1. What were the two challenges of creating a network model? (select two) A. interconnectivity B. interaction C. internetworking D. interoperability A, D.

Interconnectivity and interoperability were the challenges of creating a networking model. 2. The Advanced Research Projects Agency created what network? A. Ethernet B. FDDI C. ARPANET D. Token Ring C. ARPANET was created by the DARPA project 3. What does OSI stand for? A. Organization for Standards Institute B. Organization for Internet Standards C. Open Standards Institute D. Open Systems Interconnection D. OSI stands for Open Systems Interconnection 4. What are the layers of the OSI reference model, in order? A. application, transport, network, physical B. application, presentation, session, network, transport, data link, physical C. application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical D. application, session, transport, physical C. The layers of the OSI reference modelapplication, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physicalcan easily be remembered with the mnemonic device: All People Seem To Need Data Processing. 5. What is the term for wrapping a data unit with a header and passing it to the next protocol? A. Windowing B. Encapsulation C. Wrapping

D. Heading B. The term for wrapping a data unit with a header is encapsulation. 6. Which of the following is not defined at the physical layer of the OSI reference model? A. hardware addresses B. bitstream transmission C. voltage levels D. physical interface A. Hardware addresses are defined at the MAC portion of the data link layer. 7. Which standards institute created the 802 series of physical/data link layer standards? A. ANSI B. DIX C. ITU-T D. IEEE D. The IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) created the 802 standard series. 8. Who created Ethernet? A. ANSI B. DIX C. ITU-T D. IEEE B. DIX (Digital, Intel, and Xerox) co-created Ethernet. 9. What is the function of CSMA/CD? A. It passes a token around a star topology B. Nodes access the network and retransmit if they detect a collision C. Nodes connect to a dual ring of fiber-optics and use a tokenpassing scheme D. Nodes break the frames into tiny cells and forward them through a cell-switching network. B. The function of CSMA/CD is to detect collisions. Nodes access the network. If they detect a collision, they retransmit the data. 10. What is a backoff algorithm? A. It is the fault tolerance calculation for FDDI

B. It is a routing calculation for determining the best route C. It is the notification that a serious error has occurred on the network D. It is the duration calculation to delay retransmission after a collision, before retransmitting in Ethernet. D. A backoff algorithm is used to prevent two nodes from retransmitting simultaneously and creating an endless number of collisions by delaying the retransmission for a variable length of time on each node. 11. IBM's Token Ring specification is nearly identical and compatible with IEEE's 802.5 specification. A. True B. False A. The two specifications are nearly identical, since 802.5 was based on IBMs Token Ring specificiation. 12. What is beaconing? A. It is the fault tolerance calculation for FDDI B. It is a routing calculation for determining the best route C. It is the notification that a serious error has occurred on the network D. It is the duration calculation to delay retransmission after a collision, before retransmitting in Ethernet. C. Beaconing is a Token Ring mechanism for notifying other stations that a serious error has occurred on the network. 13. What two types of frames are found on a Token Ring network? A. Token B. Frame check sequence C. Data D. Address A, C. There is a token frame and a data frame used on a Token Ring network. 14. The FDDI specification includes which layers of the OSI reference model? A. Physical and network B. Physical and transport C. Physical and MAC sublayer of data link D. Physical and data link C. FDDI specifies protocols at both the MAC sublayer and the physical layer of the OSI reference model.

15. What is RS-232? A. A standard serial port interface B. A high-speed serial interface C. An ISDN interface D. An ATM switch A. RS-232 is an extremely common serial port interface.

1. What command would you use to log out of the router and end your session? (Select two.) A. terminate B. logout C. exit D. session end B, C. You would use either LOGOUT or EXIT to log out of the router and end your session. The others are not valid IOS commands. 2. If you type a command that the router doesnt recognize, what will the router do? A. Display an error message B. Try to resolve the command to an IP address C. Try to execute the closest command it can find in its command set D. Invalidate the configuration B. The router will try to resolve the incorrect command to an IP address, thinking it is a hostname, so it can establish a Telnet session with it. 3. You can confirm that you are in the privileged EXEC mode by which prompt? A. Router> B. Router(config)# C. Router# D. Router(config-if)#

C. The prompt Router# confirms that you are in the privileged EXEC mode. The privileged EXEC mode allows you to go into the configuration mode, and then to the interface configuration mode. The first mode you access is user EXEC mode. 4. A reload of the router is required to get the configuration changes to take place. A. True B. False B. False. Cisco routers do not require a reload to get configuration changes to take effect. The changes are dynamic, and take effect immediately when you press the Enter key. 5. By default, how many commands are stored in the command history buffer? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 B. The command history buffer will allow you to paste in your last 10 commands. This can be changed with the command history size x. 6. The IOS image is normally stored in? A. RAM B. NVRAM C. Shared D. Flash D. IOS image is usually stored in Flash and booted from Flash. RAM stores routing tables and the running configuration. NVRAM is for the startup configuration. 7. The startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM. A. True B. False A. True. The startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM. NVRAM is memory that retains its contents after the router is powered off. 8. To determine the operational status of an interface, which command do you use? A. display interface status

B. show interface C. show status interface D. display interface B. To determine the operational status of an interface, use the SHOW INTERFACE command. The other commands are invalid. 9. The boot field consists of: A. The lowest four bits of the configuration register B. The same as the configuration register C. The highest four bits of the configuration register D. Bits 4 through 7 of the configuration register A. The boot field is the lowest four bits of the configuration register. 10. A boot field value of 0x1 will cause the router to: A. Boot from Flash B. Look for boot system commands in the startup configuration C. Look for an IOS image on a TFTP server D. Boot from ROM D. The boot field set to 0x1 will cause the router to boot from ROM. 11. To view the configuration register settings, which command do you enter? A. show running-configuration B. show startup-configuration C. show version D. show controllers C. The configuration register setting is at the last line of the show version command. This command also shows router up time and IOS version. 12. What command is required to send Debug output to a VTY session? A. show debug B. show log C. terminal monitor D. debug all C. Terminal monitor sends Debug output to the VTY session. By default the VTY sessions do not log any errors message, like the console sessions do. 13. Which keystroke would you use to recall the previous command in the command history buffer? A. Ctrl-N B. Ctrl-P C. Esc-P

D. Esc-F B. The Ctrl-P keystroke recalls the previous command in the command history buffer. If your terminal emulator allows it, you may also use the up arrow key. 14. You must have an IP address assigned to an Interface in order for CDP to operate. A. True B. False B. False. CDP will multicast to a functional MAC address. There is no need to have any network layer address assigned to the interface to get the CDP messages to go out. 15. What is the command to view the stored configuration in NVRAM? A. show running-config B. show startup-config C. show version D. show NVRAM B. The show startup-config will show the configuration stored in NVRAM. The show running-config will show the configuration currently running. 16. When do configuration commands take effect? A. When you reload the router B. When they are saved in NVRAM C. As soon as you press the Enter key D. When you enter the command ENABLE. C. The commands you enter take effect immediately, as soon as you press the Enter key. 17. What command is needed to see if an interface is up and operational? A. show controllers B. show running-config C. show interface D. show buffers C. SHOW INTERFACE will tell you if the interface is adminstratively down, or down because of a failure, or up and operational. 18. What is the best command to enter to determine which release of IOS the router is running? A. show flash B. show running-config C. show startup-config

D. show version D. SHOW VERSION will display the current IOS release. A SHOW FLASH will show what file is stored in Flash, and usually the filename will include the version number. Under most circumstances the two should match, but if the router booted from ROM or TFTP, it will not be using the Flash IOS. 19. What is the command needed to copy the current operational configuration to a TFTP server? A. copy running-config tftp B. copy startup-config tftp C. copy tftp running-config D. copy tftp startup-config A. The copy running-config tftp tells the router to copy from the configuration in RAM to the TFTP server identified. The other commands are valid commands, but have other effects. 20. What command would you use to see information about all the protocols enabled in the router? A. display protocol information B. display protocols C. show protocol route D. show protocols D. SHOW PROTOCOLS displays information about all the protocols enabled in the router. The other choices are not valid IOS commands. 21. What is the part of the IOS software that provides the user interface and interprets the commands you type? A. The virtual terminal B. The command executive C. The console port D. The configuration register B. The command executive is the part of the IOS software that provides the user interface and interprets the commands you type. A virtual terminal is another way of referring to a Telnet session. The console port is a hardware interface for attaching a terminal to the router. The configuration register is a memory location in NVRAM that controls the routers operation as it boots up. 22. What command allows you to view the configuration in RAM? A. show startup-config B. show RAM-config C. show running-config

D. show config C. show running-config allows you to view the configuration in RAM. Show startup-config allows you to see the configuration file stored in NVRAM. Show config is an older (pre-IOS 10.3) command that allows you to see the configuration in NVRAM. Answer B is not a valid command. 23. Which of the following represents access via a physical connection of a terminal to a router? A. Virtual terminal B. IOS C. Console D. All of the above C. The console represents a physical connection to a router. The virtual terminal has the same look and feel as the console port, but it does not represent a physical connection. 24. What command would you use to view the name of the filename in Flash memory? A. show memory all B. show flash C. show filename D. show flash partitions B. You would use SHOW FLASH to view the name of the filename in Flash memory. 25. What is the level of access to the router in which you are allowed to change the routers configuration? A. User EXEC mode B. High-level access mode C. Privileged EXEC mode D. Console mode C. You are allowed to change the routers configuration in privileged EXEC mode. You cannot change configurations from user EXEC mode. There is no such thing as high-level access mode or console mode. 26. Changes to the router configuration are allowed from the user EXEC mode. A. True B. False

B. False. Changes to the router configuration are not allowed from the user EXEC mode. 27. How can you confirm you are in privileged EXEC mode? A. By issuing the command CONFIRM MODE B. By viewing the output of the SHOW VERSION command C. By noting the routers prompt D. None of the above C. The routers prompt will end with a pound sign (#) in privileged EXEC mode. 28. After giving the command interface Ethernet0 from global configuration mode, the router is most likely to respond with: A. router(config)# B. router#interface C. router(config-if)# D. router#(config-int) C. After the command interface Ethernet0 from global configuration mode, the router is most likely to respond with router(config-if)#. 29. To completely get out of the interface configuration mode and back to privileged EXEC mode, what should you use? A. Ctrl-Z B. EXIT C. END CONFIG D. LOGOUT A. Ctrl-Z will get the user completely out of the configuration mode. EXIT takes the user back one step. LOGOUT terminates your session. 30. The response to the command router# configure ? will be: A. Connect, copy, configure B. Various paths from source to destination C. router(config)# D. A list of possible options from where the router can be configured D. The response to the command router# configure ? will be a list of possible options from where the router can be configured. The "?" results in a list of arguments being displayed. 31. Which are the types of memory elements in a Cisco router? A. RAM, ROM, NVRAM, and Boot B. RAM, ROM, NVRAM, and Flash

C. Config, RAM, ROM, NVRAM, and Flash D. Buffers, RAM, NVRAM, Flash B. The memory types are RAM, ROM, Flash Memory, and NVRAM. 32. How do you suspend a Telnet session? A. use the command SUSPEND SESSION B. use the keystrokes Ctrl-Alt-6 C. use the keystrokes Ctrl-Shift-6 x D. A Telnet session cannot be suspended. You must quit the session and initiate it again if you want to go back to it. C. To suspend a Telent session, use the keystrokes Ctrl-Shift-6 x. Choices A and B are invalid commands or keystrokes. 33. What is the characteristic of a link-state routing protocol that enables it to make better routing decisions? A. Its metrics take bandwidth into account B. It uses a hello protocol C. It broadcasts the contents of its routing table periodically to its neighbors D. None of the above. A. The characteristic of a link-state routing protocol that enables it to make better routing decisions is that its metrics take bandwidth into account. Answer C is characteristic of a distance vector routing protocol. 34. What is the sequence of events that occurs when you power up your router? A. Find configuration file, load IOS image, test hardware B. Load IOS image, test hardware, find configuration file C. Test hardware, find configuration file, load IOS image D. Test hardware, load IOS image, find configuration file D. The router first tests its hardware, then attempts to locate and load an IOS image, and finally locates and applies its specific configuration information 35. The size of the configuration register is: A. 16 bits B. 12 bits C. 8 bits D. 4 bits A. The configuration register has 16 bits.

36. It is recommended that in order to obtain best results, boot system flash command be entered after the boot system rom command. A. True B. False B. False. If the ROM command is entered prior to the FLASH command, the router will reload IOS from ROM and not from Flash. 37. The command routerx(config)#boot system tftp 189.12.3.172 will boot the router from: A. System image in Flash B. System image 189.12..3.172 from RAM C. System image 189.12.3.172 from TFTP D. System image from TFTP C. That command will boot the router from system image 189.12.3.172 from TFTP. Answer D is not complete. 38. A good connection is indicated by which of the following in an output display of the PING command? A. !!!!! B. .. C. xxxxx D. ****** A. A series of exclamation points (!!!!!) indicates a good connection. A series of dots (..) indicates that the pings timed out. The symbols in answers C and D do not exist. 39. If a mistake is made in specifying the file name in the copy tftp flash command, the router will still function because: A. It still has working image in ROM B. It still has working image in RAM C. It still has working image in Flash D. It still has working image in TFTP B. If a mistake is made in specifying the file name in the copy tftp flash command, the router will still function because it still has working image in RAM. Answers C and D are incorrect, because the purpose of the command is to copy new image from TFTP server into Flash. 40. The command copy flash tftp file2600 copies: A. Contents of file from Flash into file2600 of the TFTP server B. Contents of TFTP into file2600 in the Flash

C. Contents of file2600 in the TFTP to file2600 in the Flash D. Contents of file2600 in the TFTP into Flash. A. Contents of Flash memory will be copied to file2660, which is in the TFTP server. 41. What command can be used to see the routers neighbors from your local router if no network layer protocols are configured? A. show cdp B. show cdp neighbor C. show neighbor D. show network B. show cdp neighbor can be used to see the routers neighbors from your local router if no network layer protocols are configured. Answers A and C are incomplete. Answer D is not a valid option. 42. In order to show the neighbors IOS version, what optional parameter can be used in the command show cdp neighbor? A. version B. IOS C. detail D. None of the above C. The command show cdp neighbor detail will show the IOS version. 43. In a Cisco router, configuration register information can be used to: A. Select a boot source and default file name B. Enable booting from a TFTP server C. Load operating software from ROM D. All of the above E. Configuration register information can be used to select a boot source and default file name, enable booting from a TFTP server, and load operating software from ROM.

The following questions will help you measure your understanding of the material presented in this chapter. Read all the choices carefully, as there may be more than one correct answer. Choose all correct answers for each question. 1. What is the network address for the address 96.2.3.16? A. 96.2.0.0

B. 96.2.3.0 C. 96.0.0.0 D. Can't tell C. This is a Class A network address. The default netmask is eight bits, which defines the network. 2. What class of address is 190.233.27.13? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D B. Class B addresses range from 128-191 in the first octet. 3. How many bits are in the default subnet mask for the address 219.25.23.56? A. 8 B. 16 C. 24 D. 32 C. This is a Class C address, which has a default mask of 24 bits. 4. How many hosts are supported by a Class C network address, without subnetting? A. 254 B. 65,000 C. 255 D. 16,000 A. There are 8 bits (256 addresses) available for hosts in a Class C network, but host numbers 0 and 255 are not allowed. Therefore the answer is 254. 5. What is the default mask for a Class B network? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.255.0 C. 255.255.0.0. D. 255.225.0.0 C. A Class B network uses 16 bits to represent the network address. Answer D was added to demonstrate a common typographical error in assigning a subnet mask. 6. Approximately how many unique networks are possible with a Class B address?

A. B. C. D.

254 16K 65K 2M

B. A Class B address allocates 16 bits (65K) for the network address, but the address class predetermines three of these bits. In other words, 128 through 191 are the only possible values for the first octet. 7. What is the decimal value of the binary number 11001011? A. 203 B. 171 C. 207 D. 193 A. The decimal value of the binary number 11001011 is 128+64+8+2+1=203 8. What is the binary value of the decimal number 219? A. 11101011 B. 01011101 C. 11101011 D. 11011011 D. The binary value of the decimal number 219 is 219-128-64-16-8-2-1 = 0 9. Subnet bits are added to________ to segment the network into subnets. A. The network address B. The default subnet mask C. The host address D. The subnet ID B. We add bits to the default mask to create subnets, which reduces the number of available host addresses available on each subnet. The network address for the parent network will remain the same, while each subnet address will include an extended network address identifying the subnet, and zeros in the host portion. 10. If eight bits were allocated to subnetting with a Class B address, how many subnets would be possible? A. 62 B. 256 C. 254 D. 16K C. Eight bits provide for 256 bit combinations, but the all-zeros and all-ones combinations are not valid, leaving only 254.

11. Given the subnet mask 255.255.240 on a Class A address, how many bits are allocated to subnetting? A. 4 B. 5 C. 9 D. 12 D. Because the default mask for a Class A address is 255.0.0.0, this subnet mask has added the entire second octet plus four additional bits for subnetting. 12. If the subnet mask for the network 150.25.0.0 is 255.255.224.0, which of these is a valid host address? A. 150.25.0.27 B. 150.25.30.23 C. 150.25.40.24 D. 150.25.224.30 C. This address is within the address range for the first subnet, which is 150.25.32.0. In both answer A and answer B, the subnet bits are all zeros, which is not valid. In answer D, the subnet bits are all ones, which is not valid for a host address. 13. What is the first subnet ID for the network 25.0.0.0 with a subnet mask of 255.192.0.0? A. 25.192.0.0 B. 25.64.0.0 C. 25.128.0.0 D. 25.192.64.0 B. The value of the first subnet is equal to the lowest-order bit of the subnet mask. Answer C would be the second subnet. Answer A is an all-ones combination. 14. What is the maximum number of subnet bits possible with a Class C address? A. 6 B. 8 C. 14 D. 12 A. Since there are only eight bits in the host portion of a Class C address, we must leave at least two bits for hosts, which would only provide two legal bit combinations, 01 and 10 for host addresses. 15. Given the address 220.195.227.12 with a subnet mask of 255.255. 224.0, what advanced subnetting technique is being used?

