the heat resistance delivered by heater?
a. 2.4 ohms 672. It is a factory assembly of one or more conductors each
b. 24 ohms individually insulated and enclosed in a metallic sheet of
c. 2400 ohms interlocking tape of a smooth or corrugated tube and are usually
used for service feeders, branch circuits and for indoor or outdoor b. Switchboard
work. c. Circuit breaker
a. Metal clad cable d. All of the above
b. Armored cable
c. Mineral insulated cable 677. Electrical system that is adopted in buildings where the load
d. None of the above exceeds 50 kva or where it is required for bigger load such as
motors and machineries.
673. It is a wiring accessories or channels designed for holding wires, a. Single phase system
cables, or busbars which are either made of metal, plastic, or any b. Dual phase system
insulating materials. c. Three phase system
a. wire shield d. All of the above
b. armor pipe
c. raceways 678. The maximum load in watts for each household lighting outlet
d. None of the above based on the National Electrification Code.
a. 50 watts
674. It is a device which by insertion establishes connection between b. 100 watts
the conductor of the flexible cord and the conductors connected c. 150 watts
permanently to the receptacle. d. all of the above
a. convenience outlet
b. junction box
c. receptacles
144 145
675. A contact device installed at the outlet for the connection of a 679. It is the ability of the wire or conductor to carry the current without
single attachment plug. overheating.
a. convenience outlet a. voltage drop
b. junction box b. power loss
c. receptacles c. ampacity
676. These are free standing assembly of switches, fuses, and circuit 680. National Electrification Code provides that the ampacity of the
breakers which provides switching and feeder protection to a connected load shall not exceed _____ of the amperage capacity of
number of circuits connected to a main source. the conductor and the fuse.
a. Panel board a. 60%
b. 70% b. More paddy can be stored in a warehouse when placed in
c. 80% woven polypropylene bags.
d. All of the above c. The same volume of paddy can be stored in a warehouse
whether they are stored in jute sacks or woven polypropylene
681. Allowable space between the tops of the stocks and the roof truss bags.
of warehouse. d. None of the above is true
a. 1.0 meter
b. 1.5 meters 685. Maximum stock height for grains stored in jute bags.
c. 2.0 meters a. the wall height
d. None of the above b. the wall height
c. Wall height
682. Optimum recommended stock height for paddy stored in the d. All of the above
warehouse.
a. 16 layers 686. Maximum stock height fro grains stored in woven polypropylene
b. 18 layers bags.
c. 20 layers a. the wall height
d. All of the above c. the wall height
c. Wall height
d. All of the above
146
683. Optimum recommended stock height for maize stored in the 147
warehouse. 687. Allowable space between piles of bags in warehouse.
a. 16 layers a. 0.6 m
b. 18 layers b. 1.0 m
c. 20 layers c. 1.2 m
d. all of the above d. None of the above
684. In storing paddy, which of the following statement is true? 688. Minimum side space requirement between the edge of the pile and
a. More paddy can be stored in a warehouse when placed in jute the wall of the warehouse.
sacks. a. 0.5 m
b. 1.0 m
c. 1.5 m d. None of the above
694. Recommended spacing of reinforcement bar for warehouse wall.
689. Minimum recommended height of the interior between the beam a. 500 mm vertical and horizontal
and the floor of warehouse. b. 600 mm vertical and 500 horizontal
a. 15 feet c. 600 mm vertical and horizontal
b. 20 feet d. None of the above
c. 25 feet
d. All of the above 695. To prevent rain from eroding the warehouse wall, it is
recommended that ______
690. Preferred lighting fixtures for warehouse building. a one meter concrete strips should be provided around the
a. Incandescent lamp warehouse.
b. Fluorescent lamp b. one meter metal strips should be provided on the outside wall
c. Ultraviolet lamp of the warehouse.
d. None of the above c. suitable drainage system should be provided around the
warehouse.
691. Minimum requirement for illumination of warehouse. d. None of the above
a. 3 watts per square meter
b. 6 watts per square meter 696. Recommended height of floor for warehouse to permit easy
c. 9 watts per square meter loading and unloading by trucks at the sides of the warehouse.
d. None of the above a. 0.5 meter above the ground
b. 1.0 meter above the ground
c. 1.5 meters above the ground
148 149
692. Recommended size of concrete hallow blocks for warehouse wall. 697. Recommended height of floor if trucks are permitted to load and
a. 4 in. x 8 in. x 16 in. unload inside the warehouse.
b. 6 in. x 8 in. x 16 in. a. 0.30 m above the ground
c. 8 in. x 8 in. x 16 in. b. 0.40 m above the ground
d. None of the above c. 0.50 m above the ground
693. Recommended size of reinforcement bar for warehouse.
a. 10 mm diameter 698. Which of the following facilities are required for warehouse?
b. 12 mm diameter a. Quality control laboratories
