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The Center of Gravity of An Isosceles Triangle Whose Height Is H On The Median Line

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The center of gravity of an isosceles triangle

whose height is H on the median line.

A. 2/3 H from the base


B. 1/3 H from the vertex

C. 3/4 H from the vertex


D. 2/3 H from the vertex
ANSWER: D
2/3 H FROM THE VERTEX
The standard equation of a straight line y-y1 =
m(x-x1) is called:

A. Point-slope form
B. Slope form

C. Slope-intercept form
D. Two-point form
ANSWER: A
POINT-SLOPE FORM
Which of the following is most suited in
evaluating and comparing alternatives with
different lives.

A. ROR method
B. ROI method

C. Present worth method


D. Uniform annual cost method
ANSWER: D
UNIFORM ANNUAL COST
METHOD
Share of participation in a corporation.

A. Partnership
B. Stock

C. Franchise
D. Monopoly
ANSWER: B
STOCK
To be responsible and in-charge of the
preparation of the plans, design and estimate of
a mechanical plant.

A. PME
B. CPM

C. ME
D. CPM, ME, or PME
ANSWER: A
PME
What is the unit of force in SI?

A. Joule
B. Newton

C. Watt
D. Hp
ANSWER: B
NEWTON
Any influence capable of producing a change in
the motion of an object.

A. Force
B. Vector

C. Velocity
D. Acceleration
ANSWER: A
FORCE
If the impeller is held constant and the speed
varied, the following ration can be maintained.

A. H2/H1 = (N2/N1)2
B. Q1/Q2 = N2/N1

C. N2/N1 = (Q2/Q1)2
D. H2/H1 = N2/N1
ANSWER: A
H2/H1 = (N2/N1) 2
Finding the resultant of two or more forces is
called

A. Composition of forces
B. Concurrent forces

C. Resolution of forces
D. Collinear forces
ANSWER: A
COMPOSITION OF FORCES
An oblique equilateral parallelogram:

A. Square
B. Rectangle

C. Rhombus
D. Trapezoid
ANSWER: C
RHOMBUS
The lessening of the value of an asset due to the
decrease in quantity available (referring to the
natural resources, coal, oil, etc.)

A. Depreciation
B. Depletion

C. Inflation
D. Incremental cost
ANSWER: B
DEPLETION
Is the simplest form of a business organization.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership

C. Enterprise
D. Corporation
ANSWER: A
SOLE PROPRIETORSHIP
An association of two or more persons for a
purpose of engaging in a profitable business.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise

C. Partnership
D. Corporation
ANSWER: C
PARTNERSHIP
A distinct legal entity which can practically
transact any business transaction which a real
person could do.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise

C. Partnership
D. Corporation
ANSWER: D
CORPORATION
Double taxation is a disadvantage of which
business organization?

A. Sole partnership
B. Partner

C. Corporation
D. Enterprise
ANSWER: C
CORPORATION
Which is not a type of business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Corporation

C. Enterprise
D. Partnership
ANSWER: C
ENTERPRISE
What is the minimum number of incorporators in
order that a corporation be organized?

A. 3
B. 5

C. 10
D. 7
ANSWER: B
5
In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. the partners are not liable for the liabilities of the


partnership .
B. the partnership assets (excluding the partners personal
assets) only will be used to pay the liabilities.
C. the partners personal assets are attached to the debt of
the partnership.

D. the partners may sell stock to general additional capital.


ANSWER: C
THE PARTNERS PERSONAL ASSETS
ARE ATTACHED TO THE DEBT OF THE
PARTNERSHIP
Which is true about partnership?

A. It has a perpetual life.

B. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be


connected with the partnership.
C. It can be handed down from one generation of partners
to another.

D. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner


ANSWER: B
It will be dissolved if one of the
partners ceases to be
connected with the partnership.
Which is true about corporation?

A. It is not the best form of business organization.

B. The minimum number of incorporators to start a


corporation is three.
C. Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators.

D. The stockholders of the corporation are only liable to the


extent of their investments.
ANSWER: D
The stockholders of the corporation
are only liable to the
extent of their investments.
Represent ownership, and enjoys certain
preferences than ordinary stock.

