No.

of Printed Pages 24

00600

M.Sc. Chemistry Entrance Test for

M.Sc. Chemistry Programmes 2011

Enrolment No.

Name

Time : 180 Minutes

Total No. of Questions : 150

All questions are compulsory.

Use of calculator is not allowed. Rough work may be done in the space provided at the
end of the Test Booklet.

Read the instructions given on the OMR Response Sheet carefully before you start.

M.Sc. Chemistry/ 2011

P.T.O.

How to fill up the information on the OMR Response Sheet

(Examination Answer Sheet)
1.

Write your complete enrolment no. in 9 digits. This should correspond to the enrolment
number indicated by you on the OMR Response Sheet. Also write your correct name, address
with pin code in the space provided. Put your signature on the OMR Response Sheet with
date. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his signature with date
on the OMR Response Sheet at the space provided.

2.

On the OMR Response Sheet student's particulars are to be filled in by pen. However use HB
pencil for writing the Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code as well as for blackening
the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the question.

3.

Do not make any stray remarks on this sheet.

4.

Write correct information in numerical digit in Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code
Columns. The corresponding circle should be dark enough and should be filled in completely.

5.

Each question is followed by four probable answers which are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. You
should select and show only one answer to each question considered by you as the most
appropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HB
pencil, blacken the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the
question. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives given under
the question, you should darken the circle with '0'.

6.

If you wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened circle by using
a good quality eraser and then blacken the circle bearing your revised answer number. If
incorrect answer is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased circle and the
question will be read as having two answers and will be ignored for giving any credit.

7.

No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question. Therefore, you
should select the most appropriate answer.

8.

You should not spend too much time on any one question. If you find any particular question
difficult, leave it and go to the next. If you have time left after answering all the questions,
you may go back to the unanswered ones. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1.

No cell Phones, calculators, books, slide-rules, note-books or written notes, etc. will be allowed
inside the examination hall.

2.

You should follow the instructions given by the Centre Superintendent and by the Invigilator
at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions, you will be disqualified.

3.

Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will be
disqualified.

4.

The Test Booklet and the OMR Response Sheet (Answer Sheet) would be supplied to you by
the Invigilators. After the examination is over, you should hand over the OMR Response
Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. Any candidate who does not
return the OMR Response Sheet will be disqualified and the University may take further
action against him/her.

5.

All rough work is to be done on the test booklet itself and not on any other paper. Scrap
paper is not permitted. For arriving at answers you may work in the margins, make some
markings or underline in the test booklet itself.

6.

The University reserves the right to cancel scores of any candidate who impersonates or
uses/adopts other malpractices or uses any unfair means. The examination is conducted
under uniform conditions. The University would also follow a procedure to verify the validity
of scores of all examinees uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performance
is not genuine, the University may cancel your score.

7.

In the event of your qualifying the Entrance Test, the hall ticket should be enclosed with your
admission form while submitting it to the University for seeking admission in
M.Sc. (Chemistry) Programme along with your testimonials and programme fee. Admission
forms received without hall ticket in original will be summarily rejected.

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

P.T.O.

1.

The electromagnetic radiation associated with which of the following transitions in a hydrogen
atom will have the maximum wavelength ?
(1) From n =1 to n = 3

(2) From n = 2 to n = 3
(4) From n =1 to n a

(3) From n = 3 to n = 4
2.

Potassium ejects photoelectrons when irradiated with light of wavelength less than 710 nm.
Which of the following lights will eject photoelectrons from potassium with maximum
velocity ?
(4) Yellow
(3) Violet
(1) Blue
(2) Green

3.

The minimum value of the energy of a particle in a one dimensional box is x units. The value
of its energy in the next higher level will be :
1
(1) --x
2

4.

5.

6.

(3) 3x

(2) 2x

The probability of finding the dz2 electron is zero in :

(3) yz plane
(1) xi/ plane
(2) xz plane

(4) 4x

(4) none of the above

In a Born Haber cycle which of the following contributes most in accounting for the high
negative standard enthalpy of formation of MgO(s), a stable ionic compound ?
(1) First and second ionization energies of magnesium
(2)

Dissociation energy of oxygen

(3)

Lattice energy

(4)

Electron affinity of O(g)

Out of XeF7, CO,, SO2 and NO:,- the linear species are :
(1 ) XeF2 and CO2

(2) CO2 and SO2

(3) XeF7 and NO;-

(4) SO2 and NOi

7.

