1

Exam model 1

1- Therapeutic index is
a- Toxic dose +therapeutic dose
b- Toxic dose - therapeutic dose
c- Toxic dose / therapeutic dose
d- Toxic dose * therapeutic dose
e- None of them
2- Praziquantel is
a- Generic name of biltiricide
b- Kill all worms
c- Drug of choice for nematode
d- Both a & b
e- All of the above
3- At cardiac shock the first drug of choice is
a- Epinephrine
b- Hydrocortisone
c- Ephedrine
d- Saline
e- None of the above
4- Controlled drug in the body depend on
a- PH
b- Enzymatic reaction
c- Body fluid interaction
d- Both b & c
e- All of the above
5- Maximum dose of captopril is
a- 150 mg / day
b- When hypertension occur
c- 400 mg / day
d- Both a & b
e- None of the above
6- All are cardio selective B bloker except
a- Atenolol
b- Esmolol
c- Metoprolol
d- Acebutalol
e- Labetalol
7- Ticlopidine is
a- Anticoagulant
b- Antiplatelet
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c- Antibiotic
d- Anticholinergic
e- Antifibrinolytic
8- Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except
a- Ephedrine
b- Lidocaine
c- Propranolol
d- Normal saline
e- Hydrocortisone
9- Insulin which can be given intravenously is
a- Regular type
b- 30/70 type
c- NPH type
d- All of the above
e- Non of the above
10- Drug is used for leishmania
a- Sodium stiboglyconante
b- Sodium cromoglyconate
c- Mebendazole
d- Metronidazole
e- Nifuortimox
11- All these drug are anti bacterial except
a- Lomefloxacin
b- Cefeprazone
c- Amoxicillin
d- Streptomycin
e- Zalacitabine
12- All these are natural estrogen except
a- Mestranol
b- Estrone
c- Estriol
d- Estradiol
e- Non of them
13- Co trimoxazole contains
a- Trimethoprime and Sulphamethoxazole
b- Trimethoprime and Sulphadiazine
c- Trimethoprime and Sulphonyl urea
d- Trimethoprime and Sulphauracil
e- Trimethoprime and salbutamol
14- Which of the following has vasodilator effect :
a- Nicotine
b- Cholestramine
c- Urokinase
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d- Vitamine A
e- Calcium
15- One of the following is not for epilepsy
a- Clonazepam
b- Phenytoin
c- Primidone
d- Imipramine
e- Depakine
16- One of the following is not from quinolone group
a- Naldixic acid
b- enoxacin
c- quinine
d- norfloxacin
e- ciprofloxacin
17- one of the following should be avoided in pregnancy
a- vitamin A
b- calcium
c- misoprostol ( cytotic )
d- paracetamol
e- ampicillin
18- All of these can be used for treatment of leprosy except
a- Dapson
b- Rifampin
c- Clofazinine
d- INH
e- None of the above
19- Sumatriptan is used for
a- Hypertension
b- Treatment of migraine
c- Angina pectoris
d- Control epilepsy
e- Epilepsy
20- Which of the following is enzyme inducer
a- Rifampicin
b- Cimetidine
c- Chloramphinicol
d- Vit C
e- Omeprazle
21- All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except
a- Ketotifen
b- Nedocromil sodium
c- Sodium cromoglycate
d- Salbutamol
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e- None of the above
22- All of the following is NSAH ( non sedating antihistaminic ) except
a- Loratidine
b- Cetrizine
c- Astemizol
d- Azatadine
e- None of the above
23- All of the following are controlled drugs except
a- Rivotril
b- Epanutin
c- Stesolid
d- Diazepam
e- None of the above
24- All these drugs are anti viral except
a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
d- Alurin
e- Gancyclovir
25- Which of the following symptoms does not occur with morphine
a- Diarrhea
b- Vomiting
c- Constipation
d- Respiratory depression
e- Addiction
26- Which one of the following is the drug of choice for myxodema ( hypothrodism )
a- Carbimazole
b- tadenan
c- throxine sodium
d- propyl uracil
e- potassium iodide
27- Which of these drugs is not used for acute pain
a- Naproxine
b- Colichicine
c- Codeine
d- Prednisolone
e- Keorelac
28- Benzyl peroxide is alcohol treatment for
a- Rheumatic pain
b- Angina pectoris
c- Acne vulgaris
d- Dysmenorrheal
e- Diabetes insipidus
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29- Vitamin A daily dose for therapy
a- 20 000 IU
b- 100 000 - 200 000 IU
c- 20 000 - 100 000 IU
d- 15 000 IU
e- 10 000 IU
30- Vitamin A daily dose correction of deficiency
a- 15 000 IU
b- 20 000 IU
c- 50 000 IU
d- 100 000 IU
e- 500 000 IU
31- The drug of choice of treatment of amoeba
a- Chloramphinicol
b- Gentamycin
c- Tetracycline
d- Metronidazole
e- Mebendazole
32- To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use
a- Water
b- Saline
c- Sodium salt
d- Potassium salt
e- Activated charcoal
33- Hepatitis vaccine dose
a- Once per year
b- Twice per year
c- Three per year
d- Four time per year
e- None of them
34- Which one is OTC drug
a- Analgesics
b- Warfarin
c- Ciprofloxacin
d- Insulin
e- Glibinclamide
35- Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is decreased by the use of the following except
a- Rifampicin
b- Aspirin
c- Vitamin K
d- All of them
e- None of them
36- One of the following is given once daily
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a- Amorphous insulin
b- Protamine Zinc insulin
c- Regular insulin
d- Both b&c
e- All of the bove
37- The steady state concentration of the drug in the plasma is
a- Directly proportional to the rate of absorption
b- Indirectly proportional to the rate of absorption
c- Directly proportional to the rate of elimination
d- Indirectly proportional to the rate of elimination
e- Directly proportional to the rate of distribution
38- All these are anti coagulant except
a- Warfarine
b- Ancord
c- Heparin
d- Dalteparin
e- Dipyridamole
39- The following are antiplatelet except
a- Dipyridamole
b- Ticlopidne
c- Streptokinase
d- Aspirin
e- Clobidogrel
40- Ferrogard is
a- Ferrous citrate
b- Ferrous sulfate
c- Ferrous gluconate
d- Ferrous fumarate
e- Ferric sulfate
41- Procainamide interfere with sodium channel activity the same as
a- Quinidine
b- Digoxine
c- Verapamil
d- Sotalol
e- Amlodipine
42- What is the function of vitamin K
a- Synthesis of iron
b- Synthesis of coagulation factor by hepatic cell
c- Synthesis of prostaglandin
d- Synthesis of vitamin B12
e- Synthesis of histamine
43- Thiazide derivative cause all of the following except
a- Hyponatremia
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b- Hyperglycemia
c- Hypokalemia
d- Hyperuricemia
e- Hypernatremia
44- Treatment with anti arrhythmic drug depend on all of the following EXCEPT
a- Type of medication
b- Patient sex
c- Period of medication
d- Diagnosis
e- Pharmacokinetic
45- Elimination of digoxine is mainly by
a- Kidney
b- Liver
c- Skin
d- Both a & b
e- All of the above
46- Dobutamine is given I.V (not by mouth )because
a- Not stable in gastric PH
b- Eliminated very quickly
c- Causes nausea and vomiting if taken orally
d- Needed large dose orally
e- None of the above
47- Amiloride treatment can cause
a- C.N.S disturbance
b- Hyperkalemia
c- Hypokalemia
d- Both a & b
e- None of the above
48- Drug can cause problem if taken as an OTC
a- Warfarine
b- Captopril
c- Chlorothiazide
d- Rifampicin
e- Gemfibrozil
49- Drug physical dependence
a- As same as drug abuse
b- Less than drug abuse
c- More than drug abuse
d- A or b
e- A or d
50- Thiazide diuretics include
a- Chlorothiazide
b- Hydrochlorothiazide
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c- Indepamide
d- Both a & b
e- All of the above
51- QID
a- Three time daily
b- Four time daily
c- Twice daily
d- Every 6 hour
e- Every 8 hour
52- Amphotricin
a- Antifungal that acts parenterally only
b- Antifungal that acts orally only
c- Antifungal that acts parenterally and oral
d- Imidazole group antifungal
e- All of the above
53- Grisofulvin
a- Antifungal that acts parenterally only
b- Antifungal that acts orally only
c- Antifungal that acts parenterally and oral
d- Imidazole group antifungal
e- All of the above
54- Miconazole
a- Antifungal that acts systemic only
b- Antifungal that acts locally only
c- Antifungal that acts local and systemic
d- Imidazole group antifungal
e- Both c & d
55- Gemifibrozil used for treatment of
a- Hypolipidemia
b- Hyperlipidemia
c- Hypotension
d- Hypertension
e- None of the above
56- All are antimetabolite except
a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
c- Cytrabine
d- Azathiopine
e- Cyclophosphamide
57- Cefaclor
a- 1st generation cephalosporin
b- 2nd generation cephalosporin
c- 3rd generation cephalosporin
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d- 4th generation cephalosporin
e- 5th generation cephalosporin
58- Which aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally
a- Gentamycin
b- Neomycin
c- Amikacin
d- Tobramycin
e- Kanamycin
59- Tecloplanin antibiotic effect on gram positive bacteria similar to
a- Vancomycin
b- Neomycin
c- Amikacin
d- Tobramycin
e- Kanamycin
60- Which of the following is not from tetracycline group
a- Minocycline
b- Doxycycline
c- Demeclocycline
d- Clindamycin
e- None of them
61- Which of the following is not calcium channel blocker
a- Verapamil
b- Dilitiazem
c- Amlodipine
d- Cinnarizine
e- Nifidepine
62- Mesalazine ( ascal ) is a treatment and maintenance of
a- Ulcerative colitis
b- Bronchial asthma
c- Primary dysmenorrheal
d- Secondary epilepsy
e- Diabetes mellitus
63- Lipid soluble vitamin
a- Vitamin A,D,E,C
b- Vitamin A,D,E,K
c- Vitamin A,E,K,C
d- Vitamin A,D,C,B
e- Vitamin A,D,K,B
64- Imipenem ( carbepenem )
a- Beta lactam antibiotic
b- Cephalosporin
c- Quinolone
d- Macrolides
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e- aminoglycoside
65- All these medication used in T.B. except
a- I.N.H
b- Rifampin
c- Cycloserine
d- Cyclosporine
e- None of the above
66- All these drugs are anticholenergic except
a- Ipratropium bromide
b- Atropine sulphate
c- Benzotropine mesylate
d- Hyoscine N butyl bromide
e- Dobutamine
67- All these drugs are anti bacterial except
a- Zalacitabine
b- Cefprozil
c- Lomefloxacin
d- Cefpodoxime
e- Clarithromycin
68- There is one drug used for HIV
a- Zalacitabine
b- Finasteride
c- Cefaprozil
d- Enoxacin
e- Ampicillin
69- Suprax is
a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole
c- Fluconazole
d- Cefuroxime
e- Sulphamethoxazole
70- Which one is sporanox
a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole
c- Fluconazole
d- Cefuroxime
e- Sulphamethoxazole
71- All these can be used in leprosy except
a- Dapson
b- Rifampicin
c- Clofazimine
d- I.N.H
e- None of the above
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72- Timolol
a- Non selective for glaucoma
b- Selective antihypertensive
c- None Selective antihypertensive
d- Selective for asthma
e- Selective for glaucoma
73- Acebutalol
a- Non selective for glaucoma
b- Selective antihypertensive
c- None Selective antihypertensive
d- Selective for asthma
e- Selective for glaucoma
74- Labetalol
a- Non selective for glaucoma
b- Selective antihypertensive
c- None Selective antihypertensive
d- Selective for asthma
e- Selective for glaucoma
75- Betaxolol
a- Non selective for glaucoma
b- Selective antihypertensive
c- None Selective antihypertensive
d- Selective for asthma
e- Selective for glaucoma
76- Which one is not aminoglycoside antibiotic
a- Netilimycin
b- Lymecyclin
c- Kanamycin
d- Tobramycin
e- Gentamycin
77- Betahistine HCL
a- Antihistaminic
b- Minneare disease
c- Analgesic
d- Both a & b
e- All of the above
78- Which one is not 5HT-3 antagonist
a- Tropisetron
b- Ondasetron
c- Domperidone
d- Granisetron
e- None of the above
79- Which is not oral anticoagulant
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a- Warfarin
b- Enoeparine
c- Phenidione
d- Nicoumalone
e- None of them
80- Which is correct about diazepam
a- Can cause muscle spasm
b- Is taken I.M only
c- Derivative form morphine
d- Not used for long time
e- Sedative and hypnotic
81- Maximum dose of paracetamol is
a- 7.5 mg in 4 hour
b- 7.5 mg in 8 hour
c- 7.5 mg in 24 hour
d- 4 mg in 24 hour
e- 4 mg in 12 hour
82- The duration of treatment of T.B by CTX is
a- One day
b- One week
c- One month
d- Six months
e- None of the above
83- Metoclopramide is dopamine antagonist
a- Act centrally by blocking chemoreceptor trigger zone (C.T.Z)
b- Act peripherally
c- Has antiemetic effect
d- Both a & b
e- All of the above
84- Which of the following is contraindicated in pregnancy
a- Sucralfate
b- Ethambutol
c- Chloropheneramine
d- Ciprofloxacin
e- Amoxicillin
85- Bioavailability of the drug is
a- Rate of absorption
b- Extent of absorption
c- Rate & Extent of absorption
d- Rate & extent of distribution
e- None of the above
86- Example of drug induced hepatoxicity
a- Paracetamol
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b- Ketoconazole
c- Rifampicin
d- Quinidine
e- All of them
87- Terbinafine is used topical for
a- Eczema
b- Fungal infection
c- Candida
d- All of them
e- None them
88- Which of the following is not contraindicated in pregnancy
a- Enalapril
b- Captopril
c- Propranolol
d- Nitroprusside
e- Methyl dopa
89- Pneumocysis carini pneumonia (P.C.P)
a- Virus
b- Bacteria
c- Parasite
d- Mycobacteria
e- Helminthes
90- Which one of these is not antibiotic
a- Erythromycin
b- Cefaprozil
c- Sulphamefinide
d- Levofloxacin
e- Finasteride
91- Which of the following is used in Benign prostate hyperplasia (BPHP)
a- Cefaprozil
b- Sulphamefinide
c- Levofloxacin
d- Finasteride
e- Mivacurim
92- All of these are broad spectrum cephalosporin except
a- Cefipime
b- Cefopodoxime
c- Ceftriaxone
d- Cefotaxime
e- None of them
93- Which one of these is not mucolytic
a- Bromhexine
b- Carbocycistiene
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c- Ambroxol
d- Guiaphensin
e- Dextromethorphan
94- Which one is antiplatelet
a- Ticlopidine
b- Desfluran
c- Warfarin
d- Heparin
e- Urokinase
95- All of these are anti-neoplastics except
a- Tenoposide
b- Pentostatin
c- Amlodipine
d- Aldesleukin
e- None of the above
96- Potassium supplement therapy must not be given with
a- Triametrene
b- Aspirin
c- Paracetamol
d- Piroxicam
e- Fuoresimide
97- Misoprostol (cytotic ) inhibit gastric acidity by
a- Proton pump Inhibitor
b- H2 blocker
c- Protect mucosa
d- Both a & b
e- All of the above
98- Drugs induce nephrotoxicity
a- Aminglycoside
b- Sulphonamide
c- Penicillin
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
99- Anti dote of heparin
a- Protamine sulfate
b- Acetyl cystine
c- Vitamin K
d- Naloxone
e- Desferroxamine
100- Antidote of paracetamol
a- Protamine sulfate
b- Acetyl cystine
c- Vitamin K
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d- Naloxone
e- Desferroxamine
















































