A) CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY

Please Circle the Single Most Aprropiate Answer

1. Artenal Blood Gas samples are best collected at which Temperatures (

Degrees Centigrads ) :
a) 20 b. 4 c. Body Temperature ( 37 ) d. 50

2) Heparinisec Plasma is not suitable - for protein electrophoresis because

.
a, Hepann interferes with the method b. Plasma move too slowly on
the Strip
c. Plasma samples move too fast d) Fibrmogen can give an extra
band

3) Reference (Normal) Range for Plasma triglycende (mg\ dl ) is :

a. 10- 100 (b) 50-200 c. 200-300 d. 300-400

4) Haemolysis can effect all the following analytes , exept:

a. Pottasium b. Inorganic Phoshate c) sodium d. LDH

5) Fluoride \ oxalate is added to blood glucose samples will act as :

a. An Anticoagulant b. Preservative c) Both are correct d. None is

correct

6. Positive Bendict's Test in urine can be caused by the presence of one of

the following .

a) Aspi rin ( Salicylic Acid) b. Sucrose

c. Feric Chloride d. Al! of the above

7. Multiple Myeloma is charcterised by the presence in the urine of:

.
a. Chyle b. Bilirubinuria c) Bence Jones Protein d. None of the
above

8. Uric acid is measured by which of the following Methods :

a. Biuret b. Turbidimetry c) Enzymatic- d. Abel - Kendall
method

9. Recommended Glucose load ( in grams ) given for Glucose Tolerance Test (

GTT ) is :
a 25 b. 50 c) 75 d. 100

i
B) HAEMATOLOGY - EXAMINATION

21. The content of body Elemental Iron m a 70 Kg adult male is :

a. 40 grames b)4 grames c. 4 mg. d. o.4 mg.
22. In the normal body the largest amount of iron is found as:
a) Haemoglobin b. Haemosedrin c. Ferritm d. Combmed to Transferin

23. All, but one are Iron containing protein :

a. Haemoglobin b) Myoglobulm c. Transfemn d. Ferritin

24. All, but one are causes of Ion Deficiency anaemia :

a. Ankylstomiasis b) Ascariasis c. Pregnancy d. Peptic
Ulcer

25. The Cyanmethaemoglobm method measures :

a. All haemoglobin pigments b. Only Oxyhaemoglobm
c) All haemoglobin pigments except Sulphaemoglobin d. Only
Methaemoglobin

26. The normal life span of Platelets is approximately :

a. One hour b. One day c) One week d. One month

27. The Haemoglobin resistant to Alkali denaturation is :

a.HbA b.HbA2 c) Hb F d.HbS

28. The Haemoglobin which becomes insoluble on reducing Oxygen is :

a. HbA b. Hb A2 c. Hb F d)HbS

29. All, but one is true of Reticuiocyte :

a. They contain RNA - Remenants b. They are larger than mature RBC
c. They are best best demonstrated by supervital staining
d)They contain DNA remenants

30. Naturally occurmg antibodies are found regularly in which of the

following Blood Group
System:

a) ABO
b. Rh c. Kell d. Kidd

General Examination : Page 3 ( Haematology Paper )

31. All, except one is true for naturally occuring antibodies :

a. They react best in saline b. They react best at Room
Temperature
c) They are normally IgG d. They do not usually cross the placenta

32. Group B individuals have the following :

a. A - Antigen on their RBC b)Anti-A in their sera
c. Neither Anti - A nor Anti - B in their sera c. Anti - B in their sera

33. Methaemoglobin is an abnormal haemoglobin that contain :

a. Ferrous Iron b. Carbon monoxide
c) Ferric Iron d. A substituted Amino ac:d

34. Fibrmogen is converted to Fibrin by :

a.Thromboplastin b. Prothrombin c. Cacium d) Thrombin

35. The coagulation which is not dependend on Vitamin K is:

a. Factor ii b. Factor vii c) Factor viii d.
Factor x

36. The Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time ( PTT ) is prolonged in all

except:
a. Haemophilia A b. Christmas Diseae
c. Von Willebrand's Diseae d)Facter vii deficiency