A molecule in which sp2 hybrid orbitals are employed for bond formation by the central
atom is :
(1) NH3
(2) CO2
(4) H2CO
(3) SC12

8.

Carbon-Carbon bond order in C,, is :

(2)

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

(3)
4

(4) 4

9.

10.

11.

In which of the following ionizations the respective bond order decreases ?

(1)

02 (g) --> 02+ (g) + e

(2)

N 2 (g)

N2 ( g ) + e

(3)

NO(g)

NO+ (g) + e

(4)

Het

(g) + e

Amongst PF3, CS2, SF4 and SF6 the polar molecules are :
(2) CS2 and SF4
(1) PF3 and SF6
(4) CS2 and SF6
(3) PF3 and SF4
15 th
After one hour the amount of a certain radioactive substance disintegrated was 16 of the
original amount. The half life of the radioactive substance is :
(3) 7.5 min.
(1) 15 min.
(2) 30 min.

(4) 52.5 min.

12. The outermost electron configuration of an element is 5s2 5p3. The atomic number of this
element is :
(2) 34
(3) 51
(4) 52
(1) 33
13.

Which of the following has the highest electronegativity ?

(2) Mg
(1) Na
(3) K

(4) Ca

14. The correct order of ionization energies of F C1-, F and Cl is :

(1) F - < C/ - < F < C/
(2) F - < C/ < C/ -< F
(3) F- < C/ - < Cl < F
(4) Cl <
< Cl < F
15. The correct order of the sizes of the species Ca2 +, C1-, S2- and K+ is :
(1) Ca2 + < K+ < Cl - < S2(2) K+ < Cl- < Ca2 + < S2(3) S2- < Cl- <K+ < Ca2 +
(4) Cl - < S2- <K+ < Ca2 +
16. The correct order of decreasing boiling points of NH3, PH3 and AsH3 is :
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3
(2) AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
(3) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(4) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3
M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

P.T.O.

17.

Which of the following elements will form the least stable superoxide ?
(1) Na

(3) Rb

(2) K

(4) Cs

18. The ionic conductance of alkali metal cations in aqueous solution decreases in the order :
(1)

Cs+ > Rh+ >K+ > NEC-

(2) Na+ > K > Rh+ > cs+

(3)

> Na + > Cs + > Rh+

(4) Rh -4 > Cs+ > K+ > Na 4

19. Among Mg(OH)2, Ca(OH)2, Sr(OH), and Ba(OH)2 which has the largest value of the solubility
product ?
(3) Sr(OH)2
(4) Ba(OH)2
(2) Ca(OH)2
(1) Mg(OH)2
20. Thermal stability of peroxides of alkaline earth metals decrease in the order :
(1) Ca02 > Sr02 > Ba02

(2) Ba02 > Sr, > Caar,

(3) Sr02 > Ca02 > BaO2

(4) SrO2 > Ba02 > Ca02

21. Which of the following statements regarding cliborane is NOT correct ?

(1)

It is an electron deficient molecule

(2)

There is free rotation about B-B bond

(3)

The bonding of two hydrogens is of one type whereas the bonding of the other four is
of different type

(4)

Its final hydrolysis products are hydrogen and boric acid

22. Which of the following statements about anhydrous aluminium chloride is correct ?
(1) It exists as A/C/3 molecules

(2)

It is not easily hydrolysed

(3) It is a volatile compound

(4) It is a moderately strong Lewis base

23. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about freons ?

(1)

They are gases at room temperature

(2)

They are hydrolysed by water

(3)

They are thermally stable

(4)

They are chlorofluorocarbons

24. Which is the strongest oxidizing agent among the following ?

(1) CO2
M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

(2) Si02

(3) SnO,,
6

(4) Pb02

25. Which of the following statements regarding halides of N and P is NOT correct ?
(1) PF5 exists NF, does not
(2) PF3 hydrolyses but NE., does not
(3) PC13 hydrolyses in the same way as NO3
(4) PC13 is stable but NC/3 is not
26. Which of the following is the most basic ?
(2) P4010
(1) P406

(3) As406

(4) Sb203

27. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?