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Exam model 2

1- Poor patient compliance means
a- Patient not take medication neither in proper time nor proper dose
b- Patient take medication not under physician advice
c- The rate of absorption is higher than that of elimination
d- Both a & b
e- All of the above
2- Fluoxetine ( Prozac ) is
a- SSRI
b- Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
c- Antidepressant
d- Both a & b
e- All of the above
3- Omeprazole
a- Act as proton pump inhibitor
b- Block hydrogen receptor
c- Block the hydrogen potassium ATP enzyme system
d- Both a & b
e- Both a & c
4- Examples of drug drug interaction
a- Warfarin and aspirin
b- Insulin and INH
c- Captopril and potassium sparing diuretic
d- Spironolactone and digoxine
e- All of the above
5- Generic name of vitamine B1 is
a- Thiamine
b- Riboflavin
c- Niacin
d- Pyridoxine
e- Cyanocobolamin
6- Generic name of vitamine B2 is
a- Thiamine
b- Riboflavin
c- Niacin
d- Pyridoxine
e- Cyanocobolamin
7- Generic name of vitamine B6 is
a- Thiamine
b- Riboflavin
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c- Niacin
d- Pyridoxine
e- Cyanocobolamin
8- Generic name of vitamine B12 is
a- Thiamine
b- Riboflavin
c- Niacin
d- Pyridoxine
e- Cyanocobolamin
9- All of these are calamine lactate B.P component except
a- Zinc oxide
b- Calamine
c- Sodium sulphate
d- Sodium citrate
e- Bentonite
10- M.M.R vaccine is
a- Mennengococcal polysaccharide mumps rubella
b- Measles mumps rabies
c- Mennengococcal polysaccharide Measles rubella
d- Measles mumps rubella
e- Mennengococcal polysaccharide mumps rabies
11- The instruction for patient taking METAMUCIL or any other bulk forming
laxative ( e.g methyl cellulose to
a- Adequate fluid intake should be maintained to avoid intestinal obstruction
b- Administration of charcoal
c- Antagonize by diuretic
d- Both a & b
e- All of the above
12- Cytotic is used for
a- Gastric ad duodenal ulcer
b- Contraindicated in pregnancy
c- Upper respiratory tract infection
d- Both a & b
e- All of the above
13- The following is ( are ) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
a- Simvastatin
b- Fluvastatin
c- Atorvastatin
d- Pravastatin
e- All of the above
14- Source of human insulin
a- Streptococcous pneumonia
b- Influenza A
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c- E. coli by recombinant DNA technology
d- Both a & b
e- Both b & c
15- Zantac contain
a- Clavulanate penicillin
b- Cefuroxime
c- Cefaclor
d- Streptomycin
e- Chloramphinicol
16- Thiabendazole is
a- Thiazide diuretic
b- Loop diuretic
c- Potassium sparing diuretic
d- All of them
e- None of them
17- Oral rehydration solution contain
a- Sodium chloride +potassium chloride +sodium citrate
b- Sodium chloride +potassium chloride +glucose
c- Sodium chloride +potassium citrate +sodium citrate
d- NaCL +K citrate +Na citrate +glucose
e- NaCL +K chloride +NaHCO3 +citric acid
18- Gemifibrozil
a- Increase HDL and triglyceride
b- Increase HDL and decrease triglyceride
c- Increase HDL and LDL
d- Increase LDL and triglyceride
e- Increase HDL , LDL and triglyceride
19- Nitroprusside sodium is
a- Potent vasodilator
b- Potent diuretic
c- Potent vasoconstrictor
d- Anti arrhythmic agent
e- Anti malaria
20- Drugs needs monitoring their serum level
a- Amikacin
b- Theophyllin
c- Warfarin
d- Digoxin
e- All of the above
21- One of the following is true for flucloxacillin
a- It is inactivated by penicillinase enzyme
b- It is taken by oral route only
c- It is stable in basic media
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d- It is better absorbed than cloxacillin
e- It is belong cephalosporin group
22- Praziquentel used for bilharziasis
a- Causes loss of intracellular calcium of worms
b- Used for malaria
c- Has trade name Biltricide
d- Both a & b
e- Both a & c
23- Nitrofuranton is indicated for
a- U.R.T
b- U.T.I
c- Viral infection
d- GIT infection
e- Parasitic infection
24- Vitamin K
a- Increase formation of clotting factor
b- Increase conversion of vitamin K to its active form
c- decrease conversion of vitamin K to its active form
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
25- Quinidine sulfate is
a- Antiarrythemic
b- Anti malarial
c- Anti hypertensive
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
26- ACE mechanisms
a- Converting angiotensin II to vasoconstrictor angiotensin I
b- Converting angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
c- Converting angiotensin I to vasodilator angiotensin II
d- Converting angiotensin II to vasodilator angiotensin I
e- None of the above
27- All are side effects of thiazide except
a- Hypernatermia
b- Hyperglycemia
c- Hypokalemia
d- Hyperuricemia
e- Hypercalcemia
28- Ipeca is emetic agent which induce emesis through
a- Stimulation of stomach
b- Stimulation of the CTZ in C.N.S
c- Suppression of the CTZ in C.N.S
d- Both a & b
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e- Both a & c
29- Theophylline is
a- Bronchodilator
b- B2 agonist
c- Cause bradycardia
d- B1 antagonist
e- All of the above
30- Schedule for immunization for HBV is
a- Single Dose
b- Two Dose
c- Three Dose
d- Four Dose
e- Five Dose
31- Itraconazole is
a- Anti amebiasis
b- Anti fungal
c- Imidazole group
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
32- Anaphylactic reaction is treated by
a- Epinephrine
b- Human albunin
c- Cimetidine
d- Hydrocortisone
e- atenolol
33- Emesis is not indicated for the following EXCEPT
a- Paracetamol poisoning
b- Seizers
c- CNS depression
d- Caustic substance ingestion
e- Unconsciousness patient
34- All of the following is anion except
a- Phosphate
b- Acetate
c- Sodium
d- Chloride
e- Flour
35- Astemazole
a- Long acting anti histaminic
b- short acting anti histaminic
c- is similar to chloropheneramine maleate
d- sedating antihistaminic
e- none of the above
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36- Triazole
a- Antifugal
b- Trade name of clotrimazole
c- Trade name of amphotricin B
d- Its nystatin
e- Antibacterial
37- Minoxidil is monitored by the following parameters except
a- Urine flow
b- Blood pressure
c- Pulse rate
d- Body weight
e- None of the above
38- Aspirin is recommended with
a- Anticoagulant therapy
b- Chicken box
c- Influenza symptoms
d- Dysmenorrheal
e- Hypertension
39- Which of the following is not true about tetracycline
a- Broad spectrum bacteriostatic
b- Broad spectrum bacteriocidal
c- Inhibit protein synthesis at 30 S ribosomal subunit
d- Used for acne
e- interfere with Cause calcium deposition in bone and teeth
40- Indication of allopurinol
a- Prophylaxis of gout
b- Treatment of uric acid and Ca oxalate renal stone
c- Trade name is zyloric
d- Both a & c
e- All of the above
41- Example of non sedating antihistaminic
a- Loratadine
b- Astemazole
c- Ceterizine
d- Terfenadrine
e- All of the above
42- Famotidne is H2 receptor antagonist
a- Used in treatment of gastric and duodenal ulcer
b- Used for hepatitis
c- Used in influenza
d- All of them
e- None of them
43- The action of captopril
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a- Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to II
b- Effective hypotensive drug
c- Used in patient suffer from heart failure
d- Maximum dose is 150 mg/day
e- All of the above
44- Type II diabetes is characterized by
a- Lack response to insulin
b- Lack of response to sulphonyl urea
c- Response to diet therapy alone
d- Slowly increase of sulphonyl urea requirement
e- No increase of sulphonyl urea requirement
45- Side effect of aminoglycoside
a- Ototoxicity
b- Nephrotoxicity
c- Hepatotoxicity
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
46- The following is / are quinolone
a- Ciprofloxacin
b- Nor floxacin
c- Streptomycin
d- Penicillin
e- Both a and b are correct
47- Drug consider potassium sparing diuretic
a- Triametrine
b- Amiloride
c- Spironolactone
d- Both a and c
e- All of the above
48- Acetazolamide
a- Use in treatment of glaucoma
b- Inhibit carbonic anhydrase enzyme
c- Reduce intra ocular pressure
d- It is diuretic
e- All of the above
49- Which one induces metabolism of other medication
a- Vitamin C
b- Cimitidine
c- Metronidazole
d- Rifampicin
e- All of them
50- All of these you can dispense to patient without prescription except
a- Aspirin
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b- Tegretol
c- Malox
d- Bisacodyl
e- Vitamin C
51- Acetohexamide is
a- Anti malarial
b- Anti coagulant
c- Antidepressant
d- Hypoglycemic agent
e- Hypotensive agent
52- Trade name of pindolol
a- Visken
b- Losec
c- Lioresal
d- Inderal
e- None of them
53- Trade name of baclofen
a- Visken
b- Losec
c- Lioresal
d- Inderal
e- None of them
54- Trade name of omeprazole
a- Visken
b- Losec
c- Lioresal
d- Inderal
e- None of them
55- What is the meaning of P.O.M
a- Prescription only medicine
b- Electrocardiogram
c- Twice daily
d- Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
e- Four time daily
56- What is the meaning of BID
a- Prescription only medicine
b- Electrocardiogram
c- Twice daily
d- Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
e- Four time daily
57- What is the meaning of ECG
a- Prescription only medicine
b- Electrocardiogram
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c- Twice daily
d- Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
e- Four time daily
58- What is the meaning of G6PD
a- Prescription only medicine
b- Electrocardiogram
c- Twice daily
d- Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
e- Four time daily
59- Which one of these is pro drug
a- Ampicillin
b- Erythromycin
c- Pivampicillin
d- Tetracycline
e- All of the above
60- 500 ml of normal sali ne 0.9 % contain ..gm NaCl
a- 4.5 gm
b- .45 gm
c- 2.25 gm
d- .225 gm
e- 45 gm
61- ACE inhibitors are
a- Captopril
b- Enalapril
c- Fosinopril
d- Lisinopril
e- All of the above
62- Levodopa is
a- combined with Carbidopa
b- combined with Benzerzide
c- treatment of parkinsonism
d- both a and c
e- all of the above
63- Specific serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) are used as
a- Anti histaminic
b- Antidepressant
c- Antihypertensive
d- Antiemetic
e- Hypoglycemic agent
64- Which of the following has no vasodilating effect
a- Enalapril
b- Methyl dopa
c- Hydralazine
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d- Prazosin
e- Verapamil
65- Drug contraindicated in pregnancy
a- NSAIDs
b- Antiepileptic
c- Cotrimoxazole
d- Mesoprostol
e- All of them
66- The following is used in T.B. treatment
a- INH
b- Ethambutol
c- Rifampicin
d- Pyrazinamide
e- All of the above
67- Calcipotriol is indicated for
a- Calcium supplement
b- Hypertension
c- Psoriasis
d- Acne
e- Hyperthyroidism
68- Maximum dose of captopril is
a- 150 mg / day
b- 250 mg / day
c- 350 mg / day
d- 150 mg / 12 hour
e- 250 350 / 12 hour
69- Amantadine is used for the following except
a- Antiviral
b- Influenza A
c- Amtiparkinsonism
d- Influenza B
e- None of them
70- All are viral infection except
a- Hepatitis B
b- Influenza
c- Herpes zoster
d- Rikettsia
e- Varicella
71- At cardiac shock (arrest ) the drug of choice is
a- Epinephrine
b- Propranolol
c- Hydrocortisone
d- Saline solution
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e- Ringer solution
72- Example of cardioselective B blocker
a- Atenolol
b- Bisoprolol
c- Esmolol
d- Metoprolol
e- All of the above
73- Drug to pass B.B.B
a- Unionized & lipophylic
b- Ionized & hydrophilic
c- Unionized & hydrophilic
d- Ionized & lipophylic
e- Any of them
74- All of the following are anti parkinsonism metabolite ( cytotoxic ) except
a- Amantadine
b- Levodopa
c- Selegiline
d- Bromocriptine
e- Apomorphine
75- All of the following are anti metabolite ( cytotoxic ) except
a- Cyclophosphamide
b- Methotrexate
c- Cytrabine
d- Flurouracil
e- Mercaptopurine
76- All of the following are anti cholinergic except
a- Atropine sulphate
b- Hydroatropine
c- Ipratropium bromide
d- Butropium bromide
e- None of the above
77- All those are corticosteroid except
a- Predinsolon
b- Ondasetron
c- Triamicrolon
d- Beclomethasone
e- Dexamethasone
78- Upper respiratory tract infections are treated sometimes with antibiotic. the
recommended micro organisms for which you suggest an antibiotics are
a- Gram positive bacteria
b- Gram negative bacteria
c- Mixed bacteria
d- Any of the above
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e- None of the above
79- Ipecac induce vomiting through
a- Stimulation of stomach
b- Stimulation of chemo trigger zone
c- Inhibition of chemo trigger zone
d- Both a and b
e- Both a and c
80- All of the following are used for T.B. except
a- INH
b- Cycloserine
c- Rifampicin
d- Ethambutol
e- Cyclosporine
81- When newly married dont want children , the contraception should be
arranged as follow
a- Send the wife to the family doctor
b- Avoid obstruction during fertility period
c- Use the calendar
d- Any of them
e- None of them
82- type I diabetes advised to use
a- insulin
b- glibenclamide
c- metformine
d- both a and b
e- all of the above
83- type II diabetes advised to use
a- diet regimen only
b- sulphonyl urea
c- insulin
d- both a and b
e- all of them
84- side effect of insulin are
a- local reaction
b- hypersensitivity
c- Fat atrophy at site of injection
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
85- one of the following is main side effect of insulin
a- fluid retention
b- hypoglycemia
c- hyperglycemia
d- all of the above
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e- none of the above
86- the only amino glycoside antibiotic can be taken orally
a- neomycin sulphate
b- streptomycin
c- paromomycin
d- both a and b
e- all of the above
87- chloramphenicol liver inhibitory effect include
a- increasment of metabolism and response
b- reduction of metabolism and response
c- increasment of metabolism and reduction of response
d- reduction of metabolism and increasment of response
e- None of the above
88- OTC include
a- Simple analgesic
b- Thyoxine
c- Theophylline
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
89- Enteric coated tablet
a- Pass the stomach and release in the intestine
b- Pass the stomach and intestine
c- release in the stomach
d- Release in fundus of the stomach
e- None of the above
90- All of these are true for levodopa except
a- Precursor of dopa
b- Dont pass the B.B.B barrier
c- Effective in parkinsonism
d- Stimulate dopamine release
e- Combined with carbidopa
91- Pentobarbital differ from Phenobarbital in
a- Longer duration
b- Faster in action
c- Slower in action
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
92- Morphine is similar to morpine in
a- Addiction
b- Miosis
c- Analgesic
d- Constipation
e- All of the above
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93- The concentration of the drug on the expiry date should be
a- Not less than 100 %
b- Not less than 90%
c- 90 110 %
d- Less than 80 %
e- None of the above
94- If prescription contains inderal and the patient is wheezing
a- Give the medicine
b- Ask him if he asthmatic
c- Ask if he is hypertensive
d- Call the doctor
e- None of the above
95- Theophylline is
a- Bronchodilator
b- Anti cholinergic
c- B2 agonist
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
96- Theophylline dose in children
a- Increase the metabolism and dose
b- Decrease the metabolism and dose
c- Increase the metabolism and reduction dose
d- Reduction the metabolism and increment dose
e- None of the above
97- Biotransformation process is
a- Transformation drug from more lipid soluble to less lipid soluble
b- Transformation drug from less lipid soluble to more lipid soluble
c- Transformation drug from less lipid soluble to least lipid soluble
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
98- Pharmacokinetics is
a- Effect of body on drug
b- Effect of drug on the body
c- Drug response when react to the receptor to give effect
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
99- Surfactant not used orally
a- Tween
b- Span
c- Na lauryl sulphate
d- Both a and b
e- Both b and c
100-Zidovudine is used for
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a- AIDS
b- P.U
c- HIV
d- Both a & c
e- All of the above



















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Exam model 3

1- The following are quinolone antibiotic EXCEPT
a- Ciprofloxacin
b- Azithromycin
c- Nalidixic acid
d- Enoxacin
e- Norfloxacin
2- Praziquantel is
a- Antihistaminic
b- Bronchodilator
c- Non steroidal anti inflammatory drug
d- Antibiotic
e- None of the above
3- Which of the following diuretic may cause hyperkalemia
a- Fuoresmide
b- Chlorothalidone
c- Amiloride
d- Bumetanide
e- Acetazolamide
4- One of these drugs is potentially harmful when taken with OTC drugs without
medical consultation
a- captopril
b- gemifibrozil
c- paracetamol
d- warfarin
e- amiloride
5- There is contraindication in taking potassium contacting preparation with these
cases EXCEPT
a- Renal disease
b- Using ACE inhibitor
c- Hypertension
d- Using potassium diuretic
e- Muscle spasm
6- For metabolic acidosis one of these is given
a- Sodium chloride
b- Sodium bicarbonate
c- Calcium carbonate
d- Potassium bicarbonate
e- Magnesium sulphate
7- The dose of paracetamol for 3 month children to one year old child is
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a- 120 250 mg / 4-6 hours daily
b- 250 500 mg / 4-6 hours daily
c- 60 120 mg / 4-6 hours daily
d- 20 60 mg / 4-6 hours daily
e- 500 1000 mg / 4-6 hours daily
8- Concerning levodopa all of the following statement are correct EXCEPT
a- Is a precursor of dopamine
b- Does not cross the blood brain barrier
c- Causes increase dopamine output in parkinsonian brain
d- Is only effective in the prescience of dopamine producing neuron
e- It combined with carbidopa
9- Claims for new drugs for hypertension concentrate on
a- Ability to lower blood pressure within shorter time
b- Ability to lower high readings of blood pressure
c- Ability to cause less rebound hypertension
d- Ability to control blood pressure around the clock
e- none of the above
10- All of these are fibrinolytic drugs EXCEPT
a- Dipyridamole
b- Streptokinase
c- Urokinase
d- Anistrplase
e- Alteplase
11- which of the following statement concerning thyroid hormone is correct
a- vital for normal growth and development
b- vital for normal body temperature
c- play an important role in energy metabolism
d- both a and b
e- all of the above
12- all of these statement are true for amantadine EXCEPT
a- trade name is symmetrical
b- used in parkinsonism
c- antiviral
d- used in prophylaxis of influenza A virus
e- used in prophylaxis of influenza B virus
13- which one of the following is NOT corticosteroid
a- triamiinolone
b- ondasetron
c- budesonide
d- beclomethasone
e- betamethasone
14- the following are adverse effect of insulin EXCEPT
a- hypoglycemia
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b- fluid retention
c- hyperglycemia
d- fat atrophy
e- visual disturbance
15- the safest drug for an elderly patient who suffering from osteoarthritis and
peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
a- apirin as it the most established drug for this condition
b- paracetamole in dose of 1 500 mg tablet PRN
c- one of the newest agent of the NSAIDs as they are more potent
d- paracetamole in dose of 2 500 mg tablet on regular basis
e- indomethacin suppository to avoid gastric route
16- itraconazole is
a- anti amebiasis
b- anti fungal
c- from imidazole group
d- anti malarial
e- all of the above
17- ondasetron HCL is used for
a- hypertension
b- prophylaxis of migraine headache
c- angina pectoris
d- emesis
e- constipation
18- malignant hypothermia ( a rare inherited muscle disorder ) a typical
complication of
a- antihypertensive therapy
b- frequent blood transfusion
c- oral contraceptive use
d- general anesthesia
e- vaccination
19- when dispensing drug that cause allergic reaction such as penicillin and
sulfonamide the pharmacist should
a- ask patient to avoid taking drug with food
b- ask patient to avoid taking drug with milk
c- ask patient if he allergic to drug
d- ask patient to avoid certain dosage form of the drug
e- none of the above
20- the best advice for the parent of a feverish child (41C) is to suggest
a- take him to the hospital which is 30 minute drive , immediately
b- wait for 2 hour and if temperature does not come down go to the hospital
c- to give 1 gm paracetamole immediately
d- to sponge him with tipped water and take him to the hospital
e- to take Augmentin 500 mg +500 mg paracetamole
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21- all of these drugs can be used as prophylactic in asthma EXCEPT
a- ketotifen
b- nedocromil sodium
c- sodium cromoglycate
d- Salbutamol
e- None of the above
22- all of these drugs are non sedating anti histaminic EXCEPT
a- astemazole
b- cetrizine
c- terfenadine
d- loratadine
e- azatadine maleate
23- indication for therapeutics of B-blockers includes
a- essential hypertension
b- thyrotoxicosis
c- angina pectoris
d- both a and b
e- all of the above
24- all of these drugs are controlled drugs EXCEPT
a- epanutin
b- rivotril
c- stesolid
d- diazepam
e- none of them
25- clonidine
a- is classified as 2 adrenergic stimulant
b- lower blood pressure by combination of bradycardia and reduced cardiac output
c- may cause rebound hypertension when suddenly withdrawn
d- both a & b
e- all of the above
26- in patient who is asking for a decongestant (who is a truck driver) the best
choice will be
a- astemazole
b- cetrizine
c- terfenadine
d- loratadine
e- all of the above
27- fundamental control effects of morphine include
a- analgesia
b- changes in mood
c- mydriasis
d- both a and b
e- all of the above
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28- atropine routinely employed during general anesthesia in order to
a- sedate the patient prior to induction of anesthesia
b- reduces salivary and respiratory tract secretion
c- induces muscular relaxation through cholinergic receptor blockade
d- both a and b
e- all of the above
29- a father came to see you and told you that a child (who is 5 Kg ) swallowed 10
tablet of aspirin for children and asking for an antidote
a- you will suggest him to go to hospital immediately
b- you will give him antiemetic
c- you will ask him to see the child
d- you will suggest to him to ignore the incident
e- you will give him antidote
30- which one of these drug is not used for epilepsy
a- clonazepam
b- primidone
c- phenytoin
d- imipenem
e- valproic acid
31- which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain
a- naproxen
b- codeine
c- colichicine
d- prednisolone
e- indomehacin
32- digoxine serum concentration are monitored ,since their elimination depend on
a- liver
b- kidney
c- skin
d- both a and b
e- all of the above
33- which one of these drugs is NOT used for anxiety
a- lorazepam
b- alprazolam
c- propranolol
d- benzotropine
e- none of the above
34- which one of these drugs is NOT macrolide antibiotic
a- Azithromycin
b- Clindamycin
c- Clarithromycin
d- Erythromycin
e- Telithromycin
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35- The most common route of drug entry to the cell is
a- Uptake by special carriers
b- Diffusion through the lipid phase
c- Aqueous diffusion
d- Transport by amino acid carrier
e- Facilitated diffusion
36- A patient who presents a prescription for erythromycin 500 mg Q6H for 10
days and your pharmacy di dnt have it, which of the following you suggest as
the best alternative to his physician
a- Clarithromycin
b- Penicillin V
c- Gentamycin
d- Amoxicillin
e- Streptomycin
37- Which of these drugs is NOT cough suppressant
a- Dextromethorphane
b- Pholocodine
c- Morphine
d- Guaiphenesin
e- Codeine
38- In storage of medicinal product
a- Generally a lower storage temperature decreases the rate of chemical and microbial
degradation leading to increased shelf life
b- Reducing the temperature to below 0C may not extend the shelf life of creams
because it causes cracking in creams
c- Reducing the temperature to below 0C may not extend the shelf life of insulin
because it causes aggregation of insulin
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
39- A child who came with prescription for paracetamol ( whose weight is 12 Kg )
and dose ( 5 ml Q4H to Q6H PRN ) you are going to tell the doctor to tell him
a- The dose is too high as the daily dose is 5 mg / kg
b- The dose is adequate but frequency should be Q6H only
c- The dose is small and a dose of a 180 mg is required
d- The dose is in adequate and no need to call the doctor
e- The dose is adequate but frequency should be Q4H only
40- Which of these drugs should be avoided during pregnancy
a- Misoprostol
b- Methylcellulose
c- Cinnarizine
d- Hyoscine
e- Paracetamole
41- which one of these drugs is NOT Beta agonist
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a- salbutamol
b- fenterol
c- pindolol
d- pirbuterol
e- albuterol
42- protein binding of a drug can lead to
a- Delayed urinary excretion of drugs
b- Enhanced urinary excretion of drugs
c- Decreased biological half life of drugs
d- Both a and c
e- None of the above
43- Nitrous oxide is widely used in anesthesia because it
a- Is non flammable and non explosive
b- Provide rapid , smooth induction of anesthesia
c- Is a potent muscle relaxant
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
44- Disulfiram ( tetra ethyl thiuram sulfide )
a- Effective treatment of alcohol withdrawal syndrome
b- Prevent oxidation to acetaldehyde to acetate
c- Protect the liver against damage by alcohol
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
45- The duration of treatment of T.B is
a- 1 2 weeks
b- 1 2 months
c- 2 3 months
d- 6 9 months
e- 2 4 years
46- Which of these drugs is contraindicated during pregnancy
a- Sucralfate
b- Chlorophiniramine
c- Ethambutol
d- Folic acid
e- Ciprofloxacin
47- By definition first pass metabolism effect of drug is
a- Metabolism of drugs in gut wall during absorption
b- Metabolism of drugs in the liver during the first liver passage
c- Metabolism of drugs in gut wall and in the liver during the first liver passage
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
48- A patient presents to you prescription for KCL and enalapril , you are going to
ask him
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a- Which preparation of KCL want
b- How much does he need of each medication
c- Is he using another antihypertensive
d- If he suffer from hypertension
e- None of the above
49- Hemisuccinate are used as prodrug for drugs to be given IV administration
because
a- The prodrug is more water soluble than parent drug and therefore will not precipitate
in veins
b- The prodrug is less water soluble than parent drug and therefore will not precipitate in
veins
c- Use of prodrug can avoid high initial dose of parent drug since prodrug is changed to
parent drug after administration
d- Both a and b
e- Both a and c
50- What is the active ingredient of dolomol
a- Paracetamol which is an anti inflammatory drug
b- An analgesic but not paracetamol
c- Paracetamol which is an analgesic and anti inflammatory drug
d- Paracetamol which has no an anti inflammatory but has an analgesic activity
e- Antipyretic but not paracetamol
51- All of these are side effect of chloramphenicol EXCEPT
a- Irreversible a plastic anemia
b- Optic neuritis
c- Iron deficiency anemia
d- Peripheral neuritis
e- Gray baby syndrome
52- Vasopressin is used in the treatment of
a- Diabetes insipidus
b- Type I Diabetes mellitus
c- Type II Diabetes mellitus
d- Peripheral neuritis
e- Angina pectoris
53- According to ministry of health (MOH) regulation narcotic prescription can be
dispensed by the pharmacist when
a- Having a clear patient name and identification number written clearly on the
prescription
b- Having the prescriber name , identification number written clearly on the prescription
c- The prescription can be filled maximum of 3 days after it has been written
d- Both a and c
e- All of the above
54- In which of the following references you can find the answer if you asked by a
patient to identify an orange tablet with a printed code of F12
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a- Martindale
b- PDR
c- SNF
d- None of the above
e- All of the above
55- The concentration of NaCL in dextrose 5% normal saline (D5W/NS) is
a- 1.8 %
b- 0.9 %
c- 0.45 %
d- 0.225 %
e- 3.6 %
56- What is the major complication of morphine over dose
a- AV block
b- Respiratory depression
c- Cardiac arrest
d- Liver dysfunction
e- Kidney dysfunction
57- Which one of the following statement is INCORRECT
a- A syrup is an aqueous solution that has sweet taste
b- Sustained release tablets should be crushed before dissolving when given to a patient
with dysphagia
c- Elixir is a solution that contain alcohol as a diluents
d- Regular tablet is a solid dosage form
e- Emulsion is a mixture of oil and water by the use of surfactant
58- Intra osseous injection refers to injection into the
a- Bone marrow
b- Superficial skin layer
c- Muscle mass
d- Pleural fluid
e- Spinal cord
59- The trade name of cotrimoxazole is
a- Bactrim
b- Ultracif
c- Comazole
d- Augmentin
e- Salinal
60- The recommended dose of paracetamol for 10 Kg child is
a- 50 mg every 6 hours
b- 150 300 mg four times daily
c- 15 mls every 4 6 hour
d- 100 150 mg every 4-6 hours
e- 10 mg / 4 hour
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61- Which one of the following preparation can be used externally as otic waxes
remover
a- Glycerine with 5 % sodium bicarbonate
b- Dextrose with 5 % sodium bicarbonate
c- Alcohol
d- Normal saline
e- Ringer solution with dextrose
62- The PH of acidic preparation
a- 7
b- More than 7
c- Less than 7
d- 5.5 8.5
e- 6 8
63- Eight fluid ounce
a- 240 ml
b- 120 ml
c- 60 ml
d- 30 ml
e- 15 ml
64- Which of the following drugs should not be mixed with normal saline for
intravenous administration
a- Phenytoin
b- Cefazolin
c- Amphotricin B
d- Insulin
e- Zantac
65- How many gram of magnesium oxide are required to make 300 ml of 15%
(W/V) solution
a- 15
b- 30
c- 45
d- 60
e- 75
66- How much sodium chloride is required to prepare 500 ml of 0.9% normal saline
a- 0.45 grams
b- 4.5 milligrams
c- 450 milligrams
d- 4500 milligram
e- 4.5 grams
67- If 30 gram of 0.1% hydrocortisone is mixed with 2.5% of hydrocortisone what is
the percentage of hydrocortisone in the final mixture
a- 2.2 % W/W
b- 1.85 % W/W
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c- 0.25 % W/W
d- 1.75 % W/W
e- 1.35 % W/W
68- Quinolone is not recommended in children because
a- They are not very effective unlike the adult
b- They have serious side effect on the liver
c- They affect the joint causing cartilage erosion
d- They make the child hyperactive , irritable and may cause seizure
e- Cause discoloration of teeth
69- The advice you will give to the patient when dispensing
alendronate (fosamax) to treat osteoporosis
a- Drug must be taken first thing in the morning
b- Drug must be taken with a full glass of water at least 30 minutes
before any food
c- Patient must not lie down for at least 30 minute after taking alendronate
d- Both b and c
e- All of the above
70- All of these drugs are antifungal agents EXCEPT
a- Nystatin
b- Itraconazole
c- Flucytosine
d- Mirtazapine
e- White field ointment
71- QID mean
a- Every day
b- Every other day
c- Four time a day
d- Every four day
e- Every 12 hour
72- Which one of the following medication have been due to
inci dence of rhabdomyl osis
a- Cerivastatin
b- Sumatriptan
c- Pamidronate
d- Fusidic acid injection
e- Labetalol
73- New guideline for asthma treatment is
a- To give inhaled steroids for short time because it may affect the growth
b- To use short acting B2 agonist on regular basis
c- To use long acting B2 agonist along with inhaled steroids for long time
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
74- Which drug is consider cytochrome P-450 enzyme inhibitor
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a- Clarithromycin
b- Omeprazole
c- Phenytoin
d- Rifampicin
e- Ciprofloxacin
75- Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for women recently
a- Show benefits in reducing the risk of cancer
b- It significantly reduces the risk of heart disease
c- Can be used for life as it showed protective effect without any side effect
d- Show no benefit compared with placebo and it may increase risk of breast cancer
e- It increase the risk of osteoporosis
76- Pharmacodynamic is defined by
a- The study of biochemical and physiological effects of the drug
b- Drug interaction , dosage form , and side effect of the drug
c- The study of time course of a drug and its metabolite in the body after administration
d- Study of effect and adverse effect of the drug
e- All of the above
77- A father seeks for advice for his 2 month old child complaining of runny nose
and temperature 39C. what is the best advice to him
a- Give him paracetamol and Actifed
b- Watch the child for the next 48 hr
c- Take the child to the emergency department
d- Start him immediately on amoxil
e- Combine paracetamol and amoxil
78- The drug of choice of head lice is
a- Topical steroids
b- Pyrithrins
c- Anti histamines
d- Antibiotic
e- Anti fungal
79- All of these drugs are considered calcium channel blocker EXCEPT
a- Felodipine
b- Deltiazem
c- Nifidepine
d- Lamivudine
e- Verapamil
80- Norepinephrine stimulate B1 adrenergic receptor and alpha adrenergic receptor
causing
a- Increase contractility and heart rate
b- Vasoconstriction and increase systemic blood pressure and
coronary blood flow
c- Vasoconstriction of pulmonary alveoli
d- Both a and b
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e- All of the above
81- These drugs cannot dispensed to patient without prescription EXCEPT
a- Bisacodyl
b- Tegretol
c- Pravastatin
d- Metformin
e- Xanax
82- The well known complexion of reaction warfarin and certain drugs containing
metal ions such as aluminium hydroxide leads to
a- Formation of complexes in the GIT tract that are poorly absorbed
b- Formation of complexes in the GIT tract that are highly absorbed
c- Formation of complexes in the GIT tract that cause irritation
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
83- A 55 year old patient with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) and
diabetes mellitus (DM) who is not compliant with his 5 medication , the best advice
way to discuss with him the following
a- Side effect of his medications in details
b- Long term complication of CHF and DM if not properly treated
c- Drug interaction of digoxin
d- The most important drug for his regimen
e- Stop the medication
84- Indications for therapeutic use of B- blockers includes
a- Essential hypertension
b- angina pectoris
c- glaucoma
d- both a and b
e- all of the above
85- All these drugs are controlled drugs EXCEPT
a- Carbmazepine
b- Rivotril
c- Tylenol
d- Diazepam
e- Fosamax
86- The drug of choice for the treatment pseudomembraneous colitis
a- Metronidazole
b- Clindamycin
c- Ciprofloxacin
d- Aspirin
e- Vancomycin
87- The insulin that cannot be given IV
a- NPH
b- Regular
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c- Insulin lispro
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
88- During patient counseling on medication what are the things that make patient
feel confident and comfortable about information you give
a- Hanging your certificates and awards on the wall or your desk
b- Talking to patient according his/her level of education
c- To assure patients compliance with his/ her drugs dont discuss major side effects with
patients
d- Both a and b
e- All of above
89- Isoniazide is known to be a liver enzyme inhibitor , there for its co
administration with a drug that is metabolized by liver would lead to
a- Increased rate of metabolism of that drug leading to decreased response to drug
b- Increased rate of metabolism of that drug leading to increased response to drug
c- Decreased rate of metabolism of that drug leading to decreased response to drug
d- Decreased rate of metabolism of that drug leading to increased response to drug
e- All of the above
90- Nitroglycerin skin patches ( nitroderm -5) means
a- It contains 5 mg only
b- It contains 5 mg / hour
c- It delivers 5 mg / 24 hour
d- It deliver 5mg per 12 hour
e- All of the above
91- Drug -drug interaction may take place by the following mechanism(s)
a- Enzyme induction
b- Formation of unabsorbed complex
c- Enzyme inhibition
d- Plasma protein displacement
e- All of the above
92- The most common side effect for oral hypoglycemic drugs is
a- Thyroid gland suppression
b- GIT upset
c- Allergic reaction
d- Hypoglycemia
e- all of the above
93- Which one of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with G6PD
deficiency
a- Acetaminophen
b- Penicillin
c- Co trimoxazole
d- Dexamethasone
e- Insulin
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94- Epileptic patient complaining of mild skin rash and he is
taking lamotrigine and sodium valproate ,he asked you what
he should do? Your advice is
a- Seek medical advice immediately because it might get worse
b- Start another antiepileptic drug and stop these two
c- This is a common side effect of valproate and do not do any thing
d- Give hydrocortisone cream 1% to be applied on the affected area
e- Reduce the dose immediately
95- What is the salt form of fer-in-sol
a- Ferrous fumarate
b- Ferrous gluconate
c- Ferrous sulfate
d- Ferrous succenate
e- Ferric sulfate
96- Patient is taking warfarin , which one of these drug may
increase warfarin effect
a- Carbamazepine
b- Vitamin K
c- Amiodaron
d- Oral contraceptive
e- Rifampicin
97- Viagra has fatal drug interaction with
a- Carbamzepin
b- Nitrogycerine
c- Ketamine
d- Zithromax
e- atenolol
98- The following drugs may cause discoloration of the feces EXCEPT
a- Phenytoin
b- Iron salt
c- Rifampicin
d- Warfarin
e- None of the above
99- The maximum recommended dose of diclofenac (voltaren) for adult is
a- 50 mg
b- 75 mg
c- 100 mg
d- 150 mg
e- None of the above
100- Cephalexine is
a- First generation cephalosporin which coves G+organism
b- One of the quinolone
c- Second generation cephalosporin which coves G+organism
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d- One of the amino penicillin
e- Third generation cephalosporin which coves G+organism




