37. Which one of the following does not increase the ESR :
a. Roulaux b. Pregnancy c)Low Fibrinogen c. Severe Anaemia

38. The plasma protein that binds free Haemoglobin is :

a. Myoglobulin b. Haemosednn c) Haptoglobulin d. Transferrin

39. All, except one are true of Spherocyte :

a. Decreased MCV b. Decreased central pallor
c) Decreased MCHC d. Decreased life span

40. All, except one are features of severe Mmegaloblatic Anaemia :

a Macrocytosis b.Basophilic Stippling

c) Hypochromia d. Hypersegmented Neutrophils

General Examination : Paper 4 ( Haematology Paper )

C) MICROBIOLOGY - EXAMINATION

41Each of tiie following is a recognised cause of diarrhoea except :

a) Clostridium Perfringens b. Campylobacter c. Streptococcus Faecalis
d. Rotavirus

42- Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract

infection
except :
a. Proteus b)Bacteroides c. Klebsiellae d. Enterobacter
i
43- These organisms do not appear in blood cultures :
a) Shigella Sonnei b. Salmonella Typhi c. Escherichia Coli d. Haemophilus

44- Banana shaped gametocytes are seen in blood smears from patints with :
a. Trypanosoma Cruzi b. Toxoplasma Gondii c. Plasmodium Vivax
d) Plasmodium Falciparum

45- An organism which is gram negative,glucose fennenter, and oxidase

positive would
be:
a) Vibrio b. Pseudomonas c. Acinetcbacter d. Erwinia
46- In order to detect ova of enterobius vennicularis we should use the
method of :
a- Concentration b- Wet Mount c) Sellotape d- Flotation

47- All these organisms are motile except :

a- Proteus b) Shigellae c- Escherichia Coli d- Salmonellae

48- Significant bacteriruria is diagnosed when the number of organisms / ml

is :

a. 10^5 b. 10^3 c. 10^4 d 10^2

49-The followin.g are all gram negative bacilli except :

a.Bacteroides b.Haemophilus c) Listeria d. Aeromonas

50-An ovum with a terminal spine is the ovum of :

a-Ankyiostoma Duodenale b-Heterophyes Heterophyes c) Schistosoma Haematobium

d- Fasciola Hepatica

51-These crystals might appear in acid urine except :

a- Uric Acid b) Calcium Carbonate c. Calcium Oxalate d- Sodium Urate

52- Saliva is differenpated from sputum by :

a. Consistency b) Buccal Epithelium c- Colour d- Elek Test

53- In haemolytic jaundice , the urine contains :

a) urobilinogen b- Biliverdin c- Bilirubin d- Bile Salts

54- This parasite is a roundworm ( nematode) :

a. Echino-occus Granulosus b-Hymencispis nana c) strongyloides Stercoralis
d-Taenia Solium

55- A total leucocytic count of 8 / cu mm in CSF (mostly lymphocytes )

indicates
a- Septic Meningitis b- Encephalitis c- Aseptic Meningitis d)None

56- The following species are considered as commensals in stool except :

a. Plesimonas b- Pseudomonas c- Klebsiellae d- Proteus

57- In kidney diseases you might see these casts in urine (pathogenic casts
):
a-Hyaline Cast b) Coarse Granular Cast c-Fine Granular Cast d-Broad Cast

58-The most specific method for diagnosing syphilis is :

|a-VDRL b-Treponema Culture c) TPHA d- RPR

59-A ciliated protozoan that might cause diarrhoea is :

a- Trichcmcnas Hominis b) Baiantidium Coii c. Chilomastix Mesnili
d- Dientamoeba Fragiiis

60- In a vaginal discharge, the pathogenic agents are :

a) Staphylococcus Aureus b-Lactobacilli c-None d. Pseudomonas

1.. The difference between plasma and serum is the presence of:
a. Different imniunoglobulins,
b. Alpha-1 Aniitrypsin.
c)Fibrinogen.