A. B. C. D.

Subnetting across octets VLSM Supernetting None

C. The address given is a Class C address, which should have a default mask of 255.255.255.0. The fact that the given mask is less than this indicates that bits have been taken away. This technique for combining multiple Class C networks into one entity is called supernetting. 16. Given a subnet mask of 255.255.240, which of these addresses is not a valid host address? A. 150.150.37.2 B. 150.150.16.2 C. 150.150.8.12 D. 150.150.49.15 C. The addresses given are Class B, which means the subnet mask includes four bits for subnetting. The lowest-order bit is 16, which means the first legal subnet is 150.150.16.0. 17. How many hosts per subnet are possible with a Class B address, if five bits are added to the default mask for subnetting? A. 510 B. 512 C. 1022 D. 2046 D. A Class B address would have 16 bits available for host addresses if it were not subnetted. Taking five bits away for subnetting leaves 11 bits for host addresses. This would leave host addresses of 0 - 2047. However, all zeros and all ones are not permitted, so the address range becomes 1 - 2046. 18. If you were issued a Class C address, and needed to divide the network into seven subnets, with up to 15 hosts in each subnet, what subnet mask would you use? A. 255.255.255.224 B. 255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. None of the Above D. This is an impossible situation. To achieve seven subnets we would need to use four subnet bits. This is because even though three bits would give us eight possible subnet addresses, all zeros and all ones are not permitted. If we use four bits for subnetting, this only leaves four bits for host addresses, which will only accommodate 14 hosts for subnets.

19. What IOS command would you issue to set the IP address on a terminal line? A. Router(config-if)# ip address B. Router(config-line)#ip address C. Router(config)#ip address D. None of the Above D. This is a trick question, in that we do not assign IP addresses to terminal lines. The terminal lines include the console, auxiliary port, and virtual terminal lines 0 4, which are used to configure the router. IP addresses are assigned to the interfaces on the router. 20. What IOS command would you use to define the subnet mask for an interface on the router? A. Router(config-if)# ip address B. Router# term ip-netmask format C. Router(config-line)# ip netmask-format D. Router(config)# ip subnetmask A. You would use the command Router(config-if)# ip address to define the subnet mask for an interface on the router. The subnet mask for an interface is assigned as part of assigning the IP address. Answers B and C refer to setting the format for viewing subnet masks. Answer D is not a legitimate command. 21. What IOS command turns off name-to-address resolution? A. Router# no ip domain-lookup B. Router(config)# no domain-lookup C. Router(config-if)# no ip domain-lookup D. Router(config)# domain-lookup off B. To turn off name-to-address resolution, the no domain-lookup command is issued from the global command prompt. 22. To view name-to-address mappings cached on the router, what IOS command would you issue? A. Router> show hosts B. Router(config)# show hosts C. Router# ip name-server D. Router(config)# ip name-server A. The show hosts command can be issued from the User mode. The ip nameserver command is used to define the addresses of DNS servers for name lookup, and is issued from the global configuration prompt. 23. If you received a !!!!! in response to a PING command, what would that indicate?

A. B. C. D.

Destination Unreachable Successful echoes Timeout None of the above

B. The five exclamation points indicate that each of five ICMP echo packets were returned before the timeout interval expired. 24. Given an IP address of 125.3.54.56, without any subnetting, what is the network number? A. 125.0.0.0 B. 125.3.0.0 C. 125.3.54.0 D. 125.3.54.32 A. The network number is 125.0.0.0. Since the address is a Class A address, the default mask is eight bits, so the network number consists of the first octet, and is represented as shown. 25. The network 154.27.0.0 can support how many hosts, if not subnetted? A. 254 B. 1024 C. 65,533 D. 16,777,206 C. The network 154.27.0.0 can support 65,533 hosts, if not subnetted. The address shown is a Class B address, which allows 16 bits for the host address. These sixteen bits allow 65,533 hosts per network. 26. Which of the following is a legitimate IP host address? A. 1.255.255.2 B. 127.2.3.5 C. 225.23.200.9 D. 192.240.150.255 A. 1.255.255.2 is the only legitimate IP host address. Answer B uses the 127 network, which is reserved for loopback testing. Answer C is a Class D address, which is used for multicasting. Answer D is a broadcast address. 27. What is the significance of the address 3.255.255.255? A. It is a host number B. It is a local broadcast C. It is a directed broadcast D. It is an illegal address

C. The significance of the address 3.255.255.255 is that it is a directed broadcast to network 3.0.0.0. A host number cannot have all ones. A local broadcast would have all ones (for example, 255.255.255.255). While this is not a legal host address, it is perfectly valid as a broadcast address. 28. How many bits are in the default subnet mask for a Class D network? A. 8 B. 16 C. 24 D. None D. A Class D network is used for multicasting, not for normal IP network/host addressing, so it doesn't have a default subnet mask. 29. A bit pattern of 1111 leading the first octet of an address would imply what class of network? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D E. Class E E. The leading bit pattern 1111 is associated with Class E addresses, which range from 240-254 in the first octet. 30. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal 234? A. 11101010 B. 10111010 C. 10111110 D. 10101111 A. The binary equivalent of the decimal 234 is 11101010. 234 uses the 128, 64, 32, 8, and 2 binary bits. 31. What is the decimal equivalent of 01011100? A. 96 B. 92 C. 84 D. 154 B. The decimal equivalent of 01011100 is 92. The bits are set for 64, 16,8, and 4. 32. The purpose of subnetting is to: A. Segment and organize a single network at the network layer B. Divide a network into several different domains

C. Allow bridging between network segments D. Isolate groups of hosts so they can't communicate A. The purposes of subnetting are to segment and organize a single network at the network layer. This is the best answer. A subnet does not create separate domains. It provides a way to route between network segments, not bridge between them. It does provide isolation between groups of hosts, but is not implemented to prevent them from communicating. 33. Subnetting is achieved by the following actions: A. Subtracting bits from the default subnet mask B. Subtracting bits from the network address C. Adding bits to the host address D. Adding bits to the default subnet mask D. Subnetting adds bits to the default mask. This has no effect on the network address, but does reduce the bits available for the host address. 34. If we add four bits to the default mask, what is the number of subnets we can define? A. 16 B. 15 C. 14 D. 12 C. Four bits would allow a range of 0 - 15. However, a subnet cannot contain all ones or all zeros (the first and last subnets are reserved), which limits the range from 1 - 14. 35. What is the maximum number of subnet bits we can add to a default mask? A. 8 bits B. 16 bits C. 30 bits D. Depends on address class D. The number of total host bits available to borrow depends on the address class. We must insure that we leave at least two host bits, so we can have a host address that is not all ones or zeros. 36. What is the subnet mask we would use with a Class B address that has three subnet bits added? A. 255.255.240.0 B. 255.255.224.0 C. 255.224.0.0 D. 255.255.248.0

B. The default subnet mask for a Class B is 255.255.0.0. To this we add three bits, with a decimal value of 128+64+32 = 224. 37. What would be the subnet mask if we added 12 subnet bits to a default Class A subnet mask? A. 255.255.255.240 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.240.0.0 D. 255.225.224.0 B. A default mask for a Class A address would be 255.0.0.0. Adding 12 bits means that we take the entire second octet (255) and four bits of the third octet (240). 38. Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 with a Class B address, how many subnets are available? A. None B. 254 C. 16K D. 65K B. The default mask for a Class B address is 255.255.0.0. The given mask shows that we have added eight bits for subnetting. This will allow us 0 - 255 subnets, with 0 (all-zeros) and 255 (all ones) disallowed. 39. What happens to the number of hosts per subnet each time we add an additional subnet bit? A. Hosts are not affected B. Available hosts are decreased by two C. Hosts per subnet is approximately halved D. Hosts per subnet is doubled C. Each time we take a bit from the host portion of the IP address for use in subnetting, we cut the available number of hosts roughly in half . For example, eight host bits gives us 254 hosts (256-2). Reducing this to seven host bits would result in 126 valid hosts (128-2). In each case we are excluding the all-zeros and all-ones bit combinations. 40. In order to accommodate seven subnets, how many subnet bits are required? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7

B. Although three bits will yield eight bit combinations, two of them-the all-zeros and all-ones combinations-are not valid. Therefore we must include four bits, which will provide up to 14 subnets. 41. If we included six subnet bits in the subnet mask for a Class C address, how many hosts would each network support? A. 254 B. 30 C. 4 D. 2 D. If we included six subnet bits in the subnet mask for a Class C address, each network would support two hosts. With only two bits left for host addresses, the only legal bit patterns are 01 and 10, which provides for two hosts. 42. What class of address would we have to use if we needed 2,000 subnets, with over 5,000 users each? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D A. Referring to Table 3-7, We see that it would require 11 subnet bits to accommodate 2,000 subnets. This immediately eliminates a Class C, which can only provide six subnet bits maximum. For a Class B address, using 11 subnet bits would only leave five bits for host addresses, which would allow only 30 hosts per subnet. Class A addresses with 11 subnet bits have 13 bits left for host addresses. This would permit 8,190 hosts per subnet. 43. Given a subnet address of 140.125.8.0, with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0, what is the subnet address of the next higher subnet? A. 140.125.16.0 B. 140.125.17.0 C. 140.125.32.0 D. 140.125.12.0 D. The subnet mask shows that the lowest bit of the subnet mask is a 4. This means that the first subnet will be 4, and they will increment by 4. The given subnet address is the second in the series, and the third will be 140.125.12.0. 44. Given a subnet address of 5.32.0.0 and a subnet mask of 255.224.0.0, what is the highest allowed host address on this subnet? A. 5.32.255.254 B. 5.32.254.254 C. 5.63.255.254 D. 5.63.255.255

C. The mask shows that we are using three subnet bits, with the lowest value being 32. The interval between subnets is 32, so the next higher subnet would be 5.64.0.0. Subtracting 1 from this value leaves 5.63.255.255, the "32" subnet's broadcast address. One less than this is the highest host address for the subnet, 5.63.255.254. 45. If we saw the following subnet addresses, what would be the subnet mask associated with these subnets? 140.120.4.0 140.120.8.0 140.120.12.0 140.120.16.0 A. B. C. D. 255.255.252.0 255.252.0.0. 255.255.248.0 255.255.4.0.

A. The pattern of subnet addresses reveals that the interval is 4 and the lowest subnet has a value of 4. In order to use contiguous high-order bits in our subnet mask, this would mean that we have six bits reserved for subnetting. Since we are dealing with a Class B address, we add these six bits to the default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. 46. Given the network 2.0.0.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0, which of these is not a valid subnet ID for this network? A. 200.255.192.0 B. 200.0.224.0 C. 200.0.16.0 D. 200.254.192.0 C. The invalid subnet ID is 200.0.16.0. This represents an ID where all the subnet bits are zero. 47. What is the subnet mask for an address expressed as 175.25.0.0/24? A. 255.255.0.0 B. 255.255.255.0 C. Depends on address class D. 255.255.24.0 B. The /24 tells us that there are 24 bits in the address prefix, which equates to 255.255.255.0. 48. VLSM allows us to:

A. B. C. D.

Use different subnet masks in different parts of the network Divide a subnet into secondary subnets Use classless IP addressing Both A and B

D. VLSM allows us to use different subnet masks in different parts of the network and to divide a subnet into secondary subnets. Answer C is not correct, because we can use classless addressing without implementing VLSM. 49. What class of IP address is usually associated with supernetting? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D C. Supernetting is often used to combine several Class C networks. 50. Supernetting modifies the default subnet mask in what way? A. Adds bits to the default subnet mask B. Adds bits to the network address C. Removes bits from the subnet ID D. Removes bits from the default subnet mask D. Supernetting removes some of the rightmost bits of the default subnet mask, which summarizes several contiguous Class C networks into a single network entity. 51. What is the appropriate prompt from which to enter the ip address command? A. Router> B. Router# C. Router(config-if)# D. Router(config)# C. The ip address command applies to a specific router interface, and would be entered after selecting the interface to be configured. 52. Which of the following subnet mask formats do Cisco routers support? A. Dotted-decimal B. Hexadecimal C. Bitcount D. All the above D. All the formats listed are supported by Cisco, and can be selected using the ip netmask-format commands.

53. To configure a name-to-address mapping in the router mapping table, you would issue which of the following commands? A. Router(config-if)# ip host B. Router(config-line)#ip name-server C. Router(config)#ip host D. Both A and C D. Both A and C are correct. These commands will be accepted from any level of configuration prompt, although they are global commands. 54. When a PING command returns a series of periods, what does that indicate? A. Success B. Non-existent address C. Timeout D. Unreachable C. The period (.) indicates that the echo packet did not return within the specified timeout interval. This interval is configurable using the extended PING command. 55. Which of these commands could verify the operation of the protocol stack all the way to the Application layer? A. PING B. TRACE C. Extended ping D. TELNET D. Telnet is the only command that would test all layers of the protocol. PING, in both versions, tests only up to the network layer. TRACE also operates at the network layer to reveal the routing path between two hosts. 56. To perform an extended ping to address 1.1.1.1, you would issue which of the following commands? A. Router> ping 1.1.1.1 B. Router# ping 1.1.1.1 C. Router(config)# ping D. Router# ping D. Extended ping requires Privileged mode, and also requires that no commandline options be entered (because it prompts for each option). 57. The length of an IP address is: A. 24 bits B. 16 bits C. 32 bits D. 48 bits

C. The IP address is a 32-bit (4 octets) logical address. 58. Which of the following classes is used for multicasting? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class E D. None of the above D. Class D is used for multicasting purposes. 59. Which of the following statements is true regarding IP host addresses? A. The host address part of an IP address can be set to "all binary ones" or to "all binary zeros". B. The subnet address part of an IP address can not be set to "all binary ones" or to "all binary zeros". C. The network address part of an IP address can be set to "all binary ones" or to "all binary zeros". B. For a valid host address, neither network address part, subnet address part, nor host address part can be set to "all binary ones" or "all binary zeros". 60. An IP address reserved for loopback test is: A. 164.0.0.0 B. 130.0.0.0 C. 200.0.0.0 D. 127.0.0.0 D. 127.0.0.0 is reserved for assigning local loopback addresses and therefore, can not used as a network address. 61. An IP address used for local broadcasting (broadcasting to all hosts on the local network) is: A. 127.255.255.255 B. 255.255.255.255 C. 164.0.0.0 D. 127.0.0.0 B. An IP address used for local broadcasting is 255.255.255.255. When all the bits in an IP address are set to ones, the resulting address is 255.255.255.255, which is used to send broadcast messages to all hosts on the network. 62. An IP address of 100.1.1.1 represents which class of network? A. Class B B. Class C C. Class A D. Class E

C. The Class A network address can take values from 1 - 126. 63. The Class D IP address pattern begins with: A. 1111 B. 110 C. 010 D. 1110 D. The Class D addresses have bit pattern which begins with 1110. This allows values from 224 - 239 to be assigned for the purpose of multicasting. 64. The number 174 is represented in binary form by: A. 11001110 B. 10101110 C. 10101010 D. 10110010 B. 10101110 = { 27 + 25 + 23 + 22 + 21 }={ 128 + 32 + 8 + 4 + 2 }= 174 65. The subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address defines: A. A multicast address B. A host address C. The portion of the address that should be considered the network ID. D. None of the above C. The subnet mask filters those bits that will be considered network address bits. The remaining bits not filtered form the host address portion. 66. The purpose of using subnets is: A. To divide a network into smaller subnetworks B. To improve network performance due to increased traffic C. To make the internetwork more manageable D. All of the above D. The purposes of using subnets are: to divide a network into smaller subnetworks; to improve network performance due to increased traffic; and to make the internetwork more manageable. 1 67. The default subnet mask for Class B network is: A. 8 bits long. B. 24 bits long. C. 16 bits long. D. 32 bits long. C. The default subnet mask for Class B is 255.255.0.0, which is 16 bits long.

68. To add bits to a default subnet mask, the bits are taken from: A. The lowest-order contiguous bits of the host address B. The lowest-order contiguous bits of the host address C. The highest-order contiguous bits of the host address D. The highest-order contiguous bits of the host address C. Subnet bits are taken from the highest-order contiguous bits of the host address. 69. In planning subnets, the factors that need to be considered are: A. The number of subnets needed B. The number of hosts per subnet C. The possible growth in number of subnets or hosts per subnet D. All of the above. D. The number of subnets needed, the number of hosts per subnet, and the possible growth in number of subnets or hosts per subnet are all factors that must be considered when planning subnets. 70. How many subnets for Class B are possible if six bits are added to the default mask? A. 14 B. 30 C. 62 D. 510 C. Six bits could create 64 bit combinations, but the first and last subnet addresses are not available. 71. The value 24 after / in the IP address 135.120.25.20/24 is called: A. A robbed bit B. A default bit C. A prefix D. A host bit C. The prefix defines the subnet bits for the network. In this case /24 means the subnet bits are 24. 72. An IP address of 199.119.99.1/24 defines A. 24 subnet mask bits for Class A network B. 24 subnet mask bits for Class B network C. 24 subnet mask bits for Class C network D. 24 subnet mask bits for Class E network C. An IP address of 199.119.99.1/24 defines 24 subnet mask bits for Class C network. Class C address range is 192 - 223.

