Paper1 FDN MCQ 2008

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Who is a person who advanced early scientific management principles?
(a)
Weber
(b)
Taylor
(c)
Vest
(d)
Fayol
2.
A reporting relationship in which an employee receives orders from, and reports to, only one
supervisor is known as:
(a)
Line of authority.
(b)
Centralization.
(c)
Unity of direction.
(d)
Unity of command.
3.
Which worked on administrative management theory:
I. Fayol
II. Parker
III. Weber
(a) I and III
(b)
II and III
(c) none of these worked on administrative management theory
(d) I, II, and III
4.
________ is the study of how to create an organizational structure that leads to high efficiency
and effectiveness.
(a)
Scientific management
(b)
Job specialization
(c)
Administrative management
(d)
Allocation management
5.
_______ is the singleness of purpose that makes possible the creation of one plan of action
to guide managers in resource allocations.
(a)
Unity of direction
(b)
Unity of command
(c)
Unity of authority
(d)
Unity of resources
6.
Which is an organizational - environmental theory?
I. The open-systems view
II. Contingency theory
III. The Theory of Bureaucracy
IV. Theory Z
(a)
I and II
(b) I, III, and IV
(c)
II, III, and IV
(d)
I, II, and III
7.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) C
Theory __ is based on positive assumptions about workers.

Z
X
Y
8. The _______ theory states a manager's choice of organizational structures and control systems
depends on characteristics of the external environment.
(a)
Mechanistic
(b)
Management science
(c)
Organic
(d)
Contingency
The Institute of Cost Accountants of India (Statutory Body under an Act of Parliament)
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9.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which is not one of Fayol's principles:

Authority and responsibility
Line of authority
Globalization
Unity of command
10.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which is not a management science theory:

Operations Management
TQM
MIS
None of these
11.
Theory __ states that the average employee is lazy and will try to do as little as possible.
X
Y
Z
None
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12.
In recent history, workers have felt that they should be empowered in the workplace. This is
an example of
(a) social influences
(b) political influences
(c) technological influences
(d) global influences
13. Scientific management, administrative management, and bureaucratic management belong to
the management viewpoint known as the
(a) classical perspective
(b) behavioral perspective
(c) quantitative perspective
(d) systems perspective
14.
The theorist that advocated standard methodology for doing a task and suggested
that workers were motivated by pay according to output (piecework) is
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Max Weber
(c) Frederick Taylor
(d) Henri Fayol
15.
As a Theory Y manager, you believe that your employees
(a) dislike work and will avoid it if possible.
(b) need a hierarchy of authority and lots of rules and regulations.
(c) should be trained to standard methodology in all their tasks.
(d) are self-motivated and self-directed toward achieving organizational goals.
16.
What does the case, Scientific management in action illustrate?
(a) Scientific management theory is an outdated management theory.
(b) Managers should apply classical management theory to their everyday work if they want to be
more effective.
(c) A traditional approach to management can be successfully applied to the problems of a modern
organisation.
(d) Quality usually suffers as productivity increases.
17. According to Frederick Taylor, who was to blame for the inefficiency in organisations?
(a) The unions.
(b) The managers.
(c) The organisation as a whole.
(d) The workers
18. Which of these was not an integral part of scientific management?
(a) Differential pay rates.
(b) Worker control of production.
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(c) Systematic selection of workers.
(d) Work specialisation
19. Which of the following is not a valid criticism of scientific management theory?
(a) Increases in pay for workers were not proportional to increases in productivity.
(b) Worker discretion over the execution of the task was reduced.
(c) Jobs became too complex for workers to handle.
(d) Fear of redundancy was increased.
20. Which of the following is not a fundamental characteristics of Bureaucratic Management?
(a)
Specialisation of labour
(b)
Well defined hierarchy
(c)
Striving to be a first-class worker
(d)
Formal rules and regulations.
21.
Which of these statements concerning Webers concept of Bureaucracy is not correct?
(a) It is based on rules and procedures rather than personal preference and judgement.
(b) It is still a relevant concept in todays organisation.
(c) It has acquired a negative reputation for inefficiency and rigidity.
(d) It rejects rational approaches to managing organizations
22. Which of the following was an early key management idea, pre-dating the work of Frederick Taylor
and Max Weber?
(a) Differential pay rates.
(b) Rule-by-the-office.
(c) Work specialisation.
(d) Classical management theory.
23. Which of the following was the key aim of scientific management?
(a) To increase worker control of production.
(b) To increase productivity.
(c) To decrease absenteeism.
(d) To develop time-and-motion studies.
24. Which of the following is NOT a key concept associated with scientific management?
(a) One best way.
(b) Formalisation.
(c) Time-and-motion studies.
(d) Systematic selection.
25. Contingency theory suggests which of the following as a limitation of classical management
theory?
(a) Management approaches need to take into account the informal social life of workers at work.
(b) Management approaches need to take into account complexity and instability in the environment.
(c) Everything is contingent upon the workers in an organisation.
(d) Management practices need to recognise stability in the environment.
26. Which of the following is NOT true of scientific management?
(a) It gave rise to the modern operations research.
(b) It raises questions as to how rewards from increased productivity should be distributed.
(c) It is outdated as a theory as it cannot be applied to todays modern organisations.
(d) Managers are chosen for their intellectual ability and rationality.
27. Which of the following does NOT describe a problem with scientific management?
(a) Productivity increases may not be reflected in workers pay.
(b) It is better suited to complex jobs.
(c) Improvement is not necessarily maintainable.
(d) It is better suited to simple jobs.
28. Scientific management gave rise to which of the following modern disciplines?
(a) Theory Y.
(b) Behavioural science.
(c) Socio-technical systems.
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(d) Operations research.
29. Which of the following mens writings are associated with bureaucracy?
(a) Max Weber.
(b) Henri Fayol.
(c) Frederick Taylor.
(d) Douglas McGregor.
30. According to Fayols 14 principles of management, esprit de corps refers to which of the
following?
(a) Being treated fairly and kindly.
(b) Spirit of the corporation.
(c) Team work and harmony.
(d) Spirit of work.
31. Which of the following images best captures how classical management views the organisation?
(a) As an organism.
(b) As a human being.
(c) As a machine.
(d) As a wheel in an engine.
32. Which of the following is the odd one out?
(a) Management science.
(b) Management accounting.
(c) Operations management.
(d) Systems management.
33. In general, Theory Y and Theory X belong to which of the following perspectives?
(a) Socio-political.
(b) Bureaucratic.
(c) Cultural.
(d) None of these.
34. Which of the following is NOT part of the mix of behavioural sciences informing organisation
behaviours?
(a) Social psychology.
(b) Organisational theory.
(c) Systems theory.
(d) Psychology.
35.
The behavioural science approaches add which of the following emphases to management?
(a) The study of people who satisfy social needs at work and how informal as well as formal
organisation affects behaviour.
(b) Management as a science and developing techniques to control behaviour.
(c) The scientific study of human behaviour and developing behavioural techniques.
(d) None of these.
36.
ystems theory takes into account which of the following?
(a) The whole system of anything.
(b) Every system involving humans.
(c) Socio-technical systems.
(d) Open systems.
37.
hich of the following phrases is closely connected to contingency theory?
(a) No one best way.
(b) Todays ideas are tomorrows history.
(c) One best way.
(d) Universal ideas of good management.
38.
Which of the following is not a way of overcoming resistance to change?
(a) Incentives
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(b) Bullying and harassing people
(c) Education and communication
(d) Coercion
39.
Which of the following is the reason for resistance to change?
(a) Obsolecense of skills
(b) Fear of economic loss
(c) Fear of unknown
(d) All of the above.
40.
Changes which take place gradually without any resistance are
(a) Evolutionary
(b) Revolutionery
(c) Planned
(d) Unplanned.
41.
Which of the following is true with people with a Type A personality?
(a) They are generally content with their place in the world.
(b) They generally fell little need to discuss their achievements
(c) They are easy going and relaxed and thats why take no tension of work.
(d) They have an intense desire to achieve and are extremely competitive
42.
The difference between a companys mission statement and the concept of strategic vision is
that
(a) The mission statement lays out the desire to make a profit, whereas the strategic vision addresses
what strategy the company will employ in trying to make a profit.
(b) A mission statement deals with "where we are headed " whereas a strategic vision provides the
critical answer to "how will we get there?"
(c) A mission deals with what a company is trying to do and a vision concerns what a company ought
to do.
(d) A mission statement typically identifies what the company's products or services are (what we do)
and the customers and markets it serves (why we are here), whereas the focus of a strategic vision is on
"where we are going and why."
43.
The management process functions consist of
(a) Planning, organising, staffing and directing
(b) Planning, organising, leading and directing
(c) Planning, organising, leading and staffing
(d) Planning, organizing, leading and controlling.
Which of the following is not Kurt Lewins famous 3 stage perspective model of change?
44.
(a) Unfreezing current attitudes
(b) Refreezing attitudes at new level
(c) Moving to a new level
(d) Melting resistance.
45.
Forcefield analysis suggests that before a manager embarks on a change strategy he should
properly identify and evaluate ________ and ____________ .
(a) Positive forces, negative changes
(b) Driving forces, restraining forces
(c) External forces, internal forces
(d) Strong forces, weak forces.
46.
Which of the following is not an organ of company management?
(a) Officer
(b) Board of Directors
(c) Managing Director
(d) Secretary.
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47.
Disqualifications from becoming a Director of a company is
(a) Insolvency
(b) Fraudulent, declared by court
(c) Unsound mind
48.
The Central Government may appoint some directors for a period of ___________ in case of
mismanagement of company affairs
(a) 3 and half yrs
(b) Not more than 3 yrs
(c) 5 yrs
(d) Not more than 2 yrs.
49.
A director has to hold a minimum qualifying amount of shares of ` ___________ within ______
months after his appointment as director.
(a) 5000, 2
(b) 50,000, 2
(c) 5000, 5
(d) 5000, 3.
The maximum limit of holding Directorship in public companies is
50.
(a) 11 companies
(b) 12 companies
(c) 14 companies
(d) 15 companies.
51.
A person cannot be appointed as a Managing Director for more than ________ at a time.
(a) 5 yrs
(b) 6 yrs
(c) 7 yrs
(d) 4 yrs
52.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Public sector organization?
(a) Private ownership
(b) Primary profit making motive
(c) Strict financial control by Government
(d) None of the above.
53.
Which of the following industries does not come within the purview of 1991 Industrial Policy for
reservation for public sector?
(a) Handicrafts
(b) Atomic energy
(c) Arms Ammunitions
(d) Coal and lignite.
54.
Planning is based on:
(a) decision-making,
(b) forecasting,
(c) staffing,
(d) organising
[Hint: Planning is setting objectives and deciding how to accomplish them.]
55.
Planning do not consider:
(a) choice,
(b) communication,
(c) machine,
(d) coordination.
56.
Strategic plans are:
(a) single use plans,
(b) long range plans,
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(c) for lower management levels.
(d) standing plans
57.
Short-term plans guides:
(a) lower level management,
(b) bridges gap between past and present
(c) forecasting
(d) environmental factors
58.
Participating in the planning process makes:
(a) effective planning,
(b) cost reduction,
(c) increase output.
(d) perception of opportunities
Negative attitude and Commitment are not the basis for:
59.
(a) effective planning,
(b) environment,
(c) resistance.
(d) technology
60.
Planning is:
(a) looking ahead,
(b) guiding people,
(c) delegation of authority,
(d) fundamentals of staffing
Single use plans are:
61.
(a) applicable in non-recurring situation,
(b) deals with recurring situations,
(c) budgets,
(d) strategic
62.
Programs are a complex of:
(a) budgets,
(b) goals & policies,
(c) rules,
[Hint: Programs are complex of goals, policies, rules, procedures, tasks.]
63.
The limitations of planning are:
(a) proper environment,
(b) planning premises,
(c) wrong information,
(d) feasibility.
[Hint: Wrong information and time involved are the limitations of planning.]
64.
What are the three levels of planning?
(a) Operational, intermediate and strategic
(b) Headquarters, divisional and local
(c) Top, middle and bottom
(d) None of the above
65.
All of the following would be steps or concerns in the process of strategic planning except:
(a) Designing a sound business portfolio.
(b) Checking to see if an advertising spot had been run in its allotted time slot.
(c) Setting supporting objectives.
(d) Defining a clear company mission.
66. Identify the best definition of planning.
(a) An integrated process in which plans are formulated, carried out and controlled.
(b) The core activity of planners and planning departments.
(c) Setting an organisation's objectives and the means of reaching them.
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(d) Devising ways of achieving the objectives of an organisation.
67.
Budget refers to
(a) Planned target of performance
(b) Steps of handling future activities
(c) Systematic action and allocation of resources
(d) Statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms
68.
Which of the following indicates the importance of planning?
(a) Makes way for orderly activities
(b) Provides a basic for control in an organization
(c) Reduces risk of uncertainty
Which of the following is not a technique of planning?
69.
(a) Budgeting
(b) Balanced score card
(c) PERT CPM
(d) Management by Objectives.
70.
___________ plans have clearly defined objectives
(a) Directional
(b) Flexible
(c) Specific
(d) Standing.
71. Which one of the following does not fall under qualitative forecasting method?
(a) Life cycle analogy
(b) Moving average methods
(c) Judgmental methods
(d) Delphi method
72. For which of the following situation(s) is the market research method of forecasting suitable?
(a) When a firm is planning moderate changes on product innovations
(b) When a firm is market testing one of its new offerings
(c) when a firm is working with stable technology, planning moderate changes on product innovations
or market testing one of its new offerings.
(d) when a firm is planning moderate changes on product innovations and market testing one of its
new offerings.
73. Which of the following forecasting method is suitable for launching new products?
(a) Moving average methods
(b) Exponential smoothing
(c) Causal models
(d) Judgmental methods
74. Which of the following method(s) is(are) suitable for forecasting the demand of a product?
(a) Delphi method
(b) Market research
(c) Delphi method and judgmental method
(d) Market research and judgmental method
75.
Qualitative forecasting methods include
(a) delphi
(b) Panel of experts
(c) (a) and (c)
(d) (a) and (b)
76.
(a)
(b)
Forecasts
become more accurate with longer time horizons
are rarely perfect
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(c)
(d)
are more accurate for individual items than for groups of items
all of the above
77.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
One purpose of short-range forecasts is to determine

production planning
inventory budgets
research and development plans
job assignments
78.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Forecasts are usually classified by time horizon into three categories

short-range, medium-range, and long-range
finance/accounting, marketing, and operations
strategic, tactical, and operational
exponential smoothing, regression, and time series
79.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A forecast with a time horizon of about 3 months to 3 years is typically called a

long-range forecast
medium-range forecast
short-range forecast
weather forecast
80.
Organizing refers to:
(a) planning,
(b) delegation of authority,
(c) training,
(d) selection
81.
Organizing aims to serve:
(a) common purpose,
(b) corruption,
(c) authority structure,
82. Organizing destroys:
(a) individual relationships,
(b) plans,
(c) simplicity in the organization,
(d) environment.
83.
The principle of objective states:
(a) delegation of authority,
(b) existence for a purpose,
(c) formal organization,
(d) none of the above.
[Hint: An organization must exist for a purpose is the principle of objective.]
84.
For effective organizing, an organization required:
(a) principle of balance,
(b) span of management,
(c) organization process,
(d) planning and forecasting.
85.
The structure of organization includes:
(a) identification and classification of required activities,
(b) informal organization,
(c) establishing enterprise objectives,
(d) authority relationships.
86. The degree to which an organization relies on rules and procedures to direct the behaviour of
employees is:
(a) complexity,
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(b) formalization,
(c) centralization,
(d) motivation.
87.
In a formal organization, power is associated with:
(a) an individual,
(b) position,
(c) relationship,
(d) control
88.
Delegation is:
(a) a continuous process,
(b) unfolding talents,
(c) granting the right to command.
[Hint: Delegation is the act of granting of conferring something and the term authority means right to
command.]
89.
Unity of command means:
(a) parity of authority and responsibility,
(b) flow of command from subordinate to superior,
(c) flow of command from superior to subordinate,
(d) parity in controlling.
90.
Defective delegation:
(a) hampers coordination
(b) size of the organization,
(c) establish proper controls,
(d) establish sources of powers.
91.
Indicate which of the following is NOT among the six main types of organization structure
(a) Line organization
(b) Functional structure
(c) Committees
(d) Department
92.
Organisattion structure is primarily concerned with _______ and _______ of tasks and authority.
(a) Allocation and Delegation
(b) Allocation and apportionment
(c) Reporting and delegating
(d) Setting standards and delegation
93.
Line organization is also known as _____________ organization.
(a) Scalar
(b) Chain
(c) Matrix
(d) Project
94.
An advantage of the matrix structure is said to be
(a) Because product lines can be identified as cost centres,it facilitates financial control
(b) Top management has more time to devote to long term strategic issues
(c) It is easily understood by the people involved
(d) Improved lateral communications.
95.
Organizational structure is made up of key elements. Which of the following is not one of these
elements?
(a) Centralisation
(b) Coordination
(c) Decentralisation
(d) Span of control
96.
The foundations of behavioral theory of organization were laid down by _______________
conducted by ____________
(a) Structural experiments,Gullick
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(b) Bethlehem steel corporations, Mooney
(c) Hawthrone experiments, Mayo
(d) The longwell coal mining study,Weber
97.
The systems approach _______________________?
(a) Emphasises the technical requirements of the organization and its needs
(b) Emphasises the psychological and social aspects
(c) Encourages the managers to view the organization both as a whole and as a part of larger
environment
98.
The Contingency theory focuses on
(a) Situational variables
(b) Interrelationships
(c) Groups and human behavior
(d) Economic needs of workers
99.
___________ is attributed with developing the scientific management perspective.
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Robert Owens
(c) Frank Gilbirth
(d) Frederick Taylor
100.
____________ provides a focus and direction for formulating strategy to achieve organizational
objectives.
(a) Management by objectives
(b) Strategy by objectives
(c) Management by strategy
(d) Strategic planning model.
___________ refers to changes implemented by an organization due to pressure by external
101.
forces.
(a) Unplanned change
(b) Reactive change
(c) Proactive change
(d) Revolutionery change.
102.
Selection devices must:
(a) be explained,
(b) match the job in question,
(c) to be cost-effective
103.
The popular on-the-job training methods include:
(a) job rotation,
(b) classroom lectures,
(c) films.
(d) description and displays
[Hint: On-the-job training methods allow the workers to work in a realistic work environment and gather
experiences.]
104.
Need refers to:
(a) control information and performance review,
(b) key result areas and statement of objectives,
(c) agree what you expect from me,
[Hint: Need states agree what you refer from me and give me an opportunity to perform.]
Staffing refers to:
105.
(a) measuring performance,
(b) managing the positions,
(c) management in action,
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(d) making strategic plans.
[Hint: Staffing refers to appointing the right person for the right job.]
106.
Non-financial incentives have many things to do with:
(a) Directing,
(b) Motivation,
(c) Planning,
(d) organising.
107.
Staffing needs:
(a) man power planning,
(b) authority,
(c) communication,
(d) coordination.
[Hint: Staffing needs estimates of present and future needs of managerial man power and therefore it
needs some pre-thinking.]
HRD refers to:
108.
(a) remuneration,
(b) development,
(c) controlling,
(d) planning
109.
Recruitment covers:
(a) selection,
(b) job analysis,
(c) time,
[Hint: Recruitment covers job analysis, job design and job descriptions.]
Training is the process of:
110.
(a) motivation
(b) increasing knowledge and skill
(c) testing.
(d) employee recommendations.
111.
Vestibule training provides the worker with:
(a) on the job training,
(b) off the job training,
(c) real life presentations off the job
(d) demonstration
[Hint: The worker is provided with a real life presentation but not on the job directly.]
112.
What is the meaning of the acronym HRM?
(a) Humane Resource Management.
(b) Humanistic Resource Management.
(c) Human Resource Management.
(d) Human Relations Management.
113.
Which of the following is not a function normally performed by the HR department?
(a) Recruitment and selection.
(b) Accounting.
(c) Training and development.
(d) Pay and reward.
114.
Recruitment and selection must be effective to ensure it:
(a) Offsets high labour turnover
(b) Delivers the highest calibre of individuals at optimum most
(c) To have a surplus in case of sickness and absence
(d) Encourages new blood into the organization.
115.
Which of the following is not a selection technique?
(a) Performance appraisal
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(b) Ability test
(c) Psychometric testing
(d) Interviews
116.
The primary aim of recruitment and selection process is to
(a) Meet the high labour turnover
(b) Hire the best individuals at optimum cost
(c) Ensure the availability of surplus in case of sickness and absence
117.
Job evaluation is conducted to develop
(a) Compensation package
(b) Training modules
(c) Organisational grapevine
(d) Rules and policies.
118.
Which of the following defines the process of recruitment?
(a) Forecasting the demand of human resources
(b) Forecasting the supply of human resources
(c) Discovering potential job candidates for a particular position
(d) Making a hire or no hire decision.
119.
Which of the following is not a type of remuneration system under Time Rate System?
(a) High wage plan
(b) Measured day work
(c) Taylor System
(d) Differential time rate.
120.
Which of the following functions or activities requires recruiting and placing qualified
personnel needed for the organization so that it may achieve its objectives and goals?
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Organizing
(d) Controlling.
121.
Direction refers to:
(a) planning,
(b) organizing,
(c) driving,
(d) staffing
122.
Marry Follett pointed that reform was possible provided the following consideration were taken
into account:
(a) building up new attitudes,
(b) planning
(c) negative attitudes,
123.
The characteristics of direction include:
(a) guiding,
(b) motivating,
(c) planning,
(d) performance appraisal
124.
Direction is a:
(a) discrete process,
(b) continuous process,
(c) circular process,
(d) supervisory process
125.
The principles of direction do not include:
(a) to have a thorough knowledge about the terms to bind the employees and the organization,
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(b) to remove the inefficient employees,
(c) labour turnover,
(d) to have an effective communication superior and his subordinates.
126.
The techniques of direction excludes:
(a) an alternative device of communication,
(b) supervisory techniques,
(c) coordination,
(d) standard practices and procedures.
Hint: Coordination refers to the link between the different functions of management.
127.
Communication is a:
(a) two-way process,
(b) one-way process,
(c) discrete process,
(d) circular process
[Hint: Communication is a transfer of information from one person to another and getting the
feedback to check the efficiency of the message communicated.]
128.
The sketch shows the process of communication from A to B. What labels apply to the arrows that cross
in the centre?
(a) Stimulus; response
(b) Transmission; feedback
(c) Feedforward; feedback
(d) Encoding; decoding
129. What comprises the decoding stage of the communication model?
(a) Perception; retention.
(b) Attention; perception; retention
(c) Receiving; processing and storing information
(d) Short term memory; decoding; long term memory.
130.
What is the first step to take during communications planning?
(a) Decide on means of communication
(b) Identify communication constraints
(c) Conduct a stakeholder analysis
(d) Develop a communications management plan
131. Feedback is a listener's
(a) verbal critique of your message.
(b) verbal or nonverbal responses to a message.
(c) acceptance of a message.
(d) aversion to a message.
132. To decode a message is to
(a) translate ideas into code.
(b) reject a message.
(c) evaluate a message.
(d) interpret a message.
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133. In the communication process, to encode means to
(a) translate ideas into a code.
(b) block a pathway between the sender and receiver of a message.
(c) speak to large groups of people.
(d) interpret a code.
134. A message is a signal that serves as
(a) noise reduction.
(b) stimuli for a speaker.
(c) stimuli for a mass audience.
(d) stimuli for a receiver.
135. Feedback can come in the form of
(a) nonverbal communication only.
(b) verbal communication only.
(c) environmental noise.
(d) verbal and nonverbal listener responses.
136. In the communication process, a receiver is
(a) message interference.
(b) the person who decodes a message.
(c) a message pathway.
(d) the person who encodes an idea.
137. Noise does the following:
(a) causes listeners to listen to messages more carefully.
(b) focuses wandering thoughts.
(c) distorts or interferes with a message.
(d) enhances a message.
138. An example of a communication channel is
(a) face-to-face conversation.
(b) noise.
(c) feedback.
(d) context.
139. Which of the three components are part of the human communication process?
(a) Message, noise, feedback
(b) Feedback, message, critiquing
(c) Noise, feedback, jargon
(d) Message, recording, feedback
140. Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message?
(a) Eye contact
(b) Yelling
(c) Mumbling
(d) Jargon
141. The ability to communicate effectively
(a) depends on the education level of those around you.
(b) can be learned.
(c) is a natural talent that cannot be learned.
(d) depends on not using technology to send messages.
142. A message can only be deemed effective when it is
(a) communicated face-to-face.
(b) understood by others and produces the intended results.
(c) repeated back as proof of understanding.
(d) delivered with confidence.
143. Learning to communicate with others is key to
(a) establishing rewarding relationships.
Page 15