2. In the diagnosis of B- thalassaemia miner the best measurement is:

a.Hb F
b. Hb A
c) HbA2
d. HbC

3. ALL EXCEPT ONE ARE COMMON CAUSE OF iron DEfiCIENCY

a.Ankylostorniasis
b) Ascariasis
c Bad diet
d. Peptic Ulcer

4. THE MAIN ADVANTAGE OF THE CYANMETHAEMOGLOBIN METHOD FOR

ESTIMATING HAEMOGLdBrN IS.
a. It is the only accurate method
b. Readings can be taken immediately after dilution of blood with Drabkins
solution
c. Ali fornts ofhaemogiobin including sulphaemoglobin measured
d) It allows direct comparison with a stable standard cyanmethaemoglobin
solution

5. ONLY ONE OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS AUJUT ABSOLUTE VALUES IS

TRUE-:,
a The MCH is expressed in femtoliters
b) An MCHC of over 40% should usually be considered erroneous
c. The MCH can be calculated if HB Concentration & PCV are Known
d. The MCV can be calculated if the RBC count & HB conc. are known

6 SIGNIFICANTLY HIGHER VALUES FOR RBC & HAEMOGLOBIN CONC. ARE

SEEN IN ALL THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ONE
a. Afterm strenous exercise
b. In the new born
c. At high altitudes
d) After prolonged bed rest

7,WHICH HAEMOGLOBIN IS INSOLUBLE AT LOW P02

a. Hb.A
b. Hb.F
c) Hb.S
d. Methaemoglobin

8. WHICH HAEMOGLOBIN IS ALKALI RESISTANT

a Hb A
b) Hb F
c. Hb S
d. Methacmoglobin

9.RNA REMNANTS W1THIN RBC ARE V1SUALISED WHEN STAINFD WITH

a Prussian blue
b) New metnylene blue
c. PAS stain
d. Sudan black stain

10. SHIFT TO THE LEFT MEANS AN INCREASE IN

a. Nculrophil polymorphs
b) Juvenille and immature granulocytes
c. Hypersegnienied neutrophils
d Toxic granulation of neutrophils

11. The haemoglobin which runs fastest towards anode during electrophoresis
at ph 8.9 is
a. HbE
b. HBS
c) HBH
c. Hbc
d. HBA2

12. Hypersegmentation of polymorh is associated with :

a. Iron deficiency anaemia.
b. Aplastic anaemia.
c) MegalobSastic anaemia
d. Sideroblastic anaemia

13. Group A individuals

a. Have B antigens on their RBC
b) Have anti B antibody in their sera .
c Have both anti A and ami D antibodies in their serum
d Have anti A, anti B antibodies in their sera

14. One of The following coagulation factors is not vitamin K dependent :

a. Factor II
b. Factor VII
c) Factor VIII
d. Factor IX

15. The Commonest Cause fatal transfusion reaction is

a) Wrong technique in grouping donor or recipient

b. Clerical error
c. Failure to cross-match before transfusion
d. Infected blood .

16. ONE OF THE STATEMENTS ABOUT L.A P. (LEUKOCYTE ALKALINE

PHOSPHATASE) SCORE IN THE PERIPHERAL BLOOD FILM IS FALSE.

a. It is high in reactive neutrophil Leucocytosis

b. It is high in normal pregnancy
c) It is high in chronic myeloid leukemia
d. it is high in Mangolism

17. A NORMAL P.T.T AND PROLONGED PT(PROTHROMBIN TIME) SUGGEST A

DEFICIENCY OF FACTOR.

a. V
b) VII
c. IX
d. X '

18. THE BLEEDiNG TIME IS USUALLY PROLONGED IN ALL EXCEPT ONE

a. After aspirin therapy

b In Von-Wilbrand Disease
c.In severe Thrombocytopenia
d) In Haemophilia A

19.PLASMA FROM DONORS OF THIS BLOOD GROUP CAN BE TRANSFUSED

SAFELY TO ANY RECIPIENT

a. O
b) AB
c. A
d. B

20. WHICH TEST IS USED TO DETECT FETAL CELLS iN MATERNAL

CIRCULATION

a. Ham's test
b. Alkali denaturation Test
c) Direct Coombs Test.
d. Klerhauer Betke Test