73. What IOS command would you use to define a global format to view the subnet mask during the "current session"? A. Router # ip address B. Router # term domain-lookup C. Router # set format D. Router # term ip netmask-format D. The IOS command you would use to define a global format to view the subnet mask during the "current session" is Router # term ip netmask-format. Note: Answer C is not a valid router command. 74. The router command Router(config)# ip host {hostname address} is used for: A. Viewing the route the packet has taken from source to destination B. Viewing the host name and host address C. Adding a static mapping of a host name to an address in the router's host cache D. Showing source destination network's interfaces with other networks C. The command Router(config)# ip host {hostname address} adds a static entry to the router's host cache, where it is used for resolving the host name to an address. It requires the user to specify the name of the host and also the IP address associated with the host. 75. The maximum number of name server addresses that can be specified using the Router(config)# ip name-server command is: A. Four B. Six C. Five D. Three B. Up to six name server addresses can be specified using the Router(config)# ip name-server command. 76. The following is a response to the Router > Ping 120.1.1.2 command: .!!!! Success rate is 80 percent (4/5), round trip min/avg/max = 28/75/112 ms The success rate 80 percent in this response means: A. Four out of five times, the response came back B. Five packets were received at destination, and four were received at the source

C. Four times out of five, there was no response D. Four packets out of a total of five packets reached the IP address 120.1.1.2 A. Success rate indicates the percentage of packets originating at the source that are successfully echoed by the destination. Destination may receive every packet, but you will receive a timeout if the reply does not come back. 77. A user on a Washington DC network receives the following response after issuing a router command: Tracing the route to Honolulu 1Tokyo(127.893.81.2) 800 ms 6 ms 4 ms 2 Lisbon(141.925.64.7) 600 ms 8 ms 6 ms Honolulu(151.666.59.4) 400 ms 10 ms 8 ms Washington dc# This response was most likely obtained by issuing the command: A. B. C. D. E. Router# telnet 151.666.59.4) Lisbon# show iproute washingtondc# show iproute washigngtondc# trace honolulu honolulu# show ip route

D. This response was most likely obtained by issuing the command washigngtondc# trace honolulu. The response tells that it is tracing the route to Honolulu. Also note that the last line of response is washingtondc# 78. For an IP address of 165.3.34.35, netmask of 255.255.255.224, and a subnet ID of 165.3.34.32, the usable host address range is: A. From 165.3.34.34 to 165.3.34.64 B. From 165.3.34.35 to 165.3.34.65 C. From 165.3.34.33 to 165.3.34.62 D. From 165.3.34.33 to 165.3.34.63 C. The usable host address range is from 165.3.34.33 to 165.3.34.62. The netmask tells us that three bits are taken from the host address for subnet mask. This leaves five bits for host addresses, which is {25} 32 possible addresses for the host. However, we cannot use all zeros or all ones. Therefore, there are 30 possible hosts. The address 165.3.32.32 is already assigned to the subnet. Therefore, the starting address for the host is 165.3.34.33. The address 165.3.34.63 is used for broadcasting.

1. Match the following application layer services to their corresponding transport layer protocol port. A. SMTP 1. TCP/23 B. FTP 2. TCP/25 C. TFTP 3. TCP/80 D. Telnet 4. TCP/21 E. HTTP 5. UDP/69 F. DNS 6. TCP/53 A-2, B-4, C-5, D-1, E-3, F-6 2. Which OSI reference model layer does Telnet function at? A. Transport B. Network C. Session D. Application D. Telnet is an application layer service. 3. How many layers does the TCP/IP protocol suite have, compared to the OSI reference model? A. TCP model has 4, OSI model has 6 B. TCP model has 7, OSI model has 8 C. TCP model has 4, OSI model has 7 D. TCP model has 7, OSI model has 4

C. The TCP/IP protocol suite has four layers, while the OSI reference model has seven. 4. The TCP/IP protocol suite has a formal session layer that includes NetBIOS, RPCs, and TLI functions A. True B. False B. False. The TCP/IP protocol suite does not have a formal session layer. 5. What is the function of RPCs? A. To move files from remote PCs to a local PC B. To make remote function calls transparent, so they appear to be local C. To initialize a program on a remote PC

D. To send a procedure that is local to a remote node for processing elsewhere B. The function of RPCs is to transparently access remote procedures, making them appear local. 6. What does RPC stand for? A. Remote personal computer B. Reserved-programming call C. Routed-procedure call D. Remote-procedure call D. RPC is the acronym for remote-procedure call. 7. What OSI reference model layer do sockets function at? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport E. Network F. Data link G. Physical C. Sockets function at the session layer. 8. What function do sockets perform? A. They make remote functions appear local, transparent to the user B. They transfer files to and from remote nodes C. They make the transport layer independent D. They allow multiple applications to share the same connection to the network D. Sockets allow multiple applications to use the same TCP/IP connection. 9. What is WinSock? A. A version of sockets for the Microsoft Windows platform B. Sockets on BSD UNIX C. A session layer API commonly considered to be its own protocol D. A network layer service for Microsoft Windows A. WinSock is a Microsoft Windows version of sockets 10. What does TLI do? A. It makes remote functions appear local, transparent to the user B. It transfers files to and from remote nodes C. It makes the transport layer independent

D. It allows multiple applications to share the same connection to the network C. The transport layer interface makes the transport layer independent from upper-layer services. 11. What OSI layer does NetBIOS function at? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport E. Network F. DataLink G. Physical C. NetBIOS functions at the OSI model session layer. 12. Which protocols can NetBIOS bind to? (Select all that are applicable.) A. Appletalk B. IPX C. IP D. NetBEUI B, C, D. NetBIOS can run over IPX, IP, and NetBEUI. 13. What layers do not exist in the TCP/IP model that are in the OSI model? A. Application, presentation, and network B. Presentation, session, and data link C. Session, network, and physical D. Presentation, data link, and physical B. There are no formal presentation, session, or data link layers in the TCP/IP model. 14. What is a socket in the transport layer? A. The socket is an IP address plus a port B. An API that makes the transport layer independent C. An API that allows multiple applications to share a network connection D. A function that makes remote procedures appear to be local A. A socket is an IP address plus a port 15. What is a port? A. An API that makes the transport layer independent

B. An API that allows multiple applications to share a network connection C. A function that makes remote procedures appear to be local D. The point where upper-layer processes access transport layer services D. A port is where upper-layer processes access the transport layer. 16. Which of the following services uses a process called windowing? A. Reliable data transfer B. Connection-oriented virtual circuit C. Buffered transfer D. Resequencing E. Multiplexing F. Efficient, full-duplex transmission G. Flow control G. Windowing is a form of flow control. 17. What is UDP? A. An API that makes the transport layer independent B. A connectionless, unreliable transport protocol C. An API that allows multiple applications to share a network connection D. A function that makes remote procedures appear to be local B. UDP is a connectionless, unreliable transport protocol. 18. What is IP? A. It is the transport mechanism for upper layer services B. It is the session layer API for making the transport layer independent C. It is the network layer protocol that moves data from one node to another D. It is the physical layer protocol for Internet connections C. IP (Internet Protocol) is the network layer protocol that moves data from one node to another. 19. What is ICMP? A. It is a network layer protocol that handles control messages B. It is a network layer protocol that resolves addresses

C. It is a session layer API that makes remote procedures transparent to a user D. It is a transport layer function for unreliable transport A. ICMP handles control messages at the network layer. 20. Ping sends an ICMP echo command to an IP address in order to determine whether a network connection exists to that node. A. True B. False A. True. Ping sends an ICMP echo command to an IP address, and from the response, verifies that the address is reachable from the local host 21. Which of the following best describes TCP/IP? A. A static protocol B. A proprietary protocol C. A collection of internetworking protocols C. TCP/IP is a dynamically changing collection of internetworking protocols. 22. UDP and TCP represent mechanisms used by which layer of the TCP/IP? A. B. C. D. Data link layer Physical layer Presentation layer Transport layer

D. TCP and UDP represent transport mechanism in the TCP/IP protocol structure. 23. RPCs provide which of the following? A. B. C. D. E. F. Connection-oriented session Transparency to make remote calls look local Portability of applications between heterogeneous systems A and C only B and C only A, B, and C

E. RPCs provide transparency to make remote calls look local, and portability of applications between heterogeneous systems. RPC is a connectionless session.

24. Distributed Computing Environment (DCE) is an example of: A. B. C. D. OSI model RPC implementation Extreme Data Representation A and B

B. DCE is an implementation of RPC. 25. Which statement is true of WinSock? A. It is a MAC application B. It represents a graphical user interface C. It represents a network layer E. It provides the means for sharing an Internet connection between multiple IP protocol suite utilities D. WinSock represents a session layer API allowing multiple applications to share an Internet connection. It is not a GUI. 26. Which statement is true of TLI? A. It is a layer in the OSI model B. It is a layer in the TCP/IP model C. It is a System V API A. It is part of the UNIX Kernel C. TLI represents a System V Application Programming Interface. 27. Which statement is true of Windows Name Server (WINS)? A. It is a protocol B. It provides capability for name resolution C. It is a network layer D. It is a proprietary name server E. A, B, and D only F. B and D only F. WINS is a Microsoft proprietary NetBIOS name server that provides capability for name resolution. 28. ICMP, IP, ARP, and RARP of the IP protocol suite map to:

A. B. C. D.

OSI layers 1 and 2 OSI layer 5 OSI layer 3 OSI layer 2

C. ICMP, IP, ARP, and RARP all map to OSI layer 3 29. Which layer is most important in providing reliable data exchange between two systems? A. B. C. D. Physical layer Data link layer Session layer Transport layer

D. The transport layer is the single most important layer in assuring reliable data transfer regardless of the underlying networks in between the TCP/IP protocol suite. 30. Which of the following does TCP provide? A. B. C. D. Unreliable data stream Connectionless virtual circuit Flow control Structured byte stream movement\

C. TCP provides a connection-oriented virtual circuit with reliable byte stream, where the byte stream is both continuous and unstructured. 31. Of the following, which field is not a part of the TCP header? A. B. C. D. Subnet mask Sequence number Data offset Destination port

A. The subnet mask is not a part of the TCP header. 32. What is the sequence number in a TCP header used for? A. Acknowledgments B. Reordering of the octets received C. Rejecting duplicate octets

D. All of the above D. The sequence number in a TCP header is used for acknowledgments, for reordering of the octets received, and for rejecting duplicate octets. 33. Variable sliding windows provide an explicit mechanism for notifying TCP if an intermediate node (for example, a router) becomes congested. A. True B. False B. False. 34. Which of the following parameters is not a part of UDP header? A. B. C. D. E. Source port Urgent pointer Checksum Length Destination port

B. The urgent pointer is not a part of the UDP header. The UDP header has only four parameters: source port, destination port, length, and UDP checksum. 35. When a router has been configured for UDP flooding, the source address might change, but the destination address will not change as the datagram propagates through the network. A. True B. False B. False. The destination address might change, but the source address does not change. 36. The spanning-tree algorithm allows: A. Forwarding of packets with no control B. Forwarding of broadcasts to an interface which already has received the broadcast C. Prevention of duplication of forwarding of packets D. A and B only C. Spanning tree forwards packets in a controlled manner.

37. IP helper addresses are a form of ________ addressing and require the command specification of _________ on every interface receiving broadcasts that need to be forwarded. A. Static / IP header address B. Dynamic / IP forward-protocol UDP C. Dynamic / IP forward-protocol TCP A. IP helper addresses are a form of static addressing and require specification of IP header address on every interface receiving broadcasts that need to be forwarded. 38. Which of the following protocols provide address resolution? A. B. C. D. E. ICMP RARP IP UDP TCP

B. RARP is a Reverse Address Resolution Protocol. 39. IP is described as an unreliable mechanism because it does not guarantee delivery. A. True B. False A. True. IP is described as an unreliable mechanism because it does not guarantee delivery. 40. What does fragmentation in TCP/IP represent? A. Segmenting of datagrams into 53-byte packets for ATM applications B. Division of larger datagrams into convenient size packets C. A process that occurs on a router D. A, B, and C E. A and C only F. B and C only F. Fragmentation is a process that occurs on a router somewhere between the source and destination. This process segments the datagram into a convenient size to fit into a single frame for transport over the network.

41. Which of the following statements is true of ARP? A. It makes a MAC address logically independent of the physical hardware B. It makes it necessary for the administrator to physically manage the MAC address of each NIC C. It integrates routing function with the physical and data link layers D. It routes packets based on destination host, not on destination network A. With ARP, an administrator does not have to physically manage the MAC address of each NIC. ARP separates routing function from the physical and data link layers. ARP routes packets based on destination network, and not destination host. 42. A hosts ARP cache is good forever once it has been created. A. True B. False B. False. The hosts ARP cache is good only for a certain time period, and then it times out. 43. ARP is a broadcast protocol, and ARP caching is used because broadcasts are expensive. A. True B. False A. True. ARP is a broadcast protocol, and ARP caching is used because broadcasts are expensive. 44. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) is termed "reverse" because: A. It is used by the system that knows its IP address but does not know its MAC address B. It is used by the system that knows its MAC address but does not know its IP address C. It is used by the system that knows the destinations IP address but does not know the destinations MAC address D. It is used by the system that knows the destinations MAC address but does not know the destinations IP address

B. RARP is used by a system to resolve its IP address. 45. Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (InARP) is generally used by: A. Broadcast networks B. Nonbroadcast networks C. Both broadcast and nonbroadcast networks B. Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (InARP) is generally used by nonbroadcast networks such as Frame Relay. 46. The PING command makes use of what ICMP parameter? A. B. C. D. Redirect Source quench Echo reply Destination unreachable

C. The PING command makes use of the echo request and echo reply parameter. 47. ICMP Redirect is sent by: A. B. C. D. A host to the gateway A gateway to the host A router to another router A router to a network

B. ICMP Redirect is sent by a gateway to the host. It instructs the host to use a different route when the router detects that its route is not as optimal as that of another router.

The following questions will help you measure your understanding of the material presented in this chapter. Read all the choices carefully, as there may be more than one correct answer. Choose all correct answers for each question.

1. Company A has recently merged with Company B, which exists in the same building and is physically close enough for all the computers to belong on the same network segment. Company A uses an ATM backbone and Fast Ethernet for all nodes. Company B has a Token Ring environment on shielded twisted-pair wiring. Why will Company A and Company B select a router for their newly merged network? A. Network segment size has reached the maximum B. Network addresses are not sufficient for a merged network C. Traffic must be segmented to prevent an expected bandwidth overload D. A router is the usual way to connect dissimilar network types

D. A router is used when connecting dissimilar network types. 2. What are the two basic mechanisms that make up a routing protocol? A. Route selection B. Flooding C. Autonomous Systems D. Data Transmission A, D. The two mechanisms that make up a routing protocol are selecting the best route and transmitting the data 3. What is a routing table used for? A. It is the physical support for the router to sit on B. It contains a list of all the timers used to prevent routing loops C. It is used to select the best route D. It manages the periodic update algorithm C. The routing table is used for selecting the best route. 4. What types of information can be found in different types of routing protocol routing tables? (select 3) A. The destination network associated with the next hop B. The destination network associated with the cost metric C. The destination network associated with the subnet mask D. The destination network associated with the next path or interface to use A, B, D. The routing information table contains the destination network address and the associated value, which provides the route selection criteria: hop, cost metric, or next path. 5. What is a routing update used for?

A. Routing updates notify neighboring routers with a hello B. Routing updates redistribute routes learned from other routing protocols C. Routing updates maintain the routing table D. Routing updates increase the network addresses available by changing the subnet masks C. Routing updates are the method used to maintain the routing table. 6. When a node on one network sends a packet to a node on another segment that is three hops away, what addresses are included in the initial addressing of that packet? (select 2) A. The network address of the router B. The MAC layer address of the router C. The network address of the destination node D. The MAC layer address of the destination node B, C. The initial packet sends the packet with the network address of the destination node, and the MAC layer, (hardware address of the router. 7. What are three objectives for a routing protocol? A. Accuracy B. Quick holddowns C. Rapid Convergence D. Low overhead A, C, D. Three objectives for a routing protocol are: accuracay, rapid convergence, and low overhead. 8. Define convergence. A. Convergence is the updates that are triggered by network changes B. Convergence is the process of sending hello packets C. Convergence is two routers merging their routing tables into one D. Convergence is the synchronizing of all routing tables on the internetwork, or simply the synchronization of a single route change across all routers. D. Convergence happens when all router's routing information tables synchronize. 9. Why are dynamic routing protocols considered dynamic? A. Because each route is dynamically selected for each packet with a destination network not attached to the router B. Because new routes are dynamically recomputed whenever there is a change in the internetwork topology C. Because convergence happens faster

D. Because all the routes remain the same no matter what changes happen on the network B. Dynamic routing protocols are dynamic because routes are recomputed whenever a change occurs in the internetwork topology 10. What is a static route? A. A static route is one that has been manually entered into the routing table and is not updated by a routing protocol B. A static route is one that is recomputed whenever a change is made on the internetwork C. A static route is one that is redistributed when it has been learned by another routing protocol D. A static route is one that comes already configured in the router from the manufacturer A. A static route is manually entered into the routing table and never updated by a routing protocol. 11. What type of network is best when using static routes? A. A large network with hundreds of routers and networks B. A complex internetwork that changes often C. An autonomous system with multiple connections to other autonomous systems D. A small network with few routers and infrequent changes D. Only small networks with few routers and infrequent changes are appropriate for static routes, because static routing depends on the administrator to update each router whenever a change is made on the internetwork. 12. What is an autonomous system? A. An area B. A domain C. A contiguous set of routers defined within a larger internetwork, that do not share routing information with the external internetwork D. All of the above E. None of the above D. An autonomous system is also known as an area or a domain. It is a contiguous set of routers defined within a larger internetwork; though they share routing information with each other, they do not propagate that information outside the area.