(b) never being misunderstood.
(c) eliminating all of your listeners' physiological noise.
(d) winning the approval of everyone around you.
144. Encoding is important because it
(a) guarantees that one's message will be decoded.
(b) encourages listener feedback.
(c) eliminates noise.
(d) Produces messages.
145.
When a subordinate or a lower level manager passes information or offers suggestions to the
higher level management, they are using which level of communication?
(a) Upward communication
(b) Downward communication
(c) Lateral communication
(d) Diagonal communication.
146.
Control is a function aimed at:
(a) economic development,
(b) staffing,
(c) organizational development,
(d) planning
147.
Control is a:
(a) static activity,
(b) plan,
(c) pervasive function,
(d) All of the above
148.
The objective of control is:
(a) take corrective actions,
(b) make plans,
(c) prepare manpower planning,
(d) influence and persuasiveness,
149.
In the sketch of the planning and control cycle, what do the arrows X and Y indicate?
(a) (X) Review plans, (Y) review implementation of plans.
(b) (X) Alter plans; (Y) alter implementation of plans.
(c) (X) Restart the planning process; (Y) confirm existing plans.
(d) (X) Proceed with normal planning review; (Y) intervene urgently in current action.
150.
Detecting irregularities is possible through:
(a) controlling,
(b) staffing,
Page 16

(c) decision-making,
(d) planning.
151.
Strategic control is implemented with:
(a) micro perspective,
(b) department perspective,
(c) macro perspective,
(d) motivational perspective
152.
Deviation is a term used in:
(a) controlling
(b) motivation
(c) directing
(d) staffing
[Hint: Deviation is the term used when the actual performance is not equal to the standard
performance.]
Controlling plays an important role in helping:
153.
(a) increase the costs,
(b) fixing standards,
(c) identify opportunities,
(d) time management
154.
Difficulty in controlling the external factors is a drawback for:
(a) controlling
(b) motivation
(c) staffing
(d) organising
155.
Effective control requires:
(a) flexibility
(b) rigidity
(c) high cost
(d) high time
156.
The standard performances need to be adjusted after measuring with:
(a) actual performances
(b) costs
(c) time involved
(d) external factors
[Hint: The actual performances should be measured with standards and the standard performances
need to be adjusted through controlling techniques and review procedures.]
157.
The process of monitoring performance monitoring it with goals and correcting any significant
deviations is known as
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Leading
(d) Controlling.
158.
Which of the factors listed below is not a reason for decision making in organizations being a
complex process?
(a) People have to make decisions in a historical context
(b) Several stakeholders will have an interest in the decision
(c) Factors in the current context of the organization affect the decision
(d) Modern information systems enable people to evaluate a range of possible outcomes.
159.
The overall process of decision making in, for example, staff selection includes which of these
stages?
(a) Deciding which candidate to appoint
(b) Identifying the need for a new member of staff
(c) Agreeing the job specification
Page 17

160.
A solution to a problem that is arrived at through an unstructured process of decision making
is called a:
(a) Bounded rationality
(b) Programmed decision
(c) Non-programmed decision
(d) Uncertainty
161.
As a manager moves to higher positions in an organisation the ability to make ______
becomes ______ important.
(a) Programmed; less
(b) Non-programmed; more
(c) Non-programmed; less
(d) Programmed; much more
162. Decision making situations can be categorized along a scale which ranges from:
(a) Certainty to risk to uncertainty to ambiguity
(b) Certainty to uncertainty to risk
(c) Certainty to risk to uncertainty
(d) Uncertainty to certainty to risk
163.
Maslow in his hierarchy has not considered:
(a) psychological needs,
(b) security needs,
(c) wealthy needs,
(d) existence needs.
164.
The features of leadership do not include:
(a) representation,
(b) initiation,
(c) planning,
(d) motivation
165.
Leadership has a lot of characteristics and a leader must not maintain this trait in his
behaviour:
(a) coexistence,
(b) taking responsibility,
(c) avoiding responsibility,
166.
Which of the following statements about leadership is false?
(a) Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an organisation.
(b) Not every leader is a manager.
(c) When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and defined.
(d) All the above.
167. Contingency theories of leadership are based on the belief that:
(a) there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations.
(b) there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers.
(c) there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations.
168. Another contingency model of leadership is the path-goal theory. This suggests that subordinates
will see leadership behaviour as a motivating influence if:
(a) path-goal relationships are clarified.
(b) their effective performance will satisfy their needs.
(c) the necessary direction, guidance, training and support is provided.
(d) all the above.
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169. When determining the most appropriate form of leadership, which of the following should be
considered?
(a)The manager.
(b) The work environment.
(c) The group.
(d) All the above.
170. The following phrase is used to describe a leader:
(a) relies on control strategies
(b) challenges status quo
(c) uses traditional influence
(d) acts with established culture
(e) maintains and allocates resources
171.
The "means" of leadership involve
(a) getting results through others.
(b) the ability to build cohesive, goal-oriented teams.
(c) the process of influencing an organized group toward accomplishing its goals.
(d) an interpersonal relation in which others comply because they want to, not because they have to.
172. Which of the following is a leadership trait?
(a) Dominance
(b) Energy
(c) Cognitive ability
(d) All responses are leadership traits
173. Which of the following statements is false about the behavioral theories of leadership?
(a) Consideration is a people-oriented dimension of leadership behavior
(b) Production-centered leader behavior focuses on tasks and has little concern for people
(c) Leaders high in initiating structure do not set deadlines or make individual task assignments
(d) Employee-centered leader behavior focuses on people and the quality of the social system.
174. Maslow and Herzberg are two examples of ___________ theories of motivation.
(a) process
(b) content
(c) expectancy
(d) equity
175. Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged in a series of levels, a hierarchy of importance.
Which of the following statements are relevant to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory?
(a) The hierarchy is not necessarily in a fixed order.
(b) A satisfied need is no longer a motivator.
(c) A need is not necessarily fully satisfied before a subsequent need arises.
176. According to Herzberg, which of the following may be regarded as hygiene/maintenance factors?
(a) Sense of achievement.
(b) Recognition.
(c) Personal growth and advancement.
177. Which of the following statements is true about the goal theory of motivation?
(a) People with easier goals will perform better than people with difficult goals.
(b) A person's level of commitment to a goal will not regulate the level of effort expended.
(c) People with difficult goals will perform better than people with easier goals.
(d) Research has shown that there is little support for the goal theory and its effects on motivation with
regard to the relationship between goal-setting and performance.
178. Douglas McGregor's view that suggests that employees will exercise self-direction and self-control
when they are committed to the objectives of the work is called:
(a) Theory B
(b) Theory X
(c) Theory Y
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(d) Theory A
179. Which step in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory deals with achieving one's potential?
(a) Esteem
(b) Physiological
(c) Self-actualization
(d) Social
180. Which of the following would be classified by Herzberg as a hygiene factor?
(a) Achievement
(b) Promotion
(c) Responsibility
(d) Company policy
181. Who proposed that achievement, affiliation and power are three important needs that help explain
motivation in workplace situations?
(a) McClelland
(b) Herzberg
(c) Alderfer
(d) Maslow
182. Company policy, administration, supervision, interpersonal relations, working conditions, and
salary are characterized as:
(a) Achievement factors
(b) Growth factors
(c) Motivating factors
(d) Hygiene factors
183. An employee's experiences in a situation or position outside his or her current organization is a
referent comparison called:
(a) Self-outside
(b) Other-inside
(c) Other-outside
(d) Self-inside
184. Theory X suggests that employees:
(a) Like their manager
(b) Dislike work
(c) Dislike their manager
(d) Like work
185. What three words define motivation?
(a) Intensity, direction, persistence
(b) Fairness, equity, desire
(c) Desire, persistence, fairness
(d) Ambition, direction, intensity
(e) Persistence, fairness, ambition
186. As a well-educated and highly esteemed businesswoman, Delores feels she has accomplished a
great deal in her life. She decides that she would like to give back to the community, so she makes a
sizable endowment to the local conservatory. She is also using her professional influence to draw the
public's attention to the needs of children who have cancer. Abraham Maslow would probably say that
Delores has reached the __________________ stage of his need hierarchy.
(a) esteem
(b) cognitive
(c) aesthetic
(d) self-actualization
187. Which of the following statements is false about the hierarchy of needs theory (Maslow)?
(a) Chronic frustration of needs has no ill effects
(b) The next higher-level need can become important, while a lower level is only partially satisfied
(c) Needs are not the only basis of human behavior
(d) A satisfied need is no longer a motivator
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188. Each of the following statements about the hierarchy of needs theory (Maslow) is true except
(a) A satisfied need does not motivate behavior
(b) People progress through the hierarchy in the same order without exception
(c) Behavior can focus on satisfying more than one need at a time
(d) The environment can affect behavior
189. Which of the following is false about motivator hygiene theory (Herzberg)?
(a) Motivators include achievement and the work itself
(b) Empirical research strongly supports the theory
(c) Dissatisfiers and satisfiers fall on two different continua
(d) Company policies are a hygiene factor
190.
Contingency theory of leadership are based on the belief that
(a) There is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
(b) There is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
(c) There is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers
191.
What does ERG stands for
(a) Effective, readiness and growth
(b) Expectancy, real and exist
(c) Existence, relatedness and growth
(d) Excellent relationship and growth.
192.
Theory X suggests that employees
(a) Dislike work
(b) Dislike managers
(c) Like work
193. Changes in behavior as a result of observation and manipulation of conditions in an environment
are termed:
(a) the Hawthorne effect
(b) group dynamics
(c) social influence
(d) sociometry.
194. Members within a group that share similar experiences and feelings are known to have:
(a) process
(b) universality
(c) content
(d) conflict.
195. An important factor of the preplanning stage in group dynamics is determining what the group is to
accomplish; this is known as ________________________.
(a) goal setting
(b) cohesion
(c) clarity of purpose
(d) group orientation
196.
____________ groups have members who have similar presenting problems or are similar in
gender, ethnicity, or social background
(a) Heterogeneous
(b) Ideal
(c) Dynamic
(d) Homogeneous
Role _________________ is a conflict between the role an individual has outside the group and
197.
the role he or she is expected to have in the group.
(a) collision
(b) transition
Page 21

(c) confusion
(d) incompatibility.
198. Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups?
(a) Group members are interdependent
(b) Groups have two or more members
(c) Groups have assigned goals
(d) Groups interact.
199. What sort of groups is defined by the organizations structure?
(a) informal
(b) task
(c) friendship
(d) formal
200. When do informal groups appear?
(a) in response to the need for social contact
(b) in reaction to formal groups
(c) as a result of social needs
(d) most frequently in bureaucracies
201. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) All task groups are also command groups
(b) All command groups are also task groups
(c) All task groups are also friendship groups
(d) All command groups are also informal groups
As per Cartwright which of the following characteristics of a group is a means for overcoming
202.
resistance to change
(a) Incentives
(b) Coercion
(c) Education
(d) Strong sense of belonging.
203. Each statement below is true about conflict and conflict management in organizations except
(a) Conflict management includes both increasing and decreasing conflict
(b) Conflict is necessary for organizational survival
(c) Conflict management is not a basic management responsibility
(d) Conflict includes interactions in which one party opposes another party.
204. Which of the following statements is false about functional and dysfunctional conflict in
organizations?
(a) Conflict is dysfunctional when it is lower than a group requires for reaching its goals
(b) Conflict management does not involve maintaining conflict at functional levels
(c) Conflict that is functional in one group can be dysfunctional in another group
(d) Dysfunctionally high conflict can reduce trust.
205. All but one of the following statements accurately describe aspects of levels and types of conflict
in organizations. Which statement does not?
(a) Intraorganization conflict includes all types of conflict between organizations.
(b) Interpersonal conflict is conflict between two or more people.
(c) Intergroup conflict is conflict between two or more groups.
(d) Intrapersonal conflict is conflict that occurs within a person.
206. Each statement below is true about conflict management except
(a) Innovative products or services require a higher desired conflict level than more routine products or
services
(b) If conflict in a work unit is dysfunctionally low, the manager tries to increase conflict
(c) A manager's tolerance for conflict can affect the manager's perception of desired conflict levels in
a workgroup
(d) Desired conflict levels do not vary from one group to another and for the same group over time.
Page 22

207. Which of the following is false about reducing conflict?
(a) Compromise uses negotiation to reduce conflict. It splits the differences between the parties in
conflict
(b) Problem solving usually does not find a conflict episode's root causes
(c) Avoidance prevents a person from facing a conflict episode
(d) A superordinate goal is a goal desired by all parties to the conflict but not reachable by any party
alone.
208. Which of the following does not increase conflict in organizations?
(a) Superordinate goal
(b) Devil's advocate
(c) Heterogeneous groups
(d) Organizational culture
209. Which of the following is false about ethical issues in conflict in organizations?
(a) Variation in optimum conflict levels among countries
(b) Subtle methods of increasing conflict
(c) Intrapersonal conflict from requests for immoral acts
(d) Conflict higher than a person's tolerance level
210.
One of the advantages of conflict is that it forces you to examine problems and work towards
a potential __________.
(a) Solution
(b) Outcome
(c) Experience
(d) Relationship
Conflict that refers to a disagreement among connected individuals is
211.
(a) Interpersonal
(b) Intrapersonal
(c) Friendly conflict
(d) Negative conflict
212.
The first stage of conflict resolution is to
(a) Chose a solution
(b) Define the problem
(c) Think through possible solutions
(d) Analyse the problem
213.
Which of the following is conflict resolution skill?
(a) Accomodating
(b) Passive listening
(c) Active listening
(d) Avoiding
214.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Who considered organization to be similar to the architectural plan of a building?

Fayol
Weber
Newman
Taylor
215.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Functional foremanship is the concept underlying the following organization

Matrix
Functional
Product
Divisional
216.
Which nature of organization structure is suitable for aircraft manufacture, aerospace/
construction, consultancy etc?
(a)
Project
(b)
Matrix
(c)
Functional
(d)
Line
Page 23
217.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which management principle does matrix organization violate?

Unity of command
Unity of Direction
Espirit de corps
Centralization
218.
A rapidly changing adaptive temporary system of a group of people with diverse professional
skills are known as
(a)
Line organization
(b)
Staff organization
(c)
Matrix organization
(d)
Free form organization
219.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Free form organization is more suitable in ............................. environment

dynamic
stable
rigid
none of these
220.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A concern having textile, chemicals, plastics fertilizers follow departmentation based on

process
product
functions
geographical areas
221.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The act of entrusting subordinates with the same power that are of the superior is termed
Decentralization
Centralization
Delegation
Departmentation
222.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
_______ applies to the systematic delegation of authority in an organization-wide context

Delegation
Decentralization
Centralization
None of the above
223.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Authority should be commensurate with responsibility is the best way to achieve

Decentralization
Communication
Control
Effective delegation
224.
Organization structure deliberately created by the management for achieving the objectives
of the enterprise is called
(a)
Product organization
(b)
Functional organization
(c)
Formal organization
(d)
Informal organization
225.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Grapevine is another term used to describe

Formal organization
Project organization
226.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The unofficial and social pattern of human interactions is observed in

Formal organization
None of these
Page 24

227.
When departmentation is done based on production, sales, financing and personnel, it is
termed as
(a)
Functional departmentation
(b)
Product departmentation
(c)
Composite departmentation
(d)
Customer departmentation
228.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A suitable basis of departmentation is decided considering

Specialization of work
Customers
Control
Top management
229.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Organization theory is predominantly _________ and _________ in nature

descriptive and normative
normative and predictive
exploratory and descriptive
descriptive and predictive
230.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Machine theory has been popularized as

Scientific Management
Administrative Management
Bureaucracy
None of these
231.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The concept of span of control was propounded by

Graicunas
Fayol
Taylor
Mc Gregor
232.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Blake and Mouton propounded the concept of

Tri dimensional theory
Bureaucracy
Contingency
Managerial grid
233.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The Latin term persona is used to describe

perception
personality
attitude
learning
234.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Being outgoing, talkative, sociable, assertive indicated which personality dimention

Agreeableness
Emotional stability
Extroversion
Openness to experience
235.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
An individuals view of reality is

Selection
perception
interpretation
organisation
236.
The tendency of judging people on the basis of the characteristics of the group to which they
belong is termed
(a)
attribution
(b)
projection
(c)
stereotyping
(d)
inference
Page 25

237.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The law of exercise in learning is based on

classical conditioning
operant conditioning
Social learning
cognitive learning
238.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Negative reinforcement involves the threat of

Extinction
Punishment
Criticism
None of these
239.
According to MASLOWS Hierarchy of needs theory, human needs are to be arranged in the
following hierarchy of importance,________________________________________
(a)
Physiological needs>social needs>safety needs>esteem needs > self actualisation needs
(b)
Physiological needs>safety needs>esteem needs>social needs > self actualisation needs
(c)
Safety needs>physiological needs>social needs>esteem needs > self actualisation needs
(d)
Physiological needs>safety needs>social needs>esteem needs > self actualisation
240.
Douglas McGregors theory X and Theory Y of motivation, proposed two distinct views of
human beings, ____________________
(a)
Satisfied and dissatisfied
(b)
Optimistic and pessimistic
(c)
Positive and negative
(d)
Happy and sad
Which of the following is not an assumption according to theory X,
241.
(a)
Employees inherently dislike work and, whenever possible will attempt to avoid it.
(b)
Since employees dislike work, they must be coerced, controlled, or threatened with
punishment to achieve goals.
(c)
Employees will avoid responsibilities and seek formal direction whenever possible.
(d)
Most workers place self actualisation above all other factors associated with work and are
highly ambitious.
242.
According to Herzbergs motivation hygiene theory, the opposite of satisfaction
is,____________________
(a)
Dissatisfaction
(b)
No satisfaction
(c)
No dissatisfaction
(d)
All of the above
Victor vrooms expectancy theory of motivation focuses on three relationships: effort
243.
performance relationship, performance - reward relationship and_______________________
(a)
Rewards- organisational goals relationship
(b)
Performance organisational goals relationship
(c)
Rewards personal goals relationship
(d)
Performance personal goal relationship
244.
Management by objectives is not a new concept of motivation, it was originally proposed
more than 45 years ago by,
(a)
Peter Drucker
(b)
Abraham Maslow
(c)
David McClelland
(d)
Frederic Herzberg
245.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is the second stage of group formation,

Forming stage
Initial integration stage
Storming stage
None of the above
Page 26

246.
We all know that mainly two types of groups exist in an organisation namely formal and
informal. But what are the two types of formal groups in an organisation?
(a)
Command groups and interest groups
(b)
Interest groups and task groups
(c)
Task groups and psychological groups
(d)
Command groups and task groups
247.
A well integrated group is able to disband, if required, when its work is accomplished. This
stage is known as,
(a)
Disbanding stage
(b)
Disintegration stage
(c)
Adjourning stage
(d)
None of the above
248.
Organisational culture performs a number of functions within an organisation. Which of the
following is not one such function:
(a)
It creates distinction between one organization and another.
(b)
It facilitates the generation of commitment to ones individual self interest only
(c)
It conveys a sense of identity for organisation members
(d)
It enhances social system stability.
249.
The _________ are perspectives of motivation that identify specific needs that energize
behavior.
(a)
content theories of motivation
(b)
process theories of motivation
(c)
equity theory and OB mod theory
(d)
expectancy theories
250.
_________ is attributed with the development of the Two-Factor Theory of motivation.
(a)
Abraham Maslow
(b)
David McClelland
(c)
Frederick Herzberg
(d)
Stacy Adams
251.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Hygiene factors are similar to the _____________ needs identified by the Hierarchy of Needs.
higher order
three-tiered
lower order
none of the above
252.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is a strategic way in which employees strive to reduce inequity?
Focus specifically on the behavior in question and attempt to alter it.
Maintain the same comparison person as before.
Changing their inputs and/or outcomes
None of the above.
253.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which theory is considered to deal with consequences?