A. Authorization capital stock


B. Preferred stock

C. Common stock
D. Incorporator’s stock
ANSWER: B
PREFERRED STOCK
A particle is in a one-dimensional box of length
2L. What is the energy level of the ground state?

A. h2/32mL2
B. h2/16mL2

C. h2/8mL2
D. h2/4mL2
ANSWER: A
h /32mL
2 2
Electrons are in a one-dimensional box of length
2L. What is the relationship between EF, the
Fermi energy, and E, the average energy?

A. E = EF / 4
B. E = EF / 3

C. E = EF / 2
D. E = EF
ANSWER: B
E = EF / 3
Which of the following statements about nuclear
fusion is false?

A. A typical fusion reaction releases less energy


than a typical fusion reaction.

B. Because of the energy required to produce nuclear fusion,


it cannot yet be used by man.

C. A typical fusion reaction releases more energy per unit mass


than a typical fission reaction

D. Fusion has disadvantages over fission because of a greater


availability of fuel and a lack of some of the dangers fission
ANSWER: B
Because of the energy required to
produce nuclear fusion,
it cannot yet be used by man.
What is the total relativistic energy of a particle if
its mass is equal to 1 slug when it is travelling
with a certain speed, v?

A. 1
B. c2-1

C. c2
D. c2+1
ANSWER: C
c 2
A sequence denotes____________.

A. Order
B. Permutation

C. Combination
D. Series
ANSWER: A
Order
A series is defined as the __________.

A. Sum
B. Quotient

C. Difference
D. Product
ANSWER: A
Sum
If the series has an infinite number of terms,
then it is____________.

A. An infinite series
B. A series

C. A finite series
D. A function
ANSWER: A
An infinite series
If the sequence has n terms, then it is________.

A. A finite sequence
B. An infinite sequence

C. A series
D. A function
ANSWER: A
A finite sequence
The terms of an arithmetic sequence has a
common _________.

A. Factor
B. Difference

C. Product
D. Quotient
ANSWER: B
Difference
Which statement about area moments of inertia
is false?

A. I=∫d2 (dA)

B. The are moment of inertia arises whenever the magnitude


of the surface varies linearly with distance.

C. The moment of inertia of a large area is equal to the


summation of the inertia of the smaller areas within the
large area
D. The area closest to the axis of interest are the most significant
ANSWER: D
The area closest to the axis of interest
Are the most significant.
Which of the following affects most of the
electrical and thermal properties of material?

A. The atomic weight expressed in grams per gram-atom.

B. The electrons, particularly the outermost ones.

C. The magnitude of electrical charge of the protons.

D. The weight of the atoms.


ANSWER: B
The electrons, particularly the
outermost ones.
Which of the following is not a method of non-
destructive testing of steel casting and forgings?

A. Radiography

B. Magnetic particle

C. Ultrasonic

D. Chemical analysis
ANSWER: D
Chemical analysis
Compressive strength of fully cured concrete is
most directly related to:

A. Sand-gravel

B. Water-cement ratio

C. Aggregate gradation

D. Absolute volume of cement


ANSWER: B
Water-cement ratio
According to the ACI code, the modular ratio, n,
of structural concrete with a 28-day ultimate
compressive strength, f’c, of 3000 is nearest to:

A. 7

B. 8

C. 9

D. 10
ANSWER: C
9
What are valence electrons?

A. The outershell electrons

B. Electrons with positive charge

C. The electrons with the complete quantum shells

D. The K-quantum shell electrons


ANSWER: A
The outershell electrons
What is strong bond between hydrogen atoms
known as?

A. The ionic bond

B. Ionic and metallic bond

C. The metallic bond

D. The covalent bond


ANSWER: D
The covalent bond
What are Van der Waals forces?

A. Weak secondary bonds between atoms

B. Forces between electrons and protons

C. Primary bonds between atoms

D. Forces not present in liquids


ANSWER: A
Weak secondary bonds between atoms
All of the following statements about air
entrained concrete are correct, except:

A. Air entrained is recommended when concrete is exposed


to severe frost action
B. With air entrainment, the quantity of water to produce a
given consistency (slump) is reduced.
C. With air entrainment, the quantity of water to produce a
specified 28 day compressive strength is reduced.
D. Air entrainment reduced resistance to the freeze – thaw
that occurs when salt is used to melt ice or snow
ANSWER: D
Air entrainment reduces resistance to the
freeze-thaw that occurs when salt is used
to melt ice or snow.
_______ is the quality of being physically
elongated.