13. What is a default route?

A. B. C. D. E.

A type of static route A destination for any nonroutable packet Gateway of last resort All of the above None of the above

D. A default route is normally a type of static route that can be known as the gateway of last resort, where all nonroutable packets are forwarded to for further handling. 14. What type of information does a distance vector router build its routing table with? A. Hello packets B. Second-hand information C. LSPs D. First-hand information B. Because distance vector routers copy their neighbor's routing tables, update them, and forward them on, they use second-hand information. 15. What is the count to infinity problem? A. A routing loop that results from the way distance vector protocols use second-hand information B. The inability of routers to process more than 16 hops C. The excessive CPU overhead presented by distance vector algorithms D. The result of using both RIP and IGRP on the same internetwork A. The count to infinity problem is a routing loop resulting from secondhand information. 16. What is poison reverse? A. A change to the default update period timer B. A routing loop that occurs when using second-hand information to update route tables C. A router virus D. A version of split-horizon that sends back a "route unreachable" update to the router that the route was learned from, in order to avoid routing loops D. Poison reverse is a version of split-horizon that sends back a "route unreachable" update to the router from which it learned of that route, in order to avoid routing loops. 17. What is RIP?

A. RIP is an older distance vector Interior Gateway Protocol with a 30second update timer and maximum of 15 hops (where "infinity" is 16 hops) B. RIP is a new link-state protocol created by Cisco C. RIP is a proprietary protocol created by Cisco that has two versions; only version 2 is used currently D. RIP is a distance vector Interior Gateway Protocol with a 224 maximum network diameter (maximum 224 hops) A. RIP is an older distance vector protocol and Interior Gateway Protocol, with 30-second update period and maximum of 15 hops. 18. What is IGRP? A. IGRP is an older distance vector Interior Gateway Protocol with a 30-second update timer and maximum of 15 hops (where "infinity" is 16 hops) B. IGRP is a new link-state protocol created by Cisco C. IGRP is a proprietary protocol created by Cisco that has two versions; only version 2 is used currently D. IGRP is a distance vector and Interior Gateway Protocol with a 224 maximum network diameter (maximum 224 hops) D. IGRP is a distance vector and Interior Gateway Protocol with a 224 maximum network diameter (maximum 224 hops). 19. What is the purpose of a flash update in IGRP? A. A flash update is a standard 90-second update B. After three flash updates, a route is considered unreachable C. A flash update is sent immediately upon a change in the network topology, in order to speed convergence D. After seven flash updates, a route is removed from the routing table C. Flash updates are used to speed convergence. 20. How can the administrator change how IGRP selects routes? A. The administrator can set update timers B. The administrator can enable or disable split horizon C. The administrator can set up load balancing across redundant routes D. The administrator can adjust the metric weights used for determining the route selection D. The administrator can adjust the metric weights used for route selection. 21. The way to get traffic from one segment of the network to another segment is:

A. B. C. D.

Bridging Routing Switching All of the above

D. Bridging, routing, and switching are used to move traffic from one segment to another. 22. Routing occurs at which layer? A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer C. Routing takes place at the network layer. 23. In general, the bets route selected by a router is one with: A. Least cost B. Shortest distance C. Lowest metric value D. None of the above C. Metric is used to select the best route. Cost and distance are used by some routing algorithms as metric in determining the best s route. 24. A routing table typically includes which of the following? A. Destination network address B. The total number of networks C. The number of nodes in each network D. The total number of routers in a network A. A router normally has information on the network address of the destination node on the path. 25. When a router receives a packet, it accepts or rejects a packet by examining what? A. The MAC address of the source of the packet B. The address of source network/node number C. The address of the destination network/node D. The MAC address of the next router C. Upon receiving a packet, the router examines the address of the destination node. If it cannot send the packet to the destination address, it either drops the packet or forwards it to a default router. 26. Low overhead of a routing algorithm is normally associated with

A. B. C. D.

Optimal route CPU usage Accuracy Convergence

B. The overhead is normally associated with bandwidth and CPU usage. Accuracy is associated with optimal route. 27. Convergence is not an issue if: A. Routers are added to the network B. Some of the network interfaces are down C. CPU/bandwidth usage of the routers changes D. An invariant network topology is selected for the network architecture *D. Convergence is not an issue if an invariant network topology is selected for the network architecture. Answers A, B, and C all indicate a changing network, which would require monitoring of convergence. 28. An Internet Protocol (IP) router selects: A. An entire path from source to destination B. The next route step C. The two adjacent routers to itself D. All of the above B. An IP routing tables allows it to select the next route step the packet needs to take. 29. IP ROUTE configuration command for a static route includes which of the following parameters? A. Subnetwork number of the destination network B. Subnet mask of the source network C. IP address of the interface of the router which the packet should use D. MAC address of the next router on the path C. The IP ROUTE command includes the IP address of the interface of the router that the packet should use. It also includes the network number that the route will be going to, and the subnet mask of that network. 30. Given the following portion of the network: Network A -- Router X --- Router Y ----- Network B Interface: Interface: 86.0.0.0 X0 Y0 35.3.3.4 and assuming a network mask of 255.0.0.0 for both A and B networks;

Which one of the following represents a correct command to configure Router X to send data from Network A to Network B? A. #ip route 85.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 35.3.3.3 B. #ip route 86.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 35.3.3.4 C. #ip route 86.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 35.3.3.3 D. #ip route 85.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 35.3.3.4 B. The correct command is #ip route 86.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 35.3.3.4. Answer A tries to route traffic to Network A through interface on Router X. Answer C tries to route traffic to Network B through interface on Router X. Answer D tries to route traffic to Network A through interface on Router Y. 31. A static routing table can be changed at any time without manual intervention. A. True B. False B. False. To change a static table, an intervention by an authorized person is required. 32. In a hybrid solution of static and dynamic routing, the nonroutable packets are sent to: A. The next router B. The central router C. The gateway of last resort D. The source router where the packets originated C. In hybrid network, the nonroutable packets are routed to a static router designated a router of last resort. 33. How is fault tolerance on a routing algorithm achieved? A. By providing a central control router B. By a distributed routing protocol C. By load balancing of the traffic D. All of the above B. Distributed routing protocol provides fault tolerance in case of failures. 34. The configuration command IP DEFAULT for a default static router requires which of the following parameters? A. Network mask B. Router interface number C. Subnet ID D. Network number D. The IP DEFAULT command requires a network number.

35. In a distance vector routing protocol, aging is set for: A. Only the next available router B. All routing information C. Only the unavailable routers D. Only the routers in the lowest metric route B. Aging in a distance vector routing algorithm is set for all routing information. 36. In a distance vector algorithm, the holddown interval for large or complex networks: A. Cannot be used B. Would need to have a much larger value C. Is equal to negative reachability parameter D. Would need to have a smaller value to reach convergence B. For larger or complex networks, if the holddown period is made sufficiently large, then problems associated with the network stability could be minimized, though not eliminated in all cases. 37. What do link-state protocols use as a metric? A. Hops B. Cost C. CPU usage D. Network operational time B. As a metric, link-state protocols use cost, and not hops. 38. Flooding in link-state protocol means what? A. A router sending all routing information to its neighbors B. A router broadcasting all information to all routers in the network C. The neighbors of a link-state router receiving a link-state packet, copying it, and then forwarding it to the rest of the network D. A router sending information about the routers that have changed C. Flooding in link-state protocol means that the neighbors of a link-state router receive a link-state packet, copy it, and then forward it to the rest of the network. 39. Which statement is true of Interior Gateway Protocols? A. They apply to Internet domains B. They apply to autonomous systems within the network C. They apply to external networks D. They allow systems in the Internet to manage areas in the network where IGP is implemented

B. IGPs apply to autonomous systems within the network. 40. Exterior Gateway Protocols are known as: A. Inter-domain B. Areas C. Domains D. Intra-domain A. Exterior Gateway Protocols are known as inter-domain, because they work between domains. 41. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) can have maximum of: A. 24 hops B. 16 hops C. 12 hops D. 8 hops B. RIP has a limitation of 16 hops. 42. How many commands are required to configure a router for RIP? A. Four B. Three C. Two D. One C. The RIP configuration requires one command to enable RIP, and a second to activate an interface for RIP. 43. RIP authentication command can be used with which version of RIP? A. RIP version 1 B. RIP version 2 C. RIP version 1 and RIP version 2 D. None of the above B. RIP authentication command can be used only with RIP version 2. 44. In the Interior Gateway Routing Protocol, a route is removed from the routing table after: A. Three update periods B. 60 seconds C. Five update periods D. Seven update periods E. 90 seconds D. A route is removed from the routing table after seven update periods. In IGRP, updates are broadcast every 90 seconds. After three update

periods where a route is missed, the route is considered unreachable. After seven periods, the route is removed. 45. Which of the following is used to calculate metric in Interior Gateway Routing Protocol? A. Internetwork delay B. Bandwidth C. Load D. Reliability E. All of the above E. In IGRP, internetwork delay, load, bandwidth, and reliability are used to calculate metric value. 46. What is the maximum allowable number of hops in Enhanced Interior Routing Gateway Protocol? A. 64 B. 224 C. 128 D. 232 E. 256 B. The maximum number of hops used in EIGRP is 224. 47. Enhanced Interior Routing Gateway Protocol uses which of the following? A. Link-state vector B. Diffusion Update Algorithm C. Distance vector D. A and B only E. B and C only

E. EIGRP uses the distance vector with DUAL, which enhances the convergence properties.

1. What is the administrative distance for directly connected routes? A. 0 B. 1 C. 100 D. 120

A. Directly connected routes have an administrative distance of 0. 2. How many IP addresses can be bound to each host name using the IP HOST command? A. 1 B. 2 C. 8 D. 255 C. Each host address can have a maximum of eight IP addresses. 3. Which command do you use to view the currently configured default route? A. show ip config B. show default gateway C. show ip route D. show default network C. Show IP route is the command for viewing the current default route. 4. Which routing protocol uses autonomous system numbers? A. RIP B. IGRP C. OFLP D. OSPF B. IGRP uses autonomous system numbers to identify separate IGRP processes. 5. How many DNS servers can be added to a router's configuration? A. One B. Two C. Four D. Six D. You can add six DNS servers with the IP NAME-SERVER command. 6. When configuring IGRP, what is the minimum amount for the FLUSH argument in the TIMERS BASIC command? A. 30 seconds B. Three times the period set for sending RIP updates C. The summation of INVALID and HOLDDOWN D. UPDATE minus SLEEPTIME

C. FLUSH must be the summation of INVALID and HOLDDOWN at minimum. 7. Which of the following is not true regarding IP unnumbered? A. Major drawback is the loss of an IP subnet B. IP unnumbered is only available on Cisco routers C. Can be used to communicates across serial interface through Ethernet interface D. Used on point-to-point links A. The advantage of IP unnumbered is that it prevents the loss of an entire subnet by not requiring the assignment of IPs to the two routers' serial interfaces. 8. Identify the proper syntax for assigning a secondary IP address to an interface. A. Ip secondary address 10.10.10.10 255.0.0.0 B. IP 10.10.10.10 255.255.0.0 secondary C. IP address secondary 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.0 D. IP address 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.0 secondary D. The correct syntax is IP ADDRESS ip-address mask SECONDARY, therefore IP ADDRESS 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.0 SECONDARY would be correct. 9. Which of the following are advantages to static routing? A. Less overhead on router B. Paths are created on the fly C. Reduction in places where faults can lie D. Scalable A, C. The advantages to static routing are that it creates less overhead on routers, and reduces the number of places where faults can lie. There are more actions that take place in dynamic routing, so more needs to be investigated to find problems. 10. What does the IP DOMAIN-NAME command do? A. Names the domain that the Cisco router belongs to B. Names domains the router cannot find directly C. Appends a domain to unqualified requests D. Broadcasts domain name across subnets C. The IP DOMAIN-NAME command will append the domain listed to unqualified domain requests in order to try to find a fully qualified host name.

11. By default, what happens to broadcast UDP packets that come across Cisco routers? A. They are denied B. They are converted into broadcast-based packets C. They are routed to all IP interfaces D. They are sent to UDP queues A. By default, all broadcast UDP packets are denied. 12. What are the default ports for BOOTP traffic? A. 23 and 24 B. 67 and 68 C. 138 - 141 D. 9 and 10 B. The default ports for BOOTP traffic are 67 and 68. 13. Which syntax for setting the default gateway is correct? A. IP default-gateway 10.10.10.100 B. IP 10.10.10.100 default-gateway C. Default-gateway 10.10.10.100 255.255.255.0 D. IP default-gateway 10.10.10.100 255.255.255.0 A. The correct syntax is IP default-gateway ip-address, therefore IP default-gateway 10.10.10.100 would be correct. 14. Which is true regarding secondary addressing? A. Secondary addressing must exist on the same subnet as the primary B. Secondary addressing can only be applied to serial interfaces C. A maximum of three address can be assigned per interface D. All attached routers need a secondary address on same subnet D. All directly attached routers need a secondary address on the same subnet as the referenced router. 15. Which of the following statements about administrative distance are true? A. It is used when two routing protocols advertise the same route B. All routes have an administrative distance C. The lowest value always wins D. Static routes have an administrative distance of 1 A, B, C, D. All these statements are correct. When two routing protocols advertise the same route, the administrative distance is used. All routing protocols have a default value, and the route with the lowest value will win

and be added to the cache. Static routes have an administrative distance of 1, while directly connected routes have an administrative distance of 0. 16. Which of the following acronyms is not accurate? A. DNS - Dynamic Naming Service B. UDP - User Datagram Protocol C. DHCP - Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol D. TFTP - Trivial File Transfer Protocol A. DNS stands for Domain Name Service. 17. Where can DHCP information be found? A. Encapsulated within UDP packets B. Encapsulated within the TCP part of TCP/IP C. Encapsulated within BOOTP packets D. Encapsulated within DNS traffic C. DHCP information is contained in the data portion of BOOTP packets 18. Which of the following is performed at a global level? A. Forwarding of UDP B. DNS lookup C. Adding routes D. Enabling RIP A, B, C, D. The forwarding of UDP packets, DNS lookup, adding routes, and enabling RIP are all done at the global level. 19. Where are the host name-to-address mappings stored? A. Address cache B. Host cache C. Static RAM D. IP Config table B. The table of host name-to-address mappings is stored in the host cache. 20. If you add more users than there are available host addresses on a given subnet, which of the following principles can you apply to remedy the situation? A. IGRP B. Shared IP C. Secondary addressing D. IP unnumbered

C. Secondary addressing is what you use to assign multiple IP addresses to single interfaces. Adding a second IP address to a NIC enables you to add another subnet to the physical segment, thereby increasing your number of available hosts. 21. An ip unnumbered command does which of the following? A. It allows use of different subnet masks on two ports on each side of the link B. It is used in a point-to-multipoint configuration C. It allows the same netmask number to be used on each side of the link D. It makes an effective use of IP addresses C, D. The ip unnumbered command allows the same netmask to be used on either side of the link, thus minimizing the waste of IP addresses. It also uses your available IP addresses effectively, since it prevents you from wasting an entire subnet across the link. 22. In static routing, the route to a destination network: A. Is not known prior to configuration B. Remains permanently in the routing table C. Is determined in real time D. Is known prior to configuration D. In static routing, the path between two destinations is known prior to configuring a router. 23. If two routing protocols recommend the same route to a router, the router will: A. Select either of the two routes at random, with no preference for one over the other B. Select the route that has a lower administrative distance value C. Select the route that has a higher administrative distance value D. Place both the routes in the routing table B. The router will select a route associated with the protocol that has the lower administrative distance value. 24. What is the command used to remove static routes from the routing tables? A. show ip route B. show ip redirect C. change ip route D. no ip route D. The no ip route command removes static routes from the routing tables.

25. What is the default time interval at which RIP updates are sent? A. 30 seconds B. 15 seconds C. 60 seconds D. 90 seconds A. RIP updates are sent every 30 seconds unless specified otherwise. 26. In the timers basic command, the parameter to specify the time after which the route is to be taken out from the routing table is: A. sleeptime B. holddown C. invalid D. flush D. Flush tells the router to take the entry out of the routing table after a certain time. 27. In an IGRP command timers basic 15 45 0 60, the number 45 represents: A. holddown time B. update time C. invalid time D. flush time C. The number 45 represents the invalid time. The invalid time represents time at which the route becomes invalid and is typically set at three times the value of the update parameter (15 sec in this case is update parameter). 28. In an IGRP command router igrp 7, the number 7 is: A. An autonomous system number B. A gateway number C. A port number D. A terminal number A. The number 7 is an autonomous system number. 29. In the command ip mynetwork 132.2.2.2, what port number is used in establishing a connection? A. 21 B. 23 C. 25 D. 69 B. When no port is specified, a default port number of 23 is used for Telnet.

30. In Cisco routers the DNS lookup capability must be enabled. A. True B. False B. In Cisco routers the DNS capability is enabled by default. If it has been disabled, then an enable command is needed. 31. In order to forward broadcast traffic for certain UDP requests, which of the following commands should be used? A. ip helper-address B. ip address C. ip forward-protocol D. interface E. A and C only F. B and C only E. The IP HELPER command identifies the network where the broadcasts are to be directed, and the IP FORWARD command tells the router that it needs to forward the packets sent by UDP. 32. What is the purpose of secondary addressing? A. To increase the number of hosts on the same network by increasing the IP address capacity B. To increase the number of subnets C. To limit hardware cost D. A and B only E. B and C only F. A and C only F. Secondary addresses are used to add hosts on a network without adding additional hardware. 33. If we implement a secondary address on router X, and we need all other routers to be able to route traffic to its attached hosts, all other routers attached to the same physical subnet as router X will also need a secondary address on the same subnet. A. True B. False A. True. All other routers attached to the same physical subnet as router X will also need a secondary address on the same subnet. 34. The secondary address configuration can be achieved by applying the identical set of commands that are used for configuring the primary address. A. True

B. False B. False. For configuring secondary addresses, a secondary parameter is required at the end of the command. 35. IP unnumbered is configured: A. Globally for all interfaces B. On each interface as needed C. On serial interfaces only D. On Ethernet only B. IP unnumbered is configured on one interface at a time. 36. Match the protocol on the left with administrative distances on the right. A. static 1. 120 B. OSPF 2. 100 C. RIP 3. 1 D. IGRP 4. 110 A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 See Table 6-1 for information on administrative distances.