21. A Serum Tube has remained in room temperature for six hours without
centrifugation and separation. Which of the following statement is TRUE.
a. Potasium will be unaffected.
b. calcium will be unaffected
c) glucose will be decreased
d. Phosphate will be decreased

22- Levey- Jenaning charts used for daily quaLity control data recording are
usefyl in demonstrating;
a. calibartion
b) trends and shifts
c. calculation of concentralion of unknown specimen
d. maintenance

23- Elevation of CSF protein may be seen in;

a. Epilepsy
b) Bacterial meningitis
c Renal failure
d. All of the above

24- If a QC result is coming outsidc the 3SD limit, what should you do?
a. Release patient results
b Hold patient results and repeat the QC
c) Recalibrate the machine and run QC again
d Repeat all patient samples

25- All the following can lead to low serum calcium EXCEPT
a. EDTA sample
b Renal failure
c) Hepatic malignancy
d. Low serum albumin

2 Total plasma lipids are generally considered to be the sum of

phospholipids, cholesterol and
a) Triglycerides "
h. Ketosteroides
c. Lecithin
d Cephaflic

27- A patient in diabetic coma has very high blood glucose; so serum from
this patient was
diluted 1:2 and again 1:2 before a concentration of 190 muydi could be
obtained from the Analyser
What is the actual concentration of glucose in this patient ?
a. 76O0 mg/dl
b) 7.6 gm/l
c 380 mg/dl
d. 1520 mg dl

28 For accurate estimation of fasting blood sugar the sample should be

collected in;
a. Lithium Heparin Tube
b. Plain tube
c) Fluoride oxalate tube
d. EDTA Tube

29- A calibrater is used to;

a) Assign concentration value to a given response to generate a dose
response curve
b. check if the machine is within the control limits.
c. check accuracy of the machine
4. check precision of the machine

30- In normal gucose tolerance curve the plasma glucoselevel returns to the
control value in;
a. 3Ominutes
b. 6Ominutes
c. POminutes
4) 120 minutes

31- Serum ferritin is used as a marker of

a. Acute pancreatitis
b. Bone turn over
C) Iron status
d. Kidney function

32- All the folowing can lead to increase serum bilirubin EXCEPT;
a. hemolysis
b. obstructive liver disease
c) Hyperlipaemia
4. Viral hepatitis

33 Ion selective electrode technology is used commonly to measure:

a. Enzymes
b. Proteins
c. Hormones
d) Electrolytes

34-A calcium result on one of the samples came out as 0.5 mg/dl. What should
you do next ?
a. phone the ward or the referring physician immediatly with the result
b. repeat the measurement immediately after verifying your calibartion and
controlsare valid
c. report the result on the report form and sign your name
d) phone the ward and ask them to send to send a repeat sample

35 Which of the following is the most common constituent of urinary calculi.

a.Cystine
b. Uric Acid
c) Calcium oxalate
4. Calcium phosphate

36 Which of the following agents has anticoagulant properties NOT based on

calcium
binding ?
a. Citrate
b, EDTA
c) Heparin
d. Oxalate

17- The mean cholesterol concentration of sample run 20 times is 312 mg/dl
with standard
deviation of 18. what is the cocificient of variation?
a 1.73%
b 0.06%
c) 5.7 %
c 17.3%
38 Glucose can be measured by all of the following tcchnics except,
a. colorimetric using glucose oxidase method
b. colorimetric using hexokinase method
c. potetiometric using electrode
d) Electrphoresis

39- In acute viral hepatitis, which of the following is expected :?

a) ALT & AST increase by 10 to 200 folds
b. CK & CK-MB increase by 10 to 200 folds
c. Normal ALT & bilirubin
4. Increase albumin

40. Ehrlich's aldehvde reaction will produce a red color with all of the
following
urine compounds EXCEPT
a Urobilinogen
b) bilirubin
c. phorphobilinogen
d. Indole derivatives