A. Flexibility

B. Ductility

C. Malleability

D. Plasticity
ANSWER: D
Plasticity
When the total kinetic energy of system is the
same as before and after collision of two bodies,
it is called

A. Plastic collision

B. Inelastic collision

C. Elastic collision

D. Static collision
ANSWER: C
Elastic collision
Momentum is a property related to the object’s
_______.

A. Motion and mass

B. Mass and acceleration

C. Motion and weight

D. Weight and velocity


ANSWER: A
Motion and mass
The amount of heat needed to change solid to
liquid is

A. Condensation

B. Cold fusion

C. Latent heat of fusion

D. Solid fusion
ANSWER: C
Latent heat of fusion
The energy stored in a stretched elastic material
such as a spring is

A. Mechanical energy

B. Elastic potential energy

C. Internal energy

D. Kinetic energy
ANSWER: B
Elastic potential energy
According to this law, “the force between two
charges varies directly as the magnitude of each
charge and inversely as the square of the
distance between them”.

A. Law of universal gravitation

B. Coulomb’s law

C. Newton’s law

D. Inverse square law


ANSWER: B
Coulomb’s law
A free falling body is a body in rectilinear motion
and with constant _______.

A. Acceleration

B. Speed

C. Deceleration

D. Velocity
ANSWER: A
Acceleration
Centrifugal force _________.

A. Directly proportional to the radius of the curvature.

B. Directly proportional to the square of the tangential


velocity.
C. Inversely proportional to the square of the tangential
velocity.
D. Directly proportional to the square of the weight of the
object.
ANSWER: B
Directly proportional to the square of the
tangential velocity.
The fluid pressure is the same in all directions.
This is known as

A. Pascal’s principle

B. Bernoulli’s theorem

C. Ideal fluid principle

D. Archimedes principle
ANSWER: A
Pascal’s principle
The reciprocal of bulk modulus of any fluid is
called

A. Volume stress

B. Compressibility

C. Shape elasticity

D. Volume strain
ANSWER: D
Volume strain
Momentum is the product of mass and

A. Acceleration

B. Velocity

C. Force

D. Time
ANSWER: B
Velocity
One horsepower is equivalent to

A. 746 watts

B. 7460 watts

C. 74.6 watts

D. 7.46 watts
ANSWER: A
746 watts
All of the following statements about
ferromagnetism are correct, except:

A. Magnetic domains are small volumes existent within a


single crystal where atomic magnetic moments are
unidirectionally aligned.
B. Domains are randomly oriented when umagnetized. On
magnetization, domains oriented with the external field
grow at the expense of unaligned domains.
C. Impurities, inclusions and strain hardening interfere with
change of domain boundaries, and add to the
permanency of a magnet.
D. High magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic materials
disapears below the Curie temperature.
ANSWER: D
High magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic
materials disappears below the Curie
temperature
All of the following statements about steels are
correct, except:
A. Yield strength of commercially available heat treated alloys steels
does not exceed 200,000 psi.
B. High temperature alloys used in jet engine turbine blades can
withstand 2000 F continuously over extended periods.
C. Intergranular corrosion of chromium-nickel stainless steels is
reduced when stabilized by addition of columbium (niobium),
titanium or tantalum to preferentially form carbides and prevent
chromium depletion and chromium carbide precipitation is grain
grain boundary areas.
D. Abrasion resistance of extra strength steels may be obtained by
increasing hardness to 225-400 Brinell at the expense of some
ductility and toughness .
ANSWER: A
Yield strength of commercially available heat treated
alloy steels does not exceed 200,00 psi.
Steels can be strengthened by all of the following
practices, except:

A. Annealing

B. Work hardening

C. Quenching and tempering

D. Grain refinement
ANSWER: A
Annealing
All of the following statements about the
austenite-martensite-bainite transformation in
steel are correct, except:
A. Martensite is fine grained α-ferrite, supersaturated with carbon,
in a metastable body centered tetragonal structure. It forms by chear
(slippage) during the rapid quench of face centered cubic austenite
(δ-ferrite)
B. Martensite is strong and hard, but brittle. Tampering toughens it
and reduces brittleness.
C. Tempering of martensite is done by judicious reheating to
produce, by diffusion, a fine-grained tough, strong
microstructures.
D. Bainite and tempered martensite have distinctively different
microstructures.
ANSWER: D
Bainite and tempered martensite have distinctively
different microstructures
All of the statements about mechanical failure
are true, except:
A. Brittle fracture occurs with little plastic deformation and
relatively small energy absorption.
B. Ductile fracture is characterized by significant amounts of
energy absorption and plastic deformation (evidenced by
elongation and reduction in cross-sectional area)
C. Ductile-brittle transition in failure mode occurs at reduced
temperatures for most materials, because fracture strength
remains constant with temperature while yield strength increases
as temperature is reduced. At high temperatures yield strength is
least; lat low temperatures fracture strength is least.

D. Fatigue failure due to cyclic stress frequency dependent.


ANSWER: D
Fatigue failure due to cyclic stress frequency
dependent.
All of the following statements about rusting of
iron are correct, except:

A. Contact with water, and oxygen are necessary for rusting


to occur.
B. Contact with a more electropositive metal reduces
rusting.
C. Halides aggravate rusting, a process which involves
electrochemical oxidation-reduction reactions.
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen – rich anodic areas, and the rust
is deposited nearby.
ANSWER: D
Pitting occurs in oxygen – rich anodic areas,
and the rust is deposited nearby.
QED is often written at the end of a proof to
indicate that its conclusion has been reached.
This means

A. Quod erat daciendum

B. Duos erat demonstrandum

C. Quod erat decientrandum

D. None of the above


ANSWER: B
Duos erat demonstrandum
A sequence of numbers where the succeeding
term is greater than the preceding term.

A. Isometric series

B. Divergent series

C. Dissonant series

D. Convergent series
ANSWER: B
Divergent series
The process of reasoning wherein a final
conclusion is obtained by experimental method.

A. Mathematical deduction

B. Mathematical opposition

C. Mathematical conversion

D. Mathematical induction
ANSWER: A
Mathematical deduction
The sets of all subsets of a given set, containing
the empty set and the original set.

A. Intersection

B. Power set

C. Proper subset

D. Improper subset
ANSWER: B
Power set
A sequence having a defined first and last terms
is called

A. Infinite sequence

B. Convergent sequence

C. Divergent sequence

D. Finite sequence
ANSWER: D
Finite sequence
A series is said to be _____ if it converges when
the terms are replaced by their absolute value.

A. Absolute convergent

B. Conditional convergent

C. Infinite convergent

D. Finite convergent
ANSWER: A
Absolute convergent
A convergent series is said to be ________ if it
diverges when the terms are replaced by their
absolute values.

A. Absolute convergent

B. Conditional convergent

C. Infinite convergent

D. Finite convergent
ANSWER: B
Conditional convergent
Refers to the product of the several prime
numbers occurring in the denominations, each
taken with its greater multiplicity.

A. Least common denominator

B. Least common multiple

C. Least square

D. A or B
ANSWER: A
Least common denominator
A polynomial which is exactly divisible by two or
more polynomials is called

A. Least common denominator

B. Common multiple

C. Factors

D. Binomial
ANSWER: B.
Common multiple
The sum of the exponents of the several
variables of the term is referred to as the _____
of the term.

A. Power

B. Degree

C. Partial product

D. Absolute power
ANSWER: B
Degree
Venn diagram is a pictorial representation which
helps us visualize the relations and operations
with sets. This was introduced by

A. John Venn

B. Jan Michael Venn

C. James Venn

D. Stephen Venn
ANSWER: A
John Venn
The symbol of equality (=) was introduced in
1557 by

A. Bhaskara

B. Brahmagupta

C. Leonhard Euler

D. Robert Recorde
ANSWER: D
Robert Recorde
In Physics, if Lf and Lv are the latent heat of
fusion and vaporization, respectively which of the
following equations apply in determining the
amount of energy needed to freeze a liquid?

A. Q = -mLf

B. Q = -mlV

C. Q = mLv

D. Q = mLf
ANSWER: A
Q = -mLf
The unending sequence of integers formed
according to the rule that each integer is the sum
of the preceding two.