1. The service provided by IPX is: A. Guaranteed delivery B. Datagram C. Connection-oriented D. Sequenced B. IPX only provides an unreliable, connectionless datagram service. 2. The Transport Control field in the IPX header holds what information? A. The age of the packet. B. Protocol type C. Router hop count D. Level of service required.

C. The Transport Control field in the IPX header holds router hop count information. The Transport Control field is initialized to zero when the packet is generated, and incremented each time it travels through a router. 3. What is the length of an IPX network number? A. 16 bits B. Variable C. 48 bits D. 32 bits D. The Network Number is a fixed-length 32-bit number, although it is normally written with leading zeroes omitted. 4. In the IPX address 0102.0000.8045.1700, what is the node address? A. 1700 B. 0102.0000.8045 C. 0102.0000 D. 0000.8045.1700 D. The node address is 0000.8045.1700. An IPX address is always written with the network number first, followed by the node address. A socket number is sometimes appended. 5. What can you say about this address: 47.0000.0000.0001? A. It is the address of a NetWare print server B. It is an internal network address C. The included socket number is 0001 D. Nothing B. It is an internal network address. Servers are always node 0000.0000.0001 on their internal network. 6. The Checksum field in the IPX header is normally set to: A. A checksum of the entire IPX packet B. A checksum of the IPX header fields only C. 0xFFFF D. 0 C. The Checksum field in the IPX header is not used by default. It is set to 0xFFFF when the packet is generated. 7. If an IPX node is configured to use the Ethernet_802.2 encapsulation, which other machines can it communicate with directly (without going through a router) on the same network?

A. B. C. D.

Machines running any encapsulation Machines running either Ethernet_802.2 or Ethernet_802.3 Machines running Ethernet_II Machines running Ethernet_802.2

D. To communicate directly, nodes must be running the same frame type. 8. To run multiple encapsulations on a single physical interface, a router has to: A. Use a different network number for each encapsulation B. Use subinterfaces, not secondary networks C. Enable NLSP routing D. Use an access list A. Each encapsulation in use on an interface forms its own IPX network, and so must be given its own network number. Each network number must still be unique across the IPX internetwork. 9. Which protocol does a workstation use to locate a server providing a particular type of service? A. RIP B. NCP C. SAP D. EIGRP C. A workstation uses Service Advertising Protocol (SAP) to locate a server providing a particular type of service. 10. Periodic SAP updates are sent by: A. Routers and servers B. NetWare servers only C. Workstations and routers D. Workstations only A. Periodic SAP updates are sent by routers and servers. All servers advertise their available services using broadcasts. Routers record these advertisements and re-broadcast them as part of their own SAP databases. Workstations only broadcast GNS queries, and never transmit updates. 11. The RIP protocol is used by: A. Routers only B. Servers only C. Workstations, servers, and routers D. Print servers

C. Workstations, servers, and routers all use RIP to locate routes to remote networks. 12. Which command which must be given first to enable IPX? A. cisco(config)#enable ipx routing B. cisco>ipx routing C. cisco(config-if)#ipx routing on D. cisco(config)#ipx routing D. The command ipx routing must be given first to enable IPX. Although answer B has the correct command, the router is in the wrong mode to accept it. 13. Which of the following allow you to use multiple IPX networks on a single physical interface? A. Secondary networks B. Dynamic frame types C. Subinterfaces D. None. This is not supported. A, C. Both secondary networks and subinterfaces allow you to have multiple IPX networks on one physical interface. Each separate network on the interface must run over a different encapsulation, though. 14. Which IOS command allows you to view the routers internal SAP database? A. show servers B. show ipx servers C. servers D. ipx servers B. The command show ipx servers allows you to view the routers internal SAP database. This will display the contents of the SAP table. 15. Which of the following kinds of information do you need to collect before you can configure IPX using IOS? A. The number of NetWare servers on the network B. The encapsulations in use C. IPX network numbers D. The IPX address of another router B, C. The encapsulations in use and the IPX network numbers are both required if problems are to be avoided in the install. 16. What does this command do: cisco(config-if)#ipx network 3

A. Nothing. It is incomplete. B. Sets up a static route to Network 3 C. Configures IPX Network 3 on this interface with the default frame type D. Nothing. The router is in the wrong configuration mode. C. The encapsulation hasnt been specified, so the default for the media type on this interface will be used. 17. What does this IOS command do? ipx route 4 5.0000.8004.4563 floating-static A. Configures 4 static routes B. Configures static SAP entries for servers of type 4 C. Configures a static route to network 4 D. Says that to get to network 5, you must go via network 4 18. In the command ipx route 4 5.0000.8004.4563 floating-static, what does the floating-static keyword on the end mean? A. Set all static routes to floating B. Allow this route to be overridden by a route received dynamically C. Apply this route to all network numbers from 1 to 4 D. Lock this route so that it cannot be changed B. The floating-static keyword on the end means that if a route advertised by RIP or another routing protocol was received for network 4, it would take precedence over the static route. Without this, incoming dynamic routes for this network will be ignored. 19. The ipx maximum-paths command does what? A. Allows IOS to share traffic to a given network over multiple paths B. Allows a slow link to be used as a backup for a faster one C. Sets the maximum number of router hops a packet can travel D. Sets the maximum number of interfaces IPX can be configured on A. The ipx maximum-paths command allows multiple paths to a given network. The paths must have an equal cost. By default, IOS only uses one path to each destination network. 20. Which command is used to show a concise list of the configured IPX interfaces? A. show config B. show ipx interface C. show ipx interface brief D. show interface

C. The command show ipx interface brief shows a concise list of the configured IPX interfaces. Although answer B does show a list, it is not concise! 21. If two devices are plugged into the same physical network, but are using different encapsulations, what it required before they can communicate? A. A cross-over cable B. A repeater C. A router configured for the appropriate encapsulations D. Nothing. They can communicate directly. C. If they arent running the same encapsulations, a router is the only device that will allow them to connect. 22. When does a workstation normally send a GNS request? A. When trying to communicate with another workstation B. When trying to locate the nearest router C. When it needs to send a SAP update D. When trying to locate a server at initialization D. When the workstation first comes up, it needs to find a NetWare server to connect to. Once connected, it can use the servers database to locate services. 23. How many router hops does a GNS request travel? A. 16 B. None C. 4 D. Unlimited B. The GNS request is a broadcast. By default, routers block these broadcasts, so they are only seen on their local network. 24. In a SAP update packet, what does the Server Address field contain? A. The network the server is on B. The servers node number C. The socket number the server is listening on D. All of the above. D. The SAP update contains the full internetwork address, with socket number for the server. 25. Which of the following protocols is used by servers to advertise their services to the clients? A. Routing Information protocol (RIP) B. Sequenced Packet Exchange (SPX)

C. Network Core Protocol (NCP) D. Service Advertising Protocol (SAP) D. SAP announcements are broadcast by servers to advertise their services. 26. On an Ethernet LAN how many IPX encapsulation types are supported? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 A. The four types of IPX encapsulation supported on an Ethernet LAN are: Ethernet_II, Ethernet_802.2, Ethernet_802.3, and Ethernet_SNAP. 27. The frame check sequence checks with which fields in an Ethernet_802.3 frame? A. The Source Address and Destination Address B. The packet data C. Everything from the Destination Address on D. Source Service Access Point (SSAP) C. The FCS is used to detect corrupted packets, and checks all the IPX packet fields. 28. Which of the following fields is not common to both Ethernet_802.3 and Ethernet_802.2 frames? A. Source Address B. Length C. DSAP D. Data C. The DSAP field is in the Ethernet_802.2 frame and not in the Ethernet_802.3 frame. 29. In SAP packets, the numbers in the Service Type field are assigned by: A. The system administrator B. The end user C. Novell D. Server C. The Service Type field contains a number assigned buy Novell. 30. SAP requests, responses, or broadcasts can be recognized by which value of source or destination socket number? A. 0x0452

B. 0xE0 C. 0x03 D. 0x0453 A. SAP requests, responses, or broadcasts can be recognized by a source or destination socket number of 0x0452. 0xE0 is used by Ethernet_802.2 frames in the DSAP and SSAP fields. 0x03 is the value of the Control byte in an Ethernet_802.2 frame. 0x0453 is used as a socket number in RIP frame. 31. In RIP Packets, the Hops Away and Time Ticks fields are valid both for request and response packets. A. True B. False B. False. In RIP requests, both of these fields contain the value 0xFFFF. In response packets, they contain valid values. 32. Up to how many RIP entries a single IPX packet can hold? A. 44 B. 47 C. 49 D. 51 C. A single IPX packet can hold up to 49 RIP entries. 33. In RIP, which number of hop counts indicates that a network is unreachable? A. 12 B. 16 C. 8 D. 20 B. In RIP a hop count of 16 specifies that a network is unreachable. 34. Match a Novell term on the left with an IOS term on the right. A. Ethernet_SNAP 1. SAP B. Ethernet_802.2 2. SNAP C. Ethernet_II 3. novell-ether D. Ethernet_802.3 4. arpa A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3. These equivalents are described in Table 7-1. 35. If a user attempts to set the same encapsulation type on more than one subinterface on the same physical interface, what will the IOS do? A. Assign default values for encapsulation types

B. Issue a warning but allow the change C. Issue an error message and ignore the change D. Allow the change C. If a user attempts to set the same encapsulation type on more than one subinterface on the same physical interface, then the IOS will issue an error message and ignore the change. 36. Which of the following is a default routing protocol when IPX routing is enabled? A. RIP B. NLSP C. EIGRP D. CDP A. RIP is the default routing protocol when IPX is enabled. 37. When there are multiple paths available at the same cost, then by default IOS: A. Will Keep all paths in the routing table B. Will Keep only one path in the routing table C. Will keep all paths in the table and route the traffic in a round-robin manner D. B and C B. By default IOS only uses the best known path to each network, and sends all traffic down this path. 38. What is the purpose of the split-horizon function? A. To divide the network traffic in two for faster throughput B. To avoid sending redundant data back out the interface it was received on C. So that each person only has to manage half the routers on a network D. To set traffic priority levels B. The purpose of the split-horizon function is to avoid redundancy. By not advertising SAP entries back onto the segment they were originally received from, the amount of traffic is reduced on the segment, and confusing loops are avoided. 39. By default, RIP routers broadcast periodic updates every: A. 30 Seconds B. 60 Seconds C. 5 Minutes D. 10 Minutes

B. By default periodic RIP updates are sent every 60 seconds. 40. When would a workstation send a RIP request? A. On initialization, to locate a server B. Whenever it needs to find a route to a remote network it doesnt have a route for C. To connect to a NetWare server D. Every 60 seconds B. Workstations use RIP to locate routes to remote networks. 41. If an interface was configured like this: cisco(config)#interface ethernet 1 cisco(config-if)#ipx network 201 encapsulation novell-ether cisco(config-if)#ipx network 202 encapsulation sap secondary How many copies of each SAP update would be sent out the physical interface? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 B. There would be two copies of each SAP update sent one to network 201 on the novell-ether encapsulation, and one to network 202 on the SAP encapsulation.

1. How long is an AppleTalk address (in bits)? A. 16 bits B. 32 bits C. 24 bits D. 8 bits C. An AppleTalk address is 24 bits long. It contains a 16-bit network number and an eight-bit node number. 2. What are the two parts of an AppleTalk address? A. Network and node B. Source and destination C. Logical and physical D. Standard and extended

A. The two parts of an AppleTalk address are the 16-bit network number and the eight-bit node number. 3. Which of the following is standard on almost all Macintosh computers? A. EtherTalk B. TokenTalk C. FDDITalk D. LocalTalk D. LocalTalk is standard on almost all Macintosh models. Most AppleTalk printers have a LocalTalk interface as well. 4. How many bits of an AppleTalk address are reserved for the node number? A. 8 bits B. 16 bits C. 24 bits D. 32 bits A. The node part of an AppleTalk address is eight bits. The network part of the address is 16 bits. Together, they make up a 24-bit AppleTalk address. 5. Network resources used by a particular group or department are grouped into what AppleTalk structure? A. Workgroup B. Zone C. Cable Range D. Virtual LAN B. Network resources used by a particular group or department are grouped into a zone. Functional groupings are made via the AppleTalk Zone concept. Workgroup and Virtual LAN are generic terms, not AppleTalk structures. Cable ranges are used to assign a range of network numbers to a network link. 6. What is the name of the AppleTalk layer-3 protocol? A. Datagram Post Office Protocol B. Datagram Delivery Protocol C. AppleTalk Transport Protocol D. Zone Information Protocol B. AppleTalk uses the Datagram Delivery Protocol to provide connectionless datagram delivery service to the upper-layer protocols. 7. Which statement is true?

A. B. C. D.

Two ZIPs can be assigned to an interface Two cable ranges can be assigned to an interface Two AppleTalk RTMPs can be assigned to an interface Two zone names can be assigned to an interface

D. Multiple zones can be assigned to an interface. ZIP and RTMP are protocols. They are not "assigned" to an interface. Two cable ranges can not be assigned to an interface. Cable range assignments must be unique. 8. What command sets the range of network numbers associated with an AppleTalk network? A. appletalk zone name B. APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE C. appletalk cable range D. appletalk network-range B. The APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE command assigns a range of network numbers to be used on a given network interface. The zone name command (answer A) assigns zones to an interface. Answer C is close, but it is missing the hyphen between cable and range. 9. Which of these protocols cannot be used for maintaining AppleTalk routing tables? A. RTMP B. AURP C. EIGRP D. IGRP E. IGRP handles IP traffic only. All the other routing protocols can be used to help maintain AppleTalk routing tables. 10. How often does RTMP send out routing table updates? A. Every 10 seconds B. Every 20 seconds C. Whenever a topology change occurs D. Every 30 seconds A. RTMP broadcasts its routing table to its neighbors every 10 seconds. 11. Which of the following commands is not necessary for a basic AppleTalk configuration? A. appletalk protocol RTMP B. APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE 1234-4321 C. appletalk zone Ozone D. appletalk routing

A. appletalk protocol rtmp is not necessary in a basic AppleTalk configuration. RTMP is automatically started on an interface as soon as the cable range and zone name have been properly assigned. 12. What is the range of numbers used for AppleTalk access control filters? A. 100 299 B. 500 699 C. 600 700 D. 600 699 C. The access list numbers used for AppleTalk filtering are 600 699. 13. Which command displays the RTMP metrics? A. show rtmp B. show appletalk zone C. show appletalk metrics D. SHOW APPLETALK ROUTE D. The command SHOW APPLETALK ROUTE displays all known cable ranges and the hop count (metric) required to reach each network identified by cable range. 14. If router A and router B are directly connected via their Serial 0 interfaces, which command would be most useful on router A for hiding zone President Zone (on the E0 interface) from router B? A. appletalk access-group 600 B. appletalk zone-filter 600 C. appletalk GETZONELIST-filter 600 D. appletalk zip-reply-filter 600 D. Clients use the GETZONELIST command to obtain the list of zones from the router. Routers exchange zone information via ZIP, not the ATPbased GETZONELIST command. The zip-reply-filter is the mechanism that filters ZIP among routers; therefore answer D is best. 15. If client M is connected to router A via Ethernet 0, which command would be the most useful for hiding zone SerialZone (located elsewhere in the network) from client M? A. appletalk access-group 600 B. appletalk zone-filter 600 C. appletalk GETZONELIST-filter 600 D. appletalk zip-reply-filter 600 C. Since clients use the GETZONELIST command to obtain zone lists from routers, filtering this list with a GETZONELIST-FILTER would prevent client M from learning about the existence of SerialZone. The zip-reply

filter will only filter ZIP. The GETZONELIST command is implemented via ATP, so using a zip-reply filter would be ineffective. 16. Which command assigns a zone name to an interface? A. appletalk zip-name B. appletalk zone C. appletalk zip-reply-filter D. appletalk GETZONELIST-filter B. The command appletalk zone is used to assign zone names to interfaces. The syntax is appletalk zone myzone. It is an interface-level command. 17. Which command causes a router to automatically obtain its AppleTalk configuration information by querying other routers already on the network? A. appletalk auto-config B. appletalk discovery C. appletalk discovery-mode enable D. appletalk cable range auto B. AppleTalk discovery activates the auto discovery process in Cisco routers. 18. Which of the following sets of commands are all interface configuration commands? A. appletalk routing, appletalk zip-reply-filter, APPLETALK CABLERANGE B. appletalk zip-reply-filter, appletalk zone, APPLETALK CABLERANGE C. appletalk GETZONELIST filter, appletalk access-list, APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE D. appletalk access-list, appletalk zone, APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE B. These commands are all interface configuration commands. Answer A is wrong because appletalk routing is a global configuration command. Answers C and D are wrong because appletalk access-list is not a command at all. 19. Which command causes a network and node number to be assigned to a router interface? A. APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE B. appletalk address-enable C. appletalk node-enable D. appletalk address auto-config

A. The APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE command assigns the cable range to the interface, but it also causes the automatic node address assignment to occur. The results of the node assignment can be seen with a show run command, which will display the APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE command with the automatically assigned node number immediately following the cable range. The other commands listed are not valid. 20. Which of the following commands are required in a router configuration that routes AppleTalk traffic? A. appletalk address 301.64 B. appletalk processing enable C. appletalk range D. appletalk routing D. appletalk routing is a global configuration command that is required to cause the router to route AppleTalk packets. Without the appletalk routing command, a router could bridge AppleTalk traffic (if properly configured), but routing would not occur. 21. Match the OSI Layer on the left with the corresponding AppleTalk protocols on the right. A. Data-link/Physical 1. AFP B. Transport 2. ASP C. Application 3. RTMP D. Session 4. EtherTalk A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 22. Which Data Link type supports speeds of up to 100 Mbps? A. Local Talk B. FDDI Talk C. Token Talk D. All of the above B. FDDI Talk supports 100 Mbps. Token Talk supports 4 or 16 Mbps. Local Talk supports 230 Kbps. 23. Name Binding Protocol (NBP) is a protocol for: A. The application layer B. The session layer C. The transport layer D. The physical layer C. NBP is a transport layer protocol. 24. Which statement is true of zoning?