(I) Ionic azides are more stable than covalent azides
(2) Azide ion has an angular shape
(3) Hydrazine is thermally unstable
(4) Hydrazine forms complexes with transition metal ions
28. Which of the following is most acidic ?
(2) H2S
(1) H.,0

(3) H2Se

(4) H2Te

29. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding thiosulphate ion ?
(1) It has tetrahedral shape
(2) It has no sulphur-sulphur bond
(3) It can act as reducing agent
(4) It can form complex with silver ion
30. FIBr and HI reduce H2SO4, FIC1 can reduce KMnO4 and IlF can reduce :
(1) H2SO4
(2) KMnO4
(3) K2Cr207
(4) None of the above
31. Which of the following is NOT true about fluorine ?
(1) It forms polyhalide ions
(2) It forms interhalogen compounds
(3) It forms insoluble calcium fluoride
(4) It forms 07F2
32. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding XeF2 ?
(1) It is a linear molecule
(2) It reacts violently with water
(3) It oxidizes brornate to perbromate
(4) It acts as a fluoride ion donor
M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

P.T.O.

33. Among the following which is the least basic ?

(1) Cr203

(3) CaO

(2) Cr03

(4) K20

34. Which of the following cations has the maximum number of unpaired electrons ?
(1) Fe3 +

(3) Fe2 +

(2) Mn3+

(4) Mn4 +

(at. no. of Mn = 25, Fe = 26)

35. Of the following elements one that is NOT expected to display an oxidation state of +5 in
any of its compounds is :
(1) Ti

(2) V

(3) Cr

(4) Mn

36. Chloride of which of the following will be coloured ?

(1)

Ag (I)

(2)

Hg (II)

(3)

Co(II)

(4)

Zn(II)

37. For europium (at.no. = 63) which of the following outermost electron configuration is
correct ?
(1) 4/5 5d2 6s2

(2)

(3)

4f6 5d1 6s2

4f7 6s2

(4)

4f7 5d1 6s1

38. The number of possible isomers of K [Cr (C204)2(H20)2] is

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 6

39. Which is NOT a correct statement regarding the number of unpaired electrons ?
(1)

It is 4 in a high spin octahedral complex of d6 ion

(2)

It is 0 in a low spin octahedral complex of d6 ion

(3)

It is 0 in a tetrahedral complex of d8 ion

(4)

It is 0 in a square planar complex of d8 ion

40. The crystal field stabilization energy of [ Ti (H20)6 ]3 + (at. no. of Ti = 22) is 8160 cm -1.
What is the value of crystal field splitting energy , Ao of this complex (in cm -1) ?
(1) 8160

(2) 12240

(3) 16320

(4) 20400

41. Malachite is a mineral of :

(1) manganese (2) magnesium (3) tin
M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

(4) copper

42. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the slag obtained during the extraction
of a metal like Cu or Fe ?
(1) The slag is lighter and lower melting than the metal
(2) The slag is heavier and lower melting than the metal
(3) The slag is lighter and higher melting than the metal
(4) The slag is heavier and higher melting than the metal
43. Electrorefining cannot be used for which of the following ?
(3) Pb
(1) Cu
(2) Sn

(4) Al

44. In which of the following pairs of ions the constituents cannot be separated by
NH4C/ + NH4OH ?
(4) F 3+, Zn2 +
(2) Al3+, Zn2 +
(3) Fe3+, Co2 +
(1) A13+, Fe3+
45. Which among the following is the most soluble sulphide ?
(2) CdS
(1) CuS
(3) PbS

(4) NiS

46. Which of the following does not dissolve in hot nitric acid
(2) CuS
(1) HgS
(3) CdS

(4) SnS

47. Which of the following cations imparts violet colour to a Bunsen flame ?
(1) Sodium
(2) Potassium
(3) Calcium
(4) Barium
48. On treatment with dil.H2SO4 which of the following anions would NOT produce a gas ?
(1) sulphide
(2) thiosulphate (3) bromide
(4) sulphite
49. On adding BaC12 solution to the solution of a sodium salt a white precipitate was obtained.
The precipitate could not be :
(1) BaSO4
(2) BaSO3
(3) BaF2
(4) BaCrO4
50. The brown ring obtained in the test for nitrate ions contains the cation :
(1) [ Fe(H20)5NO 1+
(2) [ Fe(H20)5NO2 12 +
(3) [ Fe(H20)5NO 12 +
(4) [ Fe(H20)4(NO2)2 J +
51. Reaction of 1-hexene with NBS (N - bromosuccinimide) forms two isomeric bromohexenes,
one of which is 3-bromo-1-hexene. Which of the following is the other isomer ?
(1) 1-bronm- 2-hexene
(2) 6-bromo-1-hexene
(3) 1-bromo-1-hexene
(4) 2-bromo-1-hexene
M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

52. The cannizaro reaction of benzaldehyde involves :

(1) intramolecular shift of proton
(2) intramolecular shift of hydride
(3) intermolecular shift of proton
(4) intermolecular shift of hydride
53.