A. Fermat’s last theorem

B. Fibonacci numbers

C. Goldbach conjecture

D. Triangular numbers
ANSWER: B
Fibonacci numbers
It was conjecture that the number in the form, Fp
= 22+1 will always result to a prime number,
however proved wrong. What do you call the
numbers obtained using the said formula?

A. Mersene numbers

B. Fermat numbers

C. Euler numbers

D. Pseudo prime
ANSWER: B
Fermat numbers
A theorem which states that if n>2, the equation
x2 + y2 = zn cannot be solved in positive integers x,
y and z.

A. Pythagorean theorem

B. Mersenne theorem

C. Goldbach conjecture

D. Fermat’s theorem
ANSWER: D
Fermat’s theorem
The number ∏ = 3.141592563.....if only four
decimals are required, it becomes 3.1415. this
process is called

A. Rounding off

B. Truncation

C. Rounding up

D. Rounding down
ANSWER: B
Truncation
A set of all subsets of a given set, containing the
empty set and the original set.

A. Empty

B. Null

C. Power set

D. Union
ANSWER: C
Power set
A set containing the elements that is common to
the original sets

A. Union

B. Intersection

C. Normal set

D. Subset
ANSWER: B
Intersection
If an infinite series has a finite sum, it is referred
to as a

A. Convergent series

B. Divergent series

C. Geometric series

D. None of the above


ANSWER: A
Convergent series
If an infinite series has no sum, it is referred to as
a

A. Convergent series

B. Divergent series

C. Geometric series

D. None of the above


ANSWER: B
Divergent series
The sum of the factorial infinite 1+1/1!+1/2!
+1/3!+1/4!+....is

A. π

B. e

C. √2

D. √3
ANSWER: B
e
Refers exclusively to equations with integer
solutions.

A. Determinate equations

B. Indeterminate equations

C. Diophantine equations

D. L’Hospital’s equations
ANSWER: C
Diophantine equations
“My Dear Aunt Sally” is the basic rule used I
operation of algebra. Which is used in
determining the signs of trigonometric functions
in all quadrants?

A. All chemicals thick solution

B. All students can think

C. All students take chemistry

D. All teachers chemistry


ANSWER: C
All students take chemistry
The investigation of numbers, space and many
generalizations of these concepts created by the
intellectual genius of man.

A. Science

B. Arts

C. Mathematics

D. Astronomy
ANSWER: C
Mathematics
A Carnot operates between two reservoirs. One
reservoir is at a higher temperature, TH, and the
other is a cooler temperature, TC. What is the
coefficient of performance, COP, of the
refrigerator?
A. TH / TC

B. TH – (TC / TH)

C. 1- (TC / TH)

D. TC / (TH-TC)
ANSWER: D
TC / (TH-TC)
All of the following processes strengthen metals,
except:

A. Annealing above the recrystallization temperature.


B. Work hardening by mechanical deformation below the
recrystallization temperature (cold working)
C. Heat treatment such as quenching and tempering, for
production of a finer microstructure.
D. Precipitation processes, such as age hardening, which
produce high strength by formation of sub microscopic
phases during low temperature heat treatment.
ANSWER: A
Annealing above the recrystallization
temperature.
The valence band model used to explain metallic
conduction is based on all the following
statements, except:
A. Each valence band may contain up to 2n electrons/n atom;
each electron lies at a discretely different level.
B. Fermi energy level, EF, is essentially temperature
independent, and is the energy at which 50 % of available
energy states are occupied.
C. A conduction band lies at the next higher set of electronic
energy levels above those occupied at ground state.

D. Conduction occurs when an electron remains in its


existent valence band.
ANSWER: D
Conduction occurs when an electron remains
in its existent valence band.
Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically conducive,
with electrons as majority carriers, when doped
with which of the following?

A. Nothing

B. Antimony

C. Boron

D. Germanium
ANSWER: B
Antimony
Which of the following is standard temperature
and pressure (STP)?

A. 0˚K and one atmosphere pressure

B. 0˚F and zero pressure

C. 32˚F and zero pressure

D. 0˚C and one atmosphere pressure


ANSWER: D
0˚C and one atmosphere pressure
When the emitter to base of an npn transistor is
forward biased, and base to collector is reverse
biased, all of the following are correct except:
A. Electrons are majority carriers in the n-emitter and n-
collector regions.
B. Electrons are minority carriers in the p-base region.