c. 14 mm diameter b. Toilet and washing facilities
c. Poisonous chemical store c. spraying the water
d. All of the above d. none of the above
704. In sedimentation, processed water is allowed to pass through a
699. Construction of canopy for warehouse should be done ______ to settling chamber at
allow continuous loading and unloading even when raining. a. low velocity
a. in all walls b. high velocity
b. in every entry door c. zero velocity
c. in one edge of the outside wall d. none of the above
705. In coagulation and flocculation processes, water is mixed with
700. Locations of vents for warehouse. coagulants to
a. Near the floor level a. disperse colloidal particles
b. Top of the wall near grid line b. allow the formation of settable particles
c. Top of the roof and the ridge c. mechanically screen colloidal matters
d. All of the above d. none of the above
701. Factors that contribute to the increasing amount of waste.
a. over population 706. Sources of coagulants include
b. utilization of chemicals in Agriculture a. earth from termite hills
c. natural catastrophes and droughts b. aluminum and iron salts
d. all of the above c. potato starch
d. all of the above
150 151
702. A treatment process which reduces the amount of substances that 707. In flocculation process, it is necessary that the water being treated
cause unpleasant odor and discoloration of water. must be
a. filtration a. agitated
b. aeration b. stagnant
c. disinfection c. heated
d. none of the above d. all of the above
703. In an open aerator, the addition of air in water is achieved by 708. A water treatment process aimed to destroy microorganisms that
a. placing the water in an open tank cause infectious disease .
b. providing opening to a water container a. ozonation
b. disinfection a. polluted air
c. irradiation b. turbid air
d. none of the above c. air pollution
709. Lesser amount of chorine is needed for water being treated if the
turbidity of water is ________ . 714. It is the simplest method of separating solid particles from air by
a. high allowing air to pass through a large chamber to cause the solid
b. low material to fall due to its weight.
c. zero a. momentum separation
d. none of the above b. gravity separation
c. settling chamber
710. It is the commonly practiced method of disinfecting water by d. none of the above
households.
a. chlorination 715. Much efficient method of separating particles from air
b. ozonation a. cyclone separator
c. boiling b. gravity separator
d. none of the above c. momentum separator
711. A good material used for water filter.
a. chlorine
b. activated carbon
c. filter paper
152 153
712. A mixture in air of irregular shape mineral particles in the size 716. When a material goes with air, the velocity of air that will cause it
ranged from 1 to 200 micrometer formed by crushing, chipping, to pick-up the materials is
grinding or by natural disintegration of solid substances. a. terminal velocity
a. fumes b. superfluous velocity
b. sulfurous smog c. laminar velocity
c. dusts d. none of the above
d. all of the above
717. The efficiency of cyclone increases for
713. If air is mixed with one or more constituents not normally present a. small particle
in the atmosphere it is considered as b. medium particle
c. large particle b. ammonification
d. none of the above c. adsorption
718. Cyclone efficiency decreases with a
a. decrease in the amount of dust 723. Wastewater, which is treated or untreated, that is being discharged
b. reduction in length of cyclone body from reservoir, basin, or treatment plant.
c. decrease in the number of gas rotation inside the cyclone a. effluent
d. all of the above b. influent
c. turbid water
719. A gas filter that is suitable for high temperature condition. d. none of the above
a. wool
b. asbestos 724. A dark carbonaceous residue resulting from aerobic decomposition
c. filter glass of organic matter.
d. all of the above a. night soil
b. slurry
720. A method of separating fine duct by allowing it to pass through a c. humus
mist of water. d. none of the above
a. water purifier
b. water scrubber
c. water spraying
d. all of the above
154 155
721. A partially lined or unlined underground pit into which raw animal 725. It is a biological waste water treatment process in which the
or household waste water is discharged. mixture of waste water and biological solids is agitated and
a. cistern aerated.
b. cesspool a. activated sludge process
c. septic tank b. agitation process
d. none of the above c. anaerobic digestion process
722. It is the breakdown of organic matter in a water solution or
suspension into a simpler or more biologically-stable compounds. 726. Waste water flowing into a reservoir or treatment plant.
a. digestion a. slurry
b. influent c. cesspool
c. intake d. none of the above
731. Biological degradation of organic solids under aerobic conditions
727. It is the ordinary killing of all living microorganisms with the use to a relatively stable humus-like material.
of heat and pressure or with the use of some chemicals. a. digestion
