In our lecture we have defined integrability as follows
Let $f:[a, b] \to \mathbb{R}$. We say that $f$ is integrable if
$sup\{L(f, P), P$ is a partitition of $[a, b]\}= inf\{U(f, P), P$ is a partitition of $[a, b]\}$,
where $L(f, P)$ and $U(f, P)$ are Darboux sums.
Based on this definition the professor showed that from integrability one can deduce:
If $f:[a, b] \to \mathbb{R}$ is integrable $\Rightarrow$ for every $\epsilon >0$ there exists a partitition $P$ of $[a, b]$ such that $U(f, P)-L(f, P)<\epsilon$.
However, I am not sure if I have understood his proof. So, I will try to reproduce it on my own:
Let $M:=sup\{L(f, P), P$ is a partitition of $[a, b]\}$ and $m:= inf\{U(f, P), P$ is a partitition of $[a, b]\}$. By definition of the $sup$ we know that there must be a $P'$ such that $M<L(f, P')+2\epsilon$. Likewise there must exist a $P''$ with $m>U(f, P'')-\epsilon$. We already know from lecture that both inequalities hold for any finer partitition $P$, because this means that $U(f, P)$ decreases and $L(f, P)$ increases.
It follows that $-M>-L(f, P)-2\epsilon$ and if we add the other inequality, $m>U(f, P)+\epsilon$, we get the desired result: $U(f, P)-L(f, P)<\epsilon$.
Is this correct? I am not sure if I have correctly applied the definitions of sup and inf.