41- Non-Moti!e organisms include

a. Shigella
b. streptococci
c. Micobacterium TB
d) All

42- Anarobic branching gram positive bacilli are

a. Lactobacilli
b. Clostridia
c) Actinomyses
d. listeria

43- VDRL test might be positive in

a- Syphilis
b) Old age patients
c Pregnant women
d) All

44 When hepatitis B surface antigen is positive the following markers

should be tested.
a) Delta abs.
b. HCV abs
c. Core Ag
d. None

45. the most prominent immunoglobulin in external secretion is

a. IgG
b) IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD

46- Which is the least statisfactory for anaerobic specimen collection or

transport ?
a. Aspirates
b) Swabs
c. Tissue
d. Capped syringes

47- Humans are the only natural hosts for

a. Salmonella
b. Shigella
c) Campylohacter
d. Plesimonas

48- Heterophil l antibodies can be detected in infection with

a) Epstein-Bar Virus
b. Mycoplasma
c. Toxoplasma
d. Histoplasma

49- The following haemophilus (H) species need the X factor except
a. H.influenza
b) H. parainfluenza
c. H.Ducreyi
d. H. Haemolyticus

50- In alkaline urine, these crystals might he detected

a. Calcium Sulphate
b. Sodium Urate
c. cystine
d) Calcium Carbonate

51- In haemolytic jaundice the urine contains

a) urobilinogen
b. Bile salts
C. Biliverdin
d- Bilirubin

52- These Fungi are molds except

a. Histoplasma
b. Penicillium
c) Torulopsis { Torulopsis glabrata (candida glabrata) }
d. Aspergillus

53 A yellow Butt and red slant in a TSI tube indicates fermentation of

a. Lactose
b) Glucose
c) Lactose and Glucose
d. SucrOSe and Lactose
54-Genital cultures for sexually transmitted diseases includes all of the
fOllowing except.
a. Chlamydia
b. Herpes simplex
c)Treponema
d. Campylobacter Coil

55 The following test combinations should be used to diagnose Syphilis

a.RPR+VDRL
b) RPR+TPHA
c. MRSA+TPHA
d. RPR+MRSA

56-The urease test differentiates

a. Salmonella from E.Coli
b citrobacter from other
c) Klebsiella from Enterbacter Aerogenes
d. Shigella from Alkalescens-Dispar

57- Actinomyses species are

a. Anarobic gram negative rods
b. Geophiiic Dermatophytes
c) Bacteria like fungi
d. Fungus like bacteria

58- Weil-Felix test is a serological test used to help in the diagnosis of:
a. Syphilis
b. Salmonella Typhi
c. Proteus infection
d) Typhus fever

59- The bile esculin test is used to diffrentiate.

a. Enterococci from other group D streptococci
b. Streptococcus faecalis fron listeria
c) group D from other streptococcus groups
d. group A from group b streptococci

60- A larva that can be detected in stool is the larva of.

a) strongyloides
b. Necator
c. Ascaris
d. Ankylostoma
Ministry of Health General Examination
for Medical Technologists

Multiple Choice Questions Component. Only one lettered answer is correct

1. Which haemoglobin is alkali resistant:

a. Hb.A
b) Hb.F
c. Hb.S
d. Methaernoglobin

2. The prothrombin time (P.T) is prolonged in all except:

a. Vit. K deficiency
b. Liver failure
c) Haemophelia A
d. Oral anticoagulants

3. Naturally occurring antibodies-are regularly found in:

a. Rh blood group system
b. Kell blood group system
c) ABO blood group system
d Kidd blood group system

4. One statement about the direct coomns test is false:

a. Can detect free lgG in the serum
b. Can detect free lgG on the surface of the RBC
c) Can detect free lgM on the surface of the RBC
d Can detect complement on the surface of the RBC