Reinforcement Theory
Two-Factor Theory
Equity Theory
Hierarchy of Needs Theory
254.
Which of the following is/are a recommendation(s) to prevent the potential side effects of
punishment?
(a)
Focus specifically on the behavior in question.
(b)
Always punish in private.
(c)
Specify alternative behaviors that will prevent mistakes from being repeated.
(d)
All of the above.
255. Which motivation theory focuses on establishing future performance targets?
(a) Goal theory
(b) Reinforcement theory
(c) Equity theory
Page 27

(d) None of the above
256. Jackson is a line worker for the local clothing manufacturer. Even though he does not possess an
official title or a private office, Jackson is more than willing to give his complete dedication to assisting
the organization in achieving its mission of producing a quality product. This willingness to pursue an
organizational goal is a demonstration of _____________.
(a) motivation
(b) positive reinforcement
(c) goal commitment
(d) goal setting
257. Which of the following is/are suggested for a successful management by objectives program?
(a) Establish a time frame for achievement
(b) Establish performance targets
(c) Prioritize goals
258. Which theory of motivation starts with an assumption that employees are rational?
(a) Goal setting theory
(b) Expectancy theory
(c) Reinforcement theory
(d) Herzberg's Two-Factor theory
259. The desired "performance of skill acquisition is attributable to ___________.
(a) expectancy theory
(b) reinforcement theory
(c) skill-based pay programs
(d) none of the above
260. Wide range of abilities and attributes possessed by people are called as
(a) Management
(b) Human Resources
(c) Entrepreneur
(d) Intreprenuer
261. The focus of Human Resource Management revolves around
(a) Machine
(b) Motivation
(c) Money
(d) Men
262. Quality goals require alignment with
(a) Production
(b) Human Resources
(c) Finance
(d) Purchase
263. Demand for human resources and management is created by
(a) Expansion of industry
(b) Shortage of labour
(c) Abundance of capital
(d) Consumer preferences
264. Union function arises as a result of employees
(a) Problem of communication
(b) Longing for belonging
(c) Dissatisfaction
(d) Change in technology
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265. Human Resource Management is primarily concerned with
(a) Sales
(b) Dimensions of people
(c) External environment
(d) Cost discipline
266. Human Resource Management aims to maximize employees as well as organizational
(a) Effectiveness
(b) Economy
(c) Efficiency
(d) Performativity
267. The difference between human resource management and personnel management is
(a) Insignificant
(b) Marginal
(c) Narrow
(d) Wide
268. Human Resource Management function does not involve
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Cost control
(d) Training
269. Which one is not the specific goal of human resource management?
(a) Attracting applicants
(b) Separating employees
(c) Retaining employees
(d) Motivating employees
270. Identify the top most goal of human resource management
(a) Legal compliance
(b) Competitive edge
(c) Work force adaptability
(d) Productivity
271. To achieve goals organizations require employees
(a) Control
(b) Direction
(c) Commitment
(d) Cooperation
272. Human resource management helps improve
(a) Production
(b) Productivity
(c) Profits
(d) Power
273. The amount of quality output for amount of input means
(a) Productivity
(b) Production
(c) Sales increase
(d) Increase in profits
274. Responding to employees and involving them in decision making is referred to as
(a) Quality of work life
(b) Autonomy
(c) Empowerment
(d) Preaction
275. Within an organisation, leadership influence will be dependent upon the type of ________ that the
leader can exercise over the followers.
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Knowledge
Power
delegation
friendship
276. Legitimate power is based on the subordinate's perception that the leader has a right to exercise
influence because of the leader's
(a) role or position within the organisation.
(b) expertise and knowledge.
(c) personal characteristics and personality.
(d) ability to punish or reward.
277. Needs such as training the group, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing
sub-leaders may be called
(a) task functions.
(b) individual functions.
(c) work functions.
(d) team functions.
278. Contingency theories of leadership are based on the belief that
(a) there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers.
(b) there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations.
(c) there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations.
279. Another contingency model of leadership is the path-goal theory. This suggests that subordinates
will see leadership behaviour as a motivating influence if
(a) path-goal relationships are clarified.
(b) the necessary direction, guidance, training and support is provided.
(c) their effective performance will satisfy their needs.
(d) all the above.
280. Culture refers to
(a) gender equality.
(b) race or nationality.
(c) the specialized lifestyle of a group of people.
(d) genetic similarities.
281. The transmission of culture from one generation to another is called
(a) culture shock.
(b) acculturation.
(c) individualistic.
(d) enculturation.
282. The process by which one learns the norms of a culture different from your native culture is
(a) culturation.
(b) acculturation.
(c) interculturation.
(d) multiculturalism.
283. Low power distance cultures include
(a) Iceland, Australia, Sweden and the U.S.
(b) Denmark, New Zealand, Sweden and the U.S.
(c) India, Morocco, Brazil and the Philippines.
(d) India, Brazil, China and the Philippines.
284. In a masculine culture, men are viewed as
(a) weak, marginal and ineffective.
(b) assertive, oriented to material success and strong.
(c) incredible, strong and assertive.
(d) strong, sensible and funny.
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285. In a feminine culture, both men and women are encouraged to be
(a) tender, modest and forgiving.
(b) assertive, oriented to material success and strong.
(c) modest, oriented to maintaining the quality of life and tender.
(d) tender, intelligent and forgiving.
286. An individualist culture promotes
(a) benevolence.
(b) tradition.
(c) competition.
(d) conformity.
287. Culture shock is
(a) a physiological reaction that can occur when experiencing a culture for the first time.
(b) the honeymoon period experienced when introduced to a different way of life.
(c) a psychological reaction that can occur when overexposed to a culture different from your own.
(d) a psychological reaction that can occur when experiencing a culture for the first time.
288. Intercultural communication occurs when
(a) those with different cultural beliefs, values or ways of behaving communicate with one another.
(b) different ethnic backgrounds meet.
(c) different cultural beliefs cause conflict.
(d) different races gather for conferences and seminars.
289. A low context culture is one where
(a) most of the information is explicitly stated in the verbal message.
(b) most of the information is nonexistent.
(c) most of the information is unspoken.
(d) most of the information is apparent.
290. A high context culture is one where
(a) much of the information is spoken.
(b) much of the information is in the context or in the person.
(c) most people use sign language.
(d) much of the information is unspoken.
291. In which type of culture is competition encouraged?
(a) Ethnocentric culture
(b) Selfish culture
(c) Individualist culture
(d) Collectivist culture
292. When people who study communication focus their attention on spoken symbolic interaction, their
primary interest is in which of the following?
(a) The unspoken body language that people use
(b) The way people use words to create common meaning
(c) All of the ways organisms (including non-human organisms) create meaning
(d) The unintentional behaviors that accompany speaking
293. The essential components of communication are
(a) source, message, interference, channel, receiver, feedback, environment, and context.
(b) symbols, understanding, communication, and communicant.
(c) symbols, understanding, purpose, ideas, opinions, nonverbals, and reaction.
(d) source, destination, interaction, and correlation.
294. The primary channels that individuals use to communicate with others are
(a) television and radio.
(b) voice mail, conventional mail, and e-mail.
(c) sight and sound.
(d) touch and tone of voice.
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295. A component in the communication process that we often send without being aware of it is
(a) verbal communication.
(b) an encoded message.
(c) feedback.
(d) a message sent via touch.
296. The context of an interaction includes two major components
(a) a business proposal and a personal friendship.
(b) the physical setting and the encoding.
(c) the supportive climate and the defensive climate.
(d) the physical setting and the psychological climate.
297. Which aspect of a message focuses on new information or ideas?
(a) channel
(b) content
(c) relationship
(d) Context
298. Which of the following is the definition of a speech act?
(a) People who share common attitudes toward speech
(b) An identifiable sequence of speech activity
(c) The purpose served by a given form of talk
(d) A clearly marked occasion that calls for speech
299. The idea that "communication is a process of adjustment" means that
(a) people have to learn each other's meanings for words, as well as their nonverbal behaviors during
communication.
(b) people will adapt to others' attitudes and speech while communicating.
(c) both the content and relational dimensions of a message can change during communication.
(d) people usually engage in complementary transactions during communication.
300. Which of the following approaches to Human Resource Management suggests that treating
employees with respect would improve employee satisfaction and help in achieving higher
productivity?
(a) Technical Management Approach
(b) Human Accounting Approach
(c) Human Relations Approach
(d) Scientific Management Approach
301. Which of the following tests measure an individuals ability to learn a given job, when adequate
training is given and do not test the knowledge or proficiency possessed by the individual?
(a) Interest tests
(b) Achievement tests
(c) Situational tests
(d) Aptitude tests
302. Which of the following concept refers to attributing an appropriate value to the worth of human
resources in the organization?
(a) Human resource planning
(b) Human resource accounting
(c) Human resource development
(d) Human resource management
303. The employment agencies in which fresh graduates and technicians in search of suitable
employment would first register themselves are known as
(a) Global agencies.
.
(b) Private agencies.
(c) Local agencies.
(d) Public or state agencies
Page 32

304.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following cannot act as a force for change?

Technology
World politics
Decreasing skills set
Social
305.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Activities related to change which are intentional and goal oriented are termed as?
Planned change
Second order change
First order change
Change agent
306.
If an organization used an outside consultant as opposed to an insider as change agent, the
result would probably be:
(a)
More cautious and thoughtful.
(b)
More reflective of the organizations history and culture.
(c)
More objective.
(d)
Reflective of the fact that change agents must live with the consequences of their actions.
307.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The most relevant disadvantage of using outside consultants as change agents is:
The cost.
Internal members do not accept external recommendations.
They do not have to live with the repercussions after the change.
They cannot offer an objective perspective
308.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Resistance to change is positive since:

It provides a degree of stability to behavior and productivity.
Without some resistance, OB would take on characteristics of chaotic randomness.
Resistance can be a source of functional conflict.
All of the above
309.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
It is easiest for management to deal with resistance when it is:

Overt.
Subtle.
Passive.
Implicit.
310.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Give an example for individual resistance to change?

Group inertia.
Structural inertia.
Habit.
Threat to expertise.
311.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a source of individual resistance to change?

Habit
Security
Fear of the unknown
Structural inertia
312.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which is not a source of organizational resistance to change?

Structural inertia.
Security.
Limited focus of change.
Threat to established power relationships
313.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following is not a tactic for dealing with resistance to change?
Cooperation
Manipulation
Participation
Negotiation
Page 33

314.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Using covert influence to overcome resistance to change is called:

Participation.
Cooptation.
Manipulation.
Coercion.
315.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The application of direct threats or force upon resisters is called:

Power.
Cooptation.
Manipulation.
Coercion.
316.
Politics suggest that the impetus for change is more likely to come from:
(a)
Outside change agents.
(b)
Employees who are new to the organization.
(c)
Managers slightly removed from the main power structure.
(d)
All of the above
Who developed a three-step model for change that included unfreezing, movement, and
317.
refreezing?
(a)
Mary Parker Follett
(b)
David McClelland
(c)
Kurt Lewin
(d)
Chester Barnard
318.
_____ is a change process based on systematic collection of data and then selection of a
change action based on what the analyzed data indicate.
(a)
Organizational development
(b)
Action research
(c)
Sensitivity training
(d)
Process consultation
319. William Marsteller once said that, "Communication is not just words, paint on a canvas, math
symbols, or the equations and models of scientists; it is the interrelations of human beings trying to
escape ________, trying to share experience, trying to implant ideas."
(a) Loneliness
(b) Compartmentalization
(c) Boredom
(d) Their own cages
320. Communication is the __________ or accidental transfer of meaning.
(a) Unintentional
(b) Deliberate
(c) Strategic
(d) Conscientious
321. Intrapersonal communication is best defined as:
(a) The relationship level of communication.
(b) Interactions with a limited number of persons.
(c) Communication designed to inform or persuade audience members.
(d) Communication with the self.
322. Public communication can best be defined as:
(a) Communication designed to inform or persuade audience members.
(b) The relationship level of communication.
(c) Interactions with a limited number of persons.
(d) Communication with the self.
323. The communication process has several elements. Of these, what is the "content of a
communicative act?"
(a) Message
(b) People
(c) Channel
(d) Noise
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324. Feedback, one of the more important parts of the communication process, comes in many
varieties. Of those listed below, which is "a behavior enhancing response?"
(a) Positive feedback
(b) Negative feedback
(c) Internal feedback
(d) External feedback
325. There are two (2) crucial characteristics of communication. First, communication is dynamic; the
elements of the process are always affecting each another. Second, communication is unrepeatable
and ___________.
(a) Unrecognizable
(b) Irreversible
(c) Distinct
(d) Reversible
To become more adept at communicating with persons who are culturally different from
326.
ourselves, we need to learn not only about their cultures, but about ___________.
(a)
Their various subcultures
(b)
Our own culture
(c)
Their religion
(d)
Their language
327.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Cultural pluralists advocate adherence to the principle of ...

High-text communication
Low-text communication
Cultural relativity
Ethnocentrism
328.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Demographers tell us that _________ will shape our country's future.

Ignorance
Diversity
Individualism
Conformity
329.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
To communicate interculturally, it is important to limit one's reliance on ___________.

Stereotypes
Technology
Friendship
Media
330.
It is important to ____________ the communication rules of other cultures to communicate
effectively.
(a)
Debate
(b)
Restructure
(c)
Challenge
(d)
None of the above
331.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a norm?

Participation
Hunger
Positive Attitude
Confidentiality
332.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not an example of group influence on an individual?

minority influence.
deindividuation.
social facilitation.
social loafing.
333.
(a)
(b)
Social facilitation is the term used to describe the tendency for the presence of others
to affect our likelihood to help.
to either enhance or impair performance.
Page 35

(c)
(d)
to make a person act more extroverted.

to make a person act more introverted.
334.
What is the term used to describe when a person's identity and self-awareness are diffused by
being in the presence of a group, and a person might act in an unrestrained manners?
(a)
deinstitutionalization.
(b)
deindividuation.
(c)
decineration.
(d)
declination.
335.
Group polarization occurs when
(a)
members in a group interact, but, instead of changing their minds about a topic, they keep
their original ideas and strengthen those ideas.
(b)
the group members do not interact, and the members reverse their decisions to the opposite
point of view.
(c)
social loafing is strong and deindividuation is weak.
(d)
the members in a group interact, and based upon what they hear, they discard their original
ideas in favor of the other group members' ideas.
336.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which researcher coined the term "groupthink"?

Leon Festinger
Norman Triplett
Irving Janis
Irwin Yalom
337.
Groupthink is used to describe
(a)
the positive aspects that occur when a group works together.
(b)
group dynamics that can interfere with group decision-making processes and can produce
disastrous results.
(c)
when group members have in-jokes and give each other knowing glances.
(d)
when group members are on the same wavelength and complete each others sentences.
338.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Research on working in pairs, teams, or in groups has shown that

collaborations are never productive.
teamwork is never as good as working alone.
group problem solving tasks always dilute original ideas.
collaborations can be productive.
339.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Minority influence can

never sway the majority of the group members to the other point of view.
steer other group members who hold the majority view over to the minority point of view.
decrease creativity.
increase superficiality.
340.
It is through ______________ that group members can be inspired, motivated, and guided to be
successful and productive.
(a)
fellowship
(b)
sportsmanship
(c)
Coercion
(d)
leadership
341.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which style of leadership focuses on goals, standards, and organization?

task leadership
social leadership
semantic leadership
transformational leadership
342.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which style of leadership focuses on team building, conflict resolution, and morale?
surrogate leadership
social leadership
transparent leadership
task leadership
Page 36

343.
The transformational leadership style
(a)
Encourages group members to transform themselves into better people.
(b)
Strives to change the group members' opinions by showing them a better way to think.
(c)
changes opinions and attitudes without changing behaviors.
(d)
Encourages and inspires group members to go above and beyond selfish interests and do what
is best for the common good of the group as a whole.
344.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Social comparison theory is offered as one explanation for ______________.

group polarization
pluralistic ignorance
summation polarity
group adhesion
345.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Influencing others to work willingly toward achieving the firms objectives is:
Organizing
Motivation
Leadership
Management
346.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Effective leadership reflects a balance of:

Traits and skills
Leadership styles or behaviors
Situations and influences
a and b
347.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Traits or skills on which leaders differ from non-leaders include:

Honesty and integrity
Self-confidence
Drive and the desire to lead
All of the above
348.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Sources from which leaders derive power include:

Position held
Authority to reward or punish
Expert knowledge
All of the above
349.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A leaders people oriented functions include:

Reducing tension and boosting morale
Making the job more pleasant
Defending the groups values, attitudes and beliefs
All of the above
350.
Leaders that focus on the individuality and personality needs of their employees and
emphasize building good interpersonal relationships are:
(a)
Job centered
(b)
Laissez-faire
(c)
Employee oriented
(d)
Consideration oriented
351.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Leaders that focus on production and the jobs technical aspects are:
Job centered
Laissez-faire
General
Autocratic
352.
The extent to which a leader lets followers make decisions themselves rather than making the
decisions for them is focused on by _______________ leadership styles.
(a)
Laissez-faire and general
(b)
Participative and autocratic
(c)
Employee-oriented and job-centered
(d)
Laissez-faire and close
Page 37

353.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
______________ leaders solve problems and make decisions alone.

Laissez-faire
Job-centered
Autocratic
Situational
354.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Leaders who enlist the help of subordinates as a group to solve problems is:
Situational
Laissez-faire
Participative
Employee-oriented
355.
A leader uses _____________ when giving the individual or group the authority and responsibility
to make a decision.
(a)
Consultation
(b)
Laissez-faire
(c)
Joint decision
(d)
Delegation
356.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Advantages of participative decision making include:

Employees set higher goals for themselves
More points of view are offered
Participants buy into the final decision
All of the above
357.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Whether a leader is charismatic is determined by:

Follower perceptions
Context of the leadership situation
Individual and collective need of followers
All of the above
358.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The fix style of leadership depends upon the:

Nature of the task
Capabilities of employees
a and b
All of the above
359.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Identify the best definition of planning

An integrated process in which plans are formulated carried out and controlled.
Setting an organizations objectives and the means of reaching them.
Devising ways of achieving the objectives of an organisation.
The core activity of planners and planning departments.
360.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What is planning horizon?

The distance ahead for the forecasts on which plans are made.
The maximum time for which managers can make plans.
The time between making a plan and putting it into effect.
The time ahead for which there is no information.
361.
What three problems commonly hindering successful planning did we identify?
(a)
Procedures unsuited to change; negative organisational culture; poor interpersonal
relationships.
(b)
Lack of planning expertise; little top management support; misuse of planning specialists.
(c)
An oversized planning department; poor co-operation between managers and planners;
managers with little time to gather information.
(d)
Conflict among objectives; impossibility of measuring outcomes; confusion between means
and ends.
362.
for what is known as 'Plan B'?
(a)
A contingency plan.
(b)
A convergence plan.
(c)
A circumstantial plan.
What is the more formal term
Page 38

(d)
A crisis plan.
363.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What is the duty to act according to the authority that has been given?
Professionalism
Delegation
Responsibility
Probity
364.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What are the three themes found in the choice of organisational divisions?
Growth, specialization and co-ordination
Products, customers and geography
Hierarchy, level and chain of command
Size, diversity and independence
365.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In which organisational form are there dual or multiple lines of authority?