C. The emitter is positive with respect to the collector.


D. Holes are majority carriers in the p-base region.
ANSWER: C
The emitter is positive with respect to the collector
All of the following statements about solid
solution are correct, except:
A. Solid solutions can result when basic structure of the solvent can
accommodate solute additions.
B. In solid solution larger solute atoms occupy the interstitial
space between solvent atoms that are located at the lattice sites.

C. Solid solutions may result by substitution of one atomic species


for another, provided radii and electronic structure are
compatible.
D. Order-disorder transitions that occur at elevated temperature in
solid solutions involve changes due to thermal agitation from
preferred orientation to random occupancy of lattice sites.
ANSWER: B
In solid solution larger solute atoms occupy
the interstitial space between solvent atoms
that are located at the lattice sites.
Which of the following is not an advantage of a
superheated, close Rankine cycle over an open
Rankine cycle?

A. Lower equipment costs

B. Increased efficiency

C. Increased boiler life

D. Increased turbine work output


ANSWER: C
Increased boiler life
Which of the following statements regarding
Rankine cycle is not true?

A. In practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine materials to


corrosion is not a key limitation on the operating efficiency.

B. Use of condensable vapor in the cycle increases the efficiency


of the cycle.
C. The temperature at which energy is transferred to and from the
working liquid are less separated than in a Carnot cycle.

D. Superheating increases the efficiency of a Rankine cycle.


ANSWER: A
In practical terms, the susceptibility of the
engine materials to corrosion, is not a key
limitation on the operating efficiency.
Which of the following set of reversible process
describes and ideal Otto cycle?

I. Adiabatic compression, isometric heat addition,


adiabatic expansion, isometric heat rejection
II. Isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition,
isothermal expansion, isobaric heat rejection
A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II in succession

D. II and I in succession
ANSWER: A
I only
All of the following statements about diffusion
and grain growth are correct , except:
A. Vacancies and interstitial atoms affect diffusion, whose net result
is movement of atoms to produce structure of less strain and
uniform composition.
B. Activation energy for diffusion through structure is inversely
proportional to atomic packing factor in the lattice.
C. Diffusion is irreversible and requires an activation energy; its
rate increases exponentially with temperature. It follows the
diffusion equation where flux equals diffusivity limes
concentration gradient.
D. Atoms can diffuse both within crystal and across grain (crystal)
boundaries.
ANSWER: B
Activation energy for diffusion through structures
is inversely proportional to atomic packing
factor in the lattice.
All of the following statements about slip are
correct, except:

A. Slip planes lie in the direction of the longest distance between


neighboring sites in the crystal lattice.

B. It involves only a few atoms at a lime in a series of small


dislocation movements.

C. Slip, or shear along crystal planes, results in an irreversible


plastic deformation or permanent set.

D. Ease of slippage is directly related to number of low energy slip


planes existent in the lattice structure.
ANSWER: A
Slip planes lie in the direction of the longest
distance between neighboring sites
in the crystal lattice.
When a metal is cold worked all of the following
generally occur, except:

A. Recrystallization temperature decreases

B. Ductility decreases

C. Grains become equi-axed

D. Tensile strength increases


ANSWER: C
Grains become equi-axed
All of the following statements about strain
hardening are correct, except:

A. Strain hardening strengthens metals. Resistance to deformation


increases with the amount of strain present.

B. Strain hardening is relieved during softening, annealing above


the recrystallization temperature.

C. More strain hardening requires more time-temperature


exposure for relief.

D. Strain hardening is produced by cold working (deformation


below the recrystallization temperature.
ANSWER: C
More strain hardening requires more
time-temperature exposure for relief.
The study of the properties of positive integers is
known as

A. Theory of equation

B. Number of theory

C. Set theory

D. Arithmetic
ANSWER: B
Number of theory
Indicate the false statement.

A. A quotient of two polynomials is called as rational algebraic


expression

B. a3-b3 = (a+b) (a2-ab+b2)

C. The equation ax+b = 0 has exactly one root.

D. The equation 3x2 + 2y2 - 3x + 2y = 10


ANSWER: B
a3-b3 = (a+b) (a2-ab+b2)
A number is said to be in _____ when it is written
as the product of a number having the decimal
point just after the leading digit, and a power of
10.