A. B. C. D.

It reduces the number of devices (hardware) It reduces the number of nodes on the network It causes client requests to propagate through the entire network It reduces overhead

D. Zoning reduces overhead by allowing requests to be directed towards devices in a specified zone. The purpose of zoning is to prevent propagation of requests through the entire network. 25. Which statement is true of RTMP? A. It uses the shortest path algorithm B. It uses distance vector protocol C. It is a link-state protocol D. It is a minimum metric algorithm B. RTMP is responsible for maintaining the routing table and does so by using a distance vector routing protocol. 26. Name Binding Protocol is used for what purpose? A. To convert addresses into names B. To create unique names for devices C. To associate names with addresses D. To create unique addresses C. One of the major functions of the NBP is to map names to addresses and to provide this service to applications. 27. Which of the following protocols is most often preferred because of the capability of bi-directional data stream support over DDP? A. ADSP B. ATP C. ASP D. AFP A. ADSP is the preferred protocol for data exchange between applications. 28. Whereas MAC addresses may change from location to location, the network addresses will remain the same from location to location. A. True B. False B. False. MAC addresses do not change from location to location. Network addresses can be different in different locations. 29. Network number assignments are made by:

A. B. C. D.

Network queue Client Server Router

D. Routers make the network number assignments. Network numbers identify the segment associated with a client device. 30. The major characteristic of an Extended AppleTalk addressing scheme is: A. That a single network number is assigned to a single segment B. That a single segment can be associated with a range of network numbers C. That a single network number can be assigned multiple zones D. B and C only E. All of the above D. Extended Apple Talk addressing allows multiple network numbers to be assigned to a segment. Thus, in this addressing scheme up to 65,535 networks can be associated with a segment. In a non-extended addressing scheme, the network is assigned only one network ID and one zone name. 31. Which is a true statement about a cable range? A. It is a range of addresses assigned to a device B. It is associated with a network segment C. It is associated with an interface on the router D. All of the above E. B and C only E. In a strict sense the answer is Ba cable range is associated with a network segment. However, the router interface is used to route traffic to appropriate network. Therefore answer C is also valid. 32. All AppleTalk network numbers must be: A. Greater than 65,536 B. Greater than 255 C. Less than 65,536 D. Less than 255 C. All AppleTalk network numbers must be less than 65,536. The network address is 16 bits long. This means a limit of 65,536. 33. What is the broadcast node number in AppleTalk? A. 255 B. 0

C. 256 D. None of the above A. 255 is used as broadcast node number. 34. For a cable range of 450 454, what is the maximum number of hosts? A. 762 B. 2286 C. 1016 D. 1270 D. For a cable range of 450 454, the maximum number of hosts is 1270. The number of hosts equals the number of network numbers times 254. 5 X 254 = 1270. 35. Which of the following is not true of cable ranges? A. They are assigned with the APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE command B. They are ranges of network numbers assigned to a segment C. They cannot overlap with a previously assigned cable range D. None of the above D. Cable ranges are assigned with the APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE command; they are ranges of network numbers assigned to a segment; and they cannot overlap with a previously assigned cable range. 36. A network segment X is given a cable range of 200 300. What is the acceptable value of cable range for segment Y? A. 250 350 B. 6301 6400 C. 300 400 D. All of the above B. Among these choices, 6301 6400 is the only acceptable value of cable range for segment Y. Answers A and C are overlapping with 200 300 and therefore cannot be used. 37. A segment has a cable range of 700 750. When a node wants to get an address, it may pick up any network number in the range that is not currently in use. A. True B. False A. True. The node may pick any network number within the range.

38. Which command would be most appropriate for finding out whether the network has verified a cable range assignment for E0? A. Show appletalk address B. SHOW APPLETALK ROUTE C. Show appletalk interface D. Show appletalk zone C. show appletalk interface tells the status of an interface and indicates whether the interface configuration has been verified. 39. What cable range is used to indicate to IOS to use AppleTalk discovery mode on a given interface? A. 1 1 B. 0 0 C. 255 255 D. 254 254 B. The 0 0 cable range is used to indicate to IOS that AD should be used. 40. For AppleTalk discovery to work properly: A. A router must have cable range assigned to it B. The seed routers must be in place C. The seed routers must be non-operational D. All of the above B. For AppleTalk discovery to work properly, seed routers must be in place and operational before the AppleTalk discovery is applied to nonseed routers. 41. For a basic AppleTalk configuration, how many commands are necessary? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four C. The three necessary commands are AppleTalk routing, APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE, and AppleTalk interface. 42. For activation of an access list, which of the following commands is required? A. access-group B. zone C. cable-range D. interface

A. The access-group command and the access-list command are required to activate an access list on the interface. 43. The default direction for access list for IOS versions earlier than 11.3 is: A. Outbound B. Inbound C. Inbound and outbound (bi-directional) D. None of the above A. For IOS versions earlier than 11.3, the default is outbound. IOS version 11.3 supports inbound direction. 44. Which of the following commands is used for monitoring Apple Talk configuration? A. APPLETALK CABLE-RANGE B. appletalk GETZONELIST C. show appletalk zone D. access list C. The commands used to monitor AppleTalk configurations are show appletalk interface, SHOW APPLETALK ROUTE and show appletalk zone. 45. The following is displayed in response to the SHOW APPLETALK ROUTE command: R Net 300-399[3/G] via 400.97, 10 sec, Serial0, zone EtherZone2 In this display, R is: A. A router name B. RIP C. RTMP D. All of the above C. R indicates that the cable range 300 399 was learned via RTMP. 46. The following is displayed in response to the SHOW APPLETALK ROUTE command: R Net 300-399[3/G] via 400.97, 10 sec, Serial0, zone EtherZone2 In this display, 10 sec is: A. The time it takes for a packet to travel from source to destination B. The time elapsed since the last RTMP update for cable range 300 399 was received C. The holddown time for cable range 300 399 D. The time interval indicating how long the packet will be held by the router

B. 10 seconds is the elapsed time since the last RTMP update that included an entry for cable range 300 399. When RTMP is operating properly, this number should never be more than 10 seconds, because the RTMP update interval is 10 seconds. 47. The following is displayed in response to the SHOW APPLETALK ROUTE command: R Net 300-399[3/G] via 400.97, 10 sec, Serial0, zone EtherZone2 In this display, 400.97 is: A. The destination address of a packet going to network 300 399 B. The source address of a packet coming from network 300 399 C. The address of the router that advertised the cable range D. None of the above C. 400.97 is the AppleTalk address of the router that advertised the cable range.

1. Match which of these protocols go with which access list range. A. Novell SAP 1) 800 899 B. AppleTalk 2) 1000 1099 C. Novell 3) 1 99 D. IP 4) 600 699 A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3. Novell SAP uses 1000 1099; AppleTalk uses 600 699; Novell uses 800 899; IP uses 1 99. 2. What happens to access lists previously created if the IOS is upgraded from version 10.1 to 11.1? A. They are dropped since they are no longer applicable B. Access lists didnt exist prior to version 9.1 C. They will be converted to the new format D. They will be left alone since IOS 11.1 provides backward compatibility C. They will be converted to the new format. Even though 11.1 does provide backward compatibility, it is only for the allowance of converting prior versions access lists. 3. In what ways are access lists used AppleTalk networks?

A. B. C. D.

To control packets transmitted across an interface To specify interesting traffic to launch a DDR connection To restrict SAP broadcasts To advertise available servers

A, B. Access lists in AppleTalk networks are used in one of two ways. First, to control packets transmitted across an interface. Second, to specify interesting traffic that will launch a DDR connection. 4. What do NetWare servers do to advertise their services and addresses to other servers? A. Broadcast NetBIOS packets B. Register with an SAP server C. Broadcast SAP packets D. Register with a NetBIOS server C. NetWare servers advertise their services and addresses to other servers by broadcasting SAP packets. 5. In the event of no matching rule being found in an IP access list, what happens to the transmission packet at the end? A. It is dropped B. It is allowed to pass C. A broadcast is sent out notifying the sending host D. A Packet Return (PR) is issued to the sending host A. It is dropped. If no matching rule is found in an access list, it is implicitly denied. 6. For which of the following reasons are IP-style AppleTalk access lists implemented? A. For controlling the disposition of networks that overlap a network number range B. For controlling the disposition of networks that are contained within a network number range C. For controlling the disposition of networks that no longer exist within a network number range D. For controlling the disposition of networks that exactly match a network number range A, B, D. IP-style access lists are based on network numbers and are used for controlling the disposition of networks that overlap, are contained within, or exactly match a network number range. 7. Which of the following statements are true regarding IP access lists?

A. After an access list is created, any additions to that list are placed at the end B. You cant selectively add or remove items C. You need to explicitly associate the access list to whatever it is you are intending to use it for, such as an interface D. There is an implicit DENY statement at the end A, B, C, D. All are correct statements regarding IP access lists. 8. On what basis do IPX access lists permit or deny traffic? A. Specified network nodes B. Messages sent using a particular ICMP C. Messages sent using a particular protocol D. Messages sent using a particular service A, C, D. Packets are permitted or denied based on specified network nodes or messages sent using a particular service or protocol. 9. How often does a Cisco router broadcast periodic SAP advertisements? A. As soon as it receives the complete packet B. Every 30 Seconds C. Every 60 Seconds D. Every 300 Seconds (5 Minutes) B. Cisco routers broadcast periodic SAP advertisements every 30 Seconds. Cisco routers forward packets every 60 seconds by default. 10. What is GNS? A. An ICMP connectivity error packet B. Generic NetWare Service (Allows a Cisco router to appear as a NetWare server) C. AppleTalks default network routing algorithm D. A packet sent out to request specific services from servers D. A GNS is a Get Nearest Server request. A GNS packet is sent out by Novell clients to request a nonserver-specific service. 11. Which of the following are valid types of IPX access lists? A. SAP B. NetBIOS C. ICMP D. Extended A, B, D. SAP, NetBIOS, and Extended are three of the four types of IPX access lists. ICMP is a protocol option for IP extended access lists.

12. What are the two basic styles of AppleTalk lists? A. AppleTalk style B. Macintosh style C. NBP style D. IP style A, D. AppleTalk and IP are the two styles of access lists. 13. Which of the following are true statements regarding Phase 1 and Phase 2 AppleTalk networks? A. Phase 1 networks are more efficient at WAN communication B. Phase 2 networks can have up to 255 zones C. Phase 1 networks can have only 1 zone D. Phase 2 networks introduced routing B, C, D. Phase 2 networks are routable and can have up to 255 zones, while Phase 1 networks are limited to one. 14. How should you arrange your entries in AppleTalk access lists? A. The order doesnt matter B. From the most specific to the most general C. From the most general to the most specific D. Zones first, followed by systems A. It doesnt matter how you arrange your entries in AppleTalk access lists. The order is unimportant because overlapping entries are not allowed. The router automatically puts permit other-nbps, permit otheraccess and permit additional-zones at the end of the list 15. What will happen to packets that cross an interface where no access list has been defined? A. They will be discarded B. They will be allowed to pass through C. They will be queued up D. They will be returned to the sending host B. If you dont apply any access lists to an interface, or if you attempt to apply an access list that has not been defined, it will pass all traffic by default. 16. Which of the following examples follow the correct syntax for adding special Macintosh characters in zone names? A. /B2 B. B2 C. [B2] D. :B2

D. :B2. If you want to use a special character, you enter a colon followed by the two corresponding hexadecimal characters. 17. Which of these are valid types of IP access lists? A. Dynamic B. Dynamic Extended C. Extended D. Standard B, C, D. There are three basic types of IP access lists: standard, extended, and dynamic extended 18. Which of the following examples uses the correct syntax to define an AppleTalk access list for an extended or a non-extended network that is completely contained within a specific cable-range? A. access-list 599 permit within 100-150 B. access-list permit 225-240 within 699 C. access-list permit 225-240 within 599 D. access-list 699 permit within 100-150 D. The correct syntax is as follows, remembering that AppleTalks range is 600 699: ACCESS-LIST access-list-number {PERMIT | DENY} WITHIN cable-range. 19. Which of the following statements regarding SAP broadcasts is correct? A. SAP-type broadcasts do not work well across WANs B. Each SAP service is identified by an eight-digit binary number C. Because of sequencing issues, the times between SAP table updates cannot be changed D. SAP stands for Secondary Addressing Protocol A. SAP broadcasts do not work well across WANs. 20. Which of the following statements regarding SAP broadcasts is correct? A. SAP type broadcasts do not work well across WANs B. Each SAP service is identified by an eight digit binary number C. Because of sequencing issues, the times between SAP table updates cannot be changed D. SAP stands for Secondary Addressing Protocol A. SAP broadcasts do not work well across WANs. 21. Consider the following access list: Access-list 50 deny 136.120.3.1 Access-list 50 deny 143.22.1.0 0.0.0.255

Which statement represents the most complete description of the results of applying this list as a packet filter? A. It will deny all traffic destined for any host on network 136.120.3.0 B. It will deny all traffic destined for network 143.22.1.0 C. It will deny all traffic from the host at 136.120.3.1 D. It will deny all IP traffic D. The access list number, 50, falls within the range for standard IP access lists, which filter on source address only, not destination address, so answers A and B cannot be correct. Because there is an implicit DENY ANY at the end of each access list, all traffic not explicitly permitted is denied. Because we have not explicitly permitted any traffic, all traffic will be denied. 22. Which command would be used to configure a packet filter for IP traffic? A. Router(config-if)#ip access-list 100 B. Router(config-if)#ip access-group 42 C. Router(config)#access-group 102 D. Router(config-if)#access-group 75 E. Router(config-if)#ip output-packet-filter 112 B. The ip access-group command is an interface configuration command. The other commands are invalid. 23. Which command would be used to configure an inbound packet filter for TCP traffic? A. Router(config-if)#tcp packet-filter 101 B. Router(config-if)#ip packet-filter 101 in C. Router(config-if)#ip access-group 99 in D. Router(config-if)#ip access-group 100 in E. Router(config-if)#ip access-group 100 D. A packet filter to filter TCP traffic would be applied using the ip accessgroup command, using an IP extended access list. There is no such command as tcp packet-filter or ip packet-filter. Answer C is incorrect because list 99 would be a standard IP access list, which cannot specifically filter TCP traffic. Answer E is incorrect because the keyword IN needs to be specified. The default direction is outbound. 24. The address mask pair 172.16.64.0 0.0.3.255 specifies which range of IP addresses? A. 172.16.64.255 through 172.16.67.255 B. 172.16.67.0 through 172.16.70.255 C. 172.16.64.0 through 172.16.67.255 D. 172.16.63.0 through 172.16.64.255

C. The range begins at 172.16.64.0 and includes all IP addresses through172.16.67.255. All bits in the address corresponding to "0" bits in the wildcard mask will always be the same throughout the range, while all bits in the address corresponding to "1" bits in the mask may be any value. 25. The following statement appears in an IP extended access list: Access-list 125 permit ip any host 136.25.2.128 What does this line permit? A. Any IP traffic from host 136.25.2.128 B. IP traffic to any host on network 136.25.2.128 C. IP traffic from any address to the host at 136.25.2.128 D. The statement is invalid because there is no mask C. The ANY argument represents "any source network." The HOST keyword replaces the mask 0.0.0.0 for the destination IP address 136.25.2.128. 26. The following access list, containing only one line, is applied as a packet filter on an interface. Access-list 100 permit tcp 145.22.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq telnet What is the best description of the traffic that is denied by the implicit DENY ALL? A. All IP traffic B. All Telnet traffic C. All TCP traffic D. All TCP traffic except Telnet A. Even though the statement explicitly refers to TCP and Telnet traffic, the implicit DENY ALL applies to all IP traffic.