a. disinfection b. composting
b. sterilization c. manure production
c. fumigation d. none of the above
732. Particles that ultimately settle after the wastewater losses velocity.
728. It is the biological decomposition of nitrogenous organic matter a. sediments
with the production of foul-smelling products associated with b. colloids
anaerobic degradation of proteins. c. flocs
a. anaerobic digestion d. none of the above
b. putrefaction
c. liquefaction 733. The precipitate or settled solids from treatment, coagulation, or
d. none of the above sedimentation of wastewater.
a. sludge
b. colloids
c. sediments
156 157
729. A portion of the total solids driven off by a combustible gases at 734. A film produced during slow filtration responsible for the
500-600 C for at least one hour. bacteriological- purification effect on water.
a. total solids a. filter skin
b. volatile solids b. scum
c. suspended solids c. bacteriological film
730. It is an earthen facility for biological treatment of wastewater. 735. It is the method of cleaning on a rapid filter by reversing the
a. lagoon direction of flow of water.
b. detention pond a. back splashing
b. back washing b. incineration
c. reverse cleaning c. thermal activation
736. Chemical reaction of disinfectant is speed up by using 741. A type of biogas plant where the digester is separated from the gas
a. cold water chamber.
b. raw water a. Integrated plant
c. hot water b. Multi-digester plant
d. all of the above c. Split-type plant
d. All of the above
737. Sedimentation and filtration are performed preceding chlorination
to: 742. Maximum ventilation rate requirement for greenhouse.
a. enhance disinfection effect a. 0.10 to 0.75 air change per minute
b. reduce chlorination time b. 0.75 to 1.00 air change per minute
c. reduce treatment time c. 1.00 to 1.75 air change per minute
d. all of the above
743. A structure that provide a reliable enclosure within which an
738. The water-carried waste from households or industry. environment favorable to plant growth can be attained.
a. turbid water a. Farm building
b. sewage b. Warehouse
c. slurry c. Greenhouse
d. none of the above d. None of the above
158 159
739. The average time wherein waste is subjected to stabilization 744. Which of the following is not a greenhouse?
process or held in storage. a. Glasshouse
a. detention time b. Plastic house
b. retention time c. Screen house
c. digestion time d. None of the above
745. Recommended orientation for the installation of greenhouse.
740. The rapid oxidation of solids in a specially-designed combustion a. North to South
chamber. b. West to East
a. solid burning c. North-West to South East
d. None of the above b. Tempering
c. Curing
746. Maximum recommended length for greenhouse. d. None of the above
a. 50 meters
b. 100 meters 751. A unit of deformation as a result of change in the form produced
c. 150 meters by stress.
d. None of the above a. Fatigue strength
b. Shear force
747. Maximum recommended width for gutter connected greenhouse. c. Strain
a. 50 meters d. None of the above
b. 100 meters
c. 150 meters 752. An algebraic sum of all the external forces acting parallel to cross-
d. None of the above section of one side of the section tending to cause failure by sliding
movement.
748. C/N ratio requirement of organic materials for proper biogas a. Fatigue strength
digestion. b. Deflection
a. 1:10 to 1:20 c. Shear force
b. 1:20 to 1:30 d. None of the above
c. 1:30 to 1:40
160 161
749. One pound per square inch is equal to ________ 753. It is the amount of stress that produce failure by increasing the unit
a. 27.6 inches of water stress until breakage or rupture occurs.
b. 26.7 inches of water a. Ultimate strength
c. 76. 2 inches of water b. Unit stress
d. None of the above c. Shearing stress
750. A process of gradually supplying moisture and maintaining proper
temperature so as to have favorable conditions for hydration of the 754. It is the internal resistance per unit area that results from external
cement particularly during the early hardening period. force.
a. Re-wetting a. Ultimate strength
b. Unit stress d. None of the above
c. Shearing stress
d. None of the above 760. A farm residence is equipped with two-1.5 horsepower electric
pump. What branch circuit would you recommend for the system
755. Stresses tending to cause two contiguous parts of a body to slide, above?
relative to each other in a direction parallel to the plane of contact. a. Two 15 amp branch circuit
a. Ultimate strength b. Two 20 amp branch circuit
b. Unit stress c. One individual-equipment circuit
c. Shearing stress d. None of the above
761. What is the resistance of a 1000 ft long AWG no. 14 copper wire
756. Cutting metal sheet using a tin snip is a good example of material with cross sectional area equal to 4,107 circular mill?
subject to________ . a. 2.6 ohms
a. tensile stress b. 4.6 ohms
b. compressive stress c. 6.2 ohms
c. shear stress d. None of the above
d. All of the above
757. Ratio of the ultimate strength to the working stress.