The reaction of m-bromoanisole with NaNH2 in liquid ammonia yields :

(1) 0-amino anisole
(2) m-amino anisole
(3) p-amino anisole
(4) 1, 3-diaminobenzene

54,

A compound

whose substituents are superimposable on their own mirror image even though
they contain asymmetric carbon atoms is called :
(1) a threo isomer
(2) an erythro isomer
(3) syn-anti isomer
(4) a meso-compound

55. Spin - spin splitting occurs in the NMR spectrum of ethanol (I), ethane(II),
ethyl methyl ether(III) , t-butyl methyl ether(IV) :
(1) I and II only
(2) I and III only
(3) I and IV only
(4) II and IV only
56 The UV spectrum of acetone shows maximum absorption peak at 279 nm besides other
peaks at 166 and 189. The peak at 279 nm is because of which transition ?
(1)

n --> a*

(2)

77- --> 77-*

(3)

n -p 77*

(4)

0- > 0-*

57. o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile whereas p-nitrophenol is not. This is due to :

(1) the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bonding in p-nitrophenol
(2) higher dipole moment of o-nitrophenol
(3) the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bonding in o-nitrophenol
(4) the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding in o-nitrophenol
58. The configuration of asymmetric centre and the geometry of the double bond in the following
molecule can be described by :
Me

B BC\
H
(1)

R and E

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

H
\ CH3
(2) S and E

(3) R and Z
10

(4) S and Z

59. Which of the following statements about A and B are true ?

COOCH3

COOH

OH

OH

OH

OH

COOH

COOCH3

A
(2) A and B are diastereomers

(1) A and B are identical

(3) A and B are meso-compounds (4) A and B are enantiomers

60. Which of the following reactions does not proceed through a nitrene intermediate ?
(1) Curtius rearrangement

(2) Lossen rearrangement

(3) Beckmann rearrangement

(4) Hofmann bromamide reaction

61. Pyridine undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction preferentially at :

(1) Position 2

(2) Position 3

(3) Position 4

(4) Position 2 and Position 4

62. Addition of bromine to maleic acid gives :

(1) d1-2,3-Dibromosuccinic acid

(2) meso-2,3-Dibromosuccinic acid

(3) d-2,3-Dibromosuccinic acid

(4) 1-2,3-Dibromosuccinic acid

63. The order of reactivity of SN1 reaction in the following bromides is :

II

(1)

I > II > III

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

III

(2)

III > II > I

(3)
11

II > I > III

(4)

III > I > II

P.T.O.

64. The following molecule can be synthesized from :

A COOMe

iii/

COOMe
(1) 1,3-Butadiene and dimethyl maleate
(2) 1,2-Butadiene and dimethyl maleate
(3) 1,3-Butadiene and dimethyl fumarate
(4) 1,2-Butadiene and dimethyl fumarate
65. Oppenauer oxidation is the reverse of :
(1) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(2) Birch reduction
(3) Ciemmensen reduction
(4) Meerwein-Ponndorf-Verley reduction
66. The best reagent for the conversion of an ester to alcohol is :
(1) LiA1H4
(2) H2 /Pd-C
(3) NaBH4
67. (3-keto esters are best generated via ?
(1) Aldol reaction
(3) Claisen reaction

(4) Li-NH3 (liq)

(2) Oxidation of an ester

(4) Hoffman rearrangement

68. Which of the following statements is NOT true about enzymes ?

(1) They speed up reactions several times compared to uncatalyzed reactions
(2) They are very specific in their action on substrates
(3) They are active at moderate temperature and physiological pH
(4) Each enzyme catalyses a variety of reactions
69. The mechanism of the reaction given below is called
C6H5Br + liq. NH3 + NaNH2 --> C6H5NH2
(1) SN1
(2) SN2
(3) Addition-Elimination
(4) Elimination--Addition
70. Which of the following is NOT a suitable alkylating agent for active methylene
compounds ?
(1) C6H5CH2C/
(2) CH2 = CHCH2C/
(4) (CH3)2SO4
(3) CH3CH = CHBr

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

12

71.