5. Hypochromia is very common with:

a) Iron deficiency anemia
b. Anemia of chromic-diseases
c. Aplastic anemia

6. which dilution is used for ESR:

a) Citrate/blood =l/4
b. Citrate / blood = 1/9
c. Citrate / blood = 1/12

7. Reticulocytic count is recommended with:

a) New Methylene blue

b. Methyl violet
c. Brilliant cresyl blue

8. Atypical mononuclear cells are seen in the peripheral blood of:

a) Infectious mononucleosis
b. Infectious Lymphocytosis
c. Infectious Hepatitis

9. Which method is the appropriate method for Haemoglobin estimation:

a) Cyanmethaemoglobin method
b. Oxyhaemoglobm method
c. Alkaline Haematin method

10. in the normal body the largest quantity of iron is found:

a. In ferritin
b) In haemoglobin
c. In haemosiderin
d. In myoglobin
11. RNA remnants within RBC are visualized when stained:
a. Prussian blue
b) New methylene blue
c. PAS stain
d. Sudan black stain

12. All except one of these factors are VIT.K dependent:

a. vii
b) viii
c. ix
d. x

13. Howell -Jolly bodies are:

a. Denatured haemoglobin
b. Iron granules
c. Malarial pigment
d) Nuclear remnants

14. The commonest Cause of fatal transfusion of reaction is:

a) Wrong technique in grouping donor or recipient
b. Clerical error
c. Failure to cross match before transfusion
d. Infected blood

15. The most common cause of a macrocytosis:

a. Gastro-intestinalbleeding
b. Hypothyrodism
c. Carcinoma of the Prostate

16. Pancytopenia is characterized by:

a. Low red cell count
b. Low platelet count
c. Low leucocytic count
d) All the above

17. Which of the following is highly recommended for platelet count

manually:
a. EDTA
b. Ammonium oxalate
c. Formal citrate

18. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by:

a. Thromboplastin
b. Prothrombin
c.Calcium
d)Thrombin

19. All except one tend to increase the ESR:

a) High RBC count
b. High gamma globulin
c. High fibrinogen
d. Rouleaux formation

20. All are true of spherocytes except one:

a. Decreased surface area
b. Decreased MCV
c.Decreased lifespan
d) Decreased MCHC

21. Globulins in serum are usually determined by:

a) Calculation as difference between total protein and albumin
b. Biuret reaction
c. Mg S04 fractionation
d. Ethanol fractionation
e. Paper chromatography.

22. Patients having a lipid profile should be instructed to fast overnight

before the test
because:
a. Chylomicrons are decreased by eating
b. Cholesterol is significantly increased by eating
c) Triglycerides are significantly increased by eating
d. HDL levels are substantially increased after eating

23. Gamma glutamyltransferase is considered one of the:

a. Cardiac enzymes
b. RBC enzymes
c)Liver enzymes
d. Pancreatic enzymes

24. The test combination for the diagnosis of primary hyperthyroidism with
the
greatest diagnostic efficiency is:
a. Total thyroxin (T4)
b. Total T4 & thyroid binding globulin's
c) Free T4 & sensitive TSH
d.. T3 resin uptake

25. A glucose standard of 2000 mg / L reads 0.4 A and the patient sample
reads 1.0 A.
You should:
a. Report the patient result as 500 mg / dl
b. Repeat the test on diluted sample
c. Repeat the test before reporting
d. Prepare fresh glucose standard

26. Which of the following agents has anticoagulant properties NOT based
upon
calcium binding?
a. Citrate
b. EDTA
c) Heparin
d. Oxalate
27. Which methodology is used to measure serum electrolytes?
a. Chromatography
b Electrophoresis
c) Ion- selective electrode
d) Spectrophotometry

28. Turbid serum is associated with the presence of:

a. High total proteins level.
b. High total cholesterol level.
c) High triglycerides levels.
d. High urea and creatinine levels.
e. High uric acid levels.