a. Allowable stress
b. Elastic limit
c. Factor of safety
162 163
758. Recommended size of branch circuit for general-purpose circuit. 762. What is the size of wire of copper wire in circular mill required for
a. 15 amp branch circuit a poultry building located 250 ft from the distribution center? The
b. 20 amp branch circuit input voltage is 220 volt and the load for the building is 4.6 kW.
c. 30 amp branch circuit Voltage drop is limited to 2%.
d. None of the above a. 12,470 circular mill
b. 21,740 circular mill
759. Recommended size of branch circuit for small-appliance circuit c. 47,210 circular mill
a. 15 amp branch circuit d. None of the above
b. 20 amp branch circuit
c. 30 amp branch circuit 763. Compute the total cost of 50 pcs-2 x 3 x 12 lumber at P27/bd ft.
a. P8,100 767. A one-ton per hour rice mill is to be designed. The mill recovery is
b. 68% while the hulling efficiency is 90%. What size of paddy
c. separator would you recommend?
d. a. 26 compartment
b.
764. Compute the drying efficiency of a one-ton capacity flat bed dryer c.
used to dry paddy from 21% to 14% in 8 hrs. The fuel d.
consumption rate of the dryer is 7 lph. Assume a heat of
vaporization of 600 kCal/kg and heating value of fuel of 9,000 768. What is the capacity of 10-in. diameter screw conveyor running at
kCal/kg. The density of fuel is 0.76. a speed of 300 rpm. The screw pitch is equal to its diameter while
a. the shaft diameter is equal to D. The percentage load is 30%
b. while the density of corn is 45 lbs/ft3.
c. 12.75% a. 2824 kg/hr
d. b.
c.
765. What is the fuel consumption rate of a 2-ton grain dryer required to d
dry paddy from 22 to 14 % in 8 hrs. The dryer efficiency is 45%.
Assume a heat of vaporization of 600 kCal/kg for paddy. 769. Compute the theoretical heat required for a 1-ton flat bed dryer
a. 4.53 lph operating on the following conditions: enthalpy of drying air is 46
b. BTU/ lbda.; enthalpy of outlet air, 40 BTU/lbda; specific volume
c. of air, 0.9 m3/kg. Airflow rate is 100m3/min.
d a. 25,920 kCal/hr
b.
c.
164 d.
766. What is the required dimension for a square bin with 1-ton paddy
load if the dryer required thickness is 0.45 m. Assume a grain 165
density of 576 kg/m3. 770. What is the theoretical weight of fuel required per hour in the dryer
a. 2 m above if rice hull fuel will be used? Assume a furnace efficiency
b. of 60%.
c. a. 14.40 kg/hr
d. b.
c.
d.
771. Compute the volume of a cylindrical bin at full level whose bin 775. A 2.4 m x 2.4 m shallow bed drying bin will be designed to dry
diameter is 4 meter and the height is 3 meters. paddy. Estimate the weight of paddy that can be accommodated in
a. the dryer.
b. a.
c. b.
d. c.
d.
772. How many tons of paddy that can be stored in the bin above?
a. 776. Compute the pressure draft of a fan that is required for a 1-ton
b. capacity flat bed dryer requiring a specific airflow rate of 100
c. m3/min-ton. Grain thickness is 4.5 m while grain density is 540
d. kg/m3.
a. 2.363 Pa or 9.5 in. H2O
773. How many kilos of shelled corn that can be stored in a 3-meter b.
diameter bottom bin hopper having an eave height of 2 meters. c.
The maximum angle of fill is 36 degrees while the angle of hopper d.
is 45 degrees.
a. 777. If the humidity ratio of the drying air and the ambient air are 0.002
b. lbmoisture/lbda and, 0.001 lbmoisture/lbda, respectively. What is
c. the drying time of paddy when it is to be reduced from 24% to
d. 14%?
a. 15 hrs.
b.
c.
d.
166
774. Estimate the airflow rate required for a 6-ton batch-type paddy 167
dryer. 778. A 6 x 8 rubber roller will be designed for husking paddy. What is
a. the required rpm of the faster roller?
b. a. 2192 rpm
c. b.
d. c.
d.
779. What is the required rpm for the slower roller in the item above? 784. If the bucket length is 6, what is the recommended width of the
a. 1315 rpm belt for the elevator above?
b. a. 7
c. b.
d. c.
d.
780. A bucket elevator is to be designed. The head and booth pulleys
are 8 inches diameter. A 4-in. wide cup with capacity of 100 g/cup 785. What is the recommended width of the pulley for the elevator
is installed at a 1-ft. spacing on the belt. Loading of grain is done above?
at the upside section of the elevator. What is the rpm of the pulley a.
shaft? b.
a. 76.6 rpm c. 8
b. d.
c.
d. 786. A concrete hollow block tank with a dimension of 2.4m x 2.4 m is
used to store water. The water inside the tank is 27C while the
781. What is the bucket speed of the elevator above? ambient air temperature is 32C. If the tank is made of 6 x 8 x 16
a. CHB with one inch plaster on both sides, compute the heat transfer
b. 240 fpm rate on the wall of the tank. Neglect the floor and top wall of the
c. tank. Assume K= 0.13 BTU/hr-ft.
d. a.
b.
782. What is the throughput capacity of the elevator above? c.
a. 24.06 kg/min d.
b.
c.
d.
168
783. What is the Hp requirement for the elevator above? 169
a. 787. A 12-inch x 18 ft. long log is to be processed into lumber. How
b. many board foot can be obtained from the log.
c. 0.04 hp a. 72 bd-ft
d. b.
c.
d. d.
788. How many board foot are there in 1 m3 of wood?