Multidivisional
Decentralised
Network
Matrix
366.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which concept does personality represent?

zero concept
whole concept
full concept
empty concept
367.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which determinant of personality determines the actual learning of a person?

biological
social
culture
situational
368.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Who divided in two types -(tough minded and tender minded) to judge the personality?
william james
luthans
spranger
murray
369.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What are the three kinds of personality according to Jung?

extrovert, talkative, ambivert
introvert lazy talkative
extrovert, introvert, ambivert
talkative,ambivert,lazy
370.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Who classified people in terms of values?

jung
spranger
luthans
carl rogers
371.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Alport makes a distinction between which two traits?

a.common and uncommon traits
uncommon and personal traits
common traits and personal disposition
d.tough traits and common traits
372.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What are the two traits according to catell's trait theory?

surface and base trait
surface and source trait
base and source trait
source and end traits
Page 39

373.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What are more traditional concepts of explaining human behavior?

self theory
unself theory
trait and type theory
type and self theory
374.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which theory studys the person-situation ineraction?

a.self theory
social theory
c.trait theory
type theory
375.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is a characteristics of leadership?

a function of stimulation
a process of leaning
process of obeying commands
process of getting motivated by others
376.
Leadership is the procces whoose important ingridient is the _____________ exercised by the
leaders on the group members .
(a)
friendship
(b)
loyalty
(c)
ctrust
(d)
influence
377.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
According to louis A allen a leader is a person who____________ other people.

guides and directs
socializes with
participates with
tolerates
378.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What style does an autocratic leader follow?

who consults with people in the group then give instructions
One who gives order which must be obeyed
who does not lead
who does not take any responsibility
379.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Why is autocratic leadership considered negetive?

people are uninformed,insecued and afraid of the leader
leader is extra friendly
too much confusion arises
very participative
380.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A________________ leader is one who gives instruction only after consulting the group.
democratic
socialist
autocratic
free rein/laissez faire
381.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A ____________ leader avoids power and leaves the group entirely to itself.
socialistic
democratic
autocratic
382.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A ___________ leader assumes his function to be fatherly.

socialistic
democratic
paternal
383.
(a)
System 1 management ,managers make what kind of decisions?

employess personal life realted
Page 40

(b)
(c)
(d)
work related
socialy related
related to society
384.
Maslow suggests that needs are arranged in a series of levels, on the basis of importance.In this
regard which of the following are relevant to the Maslows Hierarchy of needs theory?
(a)
A need once satisfied does not motivate an individual
(b)
Once a need is satisfied it is replaced by another need
(c)
Needs are same for all individuals
(d)
All of the above
385.
Leaders who inspire their followers to surpass their self interests for the good of the good of the
organization are called?
(a)
Democratic leaders
(b)
Autocratic leaders
(c)
Transformational
(d)
Transactional
386.
The term used for defining the number of subordinates under a manager in an organization is
called?
(a)
Span of management
(b)
Control of management
(c)
Division management
(d)
Departmentalization
387.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Hygiene factors are similar to ______ needs as identified in the Hierarchy of needs.
Lower order
Higher order
3Tiered
None of the above
388.
Which of the following theories are similar to Maslows need hierarchy in terms of how human
behavior and motivation are priorities in the workplace to maximize output?
(a)
Theory X and Thoery Y
(b)
Mc Clellands theory of human motivation
(c)
Clayton Alderfers ERG theory
(d)
Mmanagement by objectives theory
389.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
______the ability to influence others that stems from the leaders characteristics
Referent power
Coersive power
Legitimate power
None of the above
390.
Training is vital and necessary activity in all organisations. It plays a large part in determining
the _______________ and ____________ of the establishment
(a)
Effectiveness and efficiency
(b)
Effectiveness and smooth running
(c)
Efficiency and smooth running
(d)
Efficiency and success
391.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Learning by doing is a type of

Off the job training
On the job training
Internship taining
Classroom training
392.
Planning involves deciding in _________ what is to be done, where , how and by whom it is to
be done
(a)
Respect of
(b)
Context of
(c)
Advance
(d)
Regard to
Page 41

393.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Limitation of planning include :

Inaccuracy
Time consuming
Rigidity
All of the above
394.
In the top-down approach _____________ takes the initiative in formulating major objectives,
strategies policies and derivatives
(a)
Team
(b)
Top management
(c)
Supervisory management
(d)
None of the above
395.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The term budget is usually regarded as a tool of ____________ planning and control
Operational
Functional
Systematic
None of the above
396.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
PERT AND CPM are ___________________

Network techniques useful for planning
Tools of forecasting
Both a and b
None of the above
397.
Organisational plans for handling non repetitive, novel and unique problems are known as
________
(a)
Standing plans
(b)
Single use plans
(c)
Both of the above
(d)
None of the above
398.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Setting goals and objective is the first step in the __________________ process
Planning
Strategic planning
Organising
Staffing
399.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Felt conflict is :
When people perceive that conflictful conditions exist
When conflict promoting conditions appear
When people feel there is conflict
None of the above
400.
Coalition is a combination of two or more organisations who without losing their respective
identities work for a _______
(a)
General purpose
(b)
Specific purpose
(c)
Common purpose
(d)
All of the above
401.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Internal sources of recruitment are

Promotion
Transfer
Apprentices
All of the above
402.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Fundamentals of principles of scientific management include

Rule of thumb
Harmony in group
A and b
None of the above
Page 42

403.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Unity of command means that a person should get orders and instructions from
Multiple people
Only one superior
Any of his superior
Peers
404.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Advantage of forecasting include

Important for planning
Coordination of activities
Achievement of objectives
All of the above
405.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Employee walk-ins is a type of

Internal source of recruitment
External source of recruitment
Both of the above
None of the above
406.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Lectures, conferences, role playing is a kind of

On the job training
Off the job training
Both of the above
None of the above
407.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Functions of a supervisor is to
Communicate orders
Enforce safety
Handle grievances
All of the above
408.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
PODSCORB stands for

Planning organising staffing directing controlling reporting budgeting
Planning organising staffing directing controlling rectifying budgeting
Planning ordering staffing directing controlling reporting budgeting
Planning organising staffing directing controlling recruiting budgeting
409.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Decentralisation is a disadvantage due to

Growth and diversification
Lack of uniformity
Executive development
All of the above
410.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Directing the employees includes

Supervising employees
Leading employees
Both a and b
None of the above
411.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Need for planned change arises due to

Market situation
Technology
Deficiency in existing system
All of the above
412.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Resistance to change is due to

Status quo
Fear of unknown
Both a and b
None of the above
413.
(a)
(b)
Changes in environment can be

Economic
Sociological
Page 43

(c)
(d)
Technological
All of the above
414.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Select the CORRECT sequence of organization behavior modification process

Identify, Measure, Analyze, Intervene and Evaluate
Analyze, Measure, Identify , Intervene and Evaluate
Identify, Measure, Intervene, Analyze and Evaluate
Both (b) and (c)
Which of the following connectionist theories is used in associating an unconditioned stimulus

415.
with a conditioned one to get a response which is conditioned?
(a)
Classical conditioning
(b)
Negative conditioning
(c)
Instrumental conditioning
(d)
Cognitive conditioning
416.
The process by which people try to manage or control the perceptions formed by other
people
about themselves is called :
(a)
perceptual management.
.
(b)
impression management.
(c)
group management.
(d)
perceptual grouping
Which of the following perception sub processes involves, making note of the stimulus
417.
received
from the environment by an individual?
(a)
Sensation
(b)
Interpretation
(c)
Registration
(d)
Confrontation
418.
Creating a general impression about an individual based on a single characteristic, such as
intelligence, appearance sociability etc. is known as
(a)
stereotyping
(b)
halo effect.
(c)
attribution.
(d)
parity effect.
419.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following factors influence perception?

Power, Affiliation and Motivation
Needs, Drives and Incentives
The Perceiver, the Target and the Situation
The Perceiver, the Risk Taking and the Incentives
420.
Which of the following referent comparisons is used by an employee if he compares his
experiences in the present position with the experiences of those holding a similar position in another
organization?
(a)
Other-inside
(b)
Self-inside
(c)
Other-outside
(d)
Self-outside
421.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The valence is said to be zero when ____________.

the person prefers not attaining the outcome
the person is not interested in the outcome
the person is interested in the outcome
both (a) and (b)
422.
(a)
(b)
GAS means ________________.

general availability synapse
general adoption syndrome
Page 44

(c)
(d)
general adaptation syndrome

general apprehensive syndrome
423.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Stress included by stimulus is known as ___________.

stressmentor
stresspusser
stresseor
stressor
424.
Which of the following are the most important contributions in the field of organizational
behavior by Dr. Hans Selye?
(a)
Estress and distress
(b)
Eustress and distress
(c)
Impstress and epstress
(d)
Rule of thumb and unity of direction
425.
Which of the following three stages of GAS is used for coping with the stress situation?
(a)
Alarm stage, resistance stage and exhaustion stage
(b)
Depreciation stage, material stage and tecometric stage
(c)
Anxiety stage, appreciative stage and masmule stage
(d)
Exiting stage, remotive stage and speculative stage
426.
The psychological process of recollecting information and past experiences by an individual is
referred to as
(a)
perception.
(b)
learning.
.
(c)
cognition.
(d)
motivation.
427.
According to the Keith Davis equation,the potential performance of an individual is determi
ned by his __________
(a)
knowledge and skill.
(b)
ability and situation.
(c)
ability and motivation.
(d)
both (a) and (c ).
428.
The Management Style adopted by some companies like IBM, Intel, HP etc. was a combination
of both American and Japanese styles. These organizations were referred to as
(a)
theory x organizations.
(b)
theory y organizations.
(c)
theory z organizations.
(d)
theory o organizations
429.
Given 'O' represents human being, which of the following perspectives does S-OR model
represent best?
(a)
Traditional
(b)
Input and output
(c)
Behavioral
(d)
Attitude
Which of the following types of employees have high work ethics and are quality conscious?
430.
(a)
Young employees
(b)
Middle aged employees
(c)
Older employees
(d)
Both (a) and (b)
431.
Which of the following are specialized cells that transmit information from one part of the body to
another part of the body?
(a)
Neurons
(b)
Blood cells
(c)
Hormones
(d)
Both (b) and (c)
Page 45

432.
Which of the following are certain projections that branch out from the neuron; and r
eceive information from other neurons?
(a)
Fibers
(b)
Axon
(c)
Dendrites
(d)
Synapse
433.
How many parts can a nervous system be divided into?
(a)
5
(b)
9
(c)
3
(d)
2
434.
The probability of a particular behavior being repeated, but by withdrawing an
Undesirable consequence, is termed as
(a)
positive reinforcement.
(b)
punishment.
(c)
negative reinforcement.
(d)
behavior modification.
435.
In which of the following leadership styles DOES the leader obtain relevant information from the
subordinates and then attempt to find the solution to the problem?
(a)
Autocratic I
(b)
Autocratic III
(c)
Group I
(d)
Autocratic II
436.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is NOT an effective supervisory practice?

Avoid close supervision
Promoting individual cohesiveness
Promoting group cohesiveness
Devoting more time in planning
437.
In which of the following classification of conflicts DO people always try to maintain their
image and respect?
(a)
Intergroup conflict
(b)
Intragroup conflict
(c)
Interpersonal conflict
(d)
Intrapersonal conflict
438.
Which of the following methods to manage inter group relations deals with a skilled p e r s on
in resolving disputes, promoting communication and establishing friendy relations between the
conflicting parties?
(a)
Task force
(b)
Team
(c)
Liaison role
(d)
Resolving role
439.
Which Fayol`s theory principle states that activities in an organization should be planned
in a way that they all come under one plan and are supervised by only one person?
(a)
Unity of command
(b)
Unity of direction
(c)
Discipline
(d)
Scalar chain
440.
What is referred to the selfperception of how well a person can cope with situations as
and when they arise?
(a)
Self-esteem
(b)
Self-efficacy
(c)
Self-motivation
(d)
Self-improvement
441.
Match the following.
(i)
Creative and Innovative
a. Extraversion
Page 46

b.
Agreeableness
c.
Conscientiousness
d. Emotional stability
Responsible
e. Openness to experience
(a)
a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(v), e(i)
(b)
a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i), e(v)
(c)
a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv), e(v)
(d)
a(iii), b(iv), c(v), d(ii), e(i)
(ii)
Marketing, Public relations and Human resources
(iii)
Good natured, Co-Operative and Trusting
(iv)
Organized, Self disciplined and
(v)
Withstand stress and tend to be calm
That refers to the degree to which individual is practical in his approach, maintains emo
442.
tional distance from others and believes ends justify means. Which of the following is this referred to?
(a)
Self Monitoring
(b)
Risk taking
(c)
Self Esteem
(d)
Machiavellianism
443.
This is concerned with the employees emotional attachment and involvement with
the organization. Which of the following represents organizational commitment?
(a)
Normative commitment
(b)
Continuance commitment
(c)
Affective commitment
(d)
Effective commitment
444.
According to Levinson, the maximum development in ones personality takes place during ____
(a)
age-thirty transition
(b)
mid-life transition
(c)
age-fifty transition
(d)
late-adult transition
445.
In which of the following, does the productivity of some people increase further, while for s
ome the productivity may remain stagnant?
(a)
Exploration
(b)
Maintenance
(c)
Decline
(d)
Existence
446.
In which of the following, do attitudes provide a standard of reference which allows people to
understand and explain their environment?
(a)
Adjustment-function
(b)
Ego-defensive function
(c)
Value-expression function
(d)
Knowledge-function
447.
Which of the following motives is learned or acquired over a period of time such as
power,achievement and affiliation?
(a)
Affection motive
(b)
Secondary motive
(c)
Primary motive
(d)
Stimulus motive
448.
Which of the following theories does say that motivation alone cannot ensure
successfulperformance of a task, the employee should have a clear perception of his role and the r
equired skills and abilities?
(a)
Equity theory
(b)
The Porter-Lawler model
(c)
Attribution theory
(d)
The continuum model
Page 47

449.
1.
2.
3.
4.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Match the following approaches with the relevant components.

Classical approach
a)
Operations management
Behavioral approach
b)
Hawthorne studies
Quantitative approach
c)
Modern approach
d)
Quality management
1-(c), 2- (d), 3-(b),4-(a)
1-(c), 2- (a), 3-(b),4-(d)
1-(c), 2- (b), 3-(a),4-(d)
1-(c), 2- (d), 3-(a),4-(b)
450.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is the module of behavioral approach?

Group influences
Management sciences
The systems theory
451.
The study that focuses on reducing the unnecessary activities in work and thus reducing
thefatigue and wastage of time is known as :
(a)
Time study.
(b)
Fatigue study.
(c)
Work study.
(d)
Motion study.
452.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What is meant by Unity of Command?

Each employee should receive orders from a number of superiors
Each employee should receive orders from one superior only
Each employee should receive orders from Board of Directors
Each employee should receive orders from subordinates
453.
Which of the following principles is attributed to grouping members who belong to the
same department in an organization?
(a)
Continuity
(b)
Figure Ground
(c)
Closure
(d)
Proximity
454.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The behavioral science that contributes motivation to Organizational Behavior is

Sociology.
Political science
Psychology.
Anthropology.
455. Which of the following organizations does believe in providing lifetime employment to
the employees?
(a)
American
(b)
Japanese
(c)
European
(d)
Italian
456.
Which of the following experiments revealed that there is some other variable beyond w
age,
hours of work and working conditions that made a significant impact on productivity?
(a)
Relay experiment
(b)
Interview experiment
(c)
Wiring experiment
(d)
Illumination experiment
457.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Law of Effect states that responses followed by pleasant consequences (are)

less likely to be repeated.
not at all repeated.
lead to unpleasant consequence.
more likely to be repeated.
Page 48

458.
Observational learning is the essential component of ______________, where learning
could occur through imitation of others.
(a)
customary process
(b)
habitual process
(c)
modeling process
(d)
routine process
459. A bright light, a strong odor or a loud noise are more likely to be noticed than a dim light, a
weak odour or a soft sound. Which of the following principles of attention is mentioned here?
(a)
Intensity
(b)
Moderation
(c)
Repetition
(d)
Replication
460.
In which of the following organizations are employees manipulative and not willing to take
any risks?
(a)
Model I
(b)
Model II
(c)
Type A
(d)
Type B
461.
Which of the following perspectives DOES attempt to explain human behavior with the
S-O-B model?
(a)
Traditional perspective
(b)
Modern perspective
(c)
Behavioral perspective
(d)
Behavior as an input-output system
462.
In which of the following perceptual processes are perceived objects are separated
from their general background by the perceiver?
(a)
Figure-ground
(b)
Perceptual Constancy
(c)
Perceptual Context
(d)
Perceptual Content
463. Which of the following theories DOES refer to the incompatibility that an individual may p erceive
between two or more of his attitudes, or between his behavior and attitudes?
(a)
Cognitive Dissonance Theory
(b)
Argyris` Immaturity to Maturity Theory
(c)
Halls Career Stage Model
(d)
Levinson`s Theory of Adult Life Stages
464.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is NOT the attribute of individual politicking?

Pressure to perform
Personality traits
Background
Experience
465.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is the fourth step in the process of negotiation?

Preparation and planning
Defining rules
Bargaining and problem solving
Clarification and justification
466.
Which of the following DOES emphasize that an individual should know about oneself,
accept responsibility for his actions and regulate any dysfunctional behavior?
(a)
Team-building approach
(b)
Formal group diagnostic method
(c)
Role analysis technique
(d)
Gestalt approach
Page 49

467.
In which of the following leadership types DOES a leader give his subordinates challenging
tasks and higher responsibilities in order to develop them?
(a)
Supportive leadership
(b)
Accommodative leadership
(c)
Participative leadership
(d)
Achievement-oriented leadership
468.
Which of the following DOES refer to the ability to modify or change people in general ways
like changing their performance and satisfaction?
(a)
Power
(b)
Authority
(c)
Accountability
(d)
Influence
Which of the following theories DOES state that leaders establish a special relationship
469.
with a small group of subordinates, usually early in their interaction?
(a)
LMX theory
(b)
Path-goal theory
(c)
Blake and Mouton theory
(d)
Hersey and Blanchards theory
470.
Which of the following theories of organization DOES lay more stress on the environment and
establish the relationship between organizational structure and the environment?
(a)
Contingency theory
(b)
Ecological theory
(c)
Learning theory
(d)
Biological theory
471.
In which of the following roles within an informal group a person is an aggressive achiever
who makes the team action-oriented?
(a)
Monitor-evaluator
(b)
Implementer
(c)
Shaper
(d)
Plant
472.
Which of the following DOES refer to the authority to take decision within ones area of operations
without having to get anyones approval?
(a)
Enrichment
(b)
Enlargement
(c)
Enhancement
(d)
Empowerment
473.
In which of the following referent comparisons DO employees compare their experience
in the present position with the experiences of those holding a similar position in the same
organization?
(a)
Self-outside
(b)
Other-inside
(c)
Self-self
(d)
Self-inside
474.
Which of the following theories DOES state that leadership traits can be acquired with training
and experience?
(a)
Great person theory
(b)
Gestalt theory
(c)
Subordinate theory
(d)
Behavioral theory
475.
Which of the following cognitive processes DOES occur in a state of mental disorder a
nd is characterized by illogical thought processes?
(a)
Austic thinking
Page 50

(b)
(c)
(d)
Daydreaming
Sorting
Pathological thinking
476.
In which of the following roles within an informal group is a person a careful and
Detailed examiner who ties up loose ends?
(a)
Complete-Finisher
(b)
Resource Investigator
(c)
Team worker
(d)
Coordinator
Which of the following terms DOES refer to people drawing general impression about
477.
Others based on a single characteristic, such as intelligence, aggressiveness, etc.?
(a)
Attribution
(b)
Stereotyping
(c)
Halo Effect
(d)
Primacy Error
478.
In which of the following processes of power DOES the target find the agent attractive and
Seek to emulate his behavior?
(a)
Internalization
(b)
Externalization
(c)
Acquaintance
(d)
Identification
479. Which of the following disciplines DOES provide insights into the aspects of decision and
choice,factors that need to be considered while choosing the most suitable options?
(a)
Political Science
(b)
Anthropology
(c)
Economics
(d)
Ergonomics
480.
Which of the following traits DOES refer to the extent to which a person is responsible
and achievement oriented?
(a)
Extroversion
(b)
Introversion
(c)
Conscientiousness
(d)
Agreeableness
481.
Which of the following DOES refer to the equilibrium between the degree of dependency
of the target and the degree of power exercised by the agent?
(a)
Balancing imbalance
(b)
Maintaining imbalance
(c)
Reacting to power
(d)
Power balance
482.
Which of the following DOES enable the employees to widen their interests and get inform
ation relating to recent developments in their field?
(a)
Grapevine
(b)
Gangplank
(c)
Network
(d)
Communication
483.
Which of the following DOES refer to the ability of an individual to analyze complex situations and
to rationally interpret the available information?
(a)
Individual skills
(b)
Technical skills
(c)
Conceptual skills
(d)
Group skills
484.
Which of the following DOES refer to the quality of voice, volume, pitch, speed and non
fluencies used to convey a message?
Page 51

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
485.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Body language
Para language
Kinesics
Expressions
Which of the following is the third step in the O.B. Mod Process?
Identify
Measure
Intervene
Analyze
Which of the following DOES refer to the degree to which an individual is practical
486.
in his approach, maintains an emotional distance from others, and believes that ends justify means?
(a)
Risk taking
(b)
Locus of control
(c)
Machiavellianism
(d)
Self-monitoring
4 8 7. Which of the following dimensions DOES refer to a leader considering employees as a means to
achieve goals and pay little or no attention to any problems that the employees may face?
(a)
Development-oriented
(b)
Production-oriented
(c)
Training-oriented
(d)
Employee-oriented
488.
Which of the following systems of management suggested by Likert is called
exploitive-authoritative style?
(a)
Systems 1 management
(b)
(c)
(d)
489. In which of the following changes, does the new state of things have a completely
different nature from the old state of things?
(a)
Third order change
(b)
Second order change
(c)
First order change
(d)
Reverse order change
490.
Which of the following is based on the assumption that there are two forces
driving forces and
restraining forces that play a role in attaining a state of equilibrium in the organization?
(a)
Abads model
(b)
Lippitt`s approach
(c)
Beckhard`s approach
(d)
Force-field analysis
491.
Which of the following approaches is based on the assumption that there exist one or
more solutions to a problem that could result in a win-win situation?
(a)
Collective bargaining
(b)
Individual bargaining
(c)
Distributive bargaining
(d)
Integrative bargaining
492.
In which of the following leadership styles DOES the leader discuss the problem wit
h his subordinates and listens to their ideas and suggestions?
(a)
Consultative II
(b)
Consultative I
(c)
Group II
(d)
Participative II
493.
(a)
Which of the following is the fourth step in the process of negotiation?