29. Zero absorbance is equal to :

a. 1 + Log transmission.
b. Transmission.
c.. Log transmission.
d) 100 % transmission

30. Most of blood chemistry can be done on serum except:

a.lactate
b) Hb-Alc
c. None of the above
d. All of the above

31. The most specific cardiac marker is:

a LDH
b) Troponin
c. Myoglobin

32. Which of the following is the most common constituent of urinary

calculi?
a. Cystine
b. Uric acid
c) Calcium oxalate
a. Calcium phosphate

33. When you dissolve 40g NaOH in 100 ml DW, this means that you have :
a. Molar NaOH solution.
b. Normal NaOH solution
c) 40 % NaOH solution
d.. None of the above
e. All of the above

34. High levels of serum potassium can be the result of all of the following
except:
a. Chronic renal failure
b.Sever muscle injury
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Vomiting & diarrhea
35. Strenuous exercise prior to biochemical serum testing will result in:
a. increase serum iron
b) increase serum creatine kinase
c. decrease serum alanine aminotransferase
d. decrease serum creatinine

36. Arterial blood is preferably collected in:

a. EDTA vacutainers
b) Heparinized glass syringes
c. Dry glass syringes
d. Dry vacutainers
e. Glass syringes containing EDTA

37. A concentration of 10 to the power of -12g is referred to as:

a. Microgram
b) picogram
c. Femtogram
d. Megagram
e. Nanogram

38. Bence Jones proteins are found in:

a. Pneumonia
b Infectious hepatitis
c) Multiple myeloma
d. Galactosemia
e. Normal individuals

39. The immunoglobulin present in serum in greatest concentration is:

a) IgG
b.IgA
c.IgD
d.IgM
e. IgE

40. In a normal glucose tolerance curve the plasma glucose level returns to
the control
value in:
a. 30 Minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d) 120 minutes
e. 150 minutes

41. VDRL test might be positive in :

a. Syphilis
b. Old age patients
c Pregnant women
d) All

42. What sorts of substrate is useful for a routine urine culture?

a. Chocolate agar
b. Bill Broth
c) CLED agar
d. 5% NaCI Blood agar

43. In a suprapubic urine aspirate, significant bacteriuria is confirmed

when the
number of bacteria / ml is:
a. 103
b. 104
c) 105
d. None
e. All.

44. All these antibiotics are effective against streptococci except:

a. Penicillin
b) Gentamicin
c. Cephradine
d. Ampicillin

45. Ketones could be present in urine in:

a. Starvation
b. Diabetes mellitus
c.Gastrointestinal disturbances
d) All

46. The specific gravity of urine could determined by:

a. Urinometer
b. Hydrometer
c. Urine strip
d) A11

47. The following are all gram negative bacilli except:

a. Haemophilus
b. Bacteroides
c) Listeria
d. Aeromonas.

48. In hemolytic jaundice, the urine contains:

a) Urobilinogen
b. Bile salts
c. Biliverdin
d. bilirubin

49. What virus is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in children

during the
winter months?
a. Influenza virus
b. Adenovirus
c) Rotavirus
d. Hepatitis A virus
50. Routine Blood cultures should be incubated for:
a. 1 day
b. 2 days
c. 3 days
d) 5-7 days

51. Camp test is used to identify:

a. Group D streptococci
b. Campylobacter
c) Group B streptococci
d. None

52. Staphylococcus aureus is:

a. Coagulase Negative
b. Catalase Negative
c. Mannitol Negative
d) Coagulase Positive

53. The following protozoan has no cyst form:

a. Entamoeba histolytic
b. Endolimax nana.
c.Entamoeba hartmanni
d) Dientamoeba fragilis

54. A larva that can be detected in stool is the larva of:

a) Strongyloides
b. Necator
c.Ascaris
d.Ankylstomama.

55. Aztreonam sensitivity disc might be used for susceptibility test of

a.Staph aureus
b. bacteroides
c. streptococcus pyogenes
d) E. coli

56. FTA test is used for diagnosis of:

a. gonorrhea
b) syphilis
c. chancroid
d. LGV

57. Among the nematodes (round worm) which could be found in stool is:
a) Ascaris Lumbricoides
b. Taenia saginata.
c. Schistosoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica

58. This organism is non-motile and pathogenic if present in stool:

a. Klebsiella
b psuedomonas.
c) Shigella.
e. Salmonella.

59. A positive urine nitrite test is indicative of:

a) Bacteriuria
b. Haemoglobinuria
c. Pyuria
d. None

60. Urease test is positive with:

a. Klebsiella
b. Helicobacter Pylori
c) A11
a. None