46

47

Exam model 4

1- Ondasetron Hcl is used for
a- Hypertension
b- Angina pectoris
c- Prophylaxis of migraine
d- Anti emetic
e- Anti epileptic
2- All of these is side effect of chloramphenicol except
a- Irreversible a plastic anemia
b- Optic neuritis
c- Peripheral neuritis
d- Iron deficiency anemia
e- Megaloplastic anemia
3- Ticlopidine is used for
a- Anticoagulant
b- Antibiotic
c- Anti platelet
d- Anti cholinergic
e- Anti depressant
4- All these drug are fibrinolytic except
a- Dipyridamole
b- Streptokinase
c- Urokinase
d- Alteplase
e- Non of the above
5- All these drugs cause anti metabolic effect except
a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
c- Cytarbin
d- Azothioprime
e- Cyclophosphamide
6- All these drugs can be used for parkinsonism except
a- selegiline
b- carbidopa
c- levodopa
d- Nedocromil sodium
e - pergolide
7- All these cases not cure with thiazide except :
f- Hypernatremia
g- Hyperglycemia
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h- Hypokalemia
i- Hyperuricemia
j- Hyponatremia
8- Cardiac arrest could be management by the following except :
a- Ephedrine
b- Ledocaine
c- Propranolol
d- Normal saline
e- Hydrocortisone
9- Antidote of heparin is
a- Protamine sulphate
b- Acetyl cystiene
c- Vitamin K
d- Naloxone
e- None of the above
10- Antidote of warfarin is
a- Protamine sulphate
b- Acetyl cystiene
c- Vitamin K
d- Naloxone
e- None of the above
11- Antidote of paracetamol is
a- Protamine sulphate
b- Acetyl cystine
c- Vitamin K
d- Naloxone
e- None of the above
12- Antidote of morphine is
a- Protamine sulphate
b- Acetyl cystiene
c- Vitamin K
d- Naloxone
e- None of the above
13- Disease cause edema
a- Renal failure
b- Congestive heart failure
c- Hepatic disease
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
14- Simvastatin
a- Anti hypertensive agent
b- Hypolipdemic agent
c- Anti hyperlipidemic
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d- Both b and c
e- All of the above
15- Side effect of corticosteroid include
a- Water and sodium retention +hypertension
b- Gastric ulcer +glaucoma
c- Osteoporosis +DM +Cushing syndrome
d- Both b and c
e- All of the above
16- Biotransformation is conversion of the drug to
a- More lipid soluble
b- Less lipid soluble
c- No change of drug solubility
d- Any of them
e- None of them
17- Phenyl ephrine is used
a- Decongestant
b- For runny nose
c- Sympathomimetic
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
18- Oxytocin produces all of the following except
a- Progesterone release
b- Uterine stimulation
c- Labor induction
d- Mammalian gland stimulation
e- Both a and b
19- New & best therapy for peptic ulcer is
a- Antacid +H2 antagonist
b- Use more than one H2 antagonist
c- triple therapy including antibiotic
d- double therapy including proton pump inhibitor
e- none of the above
20- In case of arthritis & peptic ulcer Of elderly patient use
a- Aspirin
b- Paracetamol
c- Diclofenac
d- Indomethacin
e- Piroxicam
21- Give names of drugs the drug changes the color of urine
a- Nitrofurantoin
b- Phenazopyridine
c- Rifampicin
d- Both a and c
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e- All of the above
22- Drug of choice of febrile convulsion in children
a- Valporic acid
b- Phenytoin
c- Gabapentin
d- Carbamazepine
e- Non of the above
23- Cyproteron (androcure )is used for
a- Increase sexual abilities in male
b- Treat hairsiutism in female
c- Treat prostate cancer
d- Treatment acne
e- All of the above
24- Immunocompetent means
a- Control resistant to infection
b- Low resistant to infection
c- Increase immunity in patient
d- Gama Immunoglobin
e- None of the above
25- Immunocompromised means
a- Control resistant to infection
b- Low resistant to infection
c- Increase immunity in patient
d- Gama Immunoglobin
e- None of the above
26- Difference between captopril & other ACE inhibitor
a- Mode of action
b- Site of action
c- Potency
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
27- Gluco corticoid used in
a- Bronchial asthma
b- Addisons disease
c- Suppression therapy
d- Anti shock , anti stress
e- All of the above
28- Cotrimoxazole contain Trimethoprime and Sulphamethoxazole as
a- 1:5
b- 2:3
c- 1:4
d- 1:3
e- 1:6
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29- One of the following symptoms is not side effect of morphine
a- Constipation
b- Diarrhea
c- Vomiting
d- Respiratory depression
e- None of the above
30- One of the following is the drug of choice for myoxedema ( hypothyroidism )
a- Carbimazole (Neo mercazole )
b- Thyroxin sodium
c- Iodine
d- Propyl thiouracil
e- Lugols solution
31- One of the following is the drug of choice for amoeba
a- Chloramphenicol
b- Tetracycline
c- Gentamycin
d- Metronidazole
e- Mebendazole
32- One of the following is given once daily
a- Amorphous insulin
b- Natural insulin
c- Protamine Zinc insulin
d- Regular insulin
e- All of the above
33- Ferrogard is
a- Ferrous gluconate
b- Ferrous sulphate
c- Ferrous citrate
d- Ferrous fumarate
e- Ferric sulphate
34- What does QOD stands for
a- Four times daily
b- Every 4 hours
c- Every other day
d- Once daily
e- Four time every other day
35- One of the following is not calcium channel blockers
a- Verapamil ( Isopten )
b- Amlodipine (Amlor )
c- Diltiazem (Dilizem)
d- Cinnarizine (Stugeron )
e- Nifidepine (Adalat)
36- The dose of paracetamol for a 3 month old baby
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a- 5 10 mg / kg / 4 hour daily
b- 5 10 ml / 6 hour daily
c- 120 250 mg / kg / 4-6 hour daily
d- 250 500 mg / kg / 4 hour daily
e- 10 15 mg / kg / 4-6 hour daily
37- Which of the following is not NSAIDs
a- Ibuprofen
b- Parafon
c- Naproxen
d- Tenoxicam
e- Aspirin
38- Antidote of digoxine
a- Digitoxine
b- Charcoal
c- Digibinide
d- Naloxone
e- Tranxamic acid
39- If prescription contains atenolol and the patient is wheezing
a- Give him the medicine
b- Call the doctor and ask him about the case
c- Ask him if he is taking other anti hypertensive
d- Ask him if he is asthmatic
e- Dont dispense the drug
40- B agonists cause
a- Increase oxygen consumption
b- ectotropic effect
c- Inotropic effect
d- Both a and c
e- All of the above
41- The best guide to patient is
a- Tell him about all side effect of the drug
b- Tell him about mechanism of action of the drug
c- Tell him about some side effect of the drug
d- Tell him about all advantages of using the drug
e- None of the above
42- Simvastatin is categorized by FDA as pregnancy category X this mean that
a- The drug is contraindicated during pregnancy
b- The drug affect the fetus to small extent
c- The drug should be used with caution during pregnancy
d- The drug is used in third trimester
e- The drug is absolutely safe to use
43- Regular insulin can be used by
a- IV
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b- IM
c- SC
d- Both b and c
e- All of the above
44- In control prescription ( Narcotic prescription) should be
a- Identification of patient (name ,age, address , .etc)
b- Identification of patient and signature of doctor and patient
c- Not dispensed after 3 days of prescribing
d- Both a and c
e- All of the above
45- Cisaprid was pulled from market by MOH side effect
a- Anemia
b- Nephrotoxicity
c- Arrhythmia
d- Leukemia
e- Heart failure
46- Which of the following is natural emulsifying agent
a- Acacia
b- Lactulose
c- Paraffin oil
d- Span
e- Tween
47- All of the following are thiazide diuretic except
a- Chlorothiazide
b- Hydrochlorothiazide
c- Amiloride
d- Indepamide
e- Chlorothalidone
48- If doctor ask you about the recommended dose of Cefuroxime what is the
reference you will use
a- SNF
b- AHFS
c- Heart lane
d- BNF
e- All of the above
49- Microdex is
a- New drug for hypertension
b- New drug for hypertension
c- Software program for disease and drugs
d- New drug for hypertension
e- Reference of pharmacological drugs
50- If you have prescription containing water 60 gm , olive oil 120 gm , ASA (acetyl
salicylic acid ) so the mixture will be :
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a- Elixir
b- Suspension
c- Syrup
d- Solution
e- Emulsion
51- Grains
a- 65 gm
b- 6.5 gm
c- 0.065 gm
d- 0.0065 gm
e- None of the above
52- Cytotic was pulled from the market due to side effect of
a- Abortion
b- Anemia
c- GIT irritation
d- Diarrhea
e- Migraine
53- Which of the following diuretic may cause Hyperkalemia
a- Furosmide
b- Amiloride
c- Bumetanide
d- Chlorothalidone
e- Ethacrynic acid
54- What is the active ingredient in Viagra
a- Sildenafil
b- Silfenadil
c- Sildefanil
d- Sldenadil
e- None of the above
55- Antihistaminines are not given to babies because
a- Sleeping side effect
b- Liver toxicity
c- Nephrotoxicity
d- Peptic ulcer
e- None of the above
56- What is the concentration of NaCl in Dextrose 5% & N.S
a- 0.9 NaCl
b- 0.25NaCl
c- 0.45 NaCl
d- 0.225 NaCl
e- 9 NaCl
57- The PH of eye preparation is
a- 2- 3
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b- 4-6
c- >6
d- 6-8
e- 8-10
58- If you mix 60 gm of hydrocortisone cream 1% with hydrocortisone cream 2.5%
the concentration of the mix will be
a- 1.75 %
b- 0.25 %
c- 1.9 %
d- 1.85 %
e- 2.2 %
59- Patient tells you that he takes phenytoin and noted hairsiutism (excessive hair
growth) what will you till him?
a- Stop medication immediately
b- Ask doctor for alternative
c- Its common side effect of phenytoin and do nothing
d- Stop phenytoin and give her alternative
e- Reduce the dose of the drug
60- Female patient tell you that she takes phenytoin and noted hairsiutism (excessive
hair growth) what will you till her?
a- Stop medication immediately
b- Ask doctor for alternative
c- Its common side effect of phenytoin and do nothing
d- Stop phenytoin and give her alternative
e- Reduce the dose of the drug
61- Nurse ask you to dilute 3 ml lidocain 1% to 1: 1000 ho
many ml of water you will need
a- 100 ml
b- 10 ml
c- 30 ml
d- 300 ml
e- 3 ml
62- Bycol was pulled from the market due to fatal side effect of
a- Osteoarthritis
b- Leukemia
c- CNs manifestation
d- Rhabdomiolysis
e- Abortion
63- Intrathecal is
a- Spinal cord
b- Intra joint
c- Tracheal
d- Subcutaneous
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e- Intra dermal
64- Enteric coated tablet disintegrate by
a- PH of the stomach
b- PH of the intestine
c- PH of the oesphageus
d- Both a and c
e- All of the above
65- Patient coming with a 2 months baby with 39C what will you do
a- Give him Tempra +Actifed
b- Advice the father to sponge with water
c- advice him to go to hospital
d- give him antibiotic and anti pyretic
e- both b and c
66- Solution of 160 ml containing 5% NaCl how much water in this solution
a- 100 ml
b- 152 ml
c- 135 ml
d- 8 ml
e- 130 ml
67- One of the following corticosteroid is mineralocoricoid group
a- Hydrocortisone
b- Predinsolone
c- Fludrocortisones
d- Betametasone
e- Dexamethasone
68- Ephedrine should not used in patient had
a- Cough
b- Nasal congestion
c- Bronchospasm
d- Heart disease
e- Both a and b
69- Which one of the loop diuretic is more potent than other
a- Fuoresmide
b- Torasemide
c- Bumetanide
d- Ethacrynic acid
e- None of the above
70- Which of the following has minimal or no adverse effect on kidney
a- Chloramphenicol
b- Aminoglycoside
c- Cephalosporin
d- Amphotricin B
e- None of the above
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71- All of these may reduce the anti coagulant effect of warfarin EXCEPT
a- Vitamin K
b- Rifampicin
c- Oral contraceptive
d- Aspirin
e- None of the above
72- One of these is NOT used for ascaris infection therapy
a- Niclosamide
b- Piperazine
c- Mebendazole
d- Pyrantel
e- Levamisole
73- With drug that classified as non linear kinetic , any increase of dose result in
a- Increase in the amount of the drug eliminated
b- Increase in the amount of the drug absorbed
c- Increase in the half life
d- Disproportional Increase in the plasma concentration
e- Proportional increase in the plasma concentration
74- In patient with ischemic heart disease which of the following drug is
contraindicated
a- Ephedrine
b- Nadalol
c- Isorbide dinitrate
d- Captopril
e- Diuretics
75- One of these drugs is NOT suitable for treatment of gastrointestinal colic
a- Papverine
b- Xylometazoline
c- Alverine
d- Hyoscine
e- Atropine
76- Food poisoning is caused by
a- Virus
b- Bacteria
c- Worms
d- Tinea
e- Parasite
77- On of these is not useful for aspergillosis
a- Itraconazole
b- Fluconazole
c- Amphitrocin
d- Both a and b
e- None of the above
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78- There are major clinical differences between the different members of ACE inh.
a- No they are basically equally effective if used in appropriate doses
b- There are differences and some of them are proven to be more effective than others
c- The dose limit applies to only one of them
d- The difference in their mode of action
e- The difference in their site of action
79- The new therapy for peptic ulcer has been changed recently into
a- Add antacid to be used on PRN basis
b- Use higher than the doses that were used previous
c- Using more than H2 antagonist simultaneously
d- Using a combination of three drugs one of which should be an antibiotic
e- Use 2 proton pump inhibitor simultaneously
80- Tuberculosis is a disease which should be treated with
a- Single drug to avoid resistance
b- Two drug in order to shorten therapy period
c- Three or four drug initially to assure eradication of microorganism
d- Both a or b
e- None of the above
81- Hypercalcemia is a sign of toxicity of
a- Parathyroid extract
b- Thyroid extract
c- Vitamin D
d- Both a and c
e- All of the above
82- Gluco corticoid can be used in treatment of
a- Addison's disease
b- Hypopitutarism
c- Severe bronchial asthma
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
83- Regarding Amiloride /triametrine /spironolactone which is correct
a- Not belong to the same therapeutic class
b- May lead to hypokalemia
c- Not used for oedema
d- May lead to Hyperkalemia
e- Treat Hyperlipidemia
84- When dosing with aminoglycoside , you must consider person GFR which is
reflected by
a- Serum Creatinine
b- Creatinine clearance
c- Amount of urine
d- Both a and b
e- None of the above
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85- The new non sedating anti histaminic are
a- H2 antagonist
b- H1 antagonist
c- D2 antagonist
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
86- Which one is consider enzyme inducer
a- Rifampicin
b- Chloramphenicol
c- Cimitidine
d- Omeprazole
e- Vitamin C
87- When dispensing drug that cause allergic reaction such a penicillin and
sulfonamide the pharmacist should
a- Ask the patient to avoid taking drug with food
b- Ask patient to avoid taking drug with milk
c- Ask patient if he is allergic to the drug
d- Both a and c
e- All of the above
88- Metoclopramide is
a- Dopamine antagonist with indirect cholinergic activity
b- Has strong central anti emetic property
c- Trade name is plasil
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
89- Flumazenil
a- Benzodiazepine
b- Barbiturate
c- Benzodiazepine antagonist
d- Barbiturate antagonist
e- None of the above
90- Mivacurin
a- Non depolarizing muscle relaxant
b- Depolarizing muscle relaxant
c- Antibiotic
d- Analgesic antipyretic
e- Non of the above
91- Geriatric one of the these are NOT occur EXCEPT
a- Increase cardiac output
b- Increase hepatic blood pressure
c- Decrease effect of lipid soluble drug
d- Decrease gastric secretion
e- Decrease memory efficiency
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92- Astemazole
a- Long acting antihistaminic
b- Short acting histaminic
c- Similar to chlorphenramine maleate
d- Both b and c
e- Non of the above
93- Triazole
a- Is antifungal
b- Is trade name of amphterocin B
c- Is trade name of clotrimazole
d- Is trade name of nystatin
e- Is antibiotic
94- Which of these has NO vasodilating effect
a- Methyldopa
b- Enalapril
c- Hydralazine
d- Prazoscin
e- Propranolol
95- One of these may used as topical eye ointment
a- Amikacin
b- Netilmycin
c- Streptomycin
d- Tobramycin
e- Kanamycin
96-Antidote of warfarin
a- Protamine sulfate
b- Acetyl cystine
c- Vitamin K
d- Naloxone
e- Desferroxamine
97-Give the name of vitamin B12
a- Riboflavin
b- Cyanocoblamine
c- Ascorbic acid
d- Tocopherol
e- Menadione
98-Carvedilol
a- Has non selective beta adreno receptor blocking activity
b- Has alpha adrenergic blocking activity
c- Has alpha agonist activity
d- Both a and b
e- Both a and c
99-Calcitriol
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a- 1,25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol
b- 1,1 dihydroxy cholecalciferol
c- 25 ,25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol
d- Both a and b
e- None of them
100-Which one of these drugs is NOT angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
(ACEI)
a- Enalapril
b- Lisinopril
c- Quinapril
d- Zarapril
e- Captopril






