Preparation and planning
Page 52

(b)
(c)
(d)
Defining rules
Bargaining and problem solving
Clarification and justification
494.
Which of the following DOES emphasize that an individual should know about oneself, a
ccept responsibility for his actions and regulate any dysfunctional behavior?
(a)
Team-building approach
(b)
Formal group diagnostic method
(c)
Role analysis technique
(d)
Gestalt approach
495. Which of the following DO refer to the cognition of an individual that a certain mode of
conduct or style of behavior is socially preferable to the other modes of conduct or behavioral styles?
(a)
Belief
(b)
Norm
(c)
Culture
(d)
Value
496.
Which of the following selection tests refer to testing the components such as reaso
ning
judgment, memory and the power of abstraction?
(a)
Intelligence tests
(b)
Interest tests
(c)
Aptitude tests
(d)
Polygraph tests
Which of the following approaches treat the organizational goals and the employee ne
497.
eds as being mutual and compatible?
(a)
Human relations approach
(b)
Human resources approach
(c)
Classical management approach
(d)
Modern management approach
498.
Which of the following managerial functions of the human resource department
involves establishing an intentional structure of roles for people in an organization?
(a)
Organizing
(b)
Controlling
(c)
Directing
(d)
Planning
499.
Which of the following concepts refer to the system of matching the available resources,
either internally or externally, with the demand that the organization expects to have
over a period of time?
(a)
Human Resource Process
(b)
Human Resource Performance
(c)
Human Resource Planning
(d)
Human Resource Information System
500.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following do you think are interrelated and inter-dependent?

Job satisfaction and productivity
Job content and productivity
Job specification and productivity
Job description and productivity
501.
Which of the following organizational structures reduce redundancy and enable free flow of i
dea and information among the employees?
(a)
Tall organizational structure
(b)
Flat organizational structure
(c)
Project organizational structure
(d)
Matrix organizational structure
Page 53

502.
Which of the following managerial functions of the human resource department refers
to the measurement and rectification of activities to ensure that events conform to plans?
(a)
Directing
(b)
Staffing
(c)
Controlling
(d)
Organizing
503.
Which of the following concept suggests that a worker is basically motivated by the mo
netary gains and that financial incentives alone could maximize the workers output?
(a)
Economic man
(b)
Time-motion
(c)
Rule-of-the thumb
(d)
Piece-rate
504.
Which of the following provides the information on the current human resource available i
n the
organization?
(a)
Job evaluation
(b)
Job design
(c)
Job content
(d)
Job analysis
505.
Which of the following techniques of downsizing does an organization adopt when the demand
for their products or services comes down, and the supply cannot be maintained at the existing
levels?
(a)
Outplacement
(b)
Leave of absence without pa
(c)
Work sharing
(d)
Lay-offs
506.
Which of the following process serves the purpose of selling the organization to the candidate?
(a)
Recruitment process
(b)
Selection process
(c)
Development process
(d)
Training process
507.
Which of the following roles does the HR department play in advising the management,
including the top management on various people-related issues and communicating management
decisions to the employees?
(a)
A facilitator
(b)
A regulator
(c)
A specialist
(d)
A controller
508.
Which of the following results in low employee turnover, low absenteeism, and low accident rates
in shop floor jobs?
(a)
Induction
(b)
Placement
(c)
Stimulation
(d)
Selection
509.
Which of the following methods of dealing with surplus manpower refers to the techniq
ue of getting rid of ageing employees and infusing fresh talent into the organization?
(a)
Outplacement
(b)
Lay-offs
(c)
Retrenchment
(d)
Early/voluntary retirement
Page 54

510.
If on falling sick your organization allows you to work from home provided you report to office
once in a week, which of the following concept is that?
(a)
Flextime
(b)
Telecommuting
(c)
Working from home
(d)
Telemarketing
511.
A situation where there are more number of people available in the job market due to
mushrooming of management
Institutions, identify the environmental factorsthat determine the effectiveness of the
recruitment program .
(a)
Law of land
(b)
Situation in the labour market
(c)
Reputation of organization
(d)
Culture, social attitudes and beliefs
512.
Which of the following interviews refer to the interviewer selecting the questions to be asked and
plans the interview well in advance?
(a)
Social interview
(b)
Formal interview
(c)
Stress interview
(d)
Selection interview
513.
Which of the following concepts refer to identifying and grooming an employee for a vacan
cy that would arise in the future?
(a)
Career planning
(b)
Performance planning
(c)
Succession planning
(d)
Corporate-level planning
514.
Which of the following methods for determining the validity of a selection method refer
to the
degree to which the validity of the selection method, established in one context, can be extended
to other primary contexts?
(a)
Legality
(b)
Utility
(c)
Reliability
(d)
Generalizability
515.
Which of the following roles is played by an HR Manager when training and develo
pment activities are planned and conducted and performance appraisals are done?
(a)
The consultant
(b)
The service provider
(c)
The facilitator
(d)
The auditor
516.
Which of the following level Human Resource Planning takes into consideration the changing
market situation, strategic plans of the organization and the technological changes anticipated at
a macro level?
(a)
Intermediate-level planning
(b)
Operations planning
(c)
Planning short-term activities
(d)
Corporate-level planning
517.
Which of the following refers to the obligation of a manager to carry out the duties assign
ed to him?
(a)
Authority
(b)
Influence
(c)
Power
(d)
Responsibility
Page 55

518.
Which of the following job specifications include stability, adaptability, flexibility and is co
mmon across most of the jobs?
(a)
Physical specifications
(b)
Mental specifications
(c)
Group specifications
(d)
Emotional and social specifications
519.
Which of the following characteristics of a job refers to the degree to which the job
makes an impact on the lives or work of other people?
(a)
Autonomy
(b)
Feedback
(c)
Task identity
(d)
Task significance
520.
Which of the following characteristics of selection methods produces consistent results across
different situations and times?
(a)
Legality
(b)
Validity
(c)
Generalizability
(d)
Reliability
521.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is the third step in the process of job enrichment?
Providing scope for change
Concentrating on motivational factors
Changing the content of the job
Making a list of changes
522.
Which of the following steps in the process of job enrichment is succeeded by changi
ng the content of the job rather than changing employees?
(a)
Making a list of changes and enrichment in job design
(b)
Providing adequate training, guidance, encouragement and help
(c)
Introducing the enriched job carefully, so that there is no resistance towar
ds the
implementation of job enrichment programs.
(d)
Administering corrective discipline
523.
Which of the following concept refers to the process of ascertaining qualifications, experience,
skill, knowledge of an applicant with the purpose of determining his/her suitability for a job?
(a)
Staffing
(b)
Introducing
(c)
Induction
(d)
Selection
524.
Which of the following approaches to Human Resource Management suggests that treating
employees with respect would improve employee satisfaction and help in achieving higher
productivity?
(a)
Scientific Management Approach
(b)
Human Resource Approach
(c)
Human Accounting Approach
(d)
Human Relations Approach
525.
Which of the following tests measure an individuals ability to learn a given job, when adequate
training is given and do not test the knowledge or proficiency possessed by the individual?
(a)
Interest tests
(b)
Achievement tests
(c)
Situational tests
(d)
Aptitude tests
Page 56

526.
Which of the following concept refers to attributing an appropriate value to the worth of
human resources in the organization?
(a)
Human resource planning
(b)
Human resource accounting
(c)
Human resource management
(d)
Human resource evaluation
527.
The employment agencies in which fresh graduates and technicians in search of suitable
employment would first register themselves are known as
(a)
Global agencies.
.
(b)
Private agencies.
(c)
Public or state agencies
(d)
Regional agencies.
Which of the following refers to the monetary and non-monetary benefits given to the
528.
employees during their employment and these benefits are in no way connected to the employees
performance?
(a)
Fringe benefits
(b)
Incentives
(c)
Wage and salary administration
(d)
Base salary
529.
Which of the following types of organization facilitates close supervision and provides for
continuous interaction between the supervisor and his subordinates?
(a)
Flat organization
(b)
Tall organization
(c)
Vertical organization
(d)
Matrix organization
530.
Which of the following concepts refer to identifying ones career goals and formulating plans of
reaching them through various means like education and work experience?
(a)
Career development
(b)
Management development
(c)
Human Resource Development
(d)
Training
531.
Which of the following refers to the departments or employees that perform a support function
and contribute indirectly to the business of a firm?
(a)
Staff function
(b)
Line function
(c)
Employee functions
(d)
Organizational function
532.
Which of the following methods of job analysis refers to gathering all the job related information
from supervisors?
(a)
Questionnaire method
(b)
Expert method
(c)
Observation method
(d)
Technical conference method
533.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following methods of job analysis describes jobs in terms of worker activities?
Position analysis questionnaire
Questionnaire method
Technical job analysis
Critical incident technique
Page 57

534.
Which of the following measure the job related proficiency and knowledge of the applicants
and is used to select experienced candidates?
(a)
Achievement tests
(b)
Intelligence tests
(c)
Aptitude tests
(d)
Interests tests
535.
Which of the following operative functions include functions like job analysis, human resource
planning, recruitment, selection, placement and induction?
(a)
Loaning
(b)
Retention
(c)
Employment
(d)
Evaluation
536.
Kaivalya is the Human Resource Manager in TCS. He is efficient in the functions of payment that
has to be adequate, equitable and fair to the employees. It encompasses base salary, incentives,
bonus and benefits and is based on job evaluation. Which of the following functions is performed
by Kaivalya?
(a)
Employee relations
(b)
Employment
(c)
Compensation
(d)
Performance Appraisal
537.
Which of the following types of selection interviews has no predetermined framework of
questions and helps the candidate remain comfortable during the course of the interview because
the interaction tends to proceed naturally?
(a)
Panel interview
(b)
Group interview
(c)
Selection interview
(d)
Unstructured interview
538.
Which of the following organization structures is characterized by flexibility, value for knowledge,
low levels of formalization, decentralized style of management and is more suitable for operating
effectively in dynamic environments?
(a)
Organic structure
(b)
Whole structure
(c)
Inorganic structure
(d)
Technical structure
539.
Which of the following tests is used to assess the leadership qualities, initiative, negotiating skills,
communication skills and decision-making skills of a candidate?
(a)
Simulated situational tests
(b)
Interest tests
(c)
In-basket exercises
(d)
Group discussions
540.
Which of the following characteristics of job specifications include the ability to make judgments,
ability to undertake research, creativity, teaching ability, maturity, selfreliance and the ability to be
authoritative?
(a)
Social specifications
(b)
Collective specifications
(c)
(d)
Behavioral specifications
541.
Which of the following methods for determining the validity of a selection method refers to the
degree to which the value provided by the selection method enhances the effectiveness of an
organization?
Page 58

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Legality
Reliability
Generalizability
Utility
542.
Which of the following characteristics of a job refers to the degree to which a job r
equires completion of a work, from the beginning to the end?
(a)
Task significance
(b)
Autonomy
(c)
Task identity
(d)
Feedback
543.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is the basic standard that any selection method should satisfy?
Consistency
Stability
Legality
Effectiveness
544.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is the third step in the process of human resource planning?
Analyzing the impact of the organizational strategy
Forecasting the quality and quantity of human resources
Involving the line managers in determining human resource needs
Matching the current human resources with the future requirement
545.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Identify the second element in the selection process.

Organizational objectives
Job design and Job description
Job specification
Selection
546.
Which of the following steps in the process of selection is succeeded by initial screening
interview?
(a)
Analyzing the application blank
(b)
Core and departmental interviews
(c)
Conducting tests and evaluating performance
(d)
Job offer
547.
Which of the following managerial functions involves coordination between different department to
ensure maximum utilization of all resources including human resources?
(a)
Controlling
(b)
Planning
(c)
Leading
(d)
Directing
548.
Which of the following types of organization refers to employees meeting together for a game of
snooker and sharing common ideas, interests and information?
(a)
Flat
(b)
Informal
(c)
Technical
(d)
Hybrid
549.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following steps in the process of selection is preceded by reference checks?
Preliminary interview
Core and departmental interviews
Conducting tests and evaluating performance
Job offer
550.
Which of the following tests refer to the simulated office situation where the candidate has to
respond to letters, clear important documents schedule his/her meetings and make important
Page 59

business related decisions?
(a)
In basket exercises
(b)
Group discussions
(c)
Personality tests
(d)
Simulated situational tests
551.
Which of the following refers to the extent to which an employees work meets
his/her professional needs?
(a)
Quality of Work Life
(b)
Total Quality Management
(c)
Quality Circles
(d)
Worker Productivity
552.
Which of the following refers to the departments or employees of a firm that perform the core
activities and contribute to its business directly?
(a)
Staff functions
(b)
Line managers
(c)
Department functions
(d)
Organization functions
553.
Which of the following approaches to job design states that the manager determines the best way
of performing the job?
(a)
Human Resource Approach
(b)
Sociotechnical Approach
(c)
Job Characteristics Approach
(d)
Engineering Approach
554.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is the second step in the process of human resource planning?
Analyzing the impact of the organizational strategy
Involving the line managers in determining human resource needs
Matching the current human resources with the future requirement
Developing an action plan to meet future requirements
555.
In which of the following techniques of dealing with surplus manpower DO workers agree to be
paid less and put in fewer hours of work to avoid their colleagues being retrenched?
(a)
Reduced work hours
(b)
Work sharing
(c)
Loaning
(d)
Leave of absence without pay
556.
Which of the following enables managers to act, exert influence and make decisions in carrying
out their responsibilities?
(a)
Power
(b)
Accountability
(c)
Authority
(d)
Responsibility
557.
Which of the following job specifications include analytical ability; data interpretation
ability; decisionmaking ability and the requirement level of these abilities vary according to the level of
the job?
(a)
Physical specifications
(b)
(c)
Behavioral specifications
(d)
Group specifications
558.
Which of the following techniques of dealing with surplus manpower DOES an organization adopt
when they do not want their middle/top level managers to stagnate or leave the company?
Page 60

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Reduced work hours

Early/voluntary retirement
Loaning
Work sharing
559.
Marketers must adopt a different approach while selling intangible products.Which
of the following combinations does truly represent intangible products?
(a)
Goods and ideas
(b)
Goods and products
(c)
Goods and services
(d)
Services and ideas
560.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following DOES NOT represent the characteristics of the Marketing Era?
It focused on coordinated marketing management
It emphasized the importance of consumer needs and wants
It focused only on profitability
It restricted forcible selling of products to customers without offering utility
561.
According to Arthur D Little, there are a number of factors that influence
performance of businesses. Identify the factors.
(i)
Stake-holders
(ii)
Processes
(iii) Resources
(iv) Organization
(a)
Only (i)
(b)
Only (iii) and (iv)
(c)
Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
562.
An evaluative comparison between a product's performance and the buyer's expectations is the
basis for determining
(a)
Customer Loyalty.
(b)
Customer Delivered Value.
(c)
Customer Choice.
(d)
Customer Satisfaction.
563.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is influenced by the geographical location of an organization?

Organizational functions
Organizational secrets
Organizational culture
Organizational goal
564.
The process of collecting information about political, legal, regulatory, societal, economic,
competitive and technological forces that may affect its marketing activities is called
(a)
environmental analysis.
(b)
survey of environment.
(c)
environmental scanning.
(d)
assessment of environment.
565.
You are directed to study the factors that are close to the company that affect its ability to serve
its customers the company, suppliers, marketing intermediaries, customer markets, competitors,
and publics. What are you studying?
(a)
The macro environment
(b)
The global environment
(c)
The microenvironment
(d)
The national environment
566.
What type of competitive structure does exist when a firm produces a product that has no close
substitutes?
Page 61

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Monopoly
Monopolistic competition
Perfect competition
Duopoly
567.
In which of the following structures, are usually branded products sold and heavy marketing and
advertising are its key features?
(a)
Monopolistic
(b)
Monopoly
(c)
Multipoly
(d)
Oligopoly
568.
Which of the following does create ample opportunities for marketers to venture into new regions?
(a)
Trade barrier
(b)
Trade alliances
(c)
Trade wars
(d)
Trade meal
569.
The software industry has to be prepared to unlearn the existing software (language) and learn
new software. The software professionals have to constantly keep a watch on
(a)
career opportunities.
.
(b)
technological changes.
(c)
regulatory changes
(d)
political changes.
570.
The airline industry comprising of companies such as Air India, Singapore Airlines, Malaysian
Airlines etc have high entry barriers due to high costs involved. Which type of competitive
structure do they come under?
(a)
Monopoly
(b)
Monopolistic competition
(c)
Oligopoly
(d)
Pure competition
571.
In buying decision process, which of the following is NOT considered as personal source of
information?
(a)
Family
(b)
Friends
(c)
Journal
(d)
Reference groups
572.
Organizational buying process does consist of which of following stages?
(i)Problem reorganization, general needs description
(ii)Production specification and supplier search
(iii)Proposal solicitation, supplier selection
(iv)Order routine specification performance review
(v)Problem reorganization value analysis
(a)
Only (i) and (ii)
(b)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c)
Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d)
Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
573.
A company producing ink pens wants to venture into producing ball point pens. They need to
procure raw materials from the same supplier. What is this process of buying called?
(a)
Straight rebuy
(b)
New task buying
(c)
Modified rebuy
(d)
Routinized buying
Page 62

574.
In a business organization, which of the following divisions does generate the revenues essential
for the survival and growth of the firm?
(a)
Marketing
(b)
Finance
(c)
R&D
(d)
Manufacturing
575.
In the olden days, people used to exchange goods and services, instead of money, according to
the needs and availability. This system of exchange is known as
(a)
marketing system.
(b)
societal system.
(c)
need based system.
(d)
barter system.
576.
Technological advancement is rapidly changing the marketplace and causing intense competition
among firms. To cope with the changing dynamics, firms use various approaches. They are
divided into company responses. Which of the following is the company response?
(a)
Customization
(b)
Integrated marketing communication
(c)
Target marketing
(d)
Outsourcing
Which of the following is / are the steps to identify the market segment?
577.
(i)Analysis
(ii)Survey
(iii)Benefit
(iv)Profiling
(a)
Only (i) and (ii)
(b)
All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c)
Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d)
Only (ii) and (iii)
578.
Which is the factor that does influence the organizational purchase process by providing
information about the general market situation, growth rate, poverty rate and unemployment rate?
(a)
Political factors
(b)
Social factors
(c)
Legal factors
(d)
Economic factors
579.
Marketers are providing better Form Utility by creating product to suit individuals need.
companys inviting inputs from customers and seeking their ideas in designing better and more
suitable products is an example of
(a)
reengineering.
(b)
outsourcing.
(c)
e-commerce.
(d)
customization.
.
580.
The four P's of the marketing mix are
(a)
personnel, priorities, placement, and profits.
(b)
promotion, product, personnel, and place.
(c)
product, place, politics and economy.
(d)
product, promotion, price and place.
.
Common sense usually helps you in analyzing
581.
(a)
marketing problems
(b)
when to diversify.
(c)
what segment to drop
Page 63

(d)
future opportunities.
582.
Which of the following sets of activities can be called primary activities involved in value chain?
(a)
Inbound logistics, operations, procurement and firm infrastructure
(b)
Inbound logistics, operations, outbound logistics, marketing and sales and services
(c)
Outbound logistics, operations, procurement, firm infrastructure and services
(d)
Outbound logistics, operations, services, procurement and firm infrastructure
583.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Activity based costing (ABC) usually helps an organization to assess

profitability of the organization.
strengths and weaknesses of the competitors.
which customers are profitable and which ones are subsidized.
internal environment of the organization.
584.
The Indian Oil campaign Save oil-save India is a form of demarketing its product. This is
basically the companys initiative to maintain the ecological balance by creating an awareness of
oil conservation. This in turn gives the opportunity to the company to manage its
(a)
technological environment.
(b)
economic environment.
(c)
legal environment.
(d)
natural environment.
585.
When anybody registers for an email ID with any of the email service providers, viz.
rediffmail.com or yahoo.com, while registering, a person has various options to check in the
registration form. If an individual checks those options, these email service providers send various
information on sports, news, weather and other subjects to the individuals email address. This is
an example of
(a)
Web casting.
(b)
Newsletters.
(c)
E-mails.
(d)
Brochures.
586.
Which of the following is a method for maintaining the minimum inventory of raw materials and
finished goods?
(a)
Just-in-time
(b)
Material requirement planning
(c)
Production schedule
(d)
Delivery schedule
587.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is a change in behavior based on experience?

Selective retention
Dissonance
Learning
Motivation
588.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What is the difference between total customer value and total customer cost called?
Value analysis
Customer cost
Customer desired value
Eigen value
589.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is NOT a method of online advertising?

Web communities
Bulletin boards
Banners
Newsgroup
590.
(a)
According to BCG Matrix, question marks are

SBUs with a large market share in a fast growing market.
Page 64

(b)
SBUs with a low market share in an intensely competitive, mature industry
characterized by low profits.
(c)
SBUs with an uncertainty about their future.
(d)
SBUs which are characterized by low market share and high growth.
591.
When a foreign product enters India, the Indian government imposes a kind of tax on those
goods. What is this tax on the foreign goods called, in the context of global trade?
(a)
Tariff
(b)
Restriction
(c)
Embargo
(d)
Barriers
592.
A firm is considered socially responsible, when it fulfills its economic, legal, ethica
l and . commitments.
(a)
environmental
(b)
global
(c)
organizational
(d)
philanthropic
593.
Which of the following is NOT a principle of seven modern marketing principles that address the
public policy towards marketing?
(a)
Principle of economic efficiency
(b)
Principle of consumer protection
(c)
Principle of curbing potential harm
(d)
Principle of profiteering
594.
McDonalds world popular product is Hamburger which is made of beef. But, when it started
operating in India, it replaced this Hamburger with various vegetable burgers. Which global
environmental factor forced McDonald to do so?
(a)
Legal environmental factor
(b)
Cultural environmental factor
(c)
Economic environmental factor
(d)
Technological environmental factor
595.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Emami Fair and Handsome cream is an example of

lifestyle segmentation.
.
value segmentation.
benefit segmentation
usage rate segmentation.
596.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What does SAFTA stand for?