Which of the following halides CANNOT be used for the preparation of Grignard reagent ?
(1) C6H5Br

72.

73.

74.

(3) CH2C1C = CCH (4) CH2BrC== CH

(2) CH2 = CHC/

A hydroxy acid on heating gives a 5-membered lactone. The acid is :

(1) CH2OHCH2CH2COOH

(2) CH3CHOHCH2COOH

(3) CH3CH2CHOHCOOH

(4) CH3CHOHCHOHCOOH

The most stable conformation of 2,3-dichlorobutane is :

(1) Eclipsed form

(2) Staggered form

(3) Skew form

(4) Gauche form

Which of the following organic halides will undergo an E2 elimination on heating with KOH
in alcohol ?
(1) 2,2-dimethy1-1-bromopropane (2) 2,2-dimethyl-1-bromocyclohexane
(4) 2,5-dimethyl-1-bromobenzene

(3) benzyl chloride

75.

A tripeptide is composed equally of L-valine, L-tyrosine and L-alanine (one molecule of

each). How many isomeric tripeptides of this kind may exist ?
(1) three

76.

77.

78.

(2) four

(3) six

(4) eight

Which of the following isomeric dienes is chiral ?

(1) 2,3-pentadiene

(2) 3-methyl-1,2-butadiene

(3) 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene

(4) 3-methyl-1-pentene

Which of the following aldehydes, used alone, will undergo an aldol reaction ?
(1) formaldehyde, CH2O

(2) butanal, CH3(CH2)2CHO

(3) benzaldehyde, C6H5CHO

(4) 2-propenal, CH2 = CHCFIO

Which of the following reactions is most likely to produce ethyl propanoate ?

(1)

sodium ethoxide + propanoic acid

(2)

propanol + acetyl chloride

(3)

sodium propanoate + acetic anhydride

(4)

potassium propanoate + ethyl iodide

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

13

P.T.O.

79. Methyl butyrate is reacted with excess ammonia, and the product is then treated with bromine
in aqueous NaOH. What is the expected product ?

80.

(1) butylamine

(2) pentylamine

(3) propylamine

(4) N-bromobutyramide

Which one of the following compounds would react with C2H5MgBr to make 3-pentanol ?
(1) ethanal

(2) ethyl formate

(3) acetic acid

(4) acetone

81. A C8H10 hydrocarbon undergoes mononitration by HNO3 and sulfuric acid. Two isomers of
C8H9NO2 are obtained. The hydrocarbon C8Fl10 is :
(1) ethylbenzene (2) ortho-xylene (3) meta-xylene (4) para-xylene
82.

If two isomers have been classified correctly as anomers, they may also be called .... ?
(1) conformers (2) enantiomers (3) tautomers

83.

(4) diastereomers

Which C = 0 function has the lowest stretching frequency in the infrared spectrum ?
(1) acyl chloride

(2) aldehyde

(3) amide

(4) ester

84. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in presence of heat or light gives :

85.

86.

(1) o-chlorotoluene

(2) p-chlorotoluene

(3) in-chlorotoluene

(4) benzyl chloride

Identify the product in the reaction :

H30 + Hg2+
PhC
CMe
(1) PhCH2CH2CHO

(2) PhCH(OH)CH2CH3

(3) PhCH2COCH3

(4) PhCOCOMe

What is the best synthesis for CH3CONHCH3 ?

(1)

CH3COOH + CH5,N1-12

(2)

CH3CONH2 +

(3)

CH3C0C1 + CH3NI:i ->

(4)

CH3CN + CI 3N,Igf followed by treatment with H30+ --->

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

14

87. Which of the functional groups on the following molecule are susceptible to nucleophilic
attack ?

(1) "a" and "b"

(2) "a" and "c"

(3) "b" and "c"

(4) "a", "b" and "c"

88. 2-Butyne can be converted to Z-2 - butene by :

(2) Birch reduction
(1) Rosenmund reduction
(3) Lindlar catalyst
(4) Sodium borohydride
89.