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Exam model 5
1- Type of psyllium laxative
a- Bulk forming laxative
b- Osmotic laxative
c- Irritant ( stimulant ) laxative
d- Lubricant laxative
e- None of the above
2- Percent of elemental iron in ferrous gluconate is
a- 10
b- 12
c- 20
d- 30
e- 33
3- Recommended serum phenytoin level in epileptic patient
a- Less than 10 ug/ml
b- 10 20 ug/ml
c- 20 30 ug/ml
d- 30 35 ug/ml
e- More than 35 ug/ml
4- Depakot main advantages over depakin
a- Less hepatotoxic
b- Less nephrotoxic
c- more absopative
d- Less GIT irritation
e- non of the above
5- Allopurinol effect through
a- Inhibit xanthine reductase enzyme
b- Inhibit xanthine oxidase enzyme
c- Increase uric acid execretion
d- Decease uric acid synthesis
e- Both a and d
6- Which one of them is not ACE inhibitor
a- Lisinopril
b- Enalapril
c- Captopril
d- Zarapril
e- None of the above
7- Sustained release drug delivery depend on
a- Interaction with body fluid
b- Medium PH
c- Enzymatic activity
d- Both a and b
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e- All of the above
8- The heme portion of haemoglobin contain
a- Vitamin B12
b- Pyridoxine
c- Iron
d- Sodium
e- Calcium
9- Sterilization is necessary for
a- Parenteral preparation
b- Ophthalmic
c- Oral preparation
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
10- In renal impairement dosage interval should be adjusted for all except
a- Gentamycin
b- Digoxine
c- Lidocaine
d- Atenolol
e- Vancomycin
11- Single dose package container packed in the pharmacy must have expiration
date
a- 10 % of remain self life of the stock but not longer than 6 month
b- 25 % of remain self life of the stock but not longer than 6 month
c- 35 % of remain self life of the stock but not longer than 4 month
d- 20 % of remain self life of the stock but not longer than 6 month
e- 10 % of remain self life of the stock but not longer than 12 month
12- Which should be not prepared in horizontal laminar flow
a- Intravenous injection
b- Solution
c- Large volume fluid
d- Intramuscular injection
e- Intradermal injection
13- Which one of the following is incorrect
a- Enteric coated tablet pass the gastric PH
b- Solution is the most rapid oral dosage form
c- IV give 100 % bioavailability
d- SR tablet should be crushed
e- Most common route for insulin injection is subcutaneous
14- Isoni azi de is primary anti TB infecti on require .. supplement
a- Require vitamin B6
b- Require vitamin B2
c- Require vitamin B12
d- Require vitamin B1
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e- Require vitamin B5
15- Controlled drug delivery (already programmed) depend on
a- Interaction with body fluid
b- Medium PH
c- Enzymatic activity
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
16- Thyroid hormone
a- Control temperature
b- Growth hormone
c- release from parathyroid gland
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
17- Binding to plasma protein
a- Increase t
b- decrease t
c- no affect t
d- same to all drugs
e- Both A& D
18- Dobutamine is given IV because
a- Poorly absorbed from GIT
b- Easily absorbed from GIT
c- Not absorbed from GIT
d- Not stable in gastric PH
e- None of the above
19- Mesalasine
a- GERD disease
b- Hypertension
c- Ulcerative colitis
d- Hyperlipedmia
e- All of the above
20- Warfarin when taken with aluminum hydroxide
a- Poorly absorbed from GIT
b- Easily absorbed from GIT
c- Not absorbed from GIT
d- No effect on absorption
e- None of the above
21- Pseudomemberaneous colitis is treated by
a- Tetracycline
b- Vancomycin
c- Tecloplanin
d- Both a and b
e- Both b and c
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22- What is mean of SNF
a- Spain national formulary
b- Saudi national formulary
c- Saudi national formulation
d- Slovenia national formulary
e- None of the above
23- Morphine differ from mepropamate in
a- Analgesic
b- Miosis
c- Addiction
d- All of the above
e- None of the above
24- Surfactant not used orally
a- Tween
b- Span
c- Sodium lauryl sulphate
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
25- Ibratropium bromide is used as
a- Bronchodilator
b- Antimuscarinic
c- Smooth muscle relaxant
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
26- Aspirin is recommended with
a- Anticoagulant
b- Chicken box
c- Dysmenorrheal
d- both A& C
e- None of the above
27- All of these drug have anti inflammatory except
a- Diclophenac
b- Aspirin
c- Indomethacin
d- Dexamethasone
e- Paracetamol
28- UTI infection caused by
a- G+VE
b- G-VE
c- Mixed G+VE and G-VE
d- Both a and b
e- None of the above
29- One drug is not used for acute diarrhea
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a- Metronidazole
b- Flagyl
c- Tetracycline
d- Both a and b
e- None of the above
30- the only sedative anti histaminic
a- loratidine
b- cetrizine
c- chloropheneramine maleate
d- all of the above
e- none of the above
31- plasma concentration of the drug in all body mean
a- rate of absorption
b- rate of distribution
c- rate of binding
d- therapeutic volume
e- non of the above
32- the source of HCG ( human chronic gonadotropine ) is the urine of pregnant
women
a- skin
b- urine
c- stool
d- blood
e- saliva
33- Oxytocin make the following EXCEPT
a- Induce labour
b- Uterine stimulation
c- Mamilian gland stimulation
d- Progesterone release
e- None of the above
34- Drug pass BBB should be
a- Un ionized hydrophilic
b- ionized hydrophilic
c- Un ionized lipophilic
d- ionized lipophilic
e- none of the above
35- The relationship between the pharmacist and the patient is based on
a- Trust
b- exchange benefits
c- taking money from patient
d- both A& B
e- all of the above
36- The metabolism in the body occur in
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a- Liver
b- Kidney
c- Bowel mucosa
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
37- Protein bound of drug forming compound which is
a- Inactive while the free part is active
b- Inactive and the free part is inactive
c- active while the free part is inactive
d- active and the free part is active
e- None of the above
38- Tilade inhaler generic name
a- Salbutamol
b- Terbutaline
c- Nedocromil sodium
d- Sodium stibogluconate
e- Sodium thiocyanate
39- Drugs that has narrow region between therapeutic and toxic dose
a- Warfarin
b- Theophylline
c- Digoxine
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
40- uses of gentian violet (crystal violet)
a- Antiseptic
b- Skin disinfectant
c- Emollient
d- antifungal
e- Sun screen
41- The concentration of crystal violet paints
a- 0.5 % in BP 1980
b- 1 % in BP 1980
c- 1 % in USP 1985
d- 0.5 % in BP 1985
e- Both a and c
42- Abbreviation of INH mean
a- Isoniazide
b- Isonicotinic acid hydralazide
c- Isonicotinic base hydrazide
d- Both and b
e- None of the above
43- The concentration of mercurochrome solution is
a- 1 %
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b- 2 %
c- 3 %
d- 4 %
e- 5 %
44- The antidote of heavy metal as antimony, arsenic ,gold ,mercury and bismuth
a- Desferroxamine
b- Penicillamine
c- Dimercaprol
d- Dextrose
e- Sodium thiosulphate
45- The antidote of copper and lead
a- Desferroxamine
b- Penicillamine
c- Dimercaprol
d- Dextrose
e- Sodium thiosulphate
46- The antidote of insulin & oral hypoglycemic
a- Desferroxamine
b- Penicillamine
c- Dimercaprol
d- Dextrose
e- Sodium thiosulphate
47- The antidote of iron
a- Desferroxamine
b- Penicillamine
c- Dimercaprol
d- Dextrose
e- Sodium thiosulphate
48- Clomphene citrate used for
a- An ovulation infertility
b- Oral contraceptive
c- Diabetes mellitus
d- Hyperthyroidism
e- Non of the above
49- Cholystramine is used for
a- Hyperlipidemia
b- Hypercholestremia
c- Hypertension
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
50- Clonidine is used as
a- Anti hypertensive acting centrally
b- Prevent the recurrence of migraine
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c- Oral anti diabetic
d- Both a and b
e- All of the above
51- One of these may be used as topical ointment
a- amikacin
b- gentamycin
c- streptomycin
d- tobramycin
e- both B& D
52- the following drugs used in acute diarrhea except
a-metronidazole
b- loperamide
c- gentamycin
d- tetracycline
e- non of the above
53- aminoglycosides antibiotic is taken
a-by injection because it's slowly absorbed from intestine
b- by oral & injection
c- by injection due to degradation by gastric juice
d- both A & B
e-all of the above
54- all of these are true for levodopa except
a- precursor of dopa
b- don't pass the B.B barrier
c- effective in parkinsonism
d- stimulate dopamine
e- combined with carbidopa
55- these agents used for systemic fungal infections except
a- azoles
b- amphotricin B
c- flucytosin
d- grisofulvin
e- non of the above
56- these agents used for superfacial fungal infections except
a- azoles
b- amphotricin B
c- flucytosin
d-grisofulvin
e-non of the above
57- lipobay removed from market as it cause
a- heart problems
b- brain problems
c- abortion
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d- death
e- non of the above
58- roacutane
a- used to treat acne
b- contraindicated in pregnancy
c- cause arrythemia
d- both A& B
e- All of the above
59- probelced removed from market as it cause
a-heart problems
b- brain problems
c- abortion
d- death
e-non of the above
60- maximum dose of ibuprofen is
a- 1800 mg / day
b- 3200 mg / day
c- 3000 mg / day
d- 1500 mg / day
e- non of the above
61- maximum dose of nifedipine is
a- 30 mg / day
b- 60 mg / day
c- 90 mg / day
d- 120 mg / day
e- 180 mg / day
62- one of these antifungal taken via Parenteral route only
a- grisofulvin
b- amphotercin- B
c- miconazole
d- gentian violet
e- all of above
63- the largest diameter of needle is
a- 25 gauge
b- 22 gauge
c- 24 gauge
d- 20 gauge
e- 30 gauge
64- which is correct
a- qid : every other day
b- qod : every 3 hours
c- q3h : four times daily
d- os : in left eye
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e- od : in both eyes
65- the heart beat is 50 so it's called
a- bradycardia
b- tackycardia
c- arrythemia
d- atrial fibrillation
e- non of the above
66- emphysema
a- is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
b- anatomical change of lung
c- associated with sputum
d- occurs with chronic bronchitis
e- all of the above
67- corticosteroids in treatment of asthma
a- decrease inflammation combined with asthma
b- increase number of alpha receptors
c- decrease sputum combined with asthma
d- all of the above
e- non of the above
68- one of these is not occurs with irritable bowel syndrome
a- constipation
b- diarrhea
c- vertigo
d- pain in intestine
e- non of the above
69- need aseptic technique
a- ophthalmic preparation
b- Parenteral preparation
c- extemporaneous preparation
d- both A & B
e- All of the above
70- treatment of brucellosis is
a- doxycycline 100 mg po bid for 6 weeks
b- rifampin 600- 900 mg /d po for 6 weeks
c- streptomycin 1g / d IM daily for 2-3 weeks
d- A& B OR A & C
e- B& C
71- Time for treatment of brucellosis is
a- 3 weeks
b- 6 weeks
c- 9 weeks
d- 6-9 month
e- non of the above
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72- E. coli can cause
a- urinary tract infection
b- gastrointestinal infection
c- meningitis
d- all of the above
e- non of the above
73- type 1 diabetes mellitus use
a- insulin only
b- sulfonyl urea only
c- biguanide
d- both A& B
e- Non of the above
74- sulphonyl urea act as
a- stimulate secretion of endogenous insulin
b- slowing of glucose absorption
c- inhibit degradation of free active insulin
d- stimulate glycolysis in tissues
e- non of the above
75- test used to ensure free from microorganisms
a- stability test
b- dissolution test
c- disintegration test
d- pyrogen test
e- non of the above
76- test used to ensure free from microorganisms
a-sterility test
b-clarify test
C-disintegration test
d- Filtration test
e-non of the above
77- decrease in size of solid dosage form lead to
a- increase in chemical stability
b- increase is surface area
c- decrease in therapeutic effect
d- both A& B
e- All of the above
78- diamox it's generic name is
a- chloropropamide
b- acetohexamide
c- gliplizide
d- acetazolamide
e- non of the above
79- one of these is not a chronic skin disease
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a- eczema
b- chicken pox
c- psoriasis
d- scabies
e- all of the above
80- all cause constipation except
a- antibiotics
b- opoids
c- antitussive
d- anticholinergics
e- non of the above
81- not taken with horizontal laminar flow
a- antibiotics
b- total Parenteral nutrition
c- large volume fluid
d- all of the above
e- non of the above
82- T.B species is
a- fungi
b- virus
c- parasite
d- bacteria
e- mycobacteria
83- benzyl peroxide used to treat
a- scabies
b- sun burns
c- acne vulgaris
d- psoriasis
e- tinea
84- which is not aminoglycoside
a- netilimycin
b- tobramycin
c- kanamycin
d- lymecycline
e- gentamycin
85- disease that can cause edema
a- angina pectoris
b- renal failure
c- diabetes mellitus
d- congestive heart failure
e- both B& D
86- Trandate
a- it's generic name is labetolol
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b- it's alpha & beta blocker
c- it's pure beta blocker
d- it's used to treat diarrhea
e- both A& B
87- Cialis
a- it's generic name is sildenafil
b- it's generic name is tildenafil
c- it's generic name is tadalafil
d- it's phosphdiesterase inhibitor
e- both B & D
88- Drug of choice in emergency lowering intraocular pressure
a- bethanecol
b- carbachol
c- pilocarpine
d- neostigmine
e- physostigmine
89- used as antimuscarinic in urology treatment
a- bethanecol
b-carbachol
c-pilocarpine
d-neostigmine
e-physostigmine
90- azelaic acid used for
a- diarrhea
b- constipation
c- antacid
d- antitussive
e- acne vulgaris
91- propantheline is
a- antispasmodic
b- anticholinergics
c- antimuscarinic
d- all of the above
e- non of the above
92- nor epinephrine
a- stimulate adrenergic receptors
b- increase contractility of heart
c- prolong action of local anesthetics
d- both A& B
e- all of the above
93- side effect of metronidazole
a- metallic taste
b- carcinogenicity
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c- mutagenicity
d- dark brown urine
e- all of the above
94- all make GIT upset except
a- phenytoin
b- carbamazepine
c- benzodiazepam
d- valproate
e- phenobarbitol
95- drug that induce impotence is
a- propranolol
b- azoles
c- cimetidine
d- thiazide
e- all of the above
96- condition contraindicate to take spironolactone
a- hyperkalemia
b- renal insufficiency
c- peptic ulcer
d- all of above
e- non of the above
97- safe to use with asthmatic patients
a-propranolol
b- atenolol
c- timolol
d- nadolol
e- carvdilol
98- Impetigo is
a- gram positive bacteria
b- infection of superficial layer of epidermis
c- it caused by s.aureus or streptococci pyogenes
d- It's treated with mupirocin oint. plus oral cephalexin
e- all of the above
99- patient prescriped salbutamol inhaler 2 puffs every 6 hours
you should tell him to
a- take 1 puff then expire then another puff
b- take 2 puffs after shake well
c- take 1 puff then 1 min &another puff then take water
d- start with expiration take 2 puffs followed by rapid inspiration
e- non of the above
100- vitamin C enhance the activity of drugs used to treat
a- H.pylori
b- fungal infection
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c- viral infection
d- non of the above
e- all of the above




