South Asian Free Tariff Agreement
South Atlantic Free Trade Agreement
South African Free Trade Agreement
South Asia Free Trade Agreement
597.
Which of the following is the type of marketing where the company gathers as many names as
possible through mass mailing and forms a database?
(a)
Personalized marketing
(b)
Database marketing
(c)
Lifetime value marketing
(d)
Carpet bombing
598.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which strategy in NOT used by a market leader in its defense? Identify from the following.
Guerilla attack
Mobile attack
Flank attack
Position attack
Page 65
599.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Needs differ from wants because

wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs.
needs are a socialized manifestation of underlying wants.
needs are historical and wants are about the future.
wants are historical and needs are about the future.
600.
PepsiCo, a cola major in the world has bought a number of restaurant chains as its growth
strategy. Among many, Pizza Hut, KFC are a few names, although currently Pepsi Co. has spun
off them. This type of strategy of the company is called
(a)
lateral integration.
(b)
vertical integration.
(c)
forward integration.
(d)
horizontal integration.
601.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following deals with the study of the characteristics of human population?
Socio-cultural
Demographics
Natural environment
602.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SWOT analysis helps in formulating effective strategies for the company to deal with
competitors.
suppliers.
distributors.
customers.
603.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a form of direct marketing?

Telemarketing
Kiosk Marketing
Catalog marketing
Newspaper advertising
604.
Unlike products, services cannot be inventoried or stored for future consumption. This points to
one unique feature of services. Identify it.
(a)
Heterogeneity
(b)
Inseparability
(c)
Intangibility
(d)
Perishability
605.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not the stage or stages of the competitive intelligence system?
Setting up the system
Value analysis
Data collection
Analysis and evaluation of data
606.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The factor which differentiates a service from a product is

Homogeneity.
Separability.
Accessibility.
Intangibility.
607.
Which of the following is an example of personnel differentiation?
(i)
HPCL train their distributors to provide better services to the end user.
(ii) McDonald trains its employee to be friendly, respectful to the customers.
(iii) Linux trains their users on how to operate the software.
(iv) Reliance Petroleum trains the employees of their customers to provide a better service to the
customers.
(v) Consumer redressal forum trains people about the rights they have of being a customer.
(a)
only
Page 66

(b)
(c)
(d)
only
(iii), (iv) and (v)
(i), (ii) and (v)
608.
Currently almost all automobile companies are following Euro II norms while plying their
operations in India. In which concept of marketing can we put these automobile companies for
their act of this kind?
(a)
Managerial concept
(b)
Marketing concept
(c)
Societal marketing concept
(d)
Production concept
609.
What is the objective of a bank, if it is conducting a market research to find out the general public
opinion about the bank?
(a)
Image assessment
(b)
Future prediction
(c)
Consumer behavior survey
(d)
New product development
610.
Despite the lack of enough opportunities to differentiate the service offerings, service
organizations try to gain customer loyalty by differentiating their services on the basis of the
(a)
offer, delivery and image of the organization.
(b)
offer, process and image of the organization.
(c)
offer, perishability and image of the organization.
(d)
offer, feel and image of the organization.
611.
Which is not an element of Intensity of rivalry among firms One of the forces
of Michael Porters five forces model?
(a)
Concentration ratio
(b)
Diversity of rivals
(c)
Market share
(d)
Government policies
612.
The service that are purchased by individual customers for their own consumption are defined as :
(a)
Business to Business Services
(b)
Consumables Services
(c)
Consumed Services
(d)
Consumer Services
613.
Which of the following emphasizes the importance of satisfying the customers by providing
the highest quality standards at all times?
(a)
Total quality management
(b)
Value delivery system
(c)
Just in time
(d)
Competitive intelligence system
614.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Organization structure primarily refers to

how activities are coordinated and controlled
how resources are allocated
the location of departments and office space
the policy statements developed by the firm
615.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The job design would be LEAST formal in a

matrix structure
professional bureaucracy
divisionalized structure
machine bureaucracy
Page 67

616.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The purpose of job enrichment is to

expand the number of tasks an individual can do
increase job efficiency
increase job effectiveness
increase job satisfaction of middle management
617.
power?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Individuals such as Albert Einstein, Edwin Land and Steven Jobs lead through which type of
Legitimate
Reward
Expert
Charismatic
618.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Strategic planning as a broad concept consists of

corporate strategy and business strategy
strategy formulation and strategy implementation
inputs and outputs
environmental analysis and internal analysis
619.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Early theories about how individuals make decisions were based on the concept of a(n)
utilitarian philosophy
action man
economic man
attentive man
620.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Communication begins with

encoding
idea origination
decoding
channel selection
621.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Functional managers are responsible

for a single area of activity
to the upper level of management and staff
for complex organizational sub-units
for obtaining copyrights and patents for newly developed processes and equipment
622.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Policies are sometimes defined as a(n)

shortcut for thinking
action plan
substitute for strategy
substitute for management authority
623.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
One method of bringing a group to agreement is called

proportional values
consensus
accordance
conformance
624.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In general, if a policy is not thought out and established

a situation requiring action will arise
social issues will cause change in the organization
managers will be hired from the outside
there will be significant staff turnover
625.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The problem-solving process begins with

clarification of the situation
establishment of alternatives
identification of the difficulty
isolation of the cause
Page 68

626.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
All of the following are requirements for successful value chain management EXCEPT :
Coordination and Collaboration
Continuous Process Improvement
Organizational Processes
Technology
627.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
An individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task is called:

Self esteem
Self direction
Self efficacy
Self confidence
628.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible?

Illumination
Intentions
Behaviour
Cognition
629.
--------is an attempt through a formal program to integrate employees needs and wellbeing
with the intention of improved productivity, better involvement and satisfaction
(a)
Quality of Work life
(b)
Quality Circle
(c)
Alternative Work schedule
(d)
Job Redesign
630.
------------- is small groups of workers who meet regularly with their supervisor to solve work
related problem
(a)
(b)
Quality Circle
(c)
(d)
Job Redesign
631.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The concept of Work- Week is related with

Quality Circle
Job Redesign
632.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
633.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
When a group gives some of its leadership positions to the members of other group, it is
Contracting
Co-opting
Co-alition
Competition
The LEAST-used communication channel in an organization is usually
upward
downward
diagonal
horizontal
634.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
An important potential environmental source of change is

a new competitive product
dissatisfied employee attitudes
employee grievances
a wildcat strike
635.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What does SBU stand for :

Single Business Unit
Stratified Business Unit
Strategic Business Unit
None of the above.
Page 69

636.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Choose the best option that fits the meaning of the word benchmarking ?
Setting targets to be achieved.
Setting goals and measuring performance
Setting goals and measuring productivity based on the best industry practices
All of the above.
637.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Who proposed the Motivation-Hygiene Theory ?

Abraham Maslow
Fredrick Winslow Taylor
Frederic Herzberg
None of the above.
638.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Following are examples of the Macro environment ?

Demographic environment
Economic Environment
Technological environment
All of the above.
639.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Peter F Drucker was of the view that :

Business cannot be explained in terms of profit
Business are always explained in terms of profit
None of the above.
Both a and b
640.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In the hierarchal structure of an organisation, ....... managers are at the base of the pyramid :
Top Level.
Middle Level
First Level.
Link Level.
641.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is a function of middle management?

Reviewing daily and weekly production or sales reports.
Selecting Board members.
Supervising day-to-day operations.
Evaluating the all-round performance of various departments.
642.
The process of designing and maintaining an environment in which individuals working
together in groups, efficiently accomplish specific aims is termed :
(a)
Administration.
(b)
Management.
(c)
Organisation.
(d)
Staffing.
643.
The management functions which involves influencing, motivating and directing human
resources towards the achievement of organisational goals is known as :
(a)
Leading.
(b)
Controlling.
(c)
Planning.
(d)
Staffing.
644.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
.......... managers deal with the actual operation of an organisations units :

First Level.
Top Level.
Middle Level.
Link level.
645.
.................. are at the lowest level of the hierarchy and are directly responsible for the
performance of operational level employees :
(a)
Middle level managers.
(b)
First Level managers.
(c)
Top-Level Managers.
(d)
Trainee-level managers.
Page 70

646.
First level managers must possess ............. skills, which include knowledge of and proficiency in
the methods, processes and procedures for carrying out activities :
(a)
Human.
(b)
Conceptual.
(c)
Design
(d)
Technical.
647.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Name the skill which is important at all levels of an organisation :

Conceptual.
Design
Human
Technical.
648.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which theory states that there is no best way to manage all situations?
Systems Theory.
Contingency Theory.
Administrative Theory.
Bureaucratic Theory.
649.
Which of the following theories gives managers a new way of looking at an organisation as a
whole and as a part of the larger external environment :
(a)
Contingency Theory.
(b)
Theory Z and quality management.
(c)
Systems Theory
(d)
Theory X and Theory Y
650.
According to the systems theory, planning, organising, leading, controlling and technology
come under ............ component of an organisational system.
(a)
Inputs.
(b)
Transformation process.
(c)
Outputs.
(d)
Feedback.
651.
Which management theory gives importance to the achievement of customer satisfaction and
loyalty?
(a)
Management science.
(b)
Operations management.
(c)
Situations theory.
Quality management.
(d)
652.
Which type of management approach focuses only on the economic and physical needs of
workers and ignores their social needs?
(a)
Scientific management.
(b)
Bureaucratic management.
(c)
Administrative management.
(d)
653.
Which one of the following management concepts leads to the destruction of the creativity
and flexibility required to respond to changes in the global environment?
(a)
Bureaucratic management.
(b)
(c)
(d)
Administrative management.
654.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Under which system does a workers wage increase in proportion to the output produced?
Time and motion study.
Piece Rate incentive system.
Micro motion study.
Gantt Chart.
655.
(a)
(b)
Which of the following was not a phase in the Hawthorne experiments?

Illumination experiments.
Bank wiring observation room experiments.
Page 71

(c)
(d)
Group discussions.
Interview phase
656.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a result of poor span of control in organisations?

Over supervision.
Timely decision.
High costs.
Communication problems.
657.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following factors does not indicate an effective span of management?
Trained subordinates.
Clarity of delegation of authority.
Physical appearance of manager.
Communication technique.
658.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The span of management.................... at different levels of the same organisation :

Matches.
Varies.
Is parallel.
Is similar.
659.
To eliminate the problems created by a large span of management in flat structures,
organisations are forced to...........
(a)
Recue the hierarchical levels.
(b)
Maintain the existing hierarchical levels.
(c)
Increase the hierarchical levels.
(d)
Decrease the existing hierarchical levels.
660.
Which of the following is not a contingency factor that influences the design of an effective
organisation structure?
(a)
Technology used.
(b)
Size of the organisation.
(c)
Transfer process.
(d)
Environmental factors.
661.
Which of the following methods help managers find out the minimum time and cost required to
complete a project?
(a)
Program evaluation and review technique (PERT)
(b)
Critical path method (CPM)
(c)
Just in time (JIT)
(d)
Computer aided design (CAD)
662.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following is not an assumption underlying direct control?

Personal responsibility exists.
Time expenditure is warranted.
Performance cannot be measured.
Mistakes can be discovered in time.
663.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
............... refers to unanalyzed and unorganised facts and figures describing entities.
Information.
Intelligence.
Data
Systems.
664.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
External information is more useful for........ managers :

Top level.
Middle level
Lower level
Link level
665.
Which one of the following is not an external user to whom the company is required to provide
information?
Page 72

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Customer.
Employee
Supplier
Government
666.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a component of an information systems :

Keyboard.
Printers.
Floppy discs.
Magnetic discs
667.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The higher quality of managers and their subordinates the less the need for..............
Direct control.
Preventive control
Tactical control.
Strategic control.
668.
According to the........... approach, business should be conducted on the basis of established
standards and facts or truths gained through systematic observation, experiment and reasoning.
(a)
Administrative.
(b)
Behavioural
(c)
Bureaucratic
(d)
Scientific
669.
The two major managerial practices that emerged from Taylors approach to management
are the piece-rate incentive systems and............
(a)
Time and motion study.
(b)
Work-study.
(c)
Fatigue.
(d)
Organisation study.
670.
Unlike Classical theorists who viewed organisation from the production point of view,
behaviour theorists viewed it from the ......... point of view.
(a)
Human.
(b)
Technical.
(c)
Administrative.
(d)
Scientific.
671.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
............... strategies provide guidelines for organisational growth.

Organisation.
Finance.
Marketing.
Growth.
672.
Cost leadership, differentiation and ............... are the three generic business level strategies
identified by Michael Porter.
(a)
Growth.
(b)
Market Leadership.
(c)
Focus.
(d)
Product leadership.
673.
In a SWOT analysis, a ..................... is regarded as an internal characteristics which can improve
an organisations competitive capabilities.
(a)
Threat.
(b)
Weaknesses.
(c)
Strength.
(d)
Opportunity.
674.
A/ an .................. is an environmental condition that helps an organisation improves its situation
relative to the competitors :
Page 73

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Strength.
Opportunity.
Threat.
Weakness.
675.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not an approach to organisational development?

Problem solving.
Decision-making.
Team development.
Cooperation.
676.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The ............... level strategy identifies the business area that an organisation will operate in.
Business.
Functional.
Corporate.
Operational.
677.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not an external threat to a companys well being?

Reduction in sales due to substitute products.
Likely entry of new competitors.
Underutilised plant capacity.
Costly regulatory requirements.
678.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following constitutes a threat to the company?

Serving additional customer groups.
Expanding the product line.
Integrating forward or backward.
Slowdown in market growth.
679.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not determined by organisational strategies?

How centralised the decision making authority should be.
How de-centralised the decision making authority should be.
How the employees should be trained.
How the staff positions should be designed.
680.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a tangible reward?

Bonuses.
Awards
Personal feeling of accomplishment.
Promotions.
681.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following is not a social constraint?

Changing lifestyles.
Increasing number of women in the workforce.
Domestic demand.
Increasing number of divorces.
682.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not an environmental constraint?

Recycling waste.
Keeping pollution under control.
Adopting automation in the manufacturing process.
Manufacturing environment friendly products.
683.
(a)
(b)
A situation of information asymmetry gives rise to...................

Certainty.
Uncertainty
Page 74

(c)
(d)
Risk
Stability.
684.
Which of the following functions of management involves filling and keeping filled positions in
the organization structure?
(a)
Planning.
(b)
Organizing.
(c)
Staffing
(d)
Controlling.
685.
Which managerial function involves the process of setting goals and findings and deciding on
the best ways to achieve them?
(a)
Planning
(b)
Organizing
(c)
Staffing
(d)
Controlling
686.
A manufacturing company has grouped its main functions into marketing, engineering,
production and finance. What kind of organizational structure has this company adopted?
(a)
Functional structure
(b)
Hybrid structure
(c)
Divisional structure
(d)
Matrix structure
687.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is synonymous with need theories?

Supply theory.
Process theory
Surplus theory
Content theory
688.
means.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
According to the principle of , the same result can be reached by different

Insight
Intuition
Logical formulation
Unconscious scanning
689.
Which of the following perspectives opposes the concept of finding the on best way for
managing organizations?
(a)
Universal
(b)
Behavioural
(c)
Scientific
(d)
Contingency
690.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
. is known as quantitative common sense

Operations research
Operations management
Efficient organization
Operations planning
691.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Brainstorming and synectics techniques encourage individuals to think .

Optimistically
Pessimistically
Intuitively
Emotionally.
692.
(a)
(b)
According to some experts knowledge work, system is advanced versions of .

Decision support systems
Office automation systems
Page 75

(c)
(d)
Executive support systems

Transactional processing system
693.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What role should a manager do when communicating with the outside world?
Disseminator
Spokesperson
Recipient
Liaison
694.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a major component of the Management information system?
Data gathering
Information utilization
Risk Analysis
Data transformation
695.
In negotiation and agreement, management offers something of value in exchange for
cooperation thereby .. potential or actual resistance from employees.
(a)
Neutralizing
(b)
Increasing
(c)
Decreasing
(d)
Aggravating
696.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
.. refers to the price of an inventory item.

Ordering cost
Item cost
Carrying cost
Stock-out cost
697.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Management techniques are used at the .. level of the organization.

Top level
Middle level
First level
All of the above
698.
.. innovations lead to changes in the physical process through which a product
or service passes.
(a)
Technical
(b)
Radical
(c)
Incremental
(d)
Managerial
699.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A . Outline the expected results of a given future period in numerical terms

Program
Budget
Policy
Procedure
700.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a major type of structural alternative used for departmentation?
Functional
Divisional
Vertical
Matrix
701.
In which role do managers try new methods to improve the functioning of a unit or the whole
organization?
(a)
Disseminator
(b)
Leader
(c)
Entrepreneur
(d)
Liaison
702.
.. refers to the managements efforts to increase organizations effectiveness by
intervention in the organizations processes?
Page 76

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Planned development
Functional development
Company development
Organization development
703.
What is the nature of the problems that top management generally deals with and what kind of
decisions do they take to solve their problem s?
(a)
Unstructured an programmed
(b)
Structured and non programmed
(c)
Unstructured and non programmed
(d)
Structured and programmed
704.
. specializes in feeding input data into a system and extracting required
information from it.
(a)
Data processing managers
(b)
Data entry operators
(c)
Programmers
(d)
System analysis
705.
A is a type of departmentation in which positions are grouped according to
similarity of products services or markets
(a)
Hybrid structure
(b)
Divisional structure
(c)
Matrix structure
(d)
Functional structure
706.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Functional authority contravenes which one of the following principles?

Unity of direction
Unity of command
Discipline
Scalar chain
707.
In which of the following models will a manager completely disregard the emotions or feelings
of his or her subordinates?
(a)
Phenomenological
(b)
Economic
(c)
Rational
(d)
Behaviouristic
708.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Managers perceptions of workers in Theory X and Theory Y are . respectively.

Negative and negative
Positive and negative
Negative and Positive
Positive and positive
709.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is considered synonymous used with downsizing

Rebuilding
Recreating
Re-establishing
Restructuring
710.
According to the functional view point, functions are directly related to the
accomplishment of organizational objectives
(a)
Line
(b)
Staff
(c)
Linea and staff
(d)
Both a and b
711.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Which of the following is not a content theory?

Equity Theory
Two factor theory
Need hierarchy theory
Page 77

(d)
ERG theory
712.
Which of the following principles of management identified by Henri Fayol states that
promoting tem spirit will give the organization a sense of unity?
(a)
Equity
(b)
Espirit de Corps
(c)
Discipline
(d)
Initiative
713.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following perspective is/are considered universal perspective?

Classical
Quantitative
Behavioural
All of the above
714.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following managers are familiar with all the functional areas of management /
Operations managers
Human resource managers
Financial managers
General managers
715.
Which of the following strategies focuses on the best means of computing in a particular
market?
(a)
Business Level
(b)
Corporate Level
(c)
Functional Level
(d)
Organizational Level
716.
Which of the following techniques is used in decision making to figure out how much extra
output will result if one more variable is added?
(a)
Financial analysis
(b)
Ratio analysis
(c)
Break even analysis
(d)
Marginal analysis
717.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
.. decisions usually involve a lot of uncertainly

Programmed
Non programmed
Tactical
Operational
718.
The .......role, identified by Mintzberg includes the specific roles of entrepreneur, disturbance
handler, resource allocator and negotiator.
(a)
Decisional.
(b)
Interpersonal
(c)
Informational.
(d)
Administrative
Which of the following approaches to management examines practical cases but is having
719.
only limited value for developing management theory?
(a)
Group behaviour approach.
(b)
Systems approach.
(c)
Operations approach.
(d)
Emperical approach.
720.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In the ......... approach to management, managerial practice depends on circumstances.

Systems.
Contingency or Situational.
McKinseys &-S framework.
Emperical or case.
Page 78

721.
Which one of the following theories ignored the concept of leadership, motivation, power, and
informal relations :
(a)
Pre-classical.
(b)
Classical
(c)
Behavioural.
(d)
Modern.
722.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following did not contribute to the behavioural concept of management :
Elton Mayo.
Mary Parker Follet.
Chris Argyris
Henry R Towne
723.
Which behavioural thinker supported the idea of power sharing between superiors and
subordinates in an organisation?
(a)
Abraham Maslow.
(b)
Elton Mayo.
(c)
Mary Parker Follet
(d)
Douglas McGregor
724.
Who proposed that human needs develop in a hierarchical manner in the order of
physiological needs, safety, social needs, esteem needs and self-fulfilment needs?
(a)
Elton Mayo
(b)
Abraham Maslow.
(c)
Chris Argyris.
(d)
Douglas McGregor
725.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Who was the most prominent among the general administrative theorist?
Henry Mintzberg.
Henri Fayol.
Frederick W. Taylor.
Frank Gilbreth.
726.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which management thinker regarded people and organisations as closed systems?

Elton Mayo.
Henri Fayol.
Frederick. W. Taylor.
Chris Argyris.
727.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
.............. proposed the hierarchy of needs theory.

Abraham Maslow.
Elton Mayo.
Douglas McGregor.
Chris Argyris.
728.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
................ is generally recognised as the Father of the Human relations Approach.

Max Weber.
Mary Parker Follet.
Abraham Maslow.
Elton Mayo.
729.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In the systems theory the terms throughputs refers to the..............

Input.
Output.
Feedback.
Transformation process.
Which of the following Fayols principles of management aims at avoiding the possibility of
730.
conflicting orders?
(a)
Well defined hierarchy of authority.
(b)
Unity of command.
Page 79

(c)
(d)
Authority on par with responsibility.

Downward delegation of authority or responsibility.
731.
Max Weber, a German sociologist believed that effective organisations had a formal structure
and followed a predefined set of rules and regulations. To identify such organisations he used the
term..........
(a)
Autocracy.
(b)
Autonomy.
(c)
Formal.
(d)
Bureaucracy.
732.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Who developed the hierarchy of needs theory?