Which one of the following compounds gives colour reaction with FeCl3 ?
(1.) Acetyl salicylic acid
(2) Methyl salicylate
(3) Nitrobenzene
(4) Benzoic acid

90.

Which of the following reactions is a good method for preparing an aldehyde ?

(1) Jones' reagent and a 3-alcohol (2) Jones' reagent and a 2-alcohol
(4) H2SO4, a 1-alcohol and heat
(3) PCC and a 1-alcohol

91. The reaction Ketene of with acetic acid will give :

(1) Oxalic acid
(2) Acetic anhydride
(3) Propanoic acid

(4) Malonic acid

92.

A C6H12 compound reacts with ozone to yield a single C3H60 product. Gas phase free
radical bromination of the hydrocarbon gives only C6H11Br. Compound A is :
(1) cyclohexane
(2) cyclohexene
(3) 3-hexene
(4) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene

93.

The 1H-NMR of 1,1-dibromoethane consists of two well-separated signals,one large and the
other small. Which of the following descriptions is correct ?
(1) the large signal is a quartet and the small signal is a doublet
(2) the large signal is a triplet and the small signal is a singlet
(3) the large signal is a singlet and the small signal is a triplet
(4)

the large signal is a doublet and the small signal is a quartet

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

15

P.T.O.

94.

The conjugated dienes are different from alkenes by :

(1) Being less stable, less reactive and undergoing 1,3-addition
(2) Being less stable, more reactive and undergoing 1,3-addition
(3) Being more stable, less reactive and undergoing 1,2-addition
(4) Being more stable, more reactive and undergoing 1,4-addition

95.

Dehydrobromination of a trans-2-methylcyclohexyl bromide results in :

(2) 1,3-dimethylcyclopentene
(1) 1 -methyl-1 -cycloh exene
(4) 3-methyl-1-cyclohexene
(3) 1,2-dimethylcyclopentene

96.

The major product of nitration of 1-nitronaphthalene is :

(2) 1,2-dimethylnaphthalene
(1) 1,3-dimethylnaphthalene
(3) 1,8-dimethylnaphthalene
(4) 1,6-dimethylnaphthalene

97.

Which one of the following amines will give carbylamine reaction ?

(2) trimethyl amine
(1) tert-butyl amine
(3) N-methyl aniline
(4) Dimethyl amine

98.

The secondary structure of proteins is derived from :

(1) Peptide linkages
(2) Hydrogen bonding
(3) Disulfide linkages
(4) Folding of chains

99.

An aromatic compound (X) of molecular formula C7H7NO liberates ammonia on heating

with alkali. When 'X' is treated with bromine and alkali, the product will be :
(1) benzonitrile
(2) benzamide
(3) aniline
(4) benzoic acid

100.

Which of the following is a pair of geometric isomers :

CHIN

Br

CH3 \

Br

Cl

C1

H
(ii)

(i)
CH3N, c

c z,C/

Br
(1)

NH
(iii)
(i) and (ii)

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

(2)

CH,,,..\
/ Cl
,C=-C,
H7
NBr
(iv)
(i) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4)
16

(ii) and (iii)

101. The energy of an ideal gas depends only on its :

(2) volume
(1) pressure
(4) temperature
(3) number of moles
102. The root mean square velocity of N2 molecules in a gas is u. If the temperature is doubled
and the nitrogen molecules dissociate into nitrogen atoms, the rms velocity becomes :
(2) 2u
(3) 4u
(4) u
(1) u/2
103. However great the pressure, a gas can't be liquefied above its :
(1) critical temperature
(2) inversion temperature
(4) room temperature
(3) Boyle's temperature
104. Which type of crystals contain the maximum number of Bravais lattices ?
(1) Cubic
(2) Triclinic
(3) Orthorhombic (4) Tetragonal
105. The property which is intensive among the following is :
(1) Free energy
(2) Entropy
(3) EMF

(4) Volume

106. A system is taken from state A to state B along two different paths 1 and 2. The heat absorbed
and work done by the system along these paths is, Q1 and Q2 and W1 and W2 respectively.
Which one of the following is correct for this system ?
(1) Q1 = Q2
(2) Qi + W1 = Q2 W2
(4) Q1 - W1 = Q2 - W2
(3) W1 = W2
107. When in k is plotted against 1/T using Arrhenius equation, a straight line is expected with a
slope equal to :
(1) Ea/RT
(2) RT/Ea
(3) Ea /R
(4) R/Ea
108. Of the following mixtures, the most likely mixture near to ideal solution is :
(1) sodium chloride-water
(2) ethanol-benzene
(3) heptane-water
(4) heptane-octane
109. The ionic strength of 0.1 M BaC12 is :
(1) 0.3
(2) 0.2
110. The triple point of water is :
(1) 273.16 K
(3) 273.16 K and 4.58 torr
M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

(3)

(2)
(4)
17

0.4

(4)

0.1

273.16 K and 760 torr

760 torr
P.T.O.