a. 423 bd-ft.
b.
c.
d.
789. A service drop wire is to be designed for a farm stead. The total
electric load is 15,000 watts. The input voltage is 220 volts and
used to be delivered to a 100-ft. line single phase outlet. If the
allowable voltage drop is 2%, what is the cross-sectional area of
the wire in circular mill?
a. 33,476.8 airmill
b.
c.
d.
790. If the line utilizes three-phase wire, what will be the size of the
wire needed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
170
791. How many 15-amp. branch circuits are there in a residential house
with a dimension of 64 x 16?
a.
b.
c.

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BELONIO

COMPREHENSIVE BOARD EXAM

Department of Agricultural Engineering

He was awarded by the Philippine Society of Agricultural Engineers (PSAE) as Most

As a dedicated professional, he serves as technical consultant to various agricultural

He also wishes to acknowledge Dr. N. Orcullo for the encouragement to serve as a

This book, Agricultural Engineering Comprehensive Board Exam

This book is still in draft form and is produced in limited copies.

212. Feed mixer that is characterized by low capacity. longer mixing

263. An example of Newtonian fluids of low viscosity

338. It is the electrical pressure of a circuit

519. One half the horizontal distance of the truss

757. Ratio of the ultimate strength to the working stress.

788. How many board foot are there in 1 m3 of wood?

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