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Exam model 6
1. Which of the following drug used in treat congestive heart failure
(a) Isosorbid
(b) Metronidazole
(c) Amoxacillin
(d) Mannitol
(E) Non of the above
2. OTC mean
(a) Over the counter
(b) Drug that can be dispensed without prescrepition
(c) Drug that can not be dispensed without prescrepition
(d) Narcotic drugs
(E) Both A & B
3. Which of the following drug used in treatment of acne
(a) Aspirin
(b) Digitoxin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Hydrochlorothiazide
(E) Allopurinol
4. Patient suffer from peptic ulcer and want to take medicine for inflammatory
Arthritis Which of the following medication should be recommended
(a) Aspirin
(b) Celecoxib
(c) Ketoprofen
(d) Ibuprofen
(E) Indomethacin
5. Which of the following drug not belong to (NSAIDs)
(a) Aspirin
(b) Ibuprofen
(c) Ketoprofen
(d) Dexamethasone
(E) Diclofenac
6. Which of the following drug used in treatment of epilepsy
(a) Carbamazepine
(b) Phenytoin
(c) Phenobarbital
(d) Valporic acid
(E) All of above
7. Which of the following drug used in cancer chemotherapy
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Paracetamol
(c) Cyclophosphamide
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(d) Phenytoin
(E) Furosemide
8. Mechanism of action of (Potassium sparing diuretics) is
(a) Increase execreation of potassium in urine
(b) Increase execreation of sodium and water in urine
(c) decrease execreation of potassium in urine
(d) Decrease execeation of calcium in urine
(E) Both B&C
9. Generic name of vitamin A is
(a) Retinol
(b) Cyanocobalamine
(c) Cholecalciferol
(d) Thiamine
(E) Pyridoxine
10. Which of the following drug inhibit activity of hepatic enzyme
(a) Phenobarbital
(b) Aspirin
(c) Digitoxin
(d) Cimetidine
(E) Rifampicin
11. Which of the following drug increase activity of hepatic enzyme
(a) Phenytoin
(b) Rifampin
(c) Carbamazepine
(d) Phenobarbital
(E) All of above
12. Which of the following drug belong to H2 receptor antagonist
(a) Rantidine
(b) Loratadine
(c) Celecoxib
(d) Histadine
(E) omeprazole
13. Lorazepam used as
(a) Anti inflammatory
(b) tranquilizer
(c) Anti epileptic
(d) Anti-diabetic
(E) Both B&C
14. Rantidine belong to
(a) H1 receptor antagonist
(b) Loop diuretic
(c) H2 receptor antagonist
(d) B1 receptor antagonist
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(E) Proton pumb inhibitors
15. Vitamin B12 is used in treat
(a) Hypertension
(b) Prenicious anemia
(c) Sore throat
(d) Hypotension
(E) Gout
16. Which of the following drug consider as immunosuppressant
(a) Cyclosporin
(b) Metotrexate
(c) Azathioprine
(d) Cyclophosphamide
(E) All of above
17. Nitroglycerin used for
(a) Angina pectoris
(b) Sore throat
(c) UTI
(d) Hypertension
(E) Non of above
18. Which of the following drug is not contraindicated with aspirin
(a) Heparin
(b) Warfarin
(c) Gliclazide
(d) Erythromycin
(E) All of above
19. One of your freinds called you about an inpatient case. What will you till him?
(a) Guide him to ask the doctor
(b) Do not answer
(c) till him about the medication
(d) all of the above
(E) Non of above
20. If you find in your pharmacy adrug with apparent contamination you must
(a) till the productive company
(b) till the pharmacist
(c) till the hospital manager
(d) do not dispense this patch
(E) dispense this patch
21. Which of the following drops used in treatment glucoma (increase intra ocular
pressure)
(a) Chlormphenicol
(b) Dexamethasone
(c) Pilocarpine
(d) Atropine
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(E) Metformin
22. Leucopenia is condition in which
(a) Increase number of erythrocyte
(b) decrease number of leukocyte
(c) Increase number of leukocyte
(d) decrease number of erythrocyte
(E) change in all blood cells
23. Which of the following drug is used in treat gout
(a) Allopurinol
(b) Chlorpromazine
(c) Colchicine
(d) Minocycline
(E) Both A & C
24. Which of the following drug is used in treate HSV (herpes)
(a) Chlormphenicol
(b) Amoxicillin
(c) Aspirin
(d) Acyclovir
(E) Fluconazole
25. Which of the following antibiotic consider stronger
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Amoxacillin
(c) Benzylpenicillin
(d) Augmentin
(E) penicillin V
26. Which of the following drug belong to corticosteroid
(a) Aspirin
(b) Hydrocortisone
(c) Prednisolone
(d) Bumetanide
(E) Both B & C
27. Which of the following is consider hepatotoxic drug
(a) Alcohol
(b) Paracetamol
(c) Halothane
(d) Ketoconazole
(E) All of them
28. Which of the following drug is contraindicated with asthmatic patient
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Aspirin
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Amoxicillin
(E) Non of above
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29. Which of the following drug used in treatment TB
(a) Rifampin
(b) Phenytoin
(c) Prednisolone
(d) Aspirin
(E) Amlodipine
30. Which of the following drug used in treatment hypertension
(a) Noradrenaline
(b) Captopril
(c) Verapamil
(d) Both B & C
(E) All of above
31. Which of the following drug act as calcium channel blocker
(a) Aspirin
(b) Halothane
(c) Verapamil
(d) Hydrochlorothiazide
(E) Propranolol
32. Hypokalemia mean
(a) Increase sodium in human body
(b) decrease sodium in human body
(c) increase potassium in human body
(d) Decrease calcium in human body
(E) None of them
33. Decigram is equal
(a) 0,001 g
(b) 0,2 g
(c) 0,6 g
(d) 0,1 g
(E) Non of above
34. Decilitre is equal
(a) 0,001 L
(b) 0,2 L
(c) 0,6 L
(d) 0,1 L
(E) Non of above
35. Acyclovir used for
(a) HSV encephalitis
(b) Genital herpes infections
(c) Headache
(d) Hypertension
(E) Both A & B
36. Which of the following drug is antidote for morphine
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(a) Captopril
(b) Methadone
(c) Naloxone
(d) Codeine
(E) N-acetyl cystine
37. q.i.d mean
(a) Three time daily
(b) twice daily
(c) once daily
(d) four time daily
(E) at bed time
38. t.i.d mean
(a) Three time daily
(b) twice daily
(c) once daily
(d) four time daily
(E) at bed time
39. Patient use (Augmentin 250 mg Tablets) three time daily for one week
How many tablet this patient will consume
(a) 20 tablet
(b) 21 tablet
(c) 18 tablet
(d) 9 tablet
(E) 24 tablet
40. One of the following substance used in treatment of many toxic cases
(a) Aspirin
(b) Activated charcoal
(c) Timolol
(d) Paracetamol
(E) Diltiazem
41. Expiraion date of one drug is 8/2006
(a) 1/9/2006
(b) 1/8/2006
(c) 31/8/2006
(d) 15/8/2006
(E) 31/7/2006
42. Patient take drug A (250 ml/5mg). he take 1000 ml a.m. 750 ml p.m
He wi ll recei ve i n 20 days .. gm
(a) 700 gm
(b) 1250 gm
(c) 1000 gm
(d) 600 gm
(E) 900 gm
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43. Doctor .. phone you aski ng for dispensi ng addi ti ve drug wi thout
prescription
What will you do
(a) dispense the drug after ensuring patient state
(b) dispense the drug without ensuring patient state
(c) dispense the drug after ensuring doctor I.D.
(d) do not dispense the drug without prescription
(E) Non of above
44. Antiseptic contain 150 ml of active ingrident with supply label 5mg for 10 ml
How many mg of active ingrident in 150 ml?
(a) 75 mg
(b) 15 mg
(c) 1500 mg
(d) 50 mg
(E) 100 mg
45. The generic name of (Prozac) is
(a) Verapamil
(b) Timolol
(c) Fluoxetine
(d) Omperazole
(E) flucloxacillin
46. The generic name of (flagyl) is
(a) Mebendazole
(b) Amoxicillin
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Metronidazole
(E) Spironolactone
47. Percent Haemoglobin in man (g/dl) equal
(a) 12 - 16
(b) 11 - 15
(c) 8 - 12
(d) 14 - 18
(E) 10-12
48. Percent Haemoglobin in woman (g/dl) equal
(a) 10 - 12
(b) 8 - 10
(c) 5 - 10
(d) 12 - 16
(E) 14-18
49. Insulin preserved in
(a) room temperature
(b) high temperature
(c) refregerator temperature
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(d) freezing temperature
(E) preserved at any temperature
50. Insulin preserved in
(a) 5 centigrade
(b) 20 centigrade
(c) -10 centigrade
(d) 15 centigrade
(E) 10 centigrade
51. Hypercalcemia is
(a) Increase potassium in blood
(b) Increase calcium in blood
(c) decrease calcium in blood
(d) Increase sodium in blood
(E) decrease magnesium in blood
52. What is happen to elderly patient take (Glibenclamide) and advised by friend
To take (Glipizide) too
(a) hyperglycemia
(b) hypoglycemia
(c) hypotension
(d) No effect on blood pressure
(E) No effect on blood sugar
53. What is the drug of choice for headache in asthmatic patient ?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Salbutamol
(c) Diclofenac
(d) Paracetamol
(E) Ketotifen
54. Which of the following drug is used for hypertension
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Diltiazem
(c) Ibuprofen
(d) Salbutamol
(E) Acyclovir
55. Atenolol belong to
(a) blocker
(b) 1 - Blockers
(c) 2 - Blockers
(d) blocker
(E) 2 -agonist
56. Percent of potassium in blood
(a) 20 meq/L
(b) 1 meq/L
(c) 50 meq/L
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(d) 3.5 5 meq/L
(E) 10- 145 meq\L
57. Which of the following consider a source of entering information to computer
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Scanner
(d) All of the above
(E) Non of above
58. Which of the following consider a source to exit information from computer
(a) screen
(b) Audio video
(c) Printer
(d) All of the above
(E) Non of above
59. Ordinary prescription contain
(a) Morphine
(b) Hypnotics
(c) Pethidine
(d) Acetaminophen
(E) None of the above
60. Which of the following drug used in treatment HIV (AIDS)
(a) Zidovudine
(b) Verapamil
(c) Diltiazem
(d) Prednisolone
(E) All of above
61. What is instruction you should till patient on (Diclofenac 50 mg)
(a) Take it before meal
(b) Drink more tea and coffee
(c) Take it after meal
(d) Drink more citrus fruit
(E) Don't sleep after taking drug
62. (Prednisolone) administer as
3 days t.i.d. 1
3 days b.i.d. 1
3 days q.d. 1
how many tablet you will dispense?
(a) 9
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 12
(E) 21
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63. Female patient on (Neostigmine) want to be pregnant ,How long should she
separate between pregnancy and drug?
(a) 2 week
(b) 2 day
(c) 2 year
(d) 2 month
(E) it's safe to take this drug during pregnancy
64. Malaria transmitted by
(a) Male anopheles mosquito
(b) Female anopheles mosquito
(c) Rats
(d) Sand fly
(E) Sexually
65. Which of the following drug not belong to (NSAIDs)
(a) Aspirin
(b) Ibuprofen
(c) Dexamethasone
(d) Ketoprofen
(E) Mefenamic acid
66. (Ganciclovir) used for
(a) Virus infection
(b) Bacteria infection
(c) asthma
(d) rheumatism
(E) Fungal infection
67. OTC include
(a) Antibiotic
(b) tranquilizer
(c) Laxative
(d) Antiepileptic
(E) OHG drugs
68. OTC include
(a) Ibuprofen
(b) Diazepam
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Verapamil
(E) Both A &C
69. Which of the following drug belong to OTC :
(a) Tegretol
(b) Augmentin
(c) Valium
(d) Panadol
(E) None of the above
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70. Which of the following drug can used for (Giardiasis)
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Metronidazole
(c) Diosmin
(d) Ampicillin
(E) Non of above
71. Warfarin antidote is
(a) Aspirin
(b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
(E) Both A& B
72. One of your friend ask for some information about inpatient. What will your
answer?
(a) Till him about drug
(b) Till him about drug and diagnosis
(c) Till him about drug , diagnosis and his room number
(d) Do not till him any thing
(E) Non of above
73. After you dispense a prescription you find out a mistake What you will you do?
(a) Silence not aware
(b) Till hospital manager
(c) Till pharmacist
(d) Till patient immediately
(E) Non of above
74. Mannitol has the following charachter
(a) I.V can't taken orally
(b) Decrease intracranial pressure
(c) Decrease intraocular pressure
(d) It's osmotic diuretics
(E) All of the above
75. Vaccines preserved in temperature
(a) Room temperature
(b) Buttom shelf of refregerator
(c) Upper shelf of refregerator (under frezer)
(d) Freezing temperature
(E) Oven temperature
76. Urea used for treatment of
(a) Asthma
(b) Increase intracranial pressure
(c) diuretic
(d) Hypertension
(E) Both B & C
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77. Antihypertensive of choice in pregnancy is
(a) Methyl dopa
(b) Enalapril
(c) Atenolol
(d) Captopril
(E) Amlodipine
78. Generaly antibiotics are stored in
(a) Cold place
(b) Away from light
(c) Room temperature
(d) According to box instruction
(E) under 25 C
79. (Tetracycline) belong to
(a) H 2 - Blockers
(b) Antibiotics
(c) - Blockers
(d) - Blockers
(E) Cytotoxic drugs
80. Which of the following belong to antihypertensive
(a) Inderal
(b) Buscopan
(c) Flagyl
(d) Diamicron
(E) Zovirax
81. Propranolol belong to
(a) - agonist
(b) - Blockers
(c) - agonist
(d) 1 Blockers
(E) CCBs
82. Spironolactone belong to
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Antihistamines
(c) Diuretics
(d) Sedatives
(E) Calcium channel blockers
83. Spironolactone belong to
(a) Thiazide diuretics
(b) Osmotic diuretics
(c) Potassium sparing diuretics
(d) Loop diuretics
(E) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
84. Vitamine (B1) generic name is
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(a) Retinol
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Phytomenadione
(d) Thiamine
(E) Riboflavin
85. Vitamine (B2) generic name is
(a) Retinol
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Phytomenadione
(d) Riboflavin
(E) Thiamine
86. Vitamine (K) generic name is
(a) Retinol
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Phytomenadione
(d) Niacin
(E) Tocopherol
87. Duration of treatment for TB is
(a) 2 month
(b) 4 month
(c) 6-9 month
(d) 2 years
(E) 4 years
88. Capoten it's generic name is
(a) Enalapril
(b) Verapamil
(c) Atenolol
(d) Captopril
(E) Chorothiazide
89. Which of the following drug used in treatment AIDS
(a) Zocor
(b) Zovirax
(c) Zaditine
(d) Zidovudine
(E) Zinnat
90. Which of the following drug used to manage hypertension
(a) Noradrenaline
(b) Captopril
(c) Verapamil
(d) Ofloxacin
(E) Both B & C
91. Which of the following drug consider diuretic
(a) Aspirin
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(b) Halothane
(c) Hydrochlorothiazide
(d) Verapamil
(E) Florouracil
92. Rifampicin turn urine color into
(a) Red
(b) Yellow
(c) White
(d) Blue
(E) No change in its color
93. Acyclovir used for
(a) Rheumatism
(b) Bacteria infection
(c) Parasitic infection
(d) Virus infection
(E) Fungal infection
94. Vitamine (C) generic name is
(a) Retinol
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Phytomenadione
(d) Riboflavin
(E) Menadione
95. Drug of choice (D.O.C) of Ascariasis is
(a) Metronidazole
(b) Verapamil
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Mebendazole
(E) Chloroquine
96. Which of the following route give 100% bioavailability
(a) SC
(b) IM
(c) Oral
(d) IV
(E) ID
97. Hepatitis B vaccination per year is
(a) 3 time
(b) 2 time
(c) 1 time
(d) 5 time
(E) Every 2 monthes
98. Fat soluble vitamins include
(a) A & D
(b) A & C
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(c) B& K
(d) B &C
(E) Non of above
99. Water soluble vitamins include
(a) A & C
(b) D & K
(c) B & C
(d) B & D
(E) E
100. Maximum dose of (Paracetamol) per day is
(a) 10 gram
(b) 4 mg
(c) 3 gram
(d) 4 gram
(E) 500 mg














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Exam model 7
1. Maximum dose of (Paracetamol 500 mg tablet) for adult in day
(a) 10 tablet
(b) 7 tablet
(c) 8 tablet
(d) 4 tablet
(E) 2 tablet
2. Barium sulfate is used for
(a) Treatment constipation
(b) Treatment diarrhea
(c) Treatment dry cough
(d) In radiology diagnosis
(E) treatment of DM
3. Maximum dose of (Captopril) is
(a) 10 mg
(b) 75 mg
(c) 80 mg
(d) 150 mg
(E) 50 mg
4. Maximum dose of (Captopril 50 mg ) is
(a) 4 tablet
(b) 3 tablet
(c) 10 tablet
(d) 6 tablet
(E) 2 tablet
5. To prevent absorbtion of toxic substance we can use
(a) Activated charcoal
(b) Captopril
(c) Loratadine
(d) Aspirin
(E) furosemide
6. The first choice for Type 2 diabetes
(a) Analgesics
(b) Insulin
(c) NSAIDs
(d) Sulfonylurea
(E) H2 blockers
7. The first choice for Type 1 diabetes
(a) Analgesics
(b) Sulfonylurea
(c) NSAIDs
(d) Insulin
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(E) H2 blockers
8. (Theophylline) used as
(a) Bronchoconstrictor
(b) Antihistaminic
(c) Antiviral
(d) Brochdilator
(E) Anti tussive
9. Which of the fol lowing drug cant be used during pregnancy
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Amoxicillin
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Ciprofloxacillin
(E) Erythromycin
10. Cefaclor belong to
(a) Thiazide diuretics
(b) Penicillins
(c) Potassium sparing diuretics
(d) Cephalosporines
(E) NSAIDs
11. Cefaclor belong to
(a) 1st generation Cephalosporines
(b) 2nd generation Cephalosporines
(c) 3rd generation Cephalosporines
(d) 4th generation Cephalosporines
(E) 2nd generation quinolones
12. The generic name of (Voltaren) is
(a) Aspirin
(b) Diosmin
(c) Diclofenac
(d) Piroxicam
(E) Domperidone
13. (Voltaren) uses are
(a) Analgesic fot teeth pain
(b) Anti inflammatory for arthritis
(c) Analgesic for headache
(d) It's NSAIDs
(E) All of them
14. (Zantac) generic name is
(a) Rantidine
(b) Cimetidine
(c) Rantidol
(d) Famotidine
(E) Omeprazole
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15. (Zantac) used for
(a) Peptic ulcer
(b) Hyperacidity
(c) Hypertension
(d) Diarrhea
(E) Both A & B
16. Which of the following drug is hepatotoxic
(a) Indometacin
(b) Aspirin
(c) Ibuprofen
(d) Paracetamol
(E) Chlorothazide
17. Which of the following drug is contraindicated with renal failure
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Gentamycin
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Ketoconazole
(E) Both A & B
18. (Sumatriptan) is used for
(a) Migraine
(b) CHF
(c) Hypertension
(d) Angina treatment
(E) Gout
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19. (Nitrofurantoin) is used for
(a) UTI
(b) renal failure
(c) analgesics
(d) TB
(E) Leprosy
20. Cimetidine is used for
(a) peptic ulcer
(b) prophylaxis from peptic ulcer
(c) duodenal ulcer
(d) GERD disease
(E) all of them
21. (Ventolin) ) generic name is
(a) Aspirin
(b) Cimetidine
(c) Diclofenac
(d) Salbutamol
(E) Paracetamol
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22. (Ventolin) ) is used for
(a) Migraine
(b) Hypotension
(c) Brochial asthma
(d) Headache
(E) Hypertension
23. Which of the following drug is used in treat dehydration because of
diarrhea
(a) Aspirin
(b) ORS ( oral rehydration solution )
(c) Furosemide
(d) Hydrochlorothiazide
(E) Kaloin
24. Which of the following drug is used in treate M.TB
(a) Rifampicin
(b) Ethambutol
(c) Isoniazide
(d) Streptomycin
(E) All of them
25. Which of the following used for thyroid deficiency
(a) Aspirin
(b) Carbimazole
(c) Thyroxine sodium
(d) Radioactive iodine
(E) Lugol iodine
26. Which of the following used for thyroid deficiency
(a) Liothyronine
(b) Levothyroxine sodium
(c) Thyroxine sodium
(d) Liotrix
(E) All of them
27. Which of the following used for hyperthyroidism
(a) Propylthiouracil
(b) Carbimazole
(c) Radioactive iodine
(d) Lugol iodine
(E) All of them
28. Which of the following used for Thyrotoxicosis
(a) Levothyroxine sodium
(b) Iodine
(c) Radioactive iodine
(d) Liotrix
(E) Both B & C
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29. (Gliclazide) is used for management of
(a) Hypertension
(b) Hyperglycemia
(c) Hypoglycemia
(d) Migraine
(E) Hypotension
30. (Gliclazide) it's trade name is
(a) Diamicron
(b) Amoxil
(c) Minidiab
(d) Ventolin
(E) Glucophage
31. (Nifedipine) it'strade name is
(a) Tenormin
(b) Ateno
(c) Adalat
(d) Ventolin
(E) Edemix
32. (Augmentin) generic name is
(a) Amoxicillin / Paracetamol
(b) Amoxicillin / Potassium clavulanate
(c) Benzylpenicillin / Potassium clavulanate
(d) Ampicillin / Potassium clavulanate
(E) Amoxicilli / Sulbactam
33. (Co-trimoxazole) is composed of
(a) Trimethoprim
(b) Sulfamethoxazole
(c) Salbutamol
(d) Trimethoprim / Sulfamethoxazole
(E) Non of above
34. Which of the following drug belong to (Aminoglycosides)
(a) Amikacin
(b) Neomycin
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Kanamycin
(E) All of the above
35. Which of the following formula belong to solid dosage form
(a) Tablets
(b) Capsules
(c) Suspensions
(d) Syrups
(E) Both A & B
36. Which of the following formula belong to liquid dosage form
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(a) Solutions
(b) Powders
(c) Suppsitories
(d) Tablets
(E) Capsules
37. (Clarithromycin) it's trade name is
(a) Ventolin
(b) Amoxil
(c) Klacid
(d) Vibramycin
(E) Zinnat
38. Which of the following drug consider (antidote) for (heparin)
(a) Warfarin
(b) Protamine sulfate
(c) Phenindione
(d) Aspirin
(E) Vitamin K
39. (Vitamin B 6) scientific name is
(a) Niacin
(b) Riboflavin
(c) Pyridoxine
(d) Thiamine
(E) Cobolamie
40. (Acetazolamide) used for
(a) Glaucoma
(b) Hypotension
(c) Asthma
(d) Diarrhea
(E) Hepatitis
41. (Acetazolamide) it's trade name
(a) Lasix
(b) Diamox
(c) Aldactone
(d) Bumex
(E) Non of above
42. (Susp.) abbreviation mean
(a) Suppository
(b) Suspension
(c) Solution
(d) Syrup
( E) Solid dosage form
43. (Sol.) abbreviation mean
(a) Suppository
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(b) Suspension
(c) Solution
(d) Syrup
(E) Solid dosage form
44. (Nasal drops) mean drop for
(a) Eye
(b) Nose
(c) Ear
(d) Mouse
(E) Both A & C
45. Who can not use aspirin (contraindicated)
(a) Angina
(b) Gastric ulcer
(c) Hemophilia
(d) Headace
(E) Both B & C
46. (Amoxil) generic name
(a) Amoxicillin / Potassium clavulanate
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Flucloxacillin
(d) Amoxicillin
(E) Amoxicillin/Sulbactam
47. (Bid) mean
(a) Once Daily
(b) Twice Daily
(c) Three time Daily
(d) Four time Daily
(E) At bed time
48. (IM) mean
(a) Intravenous
(b) Intramuscular
(c) Subcutaneous
(d) Intradermal
(E) Intra-arterial
49. (sos) mean
(a) don not repeat
(b) Four time Daily
(c) Twice Daily
(d) as needed (when necessary)
(E) Before meals
50. (Dextrose 5%) means
(a) 5 mg dextrose per 100 ml solvent
(b) 5 gram dextrose per 1000 ml solvent
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(c) 5 gram dextrose per 100 ml solvent
(d) 5 kilogram dextrose per 100 ml solvent
(E) 5 mg dextrose per 1000ml solvent
51. (Sodium chloride % 0.9) mean
(a) 0.9 mg Sodium chloride per 100 ml solvent
(b) 0.9 kilogram Sodium chloride per 100 ml solvent
(c) 0.9 gram Sodium chloride per 1000 ml solvent
(d) 0.9 gram Sodium chloride per 100 ml solvent
(E) 0.9 mg Sodium chloride per 1000 ml solvent
52. (Claritine)it's generic name
(a) Histadine
(b) Loratadine
(c) Chorpheniramine
(d) Adrenaline
(E) Chlorothiazide
53. (Claritine) used as
(a) Antihypertensive
(b) Antirheumatic
(c) Antihistaminic
(d) Antibiotic
(E) Diuretics
54. (Aspirin) generic name is
(a) Acetylbutyric acid
(b) Paracetamol
(c) Mefenamic acid
(d) Acetylsalcylic acid
(E) Acetaminophen
55. (Metoclopramide) belong to
(a) Antiemetic
(b) Antiepileptic
(c) Antihistaminic
(d) Anti diarrheal
(E) Analgesics
56. (Metoclopramide) it's trade name is
(a) Motinorm
(b) Motilium
(c) Primperan
(d) Amoxil
(E) Mycogel
57. Which of the following drug can be used in management constipation
(a) Diclofenac
(b) Glycerin suppositories
(c) Ibuprofen
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(d) Paracetamol
( E) Loperamide
58. Which of the following drug can be used in management constipation
(a) Glycerin suppositories
(b) Duphlac syrup
(c) Dulcolax
(d) Senalax
(E) All of the above
59. Which of the following drug can be used for rheumatic patient
(a) Ibuprofen
(b) Diclofenac
(c) Indometacin
(d) Ketoprofen
(E) All of the above
60. (Glucophage)it's generic name is
(a) Glibenclamide
(b) Tolbutamide
(c) Metformin
(d) Gliclazide
(E) Glimepiride
61. (Buscopan) it's generic name is
(a) Atropine
(b) Hyoscine (Scopolamine)
(c) Atenolol
(d) Pilocarpine
(E) Paracetamol
62. (Allopurinol) it's Trade name is
(a) Profenid
(b) Ketofan
(c) Zyloric
(d) Voltaren
(E) Cholchicine
63. (Cephalexin) it's (Trade name) is
(a) Keflex
(b) Velosef
(c) Amoxil
(d) Duricef
(E) Cidophage
64. (Captopril)it's (Trade name) is
(a) Tenormin
(b) Capoten
(c) Lasix
(d) Adalat
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(E) Avadia
65. Which of the following drug belong to (Penicillins)
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Flucloxacillin
(d) Cloxacillin
(E) All of the above
66. Convert temperature 59 Fahrenheit to Celsius
(a) 25
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 20
(E) 10
67. (Lasix)it's generic name is
(a) Captopril
(b) Atenolol
(c) Furosemide
(d) Hydrochlorothiazide
(E) Bumetaide
68. (Lasix) used as
(a) Diuretic
(b) Antirheumatic
(c) Antidiarrheal
(d) Antibiotics
(E) Both A &C
69. (Simvastatin) it's trade name is
(a) Zocor
(b) Amoxil
(c) Mevacor
(d) Lipitor
(E) Ator
70. (Nizoral)it's generic name is
(a) Ketoconazole
(b) Fluconazole
(c) Miconazole
(d) Glibenclamide
(E) Nizatidine
71. Warfarin antidote
(a) Aspirin
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K
(E) Protamine sulfate
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72. Which of the following drug belong to Long acting (Tetracyclines)
(a) Chlortetracycline
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Minocycline
(d) Erythromycin
(E) Both B & C
73. (Questran)it's generic name is
(a) Cholestyramine A
(b) Simvastatin
(c) Atrovastatin
(d) Niacin
(E) Clostipol
74. (Simvastatin) used for
(a) Decrease blood sugar
(b) Decrease calcium in blood
(c) Antihyperlipidemic
(d) Decrease sodium in blood
(E) Decrease blood pressure
75. (Aldomet)it's generic name is
(a) Verapamil
(b) Atenolol
(c) Captopril
(d) Methyl dopa
(E) Propranolol
76. (Zovirax)it's generic name is
(a) Interferon
(b) Zidovudine
(c) Acyclovir
(d) Oxytetracycline
(E) Nystatin
77. (Brufen)it's generic name is
(a) Mefenamic acid
(b) Ketoprofen
(c) Diclofenac
(d) Ibuprofen
(E) Mefenamic acid
78. (Daonil)it's generic name is
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Gliclazide
(c) Metformin
(d) Glipenclamide
(E) Glimipride
79. What is the text books should be available in pharmacy
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(a) Martindale
(b) British national formulary
(c) Middle east medical index
(d) America pharmacopia
(E) all of the above
80. Which of the following drug belong to Second generation
Cephalosporines
(a) Cephalexin
(b) Cefuroxime
(c) Cephadroxil
(d) Cefipime
(E) All of above
81. Which of the following drug belong to first generation Cephalosporines
(a) Cephalexin
(b) Cephadroxil
(c) Cephazolin
(d) Cephradine
(E) All of above
82. Which of the following drug belong to third generation Cephalosporines
(a) Cefoperazone
(b) Cefotaxime
(c) Cefixime
(d) Ceftriaxone
(E) all of the above
83. Aspirin can be used as
(a) Analgesic
(b) Antipyretic
(c) Anti inflammatory
(d) Anti-platlet
(E) All of the above
84. (Metformin) used for treatment of
(a) Hypertension
(b) Hypotension
(c) Hyperglycemia
(d) Hypoglycemia
(E) Hyperlipidemia
85. Which of the following drug used in treatment epilepsy
(a) Phenytoin
(b) Diclofenac
(c) Heparin
(d) Atenolol
(E) Metformin
86. Which of the following drug used in treatment hypertension
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(a) Paracetamol
(b) Ibuprofen
(c) Heparin
(d) Diltiazem
(E) Famotidine
87. (Cefipime) belong to
(a) 1st generation cephalosporin
(b) 2nd generation cephalosporin
(c) 3rd generation cephalosporin
(d) 4th generation cephalosporin
(E) 4th generation quinolones
88. Which of the following drug does not belong to (Tetracyclines)
(a) Chlortetracycline
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Doxycycline
(d) Clindamycin
(E) Minocycline
89. Which of the following drug does not used in treat amebiasis
(a) Diloxanide Furoate
(b) Gentamicin
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Iodoquinol
(E) Emetine
90. All of the following are consider insulin side effect
(a) Hypersensitivity
(b) Hypoglycemic coma
(c) Atrophy at site of injection
(d) Weight gain
(E) All of them are true
91. Which of the following consider antivirus
(a) Acyclovir
(b) Interferons
(c) Amantadine
(d) Zidovidine
(E) All of the above
92. Patient suffer from wheezing and want to recipe prescription of
(inderal) tablet
(a) Prescripe it
(b) Prescripe antiasthmatic drug
(c) Ask patient about his illness
(d) Do not prescripe prescription and ask him to return to physician
(E) Non of above
93. Which of the following consider nephrotoxic drug
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(a) Gentamycin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Oxytetracycline
(d) Kanamycin
(E) All of the above
94. Which of the following drug used for prostatitis
(a) Aldosterone
(b) Insulin
(c) Finasteride
(d) Paracetamol
(E) Cimetidine
95. Sources of insulin include
(a) Cows
(b) Pigs
(c) Escherichia coli (E. coli)
(d) Human
(E) All of the above
96. All consider true about Tetracycline except:-
(a) Orally active
(b) Bactericidal
(c) Use for treat acne
(d) Excreted in urine
(E) All are true
97. Type 2 diabetes characterized by
(a) Inability for producing insulin
(b) Insufficient amount of produced insulin
(c) Decrease sensitivity of insulin receptor
(d) Occurs during pregnacy
(E) Both B & C
98. If Olive oil, ASA &Water in the same formula the product is
(a) Emulsion
(b) Elixir
(c) Suspension
(d) Solution
(E) Paste
99. What the concenteration of NaCl in Dextrose 5 % half normal saline,
D5 1/ 2 NS
(a) 1.8 %
(b) 0.9 %
(c) 0.225 %
(d) 0.45 %
(E) 5 %
100. Which of the following is the fastest dosage form
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(a) IM injection
(b) ID injection
(c) IV injection
(d) SC injection
(E) IA injection



