111. The horizontal plane is present in one of the following molecules :

(1)

SO,

(2)

NH3

(3)

CH4

(4)

CO2

SF6

(4)

CO

AJ = 0

(4)

AJ = - 3

112. The molecule which gives rotational spectrum is :

(1)

N2

(2)

(3)

CH4

113. The selection rule for rotational Raman spectra is :

(1)

sJ = 1

(2)

(3)

AJ = .- 2

114. Which of the following molecules have lowest vibrational frequency ?

(3) 1ii360
(2) 2H35C1
(4)
(1) IH35C1

11-137C1

115. In the IR spectrum of IC12 - ion the number of experimentally observed normal modes of
vibrations are :
(1) 4

(3) 2

(2) 3

(4) 6

116. The parallel band has no Q-branch in which of the following molecules ?
(1) COS

(2) H2O

(3) NH3

(4) NOC1

117. Which of the following molecule is both IR and Raman active ?

(1) D2

(2) CH4

(3) DHO

(4) C2H2

118. 0.1 M solution of a compound shows absorbance of 0.25 at 525 nm in a 1.0 cm cell. For the
same molecule with 0.2 M conc. and in a cell of path length 0.5 cm, the absorbance would
be :
(1) 0,5

(2) 1.0

(3) 0.25

119. Which of the following nuclei will show NMR spectrum ?

(1) 12c
(3) 160
(2) 15N

(4) 0.75

(4)

120. The unit of the rate of reaction is same as that of the rate constant for a :
(1) zero-order reaction

(2) first-order reaction

(3) second-order reaction

(4) half-order reaction

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

18

32S

121. Consider the reaction mechanism

> 2A (fast)

A2 <

+ B < K2

>

P (slow)

where A is the intermediate. The rate law for the reaction is :

(I)

k2 [A] [BI

(2)

k 2k1Y2 [A2 ]Y [B]

(3)

1(40 [P8-][B]

(4)

k2k1Y2 [A]2 [B]

122. For the electrochemical cell

Ag(s) AgCl(s), KC1(aq) AgNO3(aq) I Ag(s)
The overall cell reaction is :
(1)

Ag + + KC1(aq) ---> AgC1(s) + K +

(2)

Ag(s) + AgC1(s) --> 2Ag(s) + 1 C12(g)

(3)

AgC1(s) --> Ag+ + C1-

(4)

Ag + +

--> AgC1(s)

123. The standard reduction potentials of three metallic cations X, Y and Z are 0.52 V, -3.03 V
and -1.18 V respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is :
(1) . Y>Z>X

(2) X >Y >Z

(3) Z > Y > X

(4) Z > X > Y

124. A gaseous mixture contains CO2(g) and N20(g) in a 2 : 5 ratio by mass. The ratio of the
number of molecules of CO2(g) and N20(g) is :
(1)

5:2

(2)

2:5

(3)

1:2

(4)

5:4

125. Given that EAg+ /Ag = + 0.80 V and EZn 2+ /Zn = - 0.76 V , which of the following is
correct ?
(1) Ag+ can be reduced by H2

(2) Ag can oxidize H2 into H +

(3) Zn2+ can be reduced by H2

(4) Ag can reduce Zn2+

126. The unit of energy is :

(1) kg m2 S -2
M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

(3) kg m - s -2

(2) kg m S-2
19

(4) N m2 kg-2
P.T.O.