1. What does DDR stands for? A. Dial-up direct request B. Direct dial relocation number C. Dial-on-demand request D. Dial-on-demand routing D. DDR stands for dial-on-demand routing. 2. Which of the following is required to configure an ISDN BRI interface? A. SPID B. LUN

C. PVC number D. DLCI A. The service profile identifier (SPID) is a required number supplied by the phone company. 3. Which of the following statements regarding ISDN PRI is true? A. ISDN PRI runs on existing copper B. ISDN PRI can basically run at the same speed as a T-1 C. Because ISDN PRI uses SVCs and PVCs, it makes it an excellent solution to the desktop D. It is comprised of two B channels and 23 D channels B. ISDN PRI can provide speeds up to 1.536 Mbps, which is roughly the speed of a T-1. 4. Which layer of the OSI model does X.25 cover? A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2, and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 2, 3, and 4 B. X.25 encompasses the first three layers of the OSI model. 5. Which of these is not a characteristic of PVCs? A. They must each be set up manually B. They are similar to a leased line C. The connections can be established very quickly when the bandwidth is needed D. Require a DTE and a DCE to operate C. PVC connections are permanent and take time to set up. 6. A X.25 connection deals with which of the following technology pieces? A. LCN B. LCI C. NUA D. All of the above D. A X.25 connection has both an LCN (which is also known as an LCI) and a NUA. 7. What is contained within an LAPB frame? A. LUN information B. X.25 packet C. Flow control and error-recovery information

D. QLLC packet for frame window configuration B. An X.25 packet makes up the data field of an HDLC frame. 8. What does the following command accomplish? X25 route 2468013579 interface serial0 A. Routes all information from 2468013579 through serial 0 B. Denies traffic bound for 2468013579 from passing through serial 0 C. Adds a manual route statement to send IP datagrams through serial 0 D. Routes all information destined for 2468013579 through serial 0 C. This command tells the router to send all traffic destined for the listed NUA out through the specified serial interface. 9. Which of the following arguments for the SHOW X.25 command displays a one-to-one mapping of the local and remote IP addresses? A. MAP B. ROUTE C. VC D. REMOTE-RED D. REMOTE-RED displays one-to-one mappings. 10. Which of the following technologies are associated with Frame Relay? A. TDM B. LMI C. Inverse ARP D. CIR B,C, D. are all correct. LMI is the Local Management Interface extension, which adds functionality to Frame Relay such as Inverse-Arp. CIR is the committed information rate, and is the guaranteed rate the end user will receive out of a shared T-1. 11. How would you reference sub-interface 1 on Serial 0 with the Cisco IOS? A. Serial0.1 B. Serial 0 sub 1 C. Serial.0.sub.1 D. Serial.0.0 A. The naming convention used for these ports is simply the name of the interface being addressed, then a period, followed by the number of the sub-interface. 12. What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

A. B. C. D.

Autodiscovers DLCI numbers Automatically configures PVCs Gets all connected routers MAC addresses Builds a table of the IP address

D. Inverse ARP builds a table of the IP address of the (sub)interfaces at the end of the PVC, matched with each respective DLCI. 13. Which statement about ATM packets is false? A. It is 56 bytes long B. Contains a 5-byte header C. The information field is 48 bytes long D. Because of its fixed length, it can control bandwidth utilization. A. An ATM packet is 53 bytes in length. 14. Which of these statements regarding VCI and VPI are true? A. VPI identifies a larger group than VCI B. VCI is a unit C. Both VPI and VCI only have significance locally D. A VCC contains BOTH VPI and VCI A, B, C, D. All four answers are true statements regarding VCIs and VPIs. 15. What is the correct speed for ATM? A. 155 Mbps B. 25 Mbps C. 622 Mbps D. None of the above A,B,C. All three are valid speeds and are dependent on the type of hardware they are travelling over. 16. Which of the following is a good, accurate description of LANE? A. Layer-3 routing protocol B. Layer-2 bridging protocol C. Layer-3 bridging protocol D. Layer-2 routing protocol B. LANE is a layer-2 bridging protocol. 17. Which command maps a list of IP addresses to an ATM interface? A. Map-List B. Map-ID C. Map-Group D. Map-IPList

C. Map Group assigns a map-list to an interface. 18. Which of the following are supported by PPP? A. CHAP/PAP B. Binding of multiple protocols over one link C. Dynamic address assignment D. Synchronous communication A, B, C, D. All of the items listed are supported by PPP. 19. below is correct if you want to authenticate with CHAP? A. PPP authentication CHAP B. PPP authentication CHAP/PAP C. Authentication CHAP D. Authentication CHAP/PAP A. The correct syntax to authenticate with CHAP is PPP authentication CHAP. 20. Of what benefit is Multilink PPP? A. Provides load balancing B. Re-assembles fragmented packets C. Combines multiple successive SLIP connections and appears as one connection D. Provides load calculations on both inbound and outbound traffic A, B, D. Multilink Point-to-Point Protocol provides load balancing, reassembles fragmented packets, and provide load calculation on both inbound and outbound traffic. 21. Basic Rate Interface in ISDN has: A. One B channel and one D channel B. 23 B channels and one D channel C. Two B channels and one D channel D. Two D channels and one B channel C. The ISDN BRI has two B channels at 64 Kbps and one D channel at 16 Kbps. 22. In the U.S., an ISDN service provider may use: A. 5ESS switch B. 4ESS switch C. MS-100 switch D. All of the above D. ISDN service provider in the U.S. can use any of the switches.

23. Primary Rate Interface in ISDN has: A. One B channels and two D channels B. Two B channels and one D channel C. One B channel and 23 D channels D. 23 B channels and one D channel D. The Primary Rate Interface has 23 B channels and one D channel, giving it a rate of 1.536 Mbps. 24. Which statement is true of X.25? A. It is a cell-based technology B. It is a packet-based technology C. It supports only PVC B. X.25 is a packet-based technology. Although X.25 typically operates as PVC, it can also support SVC. 25. One of the parameters required for establishing an ISDN connection is: A. SAPI (Service Access Port Identifier) B. DN (directory number) C. SVC number D. CKTID (CircuitID) B. Directory number is used in establishing an ISDN connection. 26. Which statement is true of the logical channel number (LCN) in X.25? A. It is unique throughout the X.25 network B. It has local significance only C. It identifies a physical link to DTE D. It is used by DTE B. The LCN is a logical connection to DTE and not a physical connection. LCN has no end-to-end significance and therefore is not unique for the entire network. 27. Maximum packet size in X.25 packet can be: A. 64 bytes B. 128 bytes C. 4096 bytes D. 2048 bytes C. The range of packet size is from 64 to 4096 bytes. The default used is typically 128 bytes. 28. In a Frame Relay network, the DLCI: A. Identifies a pipe which leads to a layer-2 protocol address

B. Identifies a pipe which leads to a layer-3 protocol address C. Is a network-wide identifier D. May not change on each physical link B. DLCI has local significance only in that it identifies a virtual circuit leading to a specific layer-3 protocol address. Therefore it is not a network-wide identifier and can change on different physical links. 29. Local Management Interface (LMI) in Frame Relay provides: A. The same functionality as DLCI alone B. Less functionality than DLCI alone C. Greater functionality than DLCI alone D. None of the above C. LMI was introduced to overcome limitations of DLCI. LMI provides use of Inverse ARP, flow control, and the multicasting capability. 30. In Frame Relay, which one of the following allows a station to accept or reject a frame? A. Frame Number B. DLCI C. LMI D. Frame Check Sequence (FCS) D. When a station receives a frame where the FCS does not match the data portion, the frame is discarded. 31. The optional argument that can be supplied at the end of ENCAPSULATION command in configuring a Frame Relay service is: A. IETF B. MAP C. INT D. ROUTE A. The IETF parameter is optional. When specified, it changes the encapsulation method to comply with the IETF standard. Note the default for this is Cisco. 32. In the configuration command Frame Relay map ip 15.20.21.2 5 broadcast, number 5 represents: A. Destination node B. Source node C. DLCI pipe D. LCN

C. The number 5 indicates the DLCI pipe, at the end of which is the destination, with IP address of 15.20.21.2 33. How many allowable standards can the LMI type in a command support? A. one B. three C. five D. four B. LMI type can be ansi, q933a or the default Cisco. 34. ATM guarantees which of the following that Frame Relay does not? A. Multicasting B. Delivery C. Error checking D. Flow control B. ATM guarantees delivery, which Frame Relay does not. Both Frame Relay and ATM have error checking and flow control. 35. ATM does direct broadcast. A. True B. False B. False. ATM does not directly do broadcast, but it can pseudo-broadcast by replicating each broadcast packet across each VC that is set up to receive them. 36. The length of a header in an ATM cell is: A. Three bytes B. Five bytes B. An ATM cell header is five bytes long. 37. For speeds of 622 Mbps or higher, the physical medium in ATM technology is generally: A. Category 5 cable B. Four bytes C. Two bytes D. Category 3 cable E. Optical fiber F. All of the above C. Higher-speed ATM services use optical fiber as physical medium. 38. LANE can handle only non-routable protocols.

A. True B. False B. False. LANE can handle routable protocols such as TCP/IP and IPX, as well as non-routable protocols such as NetBIOS and SNA. 39. In ATM, which of the following statement is false? A. VPI can be non-zero B. Both VPI and VCI can be non-zero C. VCI can be non-zero D. VPI and VCI both can be zero D. In ATM either VPI or VCI can be zero, but not both. 40. The configuration command ROUTER(CONFIG-LINE)#RXSPEED 38400 sets: A. Transmit DTE rate B. Transmit DCE rate C. Receive DTE rate D. Transmit DTE rate C. RXSPEED sets the rate at which DTE can receive the data. 41. Which of the following commands is used to set up link quality monitoring (LQM) in PPP? A. HOLD-QUEUE B. PPP QUALITY C. SHOW PROCESS CPU D. PPP PREDICTOR B. The command syntax is PPP QUALITY percentage, where percentage can be from 1 to 100. 42. What does a committed information rate (CIR) mean? A. A user is allowed to transmit data only at a fixed rate B. A user is guaranteed that a transmission rate will not fall below a certain threshold value C. A maximum rate at which a user can transmit data D. A fixed cost to the customer for transmission of data B. CIR guarantees that the rate will not drop below this value even on shared transmission links. Answer C is incorrect, because at certain peak times a user can transmit data at higher rates than CIR. 43. In Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP): A. The challenge packet contains an encrypted password

B. The challenge is sent from remote device to central control router C. The challenge is sent from central control router to remote device D. The possibility of intrusion by an outsider is greater than in the Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) C. The challenge is issued by the central controller to the remote device. The response from the remote device contains an encrypted password. 44. Which of the following tells the port in an asynchronous communication in PPP to ignore specified control characters in the data stream? A. DSR B. DTR C. XOFF D. ACCM D. The ACCM tells the port to ignore certain control characters in the data stream via the command PPP ACCM MATCH. 45. In the command HOLD-QUEUE 100, the number 100 means: A. 100 incoming packets will be held in queue before the interface starts dropping packets B. 100 outgoing packets will be held in queue before the interface starts dropping packets C. 100 incoming and 100 outgoing packets will be held in queue before the interface starts dropping packets D. None of the above E. The command as given is incomplete. For incoming packets the command should be HOLD-QUEUE 100 IN and for outgoing packets the command should be HOLD-QUEUE 100 OUT.

1. Which trunking protocol was developed by Cisco? A. LAN Emulation B. Inter-Switch Link (ISL) C. IEEE 802.10 D. IEEE 802.1Q C. ISL is a trunking protocol was developed by Cisco. Inter-Switch Link is used to exchange VLAN information, and can only be used between Cisco devices such as switches and routers.

2. VLANs operate at which layer of the OSI model? A. Layer 8 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 5 B. VLANs operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model. They provide Layer 2 segmentation. Communication between VLANs requires the use of a router or Layer 3 switch. 3. What are the two modes on a Catalyst switch for VLAN creation and updates? A. Transparent and VTP B. Transparent and translational C. Translational and source-route D. Forwarding and blocking A. The two modes on a Catalyst switch for VLAN creation and updates are transparent and VTP. Use transparent mode when you will not exchange VLAN information between switches and will configure new VLANs manually on each switch. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol) allows you to automatically exchange VLAN information between Cisco switches, and administer them from a central point. 4. Identify two common trunking protocols. A. PNNI and OSPF B. IEEE 802.3 and IEEE 802.5 C. IEEE 802.1D and LAN Emulation D. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q D. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q are two common trunking protocols. ISL is the trunking protocol developed by Cisco. IEEE 802.1Q is an industrystandard trunking protocol. Note that Cisco switches will not exchange VLAN information on trunks running different trunking protocols. 5. Identify the protocol used to avoid loops in switches and VLANs. A. Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) B. VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) C. Private Network Network Interface (PNNI) D. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) A. Spanning-Tree Protocol is an industry-standard protocol used to avoid bridging loops. Switches send out Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) containing information to help switches determine any potential loops in the network and place them in blocking mode.

6. Identify two advantages that VLANs provide. A. Broadcast control B. Increased security C. Eliminates need for routers D. Decreased performance A, B. VLANs provide the flexibility to span Layer 2 broadcast domains across traditional physical boundaries. In addition, they provide increased security for users requiring privacy for network traffic. 7. What is the most common method of VLAN assignment? A. IP address B. MAC address C. Port D. Workstation type C. Port is the most common method of VLAN assignment. VLANs can be assigned by several different methods depending on the manufacturer. Assigning VLANs by switch port is simple, very common, and the easiest to administer. 8. Identify the option that allows you to control the VLANs that are advertised over trunk ports using VTP. A. Trimming B. Pruning C. Blocking D. Shunning C. Pruning lets you control which VLANs you want to advertise over trunk ports. This is useful for limiting the traffic passed over trunk ports, and for security. You can limit the advertisement of the Accounting VLAN to other switches, if those users will not be in other physical locations served by your network. 9. Identify the port state that a port will enter before forwarding frames: A. Blocking B. Forwarding C. Disabled D. Learning D. A port will enter the listening and learning states before proceeding to the forwarding state. During this time, no frames will be forwarded, essentially blocking all frames. This can cause erratic connectivity issues for workstations and servers.

10. What is the switch code needed to implement industry-standard IEEE 802.1Q trunking? A. 2.3 B. 3.2 C. 4.1 D. 1.5 C. 4.1 is the switch code needed to implement industry-standard IEEE 802.1Q trunking. IEEE 802.1Q is the interoperable trunking protocol for exchanging VLAN information, and requires Supervisor code release 4.1 or greater. 11. The term VLAN is most commonly associated with: A. Routers B. Hubs C. Switches D. Bridges C. The term VLAN is most commonly associated with switches. 12. Implementation of VLAN creates a network that must be routed. This network belongs to: A. Layer 4 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 2 D. Layer 1 B. VLAN creates a Layer 3 type network. 13. Client-server applications providing graphical user interface created a need for: A. Increased bandwidth B. More switches C. Increased number of operations support systems D. None of the above. A. The client-server applications providing GUI created a need for increased bandwidth. This increased bandwidth results in a complex network that may require additional switches and operations support systems. 14. Hub directs all frames to: A. All ports B. Only to the port on which the frame was received

C. Only to a subset of ports in a multicast system D. All ports except the port on which the frame was received D. A hub repeats all frames to all ports except the port on which the frame was received. 15. A unicast frame is destined for: A. All ports B. Only one MAC address C. All MAC addresses D. A subset of MAC addresses B. Unicast frames are directed towards a specific MAC address. 16. Content Addressable Memory (CAM) is: A. A Cisco product B. A routing table C. Updated every time the switch is turned on D. All of the above D. CAM is Cisco term for a forwarding table that resides in the volatile memory of the MAC addresses and is updated every time the switch is powered on. 17. If a switch does not find an address that matches the destination address, what does the switch do? A. Copies the frame to default ports assigned for "no-match" scenario B. Copies the frame to all ports meant for broadcasting C. Copies the frame to all ports D. Copies frame to all ports meant for multicasting C. If a switch does not find an address that matches the destination address, then the switch copies the frame to all ports 18. Switching is a term most commonly used to describe: A. Layer 2 devices B. Layer 1 devices C. Layer 3 devices D. Layer 4 devices A. Switching is a term most commonly used to describe Layer 2 network devices that forward Ethernet and Token Ring frames based on the destination MAC address. 19. Which type of switching method allows the switch to forward traffic without receiving the entire frame?

A. B. C. D.

store and forward cut-through circuit switching packet switching

B. Both circuit switching and packet switching represent technologies that can use either the store and forward or the cut-through method. 20. What is the main reason a switch using the store and forward method is costlier than a switch using the cut-through method? A. The added capability to control traffic B. The capability to propagate damaged frames C. The capability to switch the entire frame D. The need for buffer space D. The store and forward method requires provisioning of memory buffer space that adds to the cost of the switch. 21. Which is the best description of VLAN? A. A group of end stations sharing a common physical connection B. A group of end stations sharing a common logical connection C. A group of end stations at the same location D. A group of end stations on the same LAN segment B. VLAN is a logical collection of end stations. 22. Consider the following scenario: VLAN 1: Stations A, B, and C Station A connected to switch A Station B connected to switch B Station C connected to switch C VLAN 2: Stations D and E Station D connected to switch A Station E connected to switch C A broadcast message sent by Station B will be received by A. Stations A and D B. Stations C and E C. Stations A, B, and C D. Stations C, D, and E C. A broadcast message sent by Station B will be received by Stations A, B, and C. Although Stations C and E are connected to the same switch, they belong to different VLANs. A broadcast message sent by station B will be received only by the stations on VLAN 1. 23. Broadcast domain is dependent upon

A. B. C. D.

Physical location LAN media Transmission rates None of the above

D. Broadcast domain is independent of physical location, LAN media, and transmission rates. 24. The major benefit of VLAN is that it allows creation of workgroups based on: A. Functions B. Physical location C. Switching technology D. Transmission media A. VLAN allows logical grouping of a workforce based on functions performed by the groups. 25. In the source-route bridging method, the path is specified by: A. The next router on the path B. A source station C. A source router D. A network broadcast B. Source-route bridging puts the responsibility of locating the destination device on the source station. 26. The spanning-tree algorithm is used in: A. Source-route bridging B. Cut-through switching C. Transparent bridging D. Store and forward switching C. Transparent bridging uses the spanning-tree algorithm. 27. Transparent bridging is primarily used in what environment? A. Token Ring B. FDDI C. Ethernet environment D. All of the above C. Transparent bridging is used primarily in Ethernet environments. 28. A Routing Information Field (RIF) is applicable in Token Ring environments. A. True

B. False A. True. Token Ring frames contain a RIF, whereas Ethernet frames do not contain a RIF. 29. A Routing Information Field may contain: A. Ring number B. Bridge number C. Port number D. A and B only E. B and C only D. The RIF may contain a combination of bridge numbers and ring numbers. 30. The design of transparent bridging network may result in: A. Loops B. Broadcast frames not being received by some stations C. Forwarding frames over and over A, C. The design of transparent bridging network may result in looping and forwarding frames over and over. Spanning-tree algorithm is used to avoid looping by providing a blocking mechanism. 31. When might a Bridge Protocol Data Unit have to be used? A. In a changing network topology B. In a static network topology C. To indicate which ports are to be opened for traffic D. All of the above A. BPDUs are used in a changing network topology environment to block certain ports from carrying the traffic. 32. Which of the following is not a default VLAN number for FDDI or Token Ring? A. 1002 B. 1003 C. 1004 D. 1 D. 1002 through 1005 are default values for FDDI/Token ring. 1 is used as a default value for VLAN 1. 33. In configuring a VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP), which of the following commands is optional? A. set vtp domain name

B. set vtp mode server C. set vtp password D. set vtp enable C. set vtp password and set vtp pruning enable are optional commands. 34. For Catalyst switches, which of the following commands is used to obtain a summary of advertisements transmitted? A. show vtp domain B. show vtp statistics C. show port status D. show router status B. The show vtp statistics command will provide the number of advertisements received, as well as the number of advertisements transmitted. 35. The assignments of ports to VLANS must be done in a sequential way. A. True B. False B. False. The ports on line cards need not be assigned in a sequential manner. For example ports 3 6 and 11 14 on card 1 could be assigned to VLAN 3, and ports 7 10 could be assigned to VLAN 2. 36. Which of the following commands will result in assigning ports 1 24 on card 6 to VLAN 1, and ports 7 12 on card 9 to VLAN 2? A. set vlan 1 6 B. set vlan1 6/1-24 , set vlan 9 C. set vlan 1 6 9 set vlan 1 6/1-24, set vlan 2 9/7-12D. The correct command is set vlan 1 6/1-24, set vlan 2 9/7-12. Answers A, B, and C are not valid commands. 37. How many major states a port can have? A. Five B. Four C. Three D. Two A. The five states that a port can have are blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, disabled. 38. What does the portfast option in Cisco allow? A. Bypassing the blocking state B. Bypassing the listening state

C. Bypassing the forwarding state D. Bypassing the disabled state B. The portfast option bypasses the learning and listening states. 39. In the default configuration, the portfast settings will allow: A. Ping B. Acquiring a DHCP address consistently C. Enabling portfast D. Logging into Novell Directory Server(NDS) C. In a default mode portfast is disabled and will not allow ping, acquiring a DHCP address consistently, or logging into NDS. However, it is possible to enable the portfast option.