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Exam model 8
1) (Simvastatin) according to FDA consider (Pregnancy Category x)
(a) Can be used during first trimester
(b) Can be used under medical supervision
(c) Absolutely contraindicated
(d) Safely used during pregnancy
(E) Can be used after first trimester
2) Antidote for (Digoxin) toxicity is
(a) IV Normal Saline
(b) Digibind
(c) Activated Charcoal
(d) Digitoxin
(E) Protamine sulfate
3) The site of (Intra-thecal injection ) is
(a) J oint
(b) Skin
(c) IntraMusclular
(d) Directly in spinal cord
(E) Directly in blood veins
4) Which of the following cause intravenous incompatibility if taken with
(Dextrose)
(a) Insulin
(b) Cefazolin
(c) Ceftriaxone
(d) Phenytoin
(E) All of above
5) Mechanism of (Drug-Drug interactions) include
(a) Enzyme induction
(b) Formation of unabsorbed complex
(c) Plasma protein displacement
(d) Enzyme inhibitors
(E) All of the above
6) One of the following is (Natural emulsifying agent)
(a) Lactose
(b) Polysorbate
(c) Acacia
(d) Sorbitol
(E) Glycerin
7) PH for ocular preparation range from
(a) 2 - 3
(b) 4 - 6
(c) 6 - 8
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(d) >8
(E) 5.5
8) 1 grain equal
(a) 50 Gram
(b) 10 Gram
(c) 0.60 Gram
(d) 0.065 Gram
(E) Non af above
9) How many gram needed from water to prepare 160 gram from potassium
acetate (5 % W/W)
(a) 100
(b) 130
(c) 135
(d) 152
(E) 125
10) How many gram needed from substance (X) to prepare 30 ml solution
(1:1000)
(a) 10 mg
(b) 30 mg
(c) 300 mg
(d) 0.03 mg
(E) 1000 mg
11) Female (22 years old ) with advanced acne recommended to take
(Roaccutance) what is the procedure you do before dispence this drug
(a) Identify her weight
(b) Ask if she is pregnant
(c) Dispense the drug without precautious
(d) Ask her doctor to change this drug
(E) Don't dispense this drug
12) (QOD) abbreviation means
(a) Every four days
(b) Four times a day
(c) Every other day
(d) Every day
(E) At bed time
13) (Cerivastatin) with drawn from saudi because mortal effect on
(a) Muscles
(b) Bone
(c) Blood
(d) C.N.S
(E) Liver
14) (cytotec) was restricted to use because
(a) Decrease patient weight
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(b) Cause patient to suicide
(c) Cause mythenia gravis
(d) Cause Abortion
(E) Cause cardiac shock
15) (Ibuprofen) maximum dose is
(a) 800 mg
(b) 3000 mg
(c) 1600 mg
(d) 3200 mg
(E) 600 mg
16) According to ministery of health instruction, narcotic drug prescription
should be dispenced only if
(a) Clearly contain patient name, number
(b) Clearly contain doctor name, number and signature
(c) Dispense during 3 days only from prescription date
(d) Dispense the exact drug wiithout alternatives
(E) All of the above
17) Which of the following not belong to (NSAIDs)
(a) Tilcotil
(b) Parafon
(c) Naproxen
(d) Ibuprofen
(E) Indomethacin
18) Patient on (Amiloride) and prescribed to take (Captopril) what the
expected side effect will happen ?
(a) Hyperkalemia
(b) Hyponatremia
(c) Hypertension
(d) Hypercalcemia
(E) Hypermagnesemia
19) (Cefuroxime) belong to
(a) Penicillins
(b) Quinolones
(c) First generation cephalosporin
(d) Second generation cephalosporin
(E) Sulphonamide
20) Which of the following will cause constipation as side effect
(a) Augmentin
(b) Multivitamins
(c) Morphine
(d) Diphenhydramine
(E) Paracetamol
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21) Infants ( 2 month old ) suffer from fever and nasal congestion what will
you advice his father
(a) Ask him to take (Paracetamol & Actifed)
(b) Ignore the case
(c) Put him under supervision for 48 hr.
(d) Advise him to take the infant to hospital
(E) Advise him to put cold cotton on baby face
22) (Micromedex) is
(a) New antihypertensive drug
(b) New antidepressant drug
(c) New medicine book
(d) Computer programe contain drugs name, classification, uses
(E) New pharmacological book
23) (Viagra) generic name is
(a) Atenolol
(b) Sildenafil
(c) Amoxicillin
(d) Silfinadil
(E) Propranolol
24) What is the proper question to patient dispence ( Viagra )
(a) How old are you?
(b) What is your name?
(c) Only Dispense the drug
(d) If he take nitroglycerin
(E) If he is a diabetic patient
25) All of tthem consider OTC drug except
(a) Tegretol
(b) Bisacodyl
(c) Molax
(d) Aspirin
(E) Paracetamol
26) Absorbtion of (Tetracycline) with (Al+++ & Fe++) lead to
(a) Active absorbable complex
(b) Inactive absorbable complex
(c) Active less absorbable complex
(d) Inactive in absorbable complex
(E) No interaction between them
27) Patient on tetracycline what is your advice about drinking milk?
(a) Separate between them by 10 minute
(b) Nothing is important
(c) Take them with each other
(d) Separate between them by at least 2 hour
(E) No interaction between them
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28) Which of the following (Insulin) can be taken intravenously
(a) Lente insulin
(b) NPH insulin
(c) Human mixtard 30/70 insulin
(d) Regular insulin
(E) All of above
29) Which of the following (Insulin) has duration of (12 24 ) hr.
(a) Lente insulin
(b) Insulin Lispro
(c) Human mixtard 30/70 insulin
(d) Regular insulin
(E) NPH insulin
30) The most important side effect of insulin over dose
(a) Skin atrophy at site of injection
(b) Hypoglycemia
(c) Hypertension
(d) Hyperglycemia
(E) Hypotension
31) The most caustive organism of (UTI) is
(a) Amoeba
(b) Gram positive & negative microorganisms
(c) Gram negative microorganisms
(d) Gram positive microorganisms
(E) Psudomonas
32) All of them belong to (Macrolides) except
(a) Clindamycin
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Azithromycin
(d) Clarithromycin
(E) Non of above
33) All of them belong to (ACE inhibitors) except
(a) Captopril
(b) Lisonopril
(c) Ramipril
(d) Nifedipine
(E) Enalopril
34) Paracetamol dose for pediatric ( 5 years old )
(a) 500 mg every 6 h
(b) 500 mg every 8 h
(c) 10 15 mg/Kg every 4 6 h a day
(d) 700 mg every 10 h
(E) 4 gm per day
35) What is the recommended dose foe vitamin A deficiency?
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(a) 500 IU
(b) 100 IU
(c) 10 IU
(d) 50000 IU
(E) 10000 IU
36) (Valproic acid) used for treatment of
(a) Anemia
(b) Epilepsy
(c) Depression
(d) Headache
(E) Hypertension
37) Thrombocytopenia mean:
(a) Decrease number of red blood cells
(b) Decrease number of white blood cells
(c) Increase number of platelet
(d) Decrease number of platelets
(E) Decrease number of lymphocyte
38) Which of the following drug belong to (Ca-Channel Blockers) ?
(a) Captopril
(b) Diltiazem
(c) Atenolol
(d) Sotalol
(E) Amiloride
39) Which of the following drug belong to local anathesia
(a) Lidocaine
(b) Spironolactone
(c) Insulin
(d) Ampicillin
(E) Verapamil
40) One of the following substance used as antidote for paracetamol toxicity
(a) Aspirin
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Atenolol
(d) N-acetylcysteine
(E) Protamine sulfate
41) Which of the following drug not contraindicated with pregnancy
(a) Captopril
(b) Ciprofloxacin
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Amoxicillin
(E) Nifidipine
42) Regular insulin is characterized by
(a) Clear
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(b) Colorless
(c) Watery
(d) Non of above
(E) All of the above
43) Atropine belong to
(a) choline esterase inhibitor
(b) direct acting cholinomimetic
(c) sympatholytic drug
(d) cholinergic agonist ( antimuscarinic )
(E) Neuro-muscular blocker
44) (Benzyl peroxide) uses
(a) Expectorant
(b) Anti-emetics ( chemically induced vomiting in cancer chemotherapy )
(c) Acne preparation
(d) Migraine
(E) Hyper tension
45) (Ondasetron) uses
(a) Expectorant
(b) Anti-emetics ( chemically induced vomiting in cancer chemotherapy )
(c) Acne preparation
(d) Migraine
(E) Hypertension
46) Preparation containing NaCl 10 % with water this pharmaceutical form is
(a) Lotion
(b) Suspension
(c) Solution
(d) Emulsion
(E) Paste
47) Which of the following drug belong to catecholamine
(a) Epinephrine
(b) Norepinrphrine
(c) Dopamine
(d) Both A& B
(E) All of the above
48) Furosemide belong to
(a) Thiazide diuretics
(b) Osmotic diuretics
(c) Loop diuretics
(d) Potassium sparing diuretics
(E) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
49) 49. Generic name of Zestril is
(a) Lisinopril
(b) Enalopril
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(c) Ramipril
(d) Captopril
(E) None of them
50) Generic name of tritace is
(a) Lisinopril
(b) Enalopril
(c) Ramipril
(d) Atenolol
(E) None of them
51) The . Route offer instantaneous and compl ete absorbtion
(a) Topical
(b) Oral
(c) I.V
(d) I.M
(E) Vaginal
52) Drugs administered by . Are exposed to first pass
metabolism
(a) Topically
(b) Orally
(c) I.V
(d) I.M
(E) Rectally
53) The drug may be metabolized by
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Intestine
(d) Both A & B
(E) None of the above
54) The drug and its metabolites are eliminated from body in
(a) Urine
(b) Feces
(c) Bile
(d) Sweet
(E) All of the above
55) The therapeutic index (TI) can be defined as :
(a) Toxic / effective dose
(b) Toxic - effective dose
(c) Toxic +effective dose
(d) Toxic effective dose
(E) None of the above
56) Which one of these is aprodrug?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Erythromycin
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(c) Levodopa
(d) Ibuprofen
(E) All of the above
57) Pharmacokinetics include
(a) Absorption
(b) Metabolism
(c) Execretion
(d) distribution
(E) All of the above
58) Bioavailability is defined as
(a) The action of the body on the drug
(b) Rate & extent to which drug enters systemic circulation
(c) Remove the drug from the body
(d) The action of drug on the body
(E) All of the above
59) If 100 mg of the drug is administered orally and 70mg of this drug is
absorbed unchanged the bioavailability is
(a) 100 %
(b) 10 %
(c) 70 %
(d) 30 %
(E) 90 %
60) Total body clerancy is the sum of the clerance from :
(a) Hepatic
(b) Renal
(c) Pulmonary
(d) All of the above
(E) Non of above
61) The nervous system is divided into
(a) Centeral nervous system and peripheral nervous system
(b) peripheral nervous system only
(c) Brain
(d) Spinal cord
(E) Sympathetic & parasympathetic system
62) Type I diabetes use
(a) Insulin
(b) Glibenclamide
(c) Metformin
(d) Both A & B
(E) None of the above
63) Type II diabetes mainly use
(a) Insulin
(b) Sulphonyl urea
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(c) Metformin
(d) Both B&C
(E) All of above
64) Side effect of insulin are
(a) Local reaction
(b) Hypoglycemia
(c) Fat atrophy at the injection site
(d) Weight gain
(E) All of the above
65) Which one of these drug is cough suppressant
(a) Dextromethorphan
(b) Captopril
(c) Pilocarpine
(d) Dexamethasone
(E) Guaifenesin
66) Theophylline is
(a) Bronchodilator
(b) 2 agonist
(c) Causes bradycardia
(d) All of the above
(E) Non of above
67) Epinephrine is indicated for
(a) Anaphylactic shock
(b) Asthma
(c) Nasal decongestant
(d) All of the above
(E) Non of above
68) Timolol is indicated for
(a) Hypertension
(b) Glaucoma
(c) CHF
(d) Both A&B
(E) None of the above
69) Which of the following drug can cause addiction ?
(a) Phenobarbitol
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Iodine
(d) Furosemide
(E) Acetyl choline
70) All of these medication are general anathesia except
(a) Nitrous oxide
(b) Diazepam
(c) Metronidazole
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(d) Morphine
(E) Thiopental
71) Which one of these drug used for treatment schizophrenia
(a) Chloropromazine
(b) Clozapine
(c) Haloperidol
(d) Risperidone
(E) All of them
72) All of these medication are used in epilepsy except
(a) Carbamazepine
(b) Furosemide
(c) Diazepam
(d) Phenytoin
(E) Gabapentin
73) Captopril is
(a) ACE Is
(b) Used for treat congestive heart failure
(c) CCBs
(d) Both A &B
(E) None of the above
74) Diuretics drugs
(a) Furosemide
(b) Indicated for treatment of hypertension and edema
(c) Spironolactone
(d) Dorzolamide
(E) All of the above
75) Antianginal drugs
(a) Nitroglycerin
(b) Isosorbid dinitrate
(c) Manitol
(d) Both A &B
(E) None of the above
76) All of these medication are used as antihypertensive except
(a) Amlodipine
(b) Atenolol
(c) Timolol
(d) Ferrous gluconate
(E) Captopril
77) Agents used in anemias
(a) Ferrous gluconate
(b) Vitamine B12
(c) Folic acid
(d) All of the above
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(E) Non of above
78) Anticoagulants
(a) Reduce formation of fibrin clot
(b) Heparin
(c) Warfarin
(d) Inhibit development of clot
(E) All of the above
79) Antiplatelet drugs
(a) Increase bleeding time
(b) Aspirin
(c) Cloxacillin
(d) Treat parasitic infection
(E) Both A & B
80) Drugs for tratment hyperlipidemia
(a) lovastatin
(b) mebendazole
(c) lorazepam
(d) none of the above
(E) All of above
81) Aspirin
(a) Acetyl salicylic acid
(b) Contraindicate in peptic ulcer
(c) Used for pain, inflammation, and fever
(d) It is from NSAIDs
(E) All of the above
82) Which of the following belong to NSAIDs
(a) Ibuprofen
(b) Naproxen
(c) Indomethacin
(d) Mefenamic acid
(E) All of the above
83) Drugs used in treatment of asthma
(a) Aminophylline
(b) Beclomethasone
(c) Cimitidine
(d) Digoxin
(E) Both A & B
84) Selective of the most appropriate antimicrobial agent requires of:
(a) The organism identity and sensitivity to particular agent
(b) The site of infection
(c) The safety of agent and patient factor
(d) Pregnancy status
(E) All of the above
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85) Penicillin and cephalosporin
(a) Major antibiotic that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
(b) Called beta-lactams
(c) The microbial resistance poses constant challenge to the use of antimicrobial
(d) All of the above
(E) Non of above
86) Amoxicillin and ampicillin
(a) Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
(b) Used for treatment of infection caused by gram positive and negative
(c) Contraindicated in patient with penicillin hypersensitivity
(d) Bactericidal
(E) All of the above
87) Which of the following statement is correct about cephalosporin
(a) They are classified into four generation
(b) Does not used for treatment of UTI
(c) Cefoxitin is cephalosporin derivative
(d) Both A & C
(E) All of above
88) Protein synthesis inhibitor
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Gentamycin
(c) Clarithromycin
(d) Chloramphenicol
(E) All of the above
89) Ciprofloxacin is
(a) Fluroquinolone
(b) Bactericidal
(c) Inhibit DNA
(d) Inhibit G+ve &G-ve bacteria
(E) All of the above
90) Which one of the following drug is not antifungal
(a) Naproxen
(b) Amphotericin B
(c) Miconazole
(d) Nystatin
(E) Grisofulvin
91) Which of the following drug is not antiviral
(a) Amantidine
(b) Acyclovir
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Ribovirin
(E) Zidovudine
92) Which of the following drug used for AIDS
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(a) Metronidazole
(b) Zidovudine
(c) Metochlopramide
(d) Clemastin
(E) Flucytosin
93) Which of the following drugs are disinfectants ?
(a) Chlorohexidine
(b) Cresol
(c) Iodine
(d) Hydrogen peroxide
(E) All of the above
94) Drugs used for treatment of allergies
(a) Chloropheneramine maleate
(b) Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
(c) Indomethacin
(d) Nitroglycerin
(E) Both A & B
95) Which of the following drug are used for treatment of constipation?
(a) Bisacodyl
(b) Magnesium sulfate
(c) Castor oil
(d) Laculose
(E) All of the above
96) Drug for treatment of gout
(a) Codeine
(b) Allopurinol
(c) Verapamil
(d) Atenolol
(E) Pyridoxine
97) Drug for treatment peptic and duodenal ulcers:
(a) Morphine
(b) Rantidine
(c) Omeprazole
(d) Lorazepam
(E) Both B & C
98) The therapeutic use of levodopa is
(a) Angina
(b) Anemia
(c) Depression
(d) Parkinsonian disease
(E) Diabetes mellitus
99) The therapeutic use of amitriptyline is
(a) Angina
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(b) Anemia
(c) Depression
(d) Parkinsonian disease
(E) Diabetes mellitus
100) All of the following affect drug distrubtion through lipid bilayer of the
cell except
(a) Solubility in water
(b) Solubility In lipid
(c) Relative solubility in water/lipid
(d) PH
(E) All of above
