127. The density of a gas A is twice that of a gas B at the same temperature. The molecular weight
of gas B is thrice that of A. The ratio of the pressures acting on A and B will be :
(3) 2 : 5
(4) 1 : 4
(2) 7 : 8
(1) 1 : 6
128. In the corrections made to the ideal gas equation for real gases, the reduction in pressure due
to attractive forces is directly proportional to :
(3) n2/V2b
(4) n2/V2
(2) nb
(1) n/ V
129. A fcc cell contains eight X atoms at the corners of the cell and six Y atoms at the faces. What
is the empirical formula of the solid ?
(3) XY3
(4) X4Y3
(1) X3Y4
(2) X3Y
130. In a reversible adiabatic change AS is :
(2) zero
(1) infinity
(4) equal to nR1nV2/V4
(3) equal to CvdT
131. In which of the following reactions is AH= AU
(1) H2(g) + I2(g) --> 2HI(g)
(2) KI(aq) + I2(s) --> KI3(aq)
(3) 6NaOH(aq) + 3C12(g) > 5NaC1(aq) + 5NaC103(aq) + 3H20(/)
(4) N204(g) --> 2NO2(g)
132. A plot of the Gibb's energy of a reaction -mixture against the extent of the reaction is :
(1) minimum at equilibrium
(2) zero at equilibrium
(3) equal to (OH TAS) at equilibrium
(4) maximum at equilibrium
133. An ideal liquid solution has equal mole fractions of two volatile components A and B of
different vapour pressures (II, > Pf1). In the vapour phase above the solution, the mole
fractions of A and B respectively are :
(1) XA XB 0.5
(2) XA XB 0.5

(3) XA > XB

(4) XA < XB

134. When the temperature is increased, surface tension of water :

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(4) shows irregular behaviour
(3) remains constant
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20

135. Which of the following can act as a Bronsted acid but not as a Lewis acid ?
(4) NH3
(3) FeCl3
(2) A/C13
(1) OH 136. Among the following, the strongest conjugate base is :
(1) NO3

(2) Cl-

(4) CH C00 -

(3) SOi-

137. The zero point energy of a harmonic oscillator is :

(1) hv

(3) Y2 h v

(2) zero

(4)

3 by

(4)

Tr

138. Which of the following transitions has the highest energy ?

(2)

n-->

(3)

o-

o-*

139. The m/z value for M+ fragment in butanal is :

(2) 72
(3) 56
(1) 70

Tr *

(4) 75

140. Which of the following molecular species will show ESR spectrum ?
(1) N2

(2) F2

(3) 02-

(4) 03-

141. The number of lines the ESR spectrum of benzene cation will show
(2) 2

(3) 6

(4) 7

142. Among the following transitions which one is fluorescence ?

(1) T1 -> So + hv (2) S1 -> T1

(3) T1 -> To + hv (4) T1 -> To + heat

143. A reaction 2A -> P follows II order kinetics. A straight line is obtained by plotting time t
against :
(1) [A]2

(2) [A]

(3) log[A]

(4) 1/[A]

144. At constant pressure, upon the addition of helium at the equilibrium point in the reaction
PC/5(g) H PC13 + Cl2(g), the degree of dissociation of :
(1) PC/5 will decrease

(2) PC15 will increase

(3) PC13 will increase

(4) C/2 will increase

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

21

P.T.O.

145. Which of the following equations is valid for a reversible process in a state of equilibrium ?
(1) AG = - RT /nKp (2) AG = RT /nKp (3) AGE - RT 1nKp (4) AGE = RT /nKP
146. Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty vessel at 25C. The fraction of
total pressure exerted by hydrogen is :

(1) Y2

(4)

(2) Y4

15/16

147. The H+ ion concentration in a solution prepared by mixing 50 mL of 0.20 M NaC1, 25 mL of

0.10 M NaOH and 25 mL of 0.30 M HC/ will be :
(4) 0.0 M
(3) 0.02 M
(2) 0.05 M
(1) 0.5 M
148. X and Y are two elements which form X2Y3 and X3Y4. If 0.20 mol of X2Y3 weighs 32.0 g and
0.4 mol of X3Y4 weighs 92.8 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are respectively :
(3) 56.0 and 16.0 (4) 28.0 and 8.0
(1) 16.0 and 56.0 (2) 8.0 and 28.0

149. If the voltage across the electrode is 1 V, then c(4- + x ) represents the :
(1) current

(2) molar conductance

(3) conductance

(4) ionic mobility

150. If a solute undergoes dimerization and trimerization, the minimum values of the van't Hoff
factors is :
(1) 0.50 and 1.50

(2) 1.50 and 1.33

(3) 0.50 and 0.33

-o0o-

M.Sc. Chemistry/2011

22

(4) 0.25 and 0.67