A. Scientific notation

B. Exponential

C. Irrational

D. Logarithm
ANSWER: A
Scientific notation
A number which cannot be a root of an integral
rational equation is called

A. Transcendental number

B. Euler’s number

C. Irrational number

D. Natural number
ANSWER: A
Transcendental number
Refers to the numbers which are not the roots of
any algebraic equation.

A. Irrational numbers

B. Imaginary numbers

C. Transcendental numbers

D. Composite
ANSWER: C
Transcendental numbers
All number multiplied by _____ equals unity.

A. Negative of the number

B. One

C. Conjugate

D. Its reciprocal
ANSWER: D
Its reciprocal
The number denoted as “e” and equal to
2.718....is called the

A. Einstein constant

B. Euler’s number

C. Fibonacci number

D. Fermat’s number
ANSWER: B
Euler’s number
A notation that represent the product of all
positive integers from 1 to number, n, inclusive

A. Factorial

B. Exponent

C. Summation

D. All of the above


ANSWER: A
Factorial
Simplify n! / (n-1)!

A. n + 1

B. n - 1

C. (n + 1)!

D. n
ANSWER: D
n
The factorial symbol (!) was introduced in 1808
by

A. Christian Goldbach

B. Christian Kramp

C. Christian Leatner

D. Robert Hooke
ANSWER: B
Christian Kramp
The conjecture that every even number (except
2) equals to the sum of two prime numbers.

A. Goldbach Conjecture

B. Fibonacci series

C. Number conjecture

D. Fermat’s last theorem


ANSWER: A
Goldbach conjecture
The difference between the starting and the
ending inventory valuations, a term that
represents an inventory account adjust is called:

A. Perpetual inventory system

B. Cost of good sold

C. Physical inventory system

D. Periodic inventory system


ANSWER: B
Cost of good sold
How is the material purchase price variances
defined?

A. (quantity issued – std. quantity) (std. price)

B. (actual price – std. price) (quantity used)

C. (quantity purchased x actual price) – (quantity purchased


x std. price)

D. (quantity purchased – quantity used) (actual price)


ANSWER: C
(quantity purchased x actual price) – (quantity purchased x std. price)
How many significant digits do 10.097 have?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5
ANSWER: D
5
Angles are measured from the positive horizontal
axis, and the positive direction is
counterclockwise. What are the values of sinB
and cosB in the 4th quadrant?

A. sin B > 0 and cos B < 0

B. sin B < 0 and cos B > 0

C. sin B < 0 and cos B < 0

D. sin B > 0 and cos B > 0


ANSWER: B
sin B < 0 and cos B > 0
Modulus of resilience is

A. The same as the modulus of elasticity

B. A measure of a material’s ability to store strain energy

C. The reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity

D. A measure of the deflection of a member


ANSWER: B
A measure of a material’s ability to
store strain energy
Imperfections within metallic crystal structures
may be all of the following, except:

A. Lattice vacancies, or extra interstitial atoms

B. Ions pairs missing in ionic crystal (Shotky imperfections)

C. Displacement to form mirror images along a low energy


boundary or crystal plane.

D. Linear defects, or slippage dislocations caused by shear


ANSWER: B
Ions pairs missing in ionic crystal
(Shotky imperfections)
All of the following statements about strain
energy are correct, except:

A. It is caused by generation and movement of dislocations through


shear or plastic deformation.

B. It results from tapped vacancies in the crystal lattice.

C. It is proportional to length of dislocation, shear modulus, and


shortest distance between equivalent lattice sites (points)

D. It is less for sites at grain boundaries than for internal sites


within the crystal structure.
ANSWER: D
It is less for sites at grain boundaries than for
internal sites within the crystal structure.
For a heat engine operating between two
temperatures (T2 > T1), what is the maximum
efficiency attainable?

A. 1 – (T2 / T1)

B. 1 – (T1 / T2)

C. T1 / T2

D. 1 – (T1 / T2)2
ANSWER: B
1 – (T1 / T2)
A number of the form a + bi with a and b real
constant and i is the square root of -1.

A. Imaginary number

B. Complex number

C. Radical

D. Compound number
ANSWER: B
Complex number

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