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Exam model 9
1-agent that depress the central nervous system produci ng loss of
consciousness
a) Local anesthesia
b) Sedative
c) General anesthesia
d) All of the above
E) Non of above
2- Agent that bl ock nerve conducti on producing transient localized l oss
of sensati on
a) General anesthesia
b) Hypnotic
c) Local anesthesia
d) None of them
E) All of above
3- Oral drug that reduce anxiety and cause calm (sedation)
a) Local anesthesia
b) Anti-Depressent
c) Sedative
d) None of them
E) All of above
4- Drugs that produce drowsi ness and encourage sl eep (hypnosis)
a) Hypnotic
b) Anti-Migraine
c) Antiepileptic
d) Anti-Parkinsonism
E) Anti-hypertensive
5- Chronic lifel ong disorder characterized by recurrent seizures or
convulsion
a) Epilepsy
b) Psychosis
c) Narcotics
d) CNS stimulant
E) Non of above
6- Vi olent i nvoluntary contraction or series of contracti on of the
vol untary muscl es
a) convulsion
b) Migraine
c) Depression
d) Hypertension
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E) None of them
7- Movement disorder characterized by muscle ri gi dity, tremors and
postural i nstabil it y
a) Hypnotic
b) Migraine
c) Antiepileptic
d) Parkinsonism
E) Epilepsy
8- Group of di sorder with disturbance of mood, thought, and behavi or
a) Depression
b) Psychosis
c) Both A& B
d) None of them
E) All of them
9- Di sturbance of mood manifested by decrease sel f esteem decreased
vitalit y and Increased sadness
a) Depression
b) Psychosis
c) Epilepsy
d) Both A&B
E) Non of above
10- Drugs that produce drowsiness with analgesi a they are usuall y
addicti ve
a) Narcotic analgesics
b) antipsychotic
c) Epilepsy
d) None of them
E) All of above
11- Agent when admi ni stered will mi mic (produce the same effect) of
adrenergic system
a) Sympathomimetic
b) Sympathetic agonist
c) Adrenomimetic
d) All of them
E) Non of above
12- Agent that bl ock or i nterfere wi th sympatheti c nervous system
a) Sympathomimetic
b) Sympatholytic
c) Sympathetic antagonist
d) Both b and c
E) All of above
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13- Agent when admi ni stered will mi mic (produce the same effect) of
parasympatheti c system
a) parasympathomimetic
b) parasympathetic agonist
c) cholinomimetic
d) All of them
E) Non of above
14- Agent that antagonize the parasympathetic acti on
a) parasympathomimetic
b) parasympatholytic
c) parasympathetic antagonist
d) both b and c
E) All of above
15- Drug stimulate both sympatheti c and parasympatheti c gangl ia
a) ganglion stimulators
b) ganglion blocker
c) Sympathetic agonist
d) Both A& C
E) Non of above
16- Drug block both sympathetic and parasympathetic gangli a
a) ganglion stimulators
b) ganglion blockers
c) Sympathetic agonist
d) Both A& C
E) Non of above
17- Agent that reduce skeletal muscl e tone
a) Sympathomimetic
b) parasympathomimetic
c) skeletal muscle relaxant
d) All of the above
E) Non of above
18- Nitrous oxi de, halothane
a) General anesthesia
b) Local anesthesia
c) Inhalation anesthesia
d) Both a and c
E) Non of above
19- Thi opental , ketamine
a) General anesthesia
b) Local anesthesia
c) Intravenous anesthesia
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D) Both a and c
E) Non of above
20- Li docaine
a) General anesthesia
b) Local anesthesia
c) Inhalation anesthesia
d) Both a and c
E) Non of above
21- Phenobarbi tal
a) Sedative
b) Hypnotic
c) Diuretics
d) Both a and b
E) None of them
22- di azepam
a) Barbiturate
b) Benzodiazepine
c) Nitrates
d) Both a and b
E) None of them
23- valproic aci d, carbamazepine i s
a) Antiepileptic
b) Antipsychotic
c) Antidepressant
d) Narcotic analgesic
E) Non of above
24- levodopa
a) Antiepileptic
b) Antipsychotic
c) Antidepressant
d) Anti -parkinsonism
E) Non of above
25- Drugs chl orpromazi ne, hal operidol i s bel ong to
a) Antiepileptic
b) Antipsychotic
c) Antidepressant
d) Narcotic analgesic
E) Non of above
26- cl ozapi ne , olanzapi ne
a) Typical Antipsychotic
b) Atypical Antipsychotic
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c) Anti -depressent
d) None of them
E) Both A&B
27- Fl uoxeti ne , imi pramine
a) Antiepileptic
b) Antipsychotic
c) Antidepressant
d) Anti- migraine
E) Narcotic analgesic
28- Amphetami ne
a) CNS stimulant
b) Used in migraine
c) Narcotic analgesic
d) Used in depression
E) A&B
29- Morphine
a) Analgesic
b) Central Antitussive
c) Control diarrhea
d) All of them
E) Non of above
30- Codeine
a) Analgesic
b) Central Antitussive
c) Control diarrhea
d) All of them
E) Non of above
31- di phenoxyl ate and Loperami de .
a) Analgesic
b) Central Antitussive
c) Control diarrhea
d) All of them
E) Non of above
32- Ergotami ne, sumatriptan
a) CNS stimulant
b) Used in migraine
c) Narcotic analgesic
d) A&B
E) All of above
33- Cocai ne, benzocai ne
a) Topical local anesthesia
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b) Local injection local anesthesia
c) Both topical and local injection local anesthesia
d) None of the above
E) All of the above
34- bupi vacaine , mepi vacai ne
a) Topical local anesthesia
b) Local injection local anesthesia
c) Both topical and local injection local anesthesia
d) None of the above
E) All of the above
35- Fl uoxeti ne
a) SSRI
b) TCA
c) MAOI
d) CCBs
E) Non of the above
36- imipramine
a) SSRI
b) TCA
c) MAOI
d) CCBs
E) Non of the above
37- In case of overdose of warfarin it can antagonize by
a) Aspirin
b) Vitamin K I.V
c) Thiazide diuretic
d) Paracetamol
E) Protamine sulfate
38- Pepti c ulcer drug don t i ncl ude ..
a) Rantidine
b) Proton pump inhibitor
c) Glycerin
d) Omeprazole
E) Nizatidine
39- Drug used to eradicate heli cobacter pyl ori bacteria .
a) Diazepam
b) Clarithromycin & amoxicillin
c) Dapson
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
40- Oral rehydrati on soluti on used frequentl y because
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a) Has many side effect
b) Difficult to use
c) Replace water and mineral
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
41- cimi tidine has all except :
a) Used in gastric ulcer
b) H2 receptor antagonist
c) No side effect
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
42- Omeprazole is
a) Used in gastric ulcer
b) Laxative drug
c) Antifungal drug
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
43- the most important use of H1 receptor antagonist are
a) Headache
b) Vertigo
c) Constipation
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
44- Whi ch of the foll owi ng drug used in gastri c ulcer
a) Cimitidine
b) Omeprazole
c) Rantidine
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
45- Bul k formi ng laxati ve .
a) Bran
b) Methylcellulose
c) Castor oil
d) A and B
E) All of above
46- Drug used i n treatment of Hyperl ipi demi a
a) Simvastatin
b) Verapamil
c) Ketoprofen
d) Both A&B
E) Non of the above
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47- Adsorbent anti diarrheal drug
a) Kaolin
b) Metoclopramide
c) Cisapride
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
48- Agent that i nduce vomi ti ng incl ude
a) Ipecac
b) Amoxil
c) Indomethacin
d) Paracetamol
E) All of the above
49- Anti dote i n excessi ve bleeding i s
a) Tranxamic acid
b) Metronidazole
c) Rifampin
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
50- Used as anti diarrheal drug
a) Aspirin
b) Loperamide
c) Tofranil
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
51- Whi ch of the foll owi ng cause bl ack staini ng of stool ?
a) Ferrous sulfate
b) Nitroprusside
c) Heparin
d) Dipyridamole
E) All of the above
52- .. Of iron is the cause of iron deficiency anemi a
a) intake
b) requirement
c) absorption
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
53- Lack of gastric intrinsic factor resul t i n..
a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) Folic acid deficiency anemia
c) Pernicious anemia
d) Megaloblastic anemia
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E) All of the above
54- Iron defici ency anemia may occur with
a) Pregnancy
b) Excess tannic acid
c) Bleeding
d) All of them
E) Non of the above
55- Whi ch of the foll owi ng i nhi bi t devel opment of clotti ng?
a) Heparin
b) Quinidine
c) Nitroglycerin
d) Methyldopa
E) All of the above
56- All of them i ncrease acti on of warfarin except
a) Vitamin K
b) Aspirin
c) Metronidazole
d) Sulfonamide
E) Non of the above
57- Whi ch of them consider Fibri nol yti c i nhi bi tor (anti fi brinol ytic?)
a) Enoxparin
b) Tranexamic acid
c) Aminocaproic
d) B and C
E) All of the above
58- folic acid defi ciency due to all of them . Except
a) Lactation
b) Lack of vegetable
c) Lack of gastric intrinsic factor
d) Methotrexate
E) Non of the above
59- Whi ch of the foll owi ng cause bl ack staini ng of tongue, stool ?
a) Aminocaproic acid
b) Bismuth subsalicylate
c) Triametrene
d) Naproxen
E) Non of the above
60- Used to test gall bladder function for diagnosti c purpose
a) Egg yolk
b) Cholecystokinin
c) MgSo4
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d) All of them
E) Non of the above
61- Laxati ve drug used for the foll owing except
a) Constipation
b) Arrest bleeding
c) Drug, food poisoning
d) Diarrhea
E) Non of the above
62- All of the fol lowing are dopami ne receptor blocker except
a) Promethiazine
b) Droperidol
c) Domperidone
d) Piroxicam
E) Non of the above
63- Emesi s used in toxicit y except
a) If patient ingested caustic substance
b) If patient ingested volatile hydrocarbon
c) If patient has CNS depression
d) All of them
E) Non of the above
64- .block CTZ so prevent emesis
a) Ondasetron
b) Triametrene
c) Oxicam
d) Acetaminophen
E) Zalcetapine
65- Whi ch of the foll owi ng bind to bacteri al toxin?
a) Tannic acid
b) Loperamide
c) Kaolin
d) Cholestyramine
E) All of the above
66- Whi ch of the foll owi ng used for dissol ving gall stone
a) ACEI
b) CDCA
c) UDCA
d) B and C
E) All of the above
67- All of them used in gastri c ulcer except
a) Famotidine
b) Pantoprazole
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c) Misoprostol
d) Phenyl butazone
E) Non of the above
68- Drugs whi ch i ncrease GIT motil ity called
a) Purgative
b) Diuretics
c) Prokinetics
d) Emetics
E) Non of the above
69- .. Is proton pump inhi bitor
a) Pantoprazole
b) Rantidine
c) Bismuth subsalicylate
d) Sucralfate
e) All of the above
70- All factor affect drug absosbtion from GIT except
(a) Presence of food
(b) Another drug
(c) The healthy state of intestinal wall
(d) Plasma binding protein
(e) Non of the above
71- All are true about oral administeration of drug except
(a) Chance for treatment of toxicity if happen
(b) Easy way for administeration
(c) Suitable for emetic cases
(d) Low economy in compare other dosage form
(e) Non of the above
72- IV characterized by ....except
(a) Moderate velocity
(b) Suitable for large volume of fluid
(c) Suitable for drug suffer from 1st metabolic effect
(d) Suitable for painful irritating drug
(e) Non of the above
73- IM is Suitable for except
(a) Moderate volume of fluid
(b) painful irritating drug
(c) Anticoagulant
(d) Lipid soluble drug
(e) Non of the above
74- Intradermal injection is Suitable for except
(a) Sensitivity test
(b) painful irritating drug
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(c) Lipid soluble drug
(d) Implantation of small tablet under skin
(e) Non of the above
75- Plasma bindi ng protein (PBP) of drug lead to . except
(a) Increase t 1/2
(b) Compete similar drug for site of binding to PBP
(c) Compete drug with similar inherent substance for site of binding to PBP
(d) No medicinal use of this drug
(e) Non of the above
76- Binding of drug to Plasma binding protein (PBP) of drug characterized by
....except
(a) Binding site is alpha glycoprotein
(b) Binding site gama Globulin
(c) Similar drug compete for site of binding to PBP
(d) It is reversible process
(e) Non of the above
77- The aim of Drug metabolism is to convert the drug into
(a) More active substance
(b) Less toxic substance
(c) More effective substance
(d) None of the above
(e) All of the above
78- Drug metabolism incl ude ... except
(a) Oxidation reaction
(b) Less or none ionized substance
(c) Conjugation reaction
(d) Reduction reaction
(e) Non of the above
79- Conjugation reaction for drug excretion will lead to
(a) Inactive substance
(b) More active substance
(c) Less active substance
(d) More toxic substance
(e) No change in active substance
80- Drug metabolism mainly occur in
(a) Kidney
(b) Colon
(c) Lung
(d) Liver
(e) Intestine
81- Drug excretion mainly occur in
(a) Kidney
(b) Colon
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(c) Lung
(d) Sweat
(e) Intestine
82- Mechanism of excretion of drug through kidney occur through all of them
except
(a) Drug reabsorption from renal tubule
(b) Pass of drug through kidney to urethra
(c) Filteration in boman capsule
(d) Execretion via career molcule
(e) Non of the above
83- All consider parasympathomimetic except
(a) Atropine
(b) Carbacol
(c) Methacoline
(d) Bethanicol
(e) Non of the above
84. All can be used for glaucoma except
(a) Neostigmine
(b) Carbacol
(c) Homatropine
(d) Pilocarpine
(e) Non of the above
85. Urine retention can be treated by all of the following except
(a) Neostigmine
(b) Carbacol
(c) Dopamine
(d) Methacholine
(e) Non of the above
86. Atropine can used for all of the following except
(a) Abdominal spasm
(b) Prostate enlargement
(c) Motion sickness
(d) Parkinsonism
(e)All of above
87. Atropine side effects include all of the following except
(a) Tachycardia
(b) Dry mouth
(c) Increase secretion of saliva
(d) Mydriasis
(e) Non of the above
88. One of the following drug used for treatment of breast cancer
(a) Tamoxifen
(b) Clomiphen
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(c) Progestin
(d) Methionin
(e) Digoxin
89. One of the following drug used for prostate cancer
(a) Medroxy progesterone
(b) ethenyl estradiol
(c) Testosterone
(d) Methionine
(e) Carbidopa
90. Which of the following drug used as anticoagulant both in vivo & vitro
(a) Heparin
(b) Warfarin
(c) Streptokinase
(d) None of them
(e) All of them














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Exam model 10
1-aetiology of iron deficiency anemia is
a) Decrease intake
b) Decrease absorption
c) Increase requirement
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
2- Megaloblastic anemia due to deficiency of
a) Vitamin B12
b) Folic acid
c) Vitamin B6
d) Both A&B
E) Non of the above
3- Oral iron therapy shoul d be i n the form of .
a) Ferrous form
b) Ferric form
c) Iron form
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
4- Parenteral iron therapy include
a) Iron dextran complex
b) Iron sorbitol
c) Ferrous form
d) All of the above
E) Both A& B
5- Antidote for iron toxicity is
a) Desferroxamine
b) Protamine sulfate
c) I.V vit K
d) Tranaxamic acid
E) Non of the above
6- Antidote for warfarin toxicity is
a) Desferroxamine
b) Protamine sulfate
c) I.V vit K
d) Tranaxamic acid
E) Non of the above
7- Antidote for heparin toxicity is
a) Desferroxamine
b) Protamine sulfate
c) I.V vit K
d) Tranaxamic acid
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E) Non of the above
8- Antidote for urokinase toxicity is
a) Desferroxamine
b) Protamine sulfate
c) I.V vit K
d) Tranaxamic acid
E) Non of the above
9- Heparin
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
E) All of the above
10- urokinase
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
E) All of the above
11- warfarin
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
E) All of the above
12- Aspirin
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
E) All of the above
13-drugs which inhibit fibrinolysis by inhibit plasminogen activator
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
E) All of the above
14- Drugs which dissolve thrombus by formation fibrinolytic plasmin
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
E) All of the above
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15- Drugs which inhibit development of clot
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
E) All of the above
16- Drugs which inhibit platelet aggregation
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
E) All of the above
17- Antiplatelet drugs include
a) Aspirin
b) Ticlopidine
c) Clopidogril
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
18- omeprazole
a) H2 receptor antagonist
b) Proton pumb inhibitor
c) Antacid
d) Drugs protect mucosa
E) Non of the above
19- rantidine
a) H2 receptor antagonist
b) Proton pumb inhibitor
c) Antacid
d) Drugs protect mucosa
E) Non of the above
20- Calcium carbonate
a) H2 receptor antagonist
b) Proton pumb inhibitor
c) Antacid
d) Drugs protect mucosa
E) Non of the above
21- sucralfate
a) H2 receptor antagonist
b) Proton pumb inhibitor
c) Antacid
d) Drugs protect mucosa
E) Non of the above
22- Drugs that evacuate bowel is called
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a) Emetic
b) Antiemetic
c) Purgative
d) antispasmodics
E) Anti diarrhea
23- Drug that may prevent emesis
a) Emetic
b) Antiemetic
c) Purgative
d) Antispasmodic
E) Laxative
24- Drug that induce reflex vomiting
a) Emetic
b) Antiemetic
c) Purgative
d) antispasmodics
E) Cathertics
25- Drug used for relief painful biliary, colonic spasm
a) Emetic
b) Antiemetic
c) Purgative
d) antispasmodics
E) Anti ulcer
26- Ipecac is
a) Emetic
b) Antiemetic
c) Purgative
d) Antispasmodics
E) Anti diarrhea
27- Phase of acid secretion in which acid secrete will decrease is
a) Cephalic phase
b) Gastric phase
c) Intestinal phase
d) A&B
E) All of the above
28- Phase of acid secretion in which acid secrete will increase is
a) Cephalic phase
b) Gastric phase
c) Intestinal phase
d) A&B
E) All of the above
29- Which antacid of the following cause diarrhea as side effect
a) Caco3
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b) NaHco3
c) Mg salts
d) Al(OH)3
E) All of the above
30- Which antacid of the following cause alkalosis as adverse effects
a) Caco3
b) NaHco3
c) Mg salts
d) Al(OH)3
E) Non of the above
31- Cal cium carbonate antaci d wi ll cause .
a) diarrhea
b) constipation
c) Spasm
d) Both A& C
E) Non of the above
32- Which of the following is proton pump inhibitor?
a) Caco3
b) rantidine
c) lansoprazole
d) Al(OH)3
E) All of the above
33- Which of the following is an H2 antagonist
a) Caco3
b) rantidine
c) lansoprazole
d) Al(OH)3
E) All of the above
34- Drug that protect mucosa include
a) Sucralfate
b) Omeprazole
c) Rantidine
d) All of the above
E) Non of the above
35- the most important oral anticoagulant
a) Warfarin
b) Rifampin
c) Rantidine
d) Heparin
E) Non of the above
36- Heparin is anticoagulant drug usually used by
a) S.C
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b) I.V
c) ID
d) Both A&B
E) Non of the above
37- In case of overdose of warfarin it can antagonize by
a) Aspirin
b) Vitamin K I.V
c) Thiazide diuretic
d) Paracetamol
E) All of the above
38-paracetamol toxici ty is
a- liver damage
b- renal damage
c- hemolytic anemia
d- non of the above
e- all of the above
39-S/E of INH is
a- biliary obstruction
b- increase in plasma cholesterol
c- peripheral neuropathy
d- myasthenia gravis
e- ketoacidosis
40- anti emetic used in emergency room is
a- metaclopramide
b- chlorpromazine
c- promethazine
d- dimenhydrate
e- all of the above