Herzberg.
Abraham Maslow.
McClelland.
Alderfer
733.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
According to Herzberg ...... are job content factors which lead to job dis-satisfaction :
Motivators.
Hygiene factors.
Context factors.
Psychological factors
734.
The concept of social assumption is based on ................ belief that people are motivated by
social needs.
(a)
Kurt Lewins
(b)
Douglas McGregors.
(c)
Elton Mayos
(d)
Chris Argyriss
............... proposed by Douglas McGregors has a positive, dynamic, flexible and optimistic
735.
view of employees.
(a)
Theory W
(b)
Theory X
(c)
Theory Y
(d)
Theory Z
736.
theory :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Self-actualisation and esteem needs in Maslows theory correspond to..... ..factor in Herzbergs
Interpersonal relations.
Working conditions.
Challenging work.
Quality of supervision.
737.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following needs does not come under McClellands needs theory :
Achievement needs.
Affiliation needs.
Power needs.
Safety needs
738.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
MBO was first suggested by:

Frederick Taylor
Henri Fayol
Peter. F Drucker
Henry Mintzberg
739.
Fayol out lined 14 principles of management. One of them, the ..., states that each employee
must receive instructions about a particular operation from only one person.
(a)
Unity of direction.
(b)
Discipline.
(c)
Unity of command
(d)
Centralisation.
Page 80

740.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Weber coined the term... identify large organisations that operated on a rational basis.
Autocracy.
Dictatorship.
Bureaucracy.
Diplomacy.
741.
Henry Mintzberg classified the managerial roles of recipient, disseminator and spokesperson
as...............
(a)
Interpersonal roles.
(b)
Informational roles
(c)
Decisional roles.
(d)
Intelligence roles.
742.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In Herzbergs two factor theory of motivation, hygiene factors are also known as :
Job content factors.
Job context factors.
Motivators.
Job satisfying factors
743.
George Homans format vs informal organisation model is based on three concepts. Which of
the following is not one among the three concepts?
(a)
Interactions.
(b)
Activities.
(c)
Behaviour.
(d)
Sentiments.
According to Vrooms expectancy theory, what would be the valence of an individual who is
744.
indifferent to the outcome?
(a)
+1
(b)
0
(c)
-1
(d)
+0.5
745.
Which of the following branches of the classical viewpoint of management is based on the
contributions of Max Weber?
(a)
(b)
Bureaucratic management
(c)
(d)
Behavioural management
746.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Who among the following proposed the concept of functional authority?

Chris Argyris
Max Weber
F. W Taylor
Elton Mayo.
747.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
According to Mintzberg .. are interpersonal roles.

Figurehead, recipient, liaison
Leader, Liaison, spokesperson
Figurehead, leader, liaison
Figurehead, liaison, entrepreneur
748.
Which of the following needs of Maslows needs hierarchy theory does not correspond with the
hygiene factors of Herzbergs two-factor theory
(a)
Physiological theory
(b)
Esteem needs
(c)
Security or safety needs
(d)
Social needs
Page 81

749.
In the classical approach, who first introduced the concept of training workers for the benefit of
both workers and organization?
(a)
Henry L Grant
(b)
Henri Fayol
(c)
Frederick Winslow Taylor
(d)
Max Weber
750.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The situational theory is also known as ..

Trait theory
Transactional theory
Contingency theory
Behavioural theory
751.
Whose principles of management gave rise to the concept of team spirit among employees
(known as Espirit de corps)?
(a)
Henry L Grant
(b)
Henri Fayol
(c)
Max Weber
(d)
Lillian B Gilbreth
752.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following did not contribute to pre classical management thought?
Robert Owen
Charles Babbage
Henri Fayol
Henry R Towne
753.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The .. model of decision-making was developed by Herbert Simon.

Garbage-can
Incremental
Satisficing
Rational
754.
According to Likerts system of management . represents dictatorial leadership
behaviour
(a)
System 1 management
(b)
System 2 management
(c)
System 3 management
(d)
System 4 management
755.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a leadership theory?

Trait theory
ERG theory
Contingency theory
Transactional theory
756.
Which specialization improves the efficiency of operations? This principle of management
indentified by Henri Fayol is termed as .
(a)
Division of work
(b)
Stability
(c)
Espirit de corps
(d)
Discipline
757.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Who among the following is regarded as the Father of motion study?

Lillian Gilbreth
Charles Babbage
Henry Grant
Frank Gilbreth
758.
According to Blake and Moutons managerial grid, which of the following managerial styles is
known as organizational management?
(a)
Impoverished management
Page 82

(b)
(c)
(d)
Middle of the road management

Country club management
Team management
759.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Mc Gregorss takes a pessimistic static and rigid view of human nature.

Theory W
Theory X
Theory Y
Theory Z
760.
Which of the following studies gave importance to the initiating structure and consideration
dimensions of leadership?
(a)
Iowa studies
(b)
Michigan studies
(c)
Ohio State studies
(d)
Likerts four system of management
761.
According to Herzberg and his associates are job content factors, which lead to job
satisfaction.
(a)
Motivators
(b)
Hygiene factors
(c)
Context factors
(d)
Physiological factors
762.
is the earliest management thinker to use this term Management by
Objectives.
(a)
Peter F Drucker
(b)
Frederick Winslow Taylor
(c)
Henri Fayol
(d)
Henry Mintzberg
763.
style.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Leadership style 1, 9 in Blake and Moutons management grid represents the

Impoverished management
Country club management
Team management
Organization man management
764.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Theory X and Theory Y, two sets of assumptions about the nature of people, proposed by:
Abraham Maslow
McGregor
Herzberg
McClelland
765.
According to Vrooms expectancy theory, which of the following refers to the probability that
successful performance will lead to certain outcomes?
(a)
Motivation
(b)
Valence
(c)
Expectancy
(d)
Instrumentality
766.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
. Is known as the Father of scientific management

Henri Fayol
Henry Mintzberg
Frederick W. Taylor
Max Weber
767.
To achieve organisational objectives managers ensure that the plans made a different levels
of an organisation are............
(a)
Independent.
(b)
Inter-dependent.
(c)
Non-reticulate.
Page 83

(d)
Separate.
768.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which level of managers is involved in the development of plans?

Top level management
First level managers.
All the above.
769.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Organisations use contingency plans to cope with..............

Anticipated events.
Premeditated events.
Unforeseen events.
Predictable events.
Planning encourages ............. thinking among managers this type of thinking is essential for
770.
the long-term survival and growth of an organisation.
(a)
Conservative.
(b)
Innovative.
(c)
Conventional.
(d)
Stereotyped.
771.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What type of plan is used when unique situations of a non-recurring nature occur?
Primary plans.
Secondary plans.
Single-use plans.
Standing plans.
Which of the following is action based and result oriented management approach that
772.
contributes to the smooth and efficient functioning of organisations?
(a)
Projects.
(b)
Programs.
(c)
Rules.
(d)
Policies.
773.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following is not a type of single use plan?

Programs.
Policies.
Budgets.
Projects.
774.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Budgets are not expressed in the form of..................

Units of production.
Labour hours.
Machine hours.
Written policies.
775.
Which of the following plans are rigid in nature and do not allow any deviation from the
established guidelines?
(a)
Programs.
(b)
Policies.
(c)
Rules.
(d)
Procedures.
776.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following is the first step in the planning process?
Established objectives.
Analysing opportunities.
Determining planning premises.
Identifying alternatives.
777.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Which of the following is not a limitation of planning?

Time-consuming process.
Expensive.
Flexible.
Page 84

(d)
Lack of accurate information.
778.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
When developing a contingency plan, managers should not try to........

Increase interruptions to the operations of the business.
Speed up the restoration of services.
Reduce financial losses.
Resume critical operations within a specified time after a disaster.
779.
Which one of the following does not come under the formulating supporting plans stage in
the planning process?
(a)
Hiring workers.
(b)
Training new workers.
(c)
Expenditures for capital equipment.
(d)
Developing a new product.
780.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The open systems approach to planning is effective as it leads to.............. in planning.

Rigidity.
Flexibility.
Inelasticity.
Invariability.
781.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is the second step in the planning process?

Establishing objectives.
Implementation
Identifying resources.
782.
Which of the following are large scale single use plans that coordinate a complex set of
activities to achieve important non-recurring goals?
(a)
Budgets.
(b)
Single use plans
(c)
Projects
(d)
Programs.
783.
Which of the following indicate the action that major departments and subunits should take to
execute a strategic plan?
(a)
Operational plan.
(b)
Tactical plan.
(c)
Single use plan.
(d)
Project plan.
784.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Generally, strategic plans is an important aspect of the jobs of _____________ managers.

Operational Level
Middle-level
Top-level
At the levels
785.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
If goals are the desired ends, which of the following are the means for achieving those ends?
Commitments
Strategies
Plans
Programs
786.
Managers involved in the development of ______ plans generally work in an environment of
uncertainty and are required to make assumptions about future threats and opportunities.
(a)
Tactical
(b)
Operational
(c)
Single-use
(d)
Strategic
Page 85

787.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following plans are developed by low-level managers?

Operational.
Tactical.
Strategic.
Standing.
788.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
............. spell out the specific action that must or must not be taken in given situations :
Programs.
Rules.
Budgets.
Policies.
789.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following plans provide guidelines for day-to-day actions in an organisation?
Short term plans
Long term plans
Intermediate plans.
Standing plans.
790.
years?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following strategic plans of an organisation have a time frame exceeding 5
791.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is the first step in the planning process?

Establishing objectives.
Identifying alternatives.
Analysing opportunities.
792.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following steps in the planning process involves the execution of a plan?
Implementation.
Selection.
Evaluation.
Review.
793.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
There are three major kinds of standing plans: policies, rules and...................
Projects.
Programs.
Procedures.
Standards.
794.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Operational plans are generally oriented towards issues that have a time horizon of..........
About 5 years.
3 to 5 years.
1 to 2 years.
One year or less.
Short term plans.

Single use plans.
Long terms plans.
Intermediate plans.
795.
Which of the following refers to the determination of the purpose and the basic long-term
objectives of an enterprise, and the adoption of courses of action and the allocation of resources
necessary for achieving those objectives?
(a)
Strategies.
(b)
Plans
(c)
Policies.
(d)
Procedures.
796.
(a)
(b)
Top-level managers with good conceptual and design skills are responsible for..........
Operational planning.
Strategic planning.
Page 86

(c)
(d)
Functional planning.
Tactical planning.
797.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Managers refer to strategic plans as..................

Goal setting.
Organisational planning.
Functional planning.
Action plans.
798.
.............. are aimed at achieving a specific goal and are designed to meet the needs of a
unique situation :
(a)
Single use plans
(b)
Standing plans
(c)
Short-term plans
(d)
Double use plans
799.
A is a large scale single use plan which coordinates a complex set of activities for
achieving a major non recurring goal.
(a)
Program.
(b)
Project
(c)
Budget.
(d)
Policy.
800.
Which type of planning provides the organization with well-equipped individuals for top level
and middle level positions?
(a)
Replacement planning
(b)
Succession planning
(c)
Resource planning
(d)
Requirement planning
801.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the follow terms refers to the time gap between placing and receiving an order?
Reorder time
Lead time
Real time
Just in time
802.
What kind of plans do manager make on the basis of future expectations of political, legal,
social technological, and economic environments?
(a)
Primary plans
(b)
Secondary plans
(c)
Contingency plans
(d)
Situational plans
803.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Holding cost is synonymous with ..

Ordering cost
Item cost
Carrying cost
Stock-out cost
804.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What kind of plan facilitates the delegation of authority?

Single use plan
Contingency plan
Standing plan
None of the above
805.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following situations requires the use of standing plans?
Intermittent
Occasional
Recurring
Temporary
Page 87

806.
Which of the following includes factors like profitability, sales and R&D and has a direct bearing
on an organizations well being ?
(a)
Planning premises
(b)
Key result areas
(c)
Corporate objectives
(d)
Operations
807.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is an advantage of decentralization?

Encourages decision making
Easy to have uniform policy
Greater control
Decreases complexity of coordination
808.
Which of the following refers to assumptions about the environment in which the plan is to be
carried out?
(a)
Planning environment
(b)
Planning premises
(c)
Panning boundaries
(d)
Decision premises
809.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A SWOT analysis does not consider organizations

Internal strengths
External opportunities
Internal weaknesses
External task environment
The plant manager of Crux industries has established certain work schedule for supervisors of
810.
the company. Which of the following powers was used by the plant manager of Crux industries in this
case?
(a)
Downward referent power
(b)
Reward Power
(c)
Downward legitimate power
(d)
Upward legitimate power
811.
Which of the following is a type of departmention that adopts aspects of both functional and
divisional structures at the same level of management?
(a)
Matrix
(b)
Flexible
(c)
Hybrid
(d)
Partly functional
812.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The use of effective control systems does not lead to ..

Improved output per unit of output
Reduction in wastage
Increase in personnel turnover
Lower labour costs
813.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following types of plan is formulated to achieve strategic goals?

Tactical plans
Strategic plans
Operational plans
Standing plans
814.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is a one-time plan created in response to a non-programmed decision?

Standing
Single use
Long term
Tactical
815.
(a)
Which of the following identify problem areas and increase the feasibility of achieving goals?
Key result areas
Page 88

(b)
(c)
(d)
Goals
Action plans
Procedures
816.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Feed forward control is not known as ..

Pre control
Preliminary control
Preaction control
Reaction control
817.
.. involves the identification of potential candidates for filling specific
managerial positions.
(a)
Succession planning
(b)
Replacement planning
(c)
Resource planning
(d)
Requirement planning
818.
. .. is distinct business set up within a company to ensure that certain product or
product line is promoted and handled as though it were an independent business?
(a)
Strategic planning units
(b)
Strategic business units
(c)
Strategic functional units
(d)
Specific business units
819.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a feature of an adaptable organization?

Employee participation in decision making
Broad goals and objectives
Rigid functional division
Regular feedback from the environment
820.
A firm using a . strategy tries to offer products and services that are considered
unique in the industry.
(a)
Market Leadership
(b)
Focus
(c)
Differentiation
(d)
Cost Leadership
821.
The structural methods used for promoting, innovation help organizations implement
and achieve goals.
(a)
Procedures
(b)
Polices
(c)
Strategies
(d)
Rules
822.
A message that is generated by the receiver in response to the senders original message is
known as...............
(a)
Feedback.
(b)
Feed forward.
(c)
Perception.
(d)
Transmission.
823.
The communication flow from people at higher levels to those at lower levels in the
organisational hierarchy is referred to as....................
(a)
Upward communication
(b)
Crosswise communication
(c)
Downward communication
(d)
Horizontal communication
824.
(a)
Which of the following is not a gateway to effective communication in an organisation?

Effective listening.
Page 89

(b)
(c)
(d)
Non-directive counselling.
Interpersonal trust.
Improper feedback.
825.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a form of upward communication?

Suggestion systems.
Oral instructions.
Counselling sessions.
Complaint system.
826.
In the process of communication the translation of intended meaning into words and gestures
is known as :
(a)
Encoding
(b)
Decoding
(c)
Processing
(d)
Transforming.
827.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following media is not used for written downward communication?
Memorandum
Grapevine.
Handbooks
Pamphlets.
828.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
facilitates control, communication and coordination in organisations.

Deceleration
Departmentation
Disintegration
Decentralization
829.
Which of the following is not a mode of communication that helps managers communicate
effectively with subordinates?
(a)
Fax
(b)
Teleconferencing
(c)
Photocopying
(d)
Internet
830.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is a type of crosswise communication flow in organizations?

Upward
Vertical
Diagonal
Downward
Which of the following skills helps manager realize the most appropriate responses to a
831.
situation?
(a)
Conceptual skills
(b)
Diagnostic skills
(c)
Decision making skills
(d)
Technical skills
832.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The grapevine is a/an communication channel.

Informal
Formal
Stable
Organization
833.
..................... power is based on the influencers ability to punish the influence for not meeting
requirements :
(a)
Referent
(b)
Legitimate.
(c)
Expert.
(d)
Coercive.
Page 90

834.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a feature of authority?

Right to do something.
Legitimate power given by organisation.
Derived from position.
Requires no formal position.
835.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A lawyer specialised in criminal law is said to have which type of power?

Coercive.
Referent
Legitimate
Expert.
836.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In a manufacturing company, which of the following functions is not a staff function?

Plant maintenance.
Accounting.
Sales
Quality control.
837.
Which of the following powers is based on the perception or belief that the influencer has
relevant expertise, special knowledge or skill that the influence lacks?
(a)
Referent
(b)
Legitimate.
(c)
Expert.
(d)
Reward.
838.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The authority to control the functions of other departments related to specific task is known as :
Functional authority.
Formal authority.
Informal authority.
Managerial authority.
839.
The establishment of a distinct area, unit or subsystem of an organization over which a
manager has authority for the performance of specialized activities and results is termed as
(a)
Centralization
(b)
Departmentalization
(c)
Decentralization
(d)
Functionalization
840.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The output-input ratio within a time frame with regard to quality is known as ..
Efficiency
Effectiveness
Productivity
All the above
841.
In the . stage in the change process the new behaviour pattern is locked into
place by means of a supporting or re-enforcing mechanism so that it becomes the new norm:
(a)
Refreezing
(b)
Unfreezing
(c)
Moving
(d)
Freezing
842.
..managers bringing new work practices and help the organization sail smoothly
through changes.
(a)
Top Level
(b)
Middle level
(c)
First level
(d)
Supervisory level
843.
In the context of employee behaviour, which of the following is not an outcome of established
standards?
(a)
Helps employees perform efficiently
Page 91

(b)
(c)
(d)
Identifies task related deficiencies

Reduces their potentially negative effects of goal incongruence.
Reduces the potentially positive effects of goal incongruence
844.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
An informal organization lays emphasis on

Authority
People and relationships
Responsibility
Accountability
845.
. is a blue print of the formal organization indicating the lines of authority within
the organization.
(a)
Management chart
(b)
Authority chart
(c)
Flow chart
(d)
Organization chart
846.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Decreasing the role of subordinates in decision-making is knows as:

Centralization
Stabilization
Decentralization
Delegation of authority
847.
. . refers to the number of subordinates a superior can supervise efficiently and
effectively.
(a)
Span of authority
(b)
Span of control
(c)
Span of direction
(d)
Span of power.
Which one of the following best describes a sequence of steps formed to achieve a particular
848.
objective?
(a)
Programs
(b)
Policies
(c)
Procedures
(d)
Rules
849.
The management function that involves setting goals and deciding how best to achieve them
is known as__________
(a)
Planning
(b)
Organising
(c)
Leading
(d)
Controlling
850.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a problem faced during the implementation of the MBO process?
Motivational assessment.
Individual action.
Group action.
Appraisal of appraisers.
851.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is a limitation of MBO?

Helps in the coordination of goals and plans.
Provides clarity in organisational action.
Emphasises short terms goals.
Develop effective controls.
852.
Which of the following specifies the broad parameters within which organisation members are
expected to operate in pursuit of organisational goals?
(a)
Budget.
(b)
Program.
(c)
Project.
(d)
Policy.
Page 92

853.
The MBO process should receive continuous support from........... managers for its successful
implementation.
(a)
Top Level.
(b)
Middle level.
(c)
First level.
(d)
Link level.
854.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not an external environment?

Political.
Social.
Organisational policies.
Technology.
855.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Goals improve the cohesiveness or unity of a group as they make the group members..............
Self-reliant.
Independent.
Inter-dependant.
Self-sufficient.
856.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Periodic reviews allow managers to give........ to their subordinates.

Objectives.
Feedback.
Bonus.
Gifts.
857.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The use of effective control systems does not lead to................

Improved output per unit of input.
Reduction in wastage.
Increase in personnel turnover.
Lower labour costs.
858.
The first step in the decision making process is indentifying the problem; this involves the
following stages :
(a)
Scanning.
(b)
Categorisation.
(c)
Problem exercises.
(d)
Diagnosis.
859.
.................. refers to the extent to which an alternative can be accomplished within
organisational constraints such as time, budgets and polices.
(a)
Acceptability.
(b)
Quality.
(c)
Ethics
(d)
Feasibility.
860.
Decision alternatives must be evaluated against the........... criterion to determine their
compatibility with the social responsibilities of the organisation.
(a)
Quality.
(b)
Feasibility.
(c)
Ethics
(d)
Acceptability.
861.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The decision made by managers usually fall into one of the following categories :
Programmed and non-programmed.
Rational and irrational.
Strategic and non-strategic.
Strategic and tactical.
862.
(a)
(b)
(c)
..................... is the first step in the decision making process :

Identifying resource and constraints
Determining the problem.
Generating alternative solutions.
Page 93

(d)
Selecting an alternative
863.
Managers using the............. model of decision making arrives at an optimal decision after
obtaining and understanding all the information that is relevant to their decisions :
(a)
Garbage can.
(b)
Satisficing.
(c)
Incremental.
(d)
Rational.
864.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a non-rational model of decisions making?

Garbage-can.
Strategic planning.
Satisficing.
Incremental.
865.
The evaluation of an organisations task environment is necessary to understand its impact
on...................
(a)
Strategic goals.
(b)
Operational goals
(c)
Functional goals.
(d)
Individual employee goals.
866.
Non programmed decisions usually involve a lot of ..............., a condition in which the decision
maker must choose a course of action without having complete knowledge of the consequences that
will follow the implementation of the decision :
(a)
Certainty.
(b)
Stability.
(c)
Opportunity.
(d)
Uncertainty.
867.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Most of the important decision that managers make are .......... decisions :
Functional
Programmed
Non programmed
Tactical.
868.
The most significant decisions made in todays complex environment are taken under
conditions of....................
(a)
Risk.
(b)
Uncertainty.
(c)
Certainty.
(d)
Stability
869.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
................. gives managers access to more information and knowledge.