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Exam model 11
1-pharmacol ogical effect of NSAIDs i ncl ude
A) Analgesic
b) Antipyretic
c) Anti inflammatory
d) all of the above
e) non of the above
2- Cel ecoxib
a) Non selective C-OX inhibitor
b) selective C-OX-1 inhibitor
c) Selective C-OX-2 inhibitor
d) Non of the above
e) All of the above
3- rofecoxi b
a) Non selective C-OX inhibitor
b) selective C-OX-1 inhibitor
C) Selective C-OX-2 inhibitor
d) non of the above
e) All of the above
4- Ibuprofen
a) Non selective C-OX inhibitor
b) selective C-OX-1 inhibitor
C) Selective C-OX-2 inhibitor
d) non of the above
e) All of the above
5- mefenamic acid
a) Non selective C-OX inhibitor
b) selective C-OX-1 inhibitor
C) Selective C-OX-2 inhibitor
d) Non of the above
e) All of the above
6-innflammatory arthriti s due to deposi ti on of uri c acid crystal i n j oi nt
a) Angina
b) Arrhythmia
c) Gout
d) C.H.F
e) Psoriasis
7- Conditi on i n whi ch cardiac output is less than body need
a) Angina
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b) Arrhythmia
c) Gout
d) C.H.F
e) Psoriasis
8- Abnormal heart beat
a) Angina
b) Arrhythmia
c) Gout
d) C.H.F
e) Psoriasis
9- Acute chest pain occurs when coronary blood flow is inadequate to
suppl y The oxygen required by heart
a) Angina
b) Arrhythmia
c) Gout
d) C.H.F
e) Psoriasis
10-drug used i n treat gout
a) Colichine
b) allopurinol
c) probencid
d) sulphinpyrazone
e) All of the above
11- fuorsemi de bel ong to
A) Loop diuretic
b) thiazide diuretic
c) K-sparing diuretic
D) Osmotic diuretic
e) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
12- chl orothiazi de
A) Loop diuretic
b) thiazide diuretic
c) K-sparing diuretic
D) Osmotic diuretic
e) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
13- spironol actone
A) Loop diuretic
b) thiazide diuretic
c) K-sparing diuretic
D) Osmotic diuretic
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e) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
14- mannitol
A) Loop diuretic
b) thiazide diuretic
c) K-sparing diuretic
D) Osmotic diuretic
e) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
15- Carbonic anhydrase i nhibitor di uretic used i n treatment glaucoma
a) fuorsemide
b) chlorothiazide
c) amiloride
d) acetazolamide
e) spironolactone
16- Cardi ac gl ycosi de incl ude
a) Digitoxin
b) digoxin
c) quabain
D) all of them
e) non of them
17- Route of el iminati on of di gitoxin i s
a) Renal
b) hepatic
c) Sweet
d) Both A&B
e) non of them
18- Route of el iminati on of di goxi n is
a) Renal
b) hepatic
c) Sweet
d) Both A&B
e) non of them
19- Cl ass III antiarrthymic
a) Sodium channel blocker
b) Beta blocker
c) Potassium channel blocker
d) Calcium channel blocker
e) Alpha blocker
20- Cl ass II anti arrthymic
a) Sodium channel blocker
b) b) Beta blocker
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c) Potassium channel blocker
d) Calcium channel blocker
e) Alpha blocker
21- Cl ass IV antiarrthymi c
a) Sodium channel blocker
b) Beta blocker
c) Potassium channel blocker
d) Calcium channel blocker
e) Alpha blocker
22- Cl ass I anti arrthymi c
a) Sodium channel blocker
b) Beta blocker
c) Potassium channel blocker
d) Calcium channel blocker
e) Alpha blocker
23- quini di ne
a) Sodium channel blocker
b) Beta blocker
c) Potassium channel blocker
d) Calcium channel blocker
e) Alpha blocker
24- verapami l
a) Sodium channel blocker
b) Beta blocker
c) Potassium channel blocker
d) Calcium channel blocker
e) Alpha blocker
25- amiodarone
a) Sodium channel blocker
b) Beta blocker
c) Potassium channel blocker
d) Calcium channel blocker
e) Alpha blocker
26-antihypertensi ve drug safe in pregnancy
a) Methyl dopa
b) reserpine
c) nitroprusside
d) diltiazem
e) propranolol
27- Calcium channel blocker
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A) Methyl dopa
b) reserpine
c) Nitroprusside
d) diltiazem
e) propranolol
28- captopril is belong to
a) Sympatholytic drug
b) ACEIs
c) CCBs
D) Diuretic
e) OHGs
29- prazoci n i s
A) Centrally acting 2 agonist
b) Adrenergic neuron blocker
c) blocker
d) blocker
e) Sodium channel blocker
30- Propranolol is
a) Centrally acting 2 agonist
b) adrenergic neuron blocker
c) blocker
d) blocker
e) Calcium channel blocker
31- Losartan
a) Angiotensin -1receptor blocker
b) Diuretic
c) ACEIs
d) CCBs
e) HTN
32- Atenolol
a) Non selective blocker
b) selective 1 blocker
c) Non selective blocker
d) Selective 1 blocker
e) Selective 2 blocker
33- Which anal gesic is safe duri ng pregnancy?
a) Aspirin
b) paracetamol
c) celecoxib
d) Methyl dopa
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e) Erythromycin
34- all opurinol
a) Decrease uric acid synthesis
b) Increase uric acid excretion
c) Increase uric acid synthesis
d) Decrease uric acid excretion
e) Decrease release of LTB4
35-dopami ne is
a) Selective 2 agonist
b) Selective 1 agonist
c) Selective 1 agonist
d) Selective 2 agonist
e) non of the above
36- simvastati n i s used in treatment
a) Angina
b) Arrhythmia
c) Hyper lipidemia
d) Hypertension
e) Diabetes mellitus
37-atrovastati n is bel ong to
a) Bile acid resin
b) HMG-COA inhibitor
c) Nicotinic acid derivative
d) Fibrates
e) sulphonyl urea
38- Condi ti on of high l evel of chol esterol trigl yceride li poprotei n is
call ed
A) Angina
b) Arrhythmia
c) Hyper lipidemia
d) Hypertension
e) CHF
39- chlorothiazide cause the followi ng si de effects except:
a) Hypokalemia
b) hyponatermia
c) Hypomagnesmia
d) ototoxicity
e) non of the above
40- the acti on of probenci d i s antagonized by:
A) Phenyl butazone
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b) Aspirin
c) colichicine
d) diclofenac
e) paracetamol
41- which of the foll owing used in treatment of glaucoma:
a) mannitol
b) acetazolamide
c) Spironolactone
d) Both a+b
e) All of above
42- thi azi de di uretic has the foll owi ng si de effects except:
a) hypokalemia
b) hyponatermia
c) hypomagnesmia
d) None of the above
e) allof the above
43- ethacryni c aci d causes the foll owing si de effects:
a) hypokalemia
b) ototoxicity
c) Hypocalcemia
D) all of the above
e) non of the above
44- Which of the followi ng used i n treatment of hypertension
a) triametrene
b) Hydrochlorothiazide
c) ethacrynic acid
D) all of the above
e) non of the above
45 - Whi ch of the foll owi ng drug has anti-androgenic effect?
a) spironolactone
b) Ammonium chloride
c) chlorothiazide
d) furesemide
e) non of the above
46- Which of the followi ng drugs prol ong durati on of acti on potenti al?
a) quinidine
b) digoxine
c) Sulindac
d) none of the above
e) All of the above
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149

47- which of the foll owing i ncrease the action potential durati on:
A) Amiodarone
b) Ecainamide
c) Quinidine
d) Both a+c
e) All of the above
48- Di uretic drugs i ncl ude
a) furesemide
b) adrenaline
c) atropine selphate
d) aspirin
e) metformin
49 - Pharmacological effect of NSAIDs incl ude
A) Analgesic
b) Antipyretic
c) Anti inflammatory
D) all of the above
e) non of the above
50 - the most important adverse effect of aspirin include
a) Gastrointestinal irritation
b) Bleeding tendency
c) hepatotoxicity
d) All of the above
e) Both A& B
51- i n management of paracetamol over dose we can use
a) n-acetyl cyctine
b) brufen
c) minoxidil
d) Atropine
e) protamine sulfate
52 - Drug used duri ng acute attack of gout
a) Colichine
b) indomethacine
c) probencid
D) all of the above
e) non of the above
53 - the most important NSAIDs used duri ng pregnancy
a) Paracetamol
b) indomethacine
c) Diflunisal
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150

D) all of the above
e) non of the above
54 - All of the foll owing are adverse effect of ACE i nhibi tor as
(captopril) Except
A) Cough
b) Eye disturbance
c) Taste change
d) hyperkalemia
e) All of the above
55 - Drugs used as thiazide diuretic
a) chlorothiazide
b) Hydrochlorothiazide
c) Indepamide
d) Non of the above
e) All of the above
56- Condi ti on in which cardi ac output is less than body need is
a) Congestive heart failure (C.H.F)
b) Arrhythmia
c) Angina
d) Hypertension
e) non of the above
57- paracetamol i s
a) Analgesic
b) antipyretic
c) anti-inflamatory
d) both a+b
e) all of the above
58- mannitol
a) Decrease intracranial pressure
b) decrease intraocular pressure
c) Treatment glaucoma
D) all of the above
e) non of the above
59- . Study of drug and the way they i nteract wi th li ving system
A) Pharmacology
b) Clinical Pharmacology
c) Drug interaction
d) Therapeutic
e) Toxicology
60 - .the exact description of chemi cal structure of drug
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151

a) Chemical name
b) Generic name
c) Trade name
d) Brand name
e) non of above
61 - A drug may have di fferent trade name but onl y one
a) Generic name
b) properiarty name
c) Brand name
d) Both A&B
e) All of the above
62 - Thiopental is
a) Inhalation anesthesia
b) I.V anesthesia
c) Local anesthesia
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
63 - Atenolol is
a) Selective 1 agonist
b) Selective 1 agonist
c) Selective 1 blocker
d) Selective 1 blocker
e) non of the above
64 - Sal butamol i s used for
a) Congestive heart failure
b) Bronchial asthma
c) hypertension
d) none of them
e) both A& B
65- Inhal ati on anathesi a i s charachterized by
a) Difficulet to control
B) Used for short term maintenance operation
c) Used for hyperlipidemic patients
d) None of them
e) All of them
66- You fi nd 20 ml vial of ami nophyl li ne with suppl y l abel ed 20mg/ml
How many mg in the vial
a) 200mg
b) 400mg
c) 600mg
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152

d) 800mg
e) 1 gm
67- You fi nd 20 ml vial of ami nophyl li ne with suppl y l abel ed 20mg/ml
How many ml must to be i nj ected to suppl y patient wi th 100mg
a) 6 ml
b) 10 ml
C) 5 ml
D) 20 ml
e) 25 ml
68- Dekagram is equal
A) 10 gram
B) 100 gram
C) 1000 gram
D) 1000 mg
E) None of the above
69- Deci liter is equal
A) 10 liter
B) 100 liter
C) 1000liter
D) 1 liter
E) non of the above
70 - Dil ute avail of tetracycli ne for aqueous i njecti on l abeled 10000 I.U
To obtain dose of 5000 I.U usi ng water for i nj ection 10 ml
a) 4 ml
b) 5 ml
c) 6 ml
d) 7 ml
e) non of the above
71 - Convert temperature of 50 F to C
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 30
e) 5
72- Convert temperature of 5C to F
a) 41
b) 51
c) 31
d) 21
e) 61
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153

73- Which of the followi ng belongs to I.V anesthesia
a) Thiopental
b) L-dopa
c) adrenaline
d) None of them
e) All of the above
74- Al l of them are NOT i nhalati on anesthetic drugs, except
a) Phenobarbital
b) Halothan
c) Thiopental
d) Diazepam
e) Gliclazide
75-Whi ch one of the followi ng oral preparati on gi ve the fastest
systemi c onset of acti on
a) Suspension
b) Tablet
c) Capsule
d) Solution
e) Syrup

Put true or fal se for the foll owing question:

1. iron sorbitol is oral iron
2. deficiency of folic acid cause pernicious anemia
3. Castor oil, senna are stimulant laxative
4. Liquid paraffin is irritant purgative
5. Heparin used during pregnancy
6. In oral therapy should be in ferrous form
7. Vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of gastric intrinsic factor
result in pernicious anemia
8. Paracetamol inhibit both cox1 and cox2
9. Digitoxin is eliminated by renal elimination
10. Carbenoxolone has antiandrogenic effect
11. C-OX 1 is constitutive form present in many normal tissues
12. C-OX 2 is constitutive form present in many normal tissues
13. C-OX 1 is inducible form produced at site of inflammation
14. Parcetamol over dose antidote is N-acetyl cystiene
15. Isosorbid dinitrate oral is used in treatment acute attack of angina
16. Nitroglycerin is used as antihypertensive drug
17. Guanthidine is antihypertensive of choice for pregnancy
18. Nitrate tolerance develop with continuous exposure to nitrate without interruption
153

154

19. Heparin used as long term anticoagulant
20. Cimitidine has antiandrogenic effect
21. Rantidine used to treat diarrhea
22. Peptic ulcer is a disease of respiratory centre
23. Castor oil is considered as lubricant purgative
24. Antihyperlipidemic agent increase level of LDL
25. Antihyperlipidemic agent increase level of HDL
26. Aspirin increase effect of anticoagulant
27. Spironolactone cause gynecomastia
28. Example of NSAIDs is indomethacine
















154

155

Answer of Exam model 1, p: 1
1- C 26- C 51- B 76- B
2- A 27- D 52- A 77- B
3- A 28- C 53- B 78- C
4- C 29- B 54- C 79- B
5- A 30- C 55- B 80- D
6- E 31- D 56- E 81- D
7- B 32- E 57- B 82- D
8- C 33- C 58- B 83- E
9- A 34- A 59- A 84- D
10- A 35- B 60- D 85- C
11- E 36- B 61- D 86- A
12- A 37- C 62- A 87- B
13- A 38- C 63- B 88- E
14- A 39- C 64- A 89- C
15- D 40- B 65- D 90- E
16- C 41- A 66- B 91- D
17- C 42- B 67- A 92- B
18- D 43- E 68- A 93- E
19- B 44- B 69- A 94- A
20- A 45- A 70- B 95- C
21- D 46- A 71- D 96- A
22- D 47- B 72- A 97- C
23- B 48- A 73- B 98- D
24- D 49- A 74- C 99- A
25- A 50- E 75- E 100- B

155

156

Answer of Exam model 2, p: 16
1- D 26- B 51- D 76- E
2- E 27- A 52- A 77- B
3- E 28- D 53- C 78- C
4- E 29- A 54- B 79- D
5- A 30- C 55- A 80- E
6- B 31- B 56- C 81- A
7- D 32- A 57- B 82- A
8- E 33- A 58- D 83- B
9- C 34- C 59- C 84- D
10- D 35- A 60- A 85- B
11- A 36- A 61- E 86- A
12- D 37- D 62- E 87- D
13- E 38- A 63- B 88- A
14- C 39- B 64- E 89- A
15- B 40- E 65- E 90- B
16- E 41- E 66- E 91- B
17- D 42- A 67- C 92- A
18- B 43- E 68- A 93- B
19- A 44- D 69- D 94- D
20- E 45- D 70- D 95- A
21- D 46- E 71- A 96- A
22- E 47- E 72- E 97- A
23- B 48- E 73- A 98- A
24- A 49- D 74- E 99- C
25- A 50- B 75- A 100- D

156

157

Answer of Exam model 3, p: 31
1- B 26- E 51- C 76- E
2- E 27- D 52- A 77- C
3- C 28- B 53- E 78- B
4- D 29- A 54- E 79- D
5- C 30- E 55- B 80- D
6- B 31- D 56- B 81- A
7- C 32- B 57- B 82- A
8- B 33- D 58- A 83- C
9- D 34- B 59- A 84- E
10- A 35- C 60- D 85- C
11- E 36- A 61- A 86- E
12- E 37- D 62- C 87- A
13- B 38- D 63- A 88- E
14- C 39- D 64- D 89- D
15- D 40- A 65- C 90- C
16- B 41- C 66- E 91- E
17- D 42- E 67- B 92- D
18- D 43- B 68- C 93- C
19- C 44- D 69- E 94- C
20- D 45- D 70- D 95- C
21- D 46- E 71- C 96- C
22- E 47- C 72- A 97- B
23- E 48- E 73- C 98- C
24- A 49- E 74- C 99- C
25- E 50- D 75- A 100- A

157

158

Answer of Exam model 4, p: 47
1- D 26- C 51- C 76- B
2- D 27- E 52- A 77- C
3- C 28- A 53- B 78- B
4- A 29- B 54- A 79- D
5- E 30- B 55- B 80- C
6- D 31- D 56- C 81- A
7- A 32- C 57- D 82- D
8- C 33- B 58- A 83- D
9- A 34- C 59- C 84- B
10- C 35- D 60- B 85- B
11- B 36- E 61- C 86- A
12- D 37- B 62- D 87- C
13- E 38- C 63- A 88- E
14- B 39- A 64- B 89- C
15- E 40- E 65- E 90- A
16- B 41- D 66- B 91- C
17- D 42- A 67- C 92- A
18- A 43- E 68- E 93- A
19- C 44- E 69- A 94- A
20- B 45- C 70- C 95- D
21- E 46- A 71- D 96- C
22- A 47- C 72- A 97- B
23- E 48- E 73- D 98- D
24- A 49- C 74- B 99- A
25- B 50- E 75- B 100- D

158

159

Answer of Exam model 5, p: 62
1- A 26- D 51- E 76- A
2- E 27- E 52- D 77- D
3- B 28- B 53- D 78- B
4- A 29- C 54- B 79- B
5- E 30- C 55- D 80- A
6- D 31- D 56- C 81- C
7- E 32- B 57- B 82- E
8- C 33- D 58- D 83- C
9- E 34- C 59- A 84- D
10- C 35- A 60- B 85- E
11- B 36- E 61- C 86- E
12- C 37- A 62- B 87- E
13- D 38- C 63- E 88- C
14- A 39- E 64- C 89- A
15- A 40- D 65- A 90- E
16- D 41- E 66- E 91- D
17- A 42- D 67- A 92- E
18- D 43- B 68- C 93- E
19- C 44- C 69- E 94- E
20- A 45- B 70- D 95- E
21- E 46- D 71- B 96- D
22- B 47- A 72- D 97- B
23- C 48- A 73- A 98- E
24- C 49- D 74- A 99- D
25- D 50- D 75- D 100- A

159

160

Answer of Exam model 6, p: 77
1- A 26- E 51- B 76- E
2- E 27- E 52- B 77- A
3- C 28- B 53- D 78- D
4- B 29- A 54- B 79- B
5- D 30- D 55- B 80- A
6- E 31- C 56- D 81- B
7- C 32- E 57- D 82- C
8- E 33- D 58- D 83- C
9- A 34- D 59- D 84- D
10- D 35- E 60- A 85- D
11- E 36- C 61- C 86- C
12- A 37- D 62- C 87- C
13- E 38- A 63- D 88- D
14- C 39- B 64- B 89- D
15- B 40- B 65- C 90- E
16- E 41- C 66- A 91- C
17- A 42- A 67- C 92- A
18- E 43- D 68- E 93- D
19- A 44- A 69- D 94- B
20- D 45- C 70- B 95- D
21- C 46- D 71- B 96- D
22- B 47- D 72- D 97- A
23- E 48- D 73- D 98- A
24- D 49- C 74- E 99- C
25- D 50- A 75- B 100- D

160

161

Answer of Exam model 7, p: 92
1- C 26- E 51- D 76- C
2- B 27- E 52- B 77- D
3- D 28- E 53- c 78- D
4- B 29- B 54- D 79- E
5- A 30- A 55- A 80- B
6- D 31- C 56- C 81- E
7- B 32- B 57- B 82- E
8- A 33- D 58- E 83- E
9- D 34- E 59- E 84- C
10- D 35- E 60- C 85- A
11- D 36- A 61- B 86- D
12- C 37- C 62- C 87- D
13- E 38- B 63- D 88- A
14- A 39- C 64- B 89- B
15- E 40- A 65- E 90- E
16- D 41- B 66- C 91- E
17- E 42- B 67- C 92- D
18- A 43- C 68- A 93- E
19- A 44- B 69- A 94- C
20- E 45- E 70- A 95- E
21- D 46- D 71- D 96- B
22- C 47- B 72- E 97- E
23- B 48- B 73- A 98- A
24- E 49- D 74- C 99- D
25- C 50- C 75- D 100- C


161

162

Answer of Exam model 8, p: 107
1- C 26- D 51- C 76- D
2- B 27- D 52- D 77- D
3- D 28- D 53- A 78- E
4- A 29- C 54- C 79- E
5- D 30- B 55- D 80- A
6- C 31- C 56- C 81- E
7- C 32- A 57- E 82- E
8- D 33- D 58- B 83- E
9- D 34- C 59- C 84- E
10- B 35- D 60- D 85- D
11- B 36- B 61- A 86- E
12- C 37- D 62- A 87- D
13- A 38- B 63- D 88- E
14- D 39- A 64- E 89- E
15- D 40- D 65- A 90- A
16- E 41- D 66- A 91- C
17- B 42- E 67- D 92- B
18- A 43- C 68- B 93- E
19- D 44- C 69- A 94- E
20- C 45- B 70- C 95- E
21- D 46- C 71- E 96- B
22- D 47- E 72- B 97- E
23- B 48- C 73- D 98- D
24- D 49- A 74- E 99- C
25- A 50- C 75- D 100- A


162

163

Answer of Exam model 9, p: 122
1- C 26- B 51- A 76- A
2- C 27- C 52- D 77- B
3- C 28- A 53- C 78- B
4- A 29- D 54- D 79- A
5- A 30- B 55- A 80- D
6- A 31- C 56- A 81- A
7- D 32- B 57- D 82- A
8- B 33- A 58- C 83- A
9- A 34- B 59- B 84- C
10- A 35- A 60- D 85- C
11- D 36- B 61- B 86- B
12- D 37- B 62- D 87- C
13- D 38- C 63- D 88- A
14- D 39- B 64- A 89- C
15- A 40- C 65- C 90- A
16- B 41- C 66- D
17- C 42- A 67- D
18- A 43- B 68- C
19- A 44- D 69- A
20- B 45- D 70- D
21- D 46- A 71- C
22- B 47- A 72- A
23- A 48- A 73- B
24- D 49- A 74- B
25- B 50- B 75- A

163

164

Answer of Exam model 10, p: 136
1- D 26- A
2- D 27- C
3- A 28- D
4- E 29- C
5- A 30- B
6- C 31- B
7- B 32- C
8- D 33- B
9- A 34- A
10- C 35- A
11- A 36- A
12- B 37- B
13- D 38- E
14- C 39- C
15- A 40- E
16- B
17- D
18- B
19- A
20- C
21- D
22- C
23- B
24- A
25- D

164

165

Answer of Exam model 11, p: 142
1- D 26- A 51- A 1-
2- C 27- D 52- D 2-
3- C 28- B 53- A 3-
4- A 29- C 54- B 4-
5- A 30- D 55- E 5-
6- C 31- A 56- A 6-
7- D 32- B 57- D 7-
8- B 33- B 58- D 8-
9- A 34- A 59- A 9-
10- E 35- C 60- A 10-
11- A 36- C 61- A 11-
12- B 37- B 62- B 12-
13- C 38- C 63- D 13-
14- D 39- D 64- B 14-
15- D 40- A 65- D 15-
16- D 41- D 66- B 16-
17- B 42- D 67- C 17-
18- A 43- D 68- D 18-
19- C 44- D 69- D 19-
20- B 45- A 70- B 20-
21- D 46- A 71- A 21-
22- A 47- D 72- A 22-
23- A 48- A 73- A 23-
24- D 49- D 74- B 24-
25- C 50- A 75- D 25-
26-
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166

27-
28-
The end
166