Individual decision-making.
Strategic decision-making.
Operational decision-making.
Group decision making.
870.
used?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In which of the following steps of the decision making process is the transformation technique
Evaluating alternatives.
Identifying resource and constraints.
Selecting an alternative.
Which of the following is not considered when evaluating the alternatives in the decision
871.
making process?
(a)
Feasibility.
(b)
Quantity.
Page 94

(c)
(d)
Quality.
Acceptability.
872.
Which of the following approaches is not used in the decision making process when selecting
an alternative?
(a)
Experience.
(b)
Experimentation.
(c)
Acceptability.
(d)
Research and analysis.
873.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The first step in the decision making process is identifying the problems. This involves :
Scanning.
Categorisation.
Problem exercises.
Diagnosis.
874.
.................. refers to the extent to which an alternative can be accomplished within
organisational constraints such as time, budgets and polices.
(a)
Acceptability.
(b)
Quality.
(c)
Ethics
(d)
Feasibility.
875.
Decision alternatives must be evaluated against the........... criterion to determine their
compatibility with the social responsibilities of the organisation.
(a)
Quality.
(b)
Feasibility.
(c)
Ethics
(d)
Acceptability.
876.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The decision made by managers usually fall into one of the following categories :
Programmed and non programmed.
Rational and irrational.
Strategic and non-strategic.
Strategic and tactical.
877.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
..................... is the first step in the decision making process :

Identifying resource and constraints
Determining the problem.
Selecting an alternative
878.
Managers using the............. model of decision making arrives at an optimal decision after
obtaining and understanding all the information that is relevant to their decisions :
(a)
Garbage can.
(b)
Satisficing.
(c)
Incremental.
(d)
Rational.
879.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a rational model of decisions making?

Garbage-can,
Strategic planning.
Satisficing.
Incremental.
880.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Decisions that deal with strategies for mergers, acquisitions, and takeovers are.......... in nature.
Programmed.
Non-programmed.
Operational.
Tactical.
Page 95
881.
Which of the following refers to the total set of managerial activities employed by the
organisation to transform resource inputs into product inputs?
(a)
Strategic management.
(b)
(c)
Marketing management.
(d)
Resource management
882.
.................... control systems help managers manage inputs in such a way that they are
available at the right place and at the right time and in the right quantity at minimum cost.
(a)
Budgetary
(b)
Inventory
(c)
Financial
(d)
Quality.
Which of the following control systems help managers ensure that actual performance is in
883.
tune with planned performance?
(a)
Budgetary control systems.
(b)
Financial control systems.
(c)
Inventory control systems.
(d)
All the above.
884.
Which of the following is a self-regulating control system that can automatically monitor the
situation and take corrective action :
(a)
Cybernetic control system.
(b)
Non-cybernetic control system.
(c)
Multiple control system.
(d)
Feedback control system.
885.
Which of the following is a control technique applied during or following the completion of an
activity :
(a)
Direct control.
(b)
Preventive control.
(c)
Corrective control.
(d)
Activity control.
886.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The main source of information for ......... managers are mostly internal.
Input.
Output.
Storage.
Instruction.
887.
An international enterprise has to scan the.............. market to identify threats and opportunities
for the company.
(a)
Domestic.
(b)
National.
(c)
Worldwide
(d)
Native market.
888.
Which of the following management functions help managers in achieving desired objectives
by establishing guidelines for future activities?
(a)
Staffing.
(b)
Controlling
(c)
Planning
(d)
Organising.
889.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
............. refers to the ability to persuade others to seek defined objectives enthusiastically :
Authority
Morale
Leadership
Controlling
Page 96

890.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a stage in delegating authority?

Briefing.
Monitoring progress.
Executing.
Evaluating results
891.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is a limitation of decentralisation?

Does not aid organisation in adapting to the environment.
Gives managers more freedom.
Considerable expense for training managers.
Adds to burden on top management.
892.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Functional authority contravenes which one of the following principles?

Unity of direction.
Unity of command.
Discipline.
Scalar chain.
893.
................... is the unbroken line of authority linking each employee with the top most position
in the organisation through a series of management posts?
(a)
Unity of command.
(b)
Chain of command.
(c)
Degree of command.
(d)
Unity of direction.
894.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a benefit of informal organisation to employees?

Security.
Status.
Self-actualisation.
Social satisfaction.
895.
goals :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
................... are action oriented and provide an energising thrust towards the achievement of
Drive.
Need
Goals
Wants.
896.
Internal information used for operations control provided by management information systems
is used by...................
(a)
Top Level managers.
(b)
(c)
Link level managers.
(d)
First level managers.
897.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not true in the case of a decision support system (DSS)?
Specialised in easy to use software.
Employs interactive processing.
Inflexible.
Adaptable.
898.
Organisations with.............. structures usually have many hierarchical levels and narrow spans
of control.
(a)
Flat.
(b)
Broad.
(c)
Wide.
(d)
Tall.
899.
(a)
(b)
(c)
........ is the crux of entrepreneurship?

Management.
Doing business.
Innovation.
Page 97

(d)
900.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Goals.
Which of the following is not one of the bases of power that managers rely on?
Coercive.
Reward
Expert
Illegitimate
901.
The structural methods used for promoting innovation help organisations implement........... and
achieve goals.
(a)
Procedures
(b)
Policies
(c)
Strategies
(d)
Rules
In the ............, managers consider the impact of changes in the external environment on the
902.
firm and on every aspect of planning :
(a)
Open systems approach
(b)
Management information system
(c)
Closed system approach
(d)
Grass-root budgeting
903.
Participation and commitment from which of the following level(s) of management is
necessary for the success of an MBO program.
(a)
Top level.
(b)
Lower level.
(c)
Middle level.
(d)
All the above.
904.
A/ an ............... is an environment condition that has the possibility of undermining an
organisations competitive capability.
(a)
Strength.
(b)
Threat.
(c)
Opportunity.
(d)
Weakness.
905.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
An organisation can differentiate the products from those of the competitors by................
Offering better customer service.
Offering new features.
Creating a brand image.
Using all the above strategies.
906.
A/an ............... organisation refers to a group of people working together cooperatively, under
authority, toward goals that mutually benefit the participants and the organisation.
(a)
Informal.
(b)
Partly Informal.
(c)
Formal.
(d)
Stable.
907.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
................... refers to the grouping of activities and resources in a logical fashion.

Organising.
Staffing.
Planning.
Controlling.
908.
Which of the following interactive subsystems is used to develop an open system model and is
known as production function?
(a)
Technical
(b)
Boundary-spanning
(c)
Managerial.
(d)
Financial.
Page 98

909.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In a formal organisation, power is associated with..................

People.
Position.
Relationships.
Public.
910.
Which one among the following areas for strategic goals indentifies factors that indicate the
financial well being of an organization?
(a)
Profit requirements
(b)
Productivity
(c)
Financial resources
(d)
Physical resources
911.
Which of the following describes the distribution of organizations resources over the areas in
which it competes?
(a)
Resource deployment
(b)
Resource accumulation
(c)
Resource gathering
(d)
Resource garnering
912.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
What do managers do in a liaison role?

Communicate with outsiders on behalf of the organization.
Communicate with people outside an within the organization
Communicate organizations information to subordinates
Receive information about the organization
913.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A/an . is a vital tool for providing information about organizational relationships.

Organizational chart
Functional chart
Organizational model
Functional model
914.
Which one of the following management functions helps maintain managerial effectiveness for
future activities?
(a)
Organizing
(b)
Planning
(c)
Staffing
(d)
Leading
Which of the following occurs when a company that is headquartered in one country builds or
915.
starts operations in a foreign country?
(a)
Partnerships
(b)
Direct investment
(c)
Joint venture
(d)
Strategic alliance
916.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The high profits that a cash cow generates can be used to support
Question marks and stars
Dogs and stars
Dogs and question marks
Dogs
917.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which type of departmentation is useful only at the lower level of organizations?

Departmentation by simple numbers
Departmentation by time
Departmentation by process or equipment
Departmentation by strategic numbers.
Page 99

918.
Which managerial function gives attention to influencing and motivating employees to
improve performance and achieve corporate objectives?
(a)
Leading
(b)
Organizing
(c)
Staffing
(d)
Controlling
919.
Which of the following processes shows how an individual seeks information about a certain
issue and how he interprets that information?
(a)
Dogmatism
(b)
Perception
(c)
Stereotyping
(d)
Cognitive dissonance
920.
Problems in the organization structure and the political environment are defined as ..
constraints.
(a)
Internal-internal
(b)
External-internal
(c)
Internal-external
(d)
External-external
921.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following does not explain the reluctance of managers to set goals?
Fear of failure
Thorough knowledge of organisational policies
Lack of confidence
Lack of knowledge of organizational procedures
922.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is/are the tools in the recruitment process under staffing?
Job analysis
Jobs description
Job specification
All of the above
923.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not considered as an irregularity in organizations?

Increasing personnel turnover
Decreasing personnel turnover
Product defects
Cost overruns
924.
The principle of . is based on the belief that most of the negative deviations from the
standards can be over taken by applying the fundamentals of management
(a)
Successive
(b)
Directive
(c)
Preventive
(d)
Indirect
925.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
.. provide directions for the activities of an organization.

Resources
Goals
Information
Manpower
926.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
. .. is also known as staffing

Resource management
Human management
Human resource development
927.
(a)
(b)
(c)
The process of developing an organizational structure is also known as

Organizational design.
System design.
Structure design.
Page 100

(d)
Process design.
928.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
. refers to the powers to make decisions to guide their actions of another.

Responsibility
Authority
Power
Delegation
929.
. ..refers to the set of documents, programs, and procedures associated with the
operations of a corporate system.
(a)
Hardware
(b)
Software
(c)
People
(d)
Data
Which of the following intervention techniques is concerned with the interpersonal relations
930.
and dynamic operating in work groups?
(a)
Team building
(b)
Skill development
(c)
Process consultation
(d)
Survey feedback
931.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
.. brings about changes in the way products or services are manufactured.

Product innovation
Radical innovation
Incremental innovation
Process innovation
932.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The efficient use of resources relative to outcomes is known as

Innovation
Financial resources
Physical resources
Productivity
933.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a step in the organizational development process?

Diagnosis
Interruption
Intervention
Evaluation
934.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a fixed asset?

Land
Building
Marketable securities
Machinery
935.
Which of the following means is not used by managers when implementing operational
research techniques?
(a)
Scientific
(b)
Financial
(c)
Logical
(d)
Mathematical
936.
A organization structure has a wide span of control and only a few
hierarchical levels.
(a)
Flat
(b)
Narrow
(c)
Tall
(d)
Wide
Page 101
937.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following designations does not fall in the category of top-level management?
Chief executive officer
Executive director
President
Supervisor
938.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
. are related to the balance sheet instead of the income statement.

Capital standard
Revenue standard
Program standards
Cost standards
939.
Which of the following decision making techniques is used to estimate the profitability of an
investment?
(a)
Marginal analysis
(b)
Financial analysis
(c)
Break even analysis
(d)
Ratio analysis
940.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not an output device?

Printers
Visual display monitors
Graphic plotters
Optical scanners
941.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In the MBO transformation process objectives are not stated in terms of..........
Quantity.
Quality.
Profits
Time.
942.
Action plans are concerned with identifying and grouping activities in the .......... stage of the
MBO transformation process.
(a)
Selling objectives.
(b)
Planning for action.
(c)
Control and appraisal.
(d)
Hierarchy of objectives.
943.
i.
ii.
iii.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following sub-systems is an integral part of the MBO process

Man power planning
Compensation.
Appraisal
i and ii.
i and iii.
ii and iii.
i, ii and iii.
944.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a limitation of the MBO?

Difficulty in goal setting.
Flexibility.
Failure to give guidelines to goal setters.
Importance of short-term goals.
945.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The first step in an MBO program is................

Formulating action plans.
Clarifying organisational roles.
Establishing specific goals for various departments.
Developing overall organisational goals.
Page 102

946.
Which of the following terms refers to the areas in which good performance is essential for the
success of an enterprise?
(a)
Key result areas.
(b)
Performance areas.
(c)
Significant areas.
(d)
Key work areas.
947.
Which of the following refers to efforts made within a firm to evaluate its own social
responsiveness?
(a)
Social audit.
(b)
Management audit.
(c)
Organizational audit.
(d)
Environment audit.
Many people oppose the involvement of organisations in social welfare activities. Which of the
948.
following is not a reason for their opposition to such activities?
(a)
Excessive costs.
(b)
Absence of mechanism to ensure accountability to society.
(c)
Protecting shareholders interests.
(d)
Weakened international balance.
949.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following determines a person ethical or unethical behaviour?

Values.
Procedures.
Rules.
Policies.
950.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In which of the following situations does the intensity of an ethical issue increase?
Everyone agrees that the action is right.
Many people will be harmed by the action.
When the chances of the act causing harm are negligible.
When the action has no serious impact on people.
951.
Which of the following refers to developments in countries other than/outside the organisations
home country that have the potential to influence the organisation?
(a)
Sociocultural component.
(b)
Technological component.
(c)
International component.
(d)
Economic component.
952.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
............ divisions are set up to serve particular types of clients or customers.

Customer
Product.
Service
Geographic.
953.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a structural method for promoting innovation in organisations?
Roles.
Reservations.
Environment.
Differentiation.
954.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not an advantage of functional departmentation in organisations?

In depth skill development.
Simplified training.
Reduced coordination between functions.
Clarity about career paths
955.
(a)
(b)
Which of the following is not a major form of the divisional structure of departmentalisation?
Product division.
Geographic division.
Page 103

(c)
(d)
Sales division.
Customer division.
956.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not an advantage of product division?

Improves coordination of functional activities.
Requires more people with general managerial abilities.
Permits growth of products and services.
Places attention and efforts on product line.
957.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a line manager when exercising his authority?
Takes operating decisions.
Direct others.
Delegates.
Assist others.
958.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a feature of the consultative style of management?

Motivating employees.
No upward communication flow.
Downward communication flow.
Managers acting as consultants.
959.
The .................. refers to the assignment of formal authority and responsibility to another person
for carrying out specific activities :
(a)
Decentralisation of authority.
(b)
Delegation of responsibility.
(c)
Centralisation of authority
(d)
Delegation of authority.
960.
The willingness of subordinates to take on additional responsibilities is a factor that affects the
degree of..............
(a)
Centralisation.
(b)
Decision-making.
(c)
Decentralisation.
(d)
Controlling.
961.
Which of the following refers to the total set of managerial activities employed by the
organisation to transform resource inputs into product inputs?
(a)
Strategic management.
(b)
(c)
Marketing management.
(d)
Resource management
962.
MBO techniques wok successfully when managers consider the assumptions of .
and the actions of employees are consistent with these assumptions.
(a)
Theory W
(b)
Theory X
(c)
Theory Y
(d)
Theory Z
963.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is synonymous with the external culture of an organization?

Corporate culture
Social culture
Corporate philosophy
Social programs
964.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In , the opinion of experts are collected to arrive at a consensus.

Interacting groups
Nominal groups
Delphi groups
Formal groups
965.
Which of the following terms refers to the measurement of performance in an organization?
Page 104

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Coordination
Organizational development
Appraisal
Control
966.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a social need?

Cooperative peers
Good superiors
Job security
Loyal customers
A firm using a strategy tries to specialize within a very narrow segment of the
967.
market by establishing a position of overall cost, leadership, differentiation or both.
(a)
Specific
(b)
Focus
(c)
Directive
(d)
Differentiation
968.
Which of the following represents the formulation and quantification of plans for a particular
period of time in the future?
(a)
Linear programming
(b)
Budgeting
(c)
Leveraging
(d)
Computing
969.
A superior officer evaluates the performance of his subordinates in order to decide who should
be promoted. What type of power does the superior have in this case?
(a)
Referent
(b)
Coercive
(c)
Legitimate
(d)
Reward
970.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Just in time is also known as stockless production and ..

Finished goods inventory
Zero inventory
Raw material inventory
Work in progress inventory
971.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The specific roles of figureheads leader and liaison fall in category of....... role:
Informational.
Decisional.
Organisational.
Interpersonal.
972.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a key leadership trait as proposed by the trait theory?
Leadership motivation.
Honesty and integrity
Rigidness.
Self-confidence.
973.
According to the trait theory of leadership, which of the following is a social characteristic of
leaders?
(a)
Interpersonal skills.
(b)
Achievement
(c)
Enthusiasm
(d)
Adaptability
974.
Which of the following is not a critical dimension of the leadership situation identified by Fiedler
that would help in deciding the most effective style of leadership?
Page 105

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Position power.
Task structure.
Organisational structure.
Leader-member relations.
975.
Research on leadership has been carried out at the University of Michigan, and Ohio State
university. Which of the following studies focused on the aspects of leadership?
(a)
Behavioural.
(b)
Situational
(c)
Substitutes.
(d)
Traits.
976.
The.............. leader tends to make unilateral decisions, dictates work methods, limits worker
knowledge about goals and sometimes gives punitive feedback.
(a)
Participative
(b)
Autocratic.
(c)
Laissez-faire
(d)
d. Democratic.
977.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Fiedlers approach to leadership is one of the popular ............ theories of leadership :

Behavioural.
Trait
Situational
Transformational.
978.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Leadership involving an exchange relationship between leaders and followers is termed as :

Transformational Leadership.
Situational Leadership.
Transactional Leadership.
Exchange Leadership.
979.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a leadership style as proposed by Iowa and Michigan studies?
Bureaucratic
Democratic
Autocratic
Laissez faire.
980.
Which type of technical innovation involves changes in the physical characteristics of a
product or the creation of new products?
(a)
Managerial innovation
(b)
Radical innovation
(c)
Process innovation
(d)
Product innovation
981.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which type of leaders gives complete freedom to their employees?

Autocratic leaders
Bureaucratic leaders
Participative leaders
Laissez faire leaders
982.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Democratic Leadership is also known as . Leadership

Autocratic
Participative
Bureaucratic
Laissez-faire
983.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a motivational technique?

Participation.
Quality of work life
Job enrichment
Job description
Page 106

984.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is the origin of any motivated behaviour?

Need
Drives
Goals
Wants
985.
Which of the following methods encourages the involvement of employees in the setting of
objectives?
(a)
Management by walking around
(b)
Management by goals
(c)
Management by objectives
(d)
Management by exceptions
986.
A collection of values, norms, beliefs, attitudes and habits that directs the behaviour of a group
of people is known as................
(a)
Culture.
(b)
Programs.
(c)
Rules
(d)
Philosophy.
987.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is not a common characteristic of corporate culture?

It is based on certain norms.
It shapes philosophy and rules.
The strength of culture varies from organisation to organisation
Leads to diverse behavioural aspects.
Which of the following methods help managers find out the minimum time and cost required to
988.
complete a project?
(a)
Program evaluation and review technique (PERT)
(b)
Critical path method (CPM)
(c)
Just in time (JIT)
(d)
Computer aided design (CAD)
989.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following is not an assumption underlying direct control?

Personal responsibility exists.
Time expenditure is warranted.
Performance cannot be measured.
Mistakes can be discovered in time.
990.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
............... refers to unanalyzed and unorganised facts and figures describing entities.
Information.
Intelligence.
Data
Systems.
991.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
External information is more useful for.......... managers :

Top level.
Middle level
Lower level
Link level
992.
Which one of the following is not an external user to whom the company is required to provide
information?
(a)
Customer.
(b)
Employee
(c)
Supplier
(d)
Government
993.
(a)
(b)
Which of the following is not a component of an information systems :

Keyboard.
Printers.
Page 107

(c)
(d)
Floppy discs.
Magnetic discs
994.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The higher quality of managers and their subordinates the less the need for..............
Direct control.
Preventive control
Tactical control.
Strategic control.
995.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Individual differences in human beings are rooted in difference in their make up.
Penological
Pathological
Physiological
Psychological
996.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following is synonymous with the external culture of an organization?

Corporate culture
Social culture
Corporate philosophy
Social programs
997.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Organization culture is an aspect of the . environment of an organization.

General
Task
Internal
External
. Which of the following describe the set of feelings or beliefs that individuals have about
998.
certain ideas situations or people?
(a)
Attitude
(b)
Dogmatism
(c)
Self esteem
(d)
Self efficacy
999.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
According to the , a persons behaviour is influenced by the environment.

Behaviouristic view
Emotional view
Economical view
Self actualizing view
1000. A/ an .. organization is a network of personal and social relations not established

or required by the formal organization and arising spontaneously as people associate with one another.
(a)
Informal
(b)
Formal
(c)
Partly formal
(d)
Strategic
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Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Theory __ is based on positive assumptions about workers.

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Which is not one of Fayol's principles:

Which is not a management science theory:

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

One purpose of short-range forecasts is to determine

Forecasts are usually classified by time horizon into three categories

A forecast with a time horizon of about 3 months to 3 years is typically called a

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Who considered organization to be similar to the architectural plan of a building?

Functional foremanship is the concept underlying the following organization

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Which management principle does matrix organization violate?

Free form organization is more suitable in ............................. environment

A concern having textile, chemicals, plastics fertilizers follow departmentation based on

_______ applies to the systematic delegation of authority in an organization-wide context

Authority should be commensurate with responsibility is the best way to achieve

Grapevine is another term used to describe

The unofficial and social pattern of human interactions is observed in

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

A suitable basis of departmentation is decided considering

Organization theory is predominantly _________ and _________ in nature

Machine theory has been popularized as

The concept of span of control was propounded by

Blake and Mouton propounded the concept of

The Latin term persona is used to describe

Being outgoing, talkative, sociable, assertive indicated which personality dimention

An individuals view of reality is

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

The law of exercise in learning is based on

Negative reinforcement involves the threat of

Which of the following is the second stage of group formation,

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Which theory is considered to deal with consequences?

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Paper 1 Fundamentals of Organization and Management (Syllabus 2008)

Organization theory is predominantly _ and _ in nature