1. [OxNx] During a TFTP transfer using Cisco Routers what is the numeric value, in decimal, of the destination port field of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) header? a) 96 b) 47 c) a random number above 1024 d) 69 e) none of the above Answer d) 69 Here is a sampling of other port numbers and the application they are associated with. The first 8 of these protocols are automatically forwarded through the router by using the helper-address command Trivial File Transfer (TFTP) (port 69) Domain Name System (port 53) IEN-116 Name Server (port 42) Time service (port 37) NetBIOS Name Server (port 137) NetBIOS Datagram Server (port 138) BootP client (port 68) BootP server (port 67) File Transfer Protocol (port 20) TACACS service (port 49) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (25) File Transfer Protocol (21) Simple Network Management Protocol (161)

2. [CxNx] What is the standard encapsulation method used by Cisco routers for the Internet Protocol (IP) on its Ethernet interfaces? a) SNAP b) ARPA c) NOVELL-ETHER d) DARPA e) Ethernet_802.3 Answer b) ARPA SNAP is the default encapsulation for a token ring interface NOVELL-ETHER is the default encapsulation for a ipx interface.

3. [CxNx] What will be the correct command on a Cisco router to set the IP address of an interface assuming you are at the "router(config-if)#" prompt? a) ip address 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 b) ip address 1.1.1.1 c) ip 1.1.1.1 d) ip 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 e) none of the above Answer a) ip address 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 If you are not in the configuration mode, the ip address can be set by using the setup mode. Configuring interface Ethernet0/0: Is this interface in use? [yes]: Configure IP on this interface? [yes]: IP address for this interface [10.10.10.1]: 10.10.10.1 Number of bits in subnet field [16]: 16 Class A network is 10.0.0.0, 16 subnet bits; mask is /24 Take note when using the setup mode the mask is configured using the number of subnet bits.

4. [CxNx] Which commands will display the IP addresses of all interfaces on a Cisco Router? (Choose all that apply) a) show ip route b) show ip address c) show ip interface d) show interface e) display ip addresses

Answer c) show ip interface d) show interface Examples of each of these commands are shown below: Router_A#sh int e0/0 Ethernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is AmdP2, address is 0010.7b15.bd41 (bia 0010.7b15.bd41) Internet address is 10.10.10.1/24 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit, DLY 1000 usec, rely 255/255, load 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set, keepalive set (10 sec) ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input never, output 00:00:06, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue 0/40, 0 drops; input queue 0/75, 0 drops 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 0 packets input, 0 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 0 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles, 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 127 packets output, 11802 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 2 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out Router_A#sh ip int e0/0 Ethernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up Internet address is 10.10.10.1/24 Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255 Address determined by non-volatile memory MTU is 1500 bytes

Helper address is not set Directed broadcast forwarding is enabled Outgoing access list is not set Inbound access list is not set Proxy ARP is enabled Security level is default Split horizon is enabled ICMP redirects are always sent ICMP unreachables are always sent ICMP mask replies are never sent IP fast switching is enabled IP fast switching on the same interface is disabled IP multicast fast switching is enabled Router Discovery is disabled IP output packet accounting is disabled IP access violation accounting is disabled TCP/IP header compression is disabled Probe proxy name replies are disabled Gateway Discovery is disabled Policy routing is disabled Network address translation is disabled 5. [CxNx] Which of the following commands will display the contents of the ARP cache of your Cisco router? a) show ip arp cache b) show ip route c) show ip arp d) show arp e) there is no way to display the ARP cache Answer c) show ip arp d) show arp Example: Router_A#sh ip arp Protocol Age(mi Hardware TypeInterface Address n) Address Internet 0010.7b15.bd50 ARPA FastEthernet1/0 1.1.1.2 Internet 0010.7b15.bd41 ARPA Ethernet0/0 10.10.10.1 6. [CxNx] Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) is the process: a) Where an IP host resolves its IP address by broadcasting its MAC address to the network and a RARP server assigns it an IP address. b) Where an IP host resolves its MAC address by broadcasting to the local network its IP address. c) Where an IP host tries to resolve the MAC address of a destination by sending a network broadcast. The destination responds to the broadcast with its MAC address. d) Where an IP host resolves a destination IP address by sending a broadcast on the local network and the destination host responds with its IP address. e)There is no such process.

Answer a) Where an IP host resolves its IP address by broadcasting its MAC address to the network and a RARP server assigns it an IP address. Choice C describes Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). A host never has to resolve its own MAC address. The MAC address is burned into the Network Interface card. When the host is booted the MAC address will be loaded into memory. 7. [OxNx] Which of the following applications requires the connectionoriented layer four protocol, TCP? (Choose all that apply) a) Telnet b) FTP c) TFTP d) SNMP e) none of the above Answer a) Telnet b) FTP TFTP and SNMP use layer 4 UDP. 8. [RxNx] Which of the following are link state Routing Protocols. (Choose all that apply.) a) IP b) OSPF c) RIP d) EIGRP e) IS-IS Answer b) OSPF e) IS-IS A link state routing protocol advertises, to its neighbors, the state of the link when the state of the link changes. A distance vector routing protocol advertises its routing table periodically. 9. [CxNx] Of the following commands, identify the correct one for clearing the IP arp table in memory of the router. a) clear ip arp-cache b) clear ip arp-table c) clear arp-cache d) clear arp-table e) clear arp-ram Answer c) clear arp-cache If you have changed an ip address or a NIC card on a host you might use this command to reset the cache. 10. [CxNx] Which of the following explains the correct definition of administrative distance as it pertains to Ciscos IOS? a) The process by which routers select an administrator for an autonomous system. b) The process where a router will select the best path to a destination network. c) The process where a router will distance itself from other routers due to its lack of administrative experience. d) The process where a router will prioritize routing protocols so that in the event two routing protocols have conflicting next hop addresses, the routing protocol with the lowest administrative distance will take priority.

e) The process where a router will prioritize routing protocols so that in the event two routing protocols have conflicting next hop addresses, the routing protocol with the highest administrative distance will take priority. Answer d) The process where a router will prioritize routing protocols so that in the event two routing protocols have conflicting next hop addresses, the routing protocol with the lowest administrative distance will take priority. Cisco uses administrative distances (AD) to measure the reliability of the routing protocol. The lower the (AD) the more reliable the protocol. Router_C#sh ip route Codes: C - connected, S - static, I - IGRP, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2 E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2, E - EGP i - IS-IS, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2, * candidate default U - per-user static route, o - ODR Gateway of last resort is not set 172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial1 C 172.16.2.0 is directly connected, Serial0 I 10.0.0.0/8 [100/8576] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:09, Serial1 [100/8576] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:19, Serial0 The 100 in bold is the administrative distance for IGRP. A partial list of administrative distances is included below: Protocol AD EIGRP 90 IGRP 100 OSPF 110 RIP 120 BGP 180 If a router hears a IP RIP and a IGRP update for the same network the router will discard the rip information. IP RIP uses hop count as its metric, while IGRP uses a composite metric including bandwidth and load, speed is the primary consideration. 11. [ExNx] Collisions occur when a) multiple packets are placed on a serial link b) multiple stations listen for traffic and transmit at the same time c) when multiple tokens are on a ring simultaneously d) beaconing process takes place Answer b) multiple stations listen for traffic and transmit at the same time

Collisions is a term that is used in an ethernet environment. Ethernet can be described as a listen then transmit scenario. First a station will listen for traffic if no traffic is sensed then a transmission will take place. If two stations transmit at the same time collisions will occur. The first station to detect the collision sends out a jamming signal to alert all stations a collision has occurred. At this point these stations set up a random interval timer when the timer expires re-transmission will occur. Token ring is a token passing process a station can transmit only when he has the token. There never can be multiple tokens on the ring. Early token release allows up to two data frames to be transmitted on a token ring LAN at the same time. Collisions do not occur on a token ring. Because of the point to point nature of serial links collisions do not occur. Beaconing is a term used in a token passing environment. 12. [RINx] How many subnets are possible with a Class C address and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.252? a) 32 b) 30 c) 60 d) 62 e) 4 Answer d) 62 The above mask is using 6 bits to describe subnets. The formula used to determine the number of subnets (not including the all 0s or all 1s subnet) is 2n - 2 were n is the number of subnet bits. This is the number to use when configuring a ip address with the setup dialog. 13. [RxNx] What commands will list all protocols that are currently being routed? (Choose all that apply.) a) show ip protocol b) show protocol c) show run d) show start e) All of the above Answer b) show protocol c) show run Show ip protocol will show just the ip routing protocols that are currently configured. Show start may or may not show the current routed protocols. Below is the output of show protocol Router_B#show protocol Global values: Internet Protocol routing is enabled Appletalk routing is enabled BRI0 is administratively down, line protocol is down BRI0:1 is administratively down, line protocol is down BRI0:2 is administratively down, line protocol is down Serial0 is administratively down, line protocol is down Serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down Serial2 is administratively down, line protocol is down Serial3 is administratively down, line protocol is down TokenRing0 is administratively down, line protocol is down

14. [xxNx] Which of the following are true of access lists? a) Access list should have at least one permit statement. b) The last configured line should always be a permit statement. c) Every access-list will implicitly deny all traffic. d) Access-lists are processed top down. e) All of the above. Answer e) All of the above. Every access list has an implicit deny all at the end. What would the need be to create a access list with just deny statements. Access-list are processed from the top down therefore the order of each statement could be critical, for instance suppose you created an access list and the first line was a permit any and the next line was a deny. Since its top down processing a packet would be permitted to pass on the first line and the second line would never be executed. An extended list will give you a "match count" that will help in determining what the most efficient order should be. 15. [xxNx] If the access-group command is configured on an interface and there is no access-list created which of the following is most correct? a) An error message will appear. b) The command will be executed and deny all traffic out. c) The command will be executed and permit all traffic out. d) The command will be executed and permit all traffic in and out. e) The command will be executed and deny all traffic in and out. Answer d) The command will be executed and permit all traffic in and out. There are two steps to use an access list . 1. Create the list 2. Place the access list on a interface The analogy I use in class is: Suppose you reside in a gated community. The community is not protected until you hire the guard and then place him at the gate. If you hire the guard and never place him at the gate all traffic will be permitted. When there is no access list on an interface it is implicit permit any When an access list is placed on a interface it is implicit deny any 16. [xxNx] What is the result of the command? " access-list 101 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established" a) telnet sessions will be permitted regardless of the source address b) telnet sessions will be denied regardless of the source address c) telnet sessions will be denied if initiated from any address other than 172.16.0.0 network d) telnet sessions will be permitted to the 172.16.0.0 network only e) telnet sessions will be denied to the 172.16.0.0 network only Answer c) telnet sessions will be denied if initiated from any address other than 172.16.0.0 network The secret to this question is the key word "established." Established means that the packet will be permitted unless it is the first part of the three way handshake. Recall that when we initiate a TCP connection we have no ACK. How can we acknowledge a sequence number from the other side when we have not established a session with him?

17. [xxNx] Which is generally true of the location of access-lists? (Choose all that apply.) a) Standard lists will most likely be placed close to the destination. b) Standard lists will most likely be placed close to the source. c) Extended lists will most likely be placed close to the destination. d) Extended lists will most likely be placed close to the source. e) It does not matter. Answer a) Standard lists will most likely be placed close to the destination. d) Extended lists will most likely be placed close to the source. A standard list will only check the source address. It makes no difference where the packet is going. If you place a standard list close to the source you could very well be denying that traffic to go to other destinations. An extended list can be placed close to the source because we can permit or deny traffic based upon the source and destination address. This insures that only traffic we wish to have denied is denied. 18. [RxNx] Which of the following is most correct? a) IP is to TCP. as IPX is to SPX. b) RTMP is to Appletalk as IP RIP is to IP. c) NLSP is to IPX as OSPF is to IP. d) a is true. e) b is true. f) a & b are true. g) c is true. h) b & c are true. i) a, b and c are true. Answer i) a, b and c are true.

19. [ExNx] If Host A sends a packet to Host B over ethernet and Host B is not active: a) The packet will time out. b) The packet will be removed by Host A. c) The NVRAM of Host B will remove the packet. d) The packet will "die" when it reaches the terminator. e) The packet will be removed by the token monitor. Answer d) The packet will "die" when it reaches the terminator

72. [xINx] The size of a window in a TCP segment establishes what? (Choose one.) a) The maximum number of bytes that a single frame may not exceed b) The allowable bandwidth for this TCP session c) The number of octets that the receiver must be willing to accept d) The number of 32-bit words in the header e) The number of octets that the sender is willing to accept Explanation

73. [xINx] Which protocols are best described as connection-oriented and reliable? (Choose two.) a) UDP b) IP c) TCP d) IPX e) TCP over IP f) UDP over IP Explanation

74. [xINx] A Telnet session to a remote host would be addressed to what port number at the remote host? (Choose one.) a) UDP port 53 b) TCP port 53 c) UDP port 21 d) TCP port 21 e) UDP port 161 f) TCP port 23 Explanation

75. [xINx] TCP "source" port number(s): (Choose the one that best describes.) a) Depends on the application being accessed on the destination host. b) Depends on the application running on the source host. c) Are usually assigned by the source host, and are typically some number greater than 1023. d) Are assigned by the source host and are usually one of the "well known" port numbers. e) Must be negotiated by the sender and receiver during session setup. Explanation

76. [xINx] In a TCP acknowledgment, the ack number refers to: (Choose one.) a) A sequential number beginning with 1, and incremented by 1 with each exchange, that identifies this exchange of packets as being complete b) The number of the packet expected next c) The number of the packet expected next, plus 1 d) A number agreed upon at session establishment, which will be used by the receiver to indicate a successful exchange of packets e) TCP does not use acknowledgments. Explanation

Reference the diagram and configurations below for Questions 77 and 78:

Router_C#sh run Building configuration... Current configuration: ! version 11.2 ! hostname Router_C ! ! appletalk routing ipx routing 0060.09c3.df60 ! interface Ethernet0 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 appletalk cable-range 100-105 103.243 appletalk zone right ipx network DAD ! interface Ethernet1 no ip address shutdown ! interface Serial0 ip unnumbered Ethernet0 appletalk cable-range 120-120 120.17 appletalk zone left ipx network AD clockrate 56000 ! interface Serial1 no ip address shutdown ! router igrp 100 network 172.16.0.0 ! no ip classless !!

line con 0 line aux 0 line vty 0 4 login ! end Router_B#sh run Building configuration... Current configuration: ! version 11.3 no service password-encryption ! hostname Router_B ! ! appletalk routing ipx routing 0007.7816.fe54 ! interface Loopback0 ip address 172.17.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Serial0 ip unnumbered Loopback0 no ip mroute-cache appletalk cable-range 130-130 130.81 appletalk zone right ipx network CAD no fair-queue ! interface Serial1 ip unnumbered Loopback0 appletalk cable-range 120-120 120.125 appletalk zone left ipx network AD ! interface Serial2 no ip address shutdown ! interface Serial3 no ip address shutdown ! interface TokenRing0 no ip address shutdown ! interface BRI0 no ip address shutdown ! router igrp 100 network 172.17.0.0 !

ip classless ! ! ! ! ! line con 0 line aux 0 line vty 0 4 login ! end Router_A#sh run Building configuration... Current configuration: ! version 11.3 no service password-encryption ! hostname Router_A ! ! appletalk routing ipx routing 0010.7b15.bd41 ! interface Ethernet0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 appletalk cable-range 106-110 106.17 appletalk zone left ipx network BAD ! interface Serial0/0 ip unnumbered Ethernet0/0 no ip mroute-cache appletalk cable-range 130-130 130.37 appletalk zone right ipx network CAD clockrate 56000 ! interface TokenRing0/0 no ip address shutdown ring-speed 16 ! interface FastEthernet1/0 no ip address shutdown ! router igrp 100 network 10.0.0.0 ! ip classless !! line con 0 line aux 0

line vty 0 4 login ! end 77. [RxNx] What routing protocols are configured? a) EIGRP, IGRP, RIP b) IGRP RTMP IPX NLSP c) IPX RIP, IGRP, RTMP d) EIGRP, RTMP, IPX RIP e) IPX RIP, IGRP

78. [RXNx] The Serial 0/0 IPX encapsulation of Router_A is: a) Novell-ether b) SAP c) ARPA d) SNAP e) Can not be determined f) HDLC

1. [RxNx] Which of the following statements are true about hold down timers. (Choose three.) a) A hold-down timer will be released if the router receives an update indicating a better route. b) A hold-down timer will not be released if the router receives an update indicating a poorer route. c) A hold-down timer will not be released if the router receives an update indicating a better route. d) Hold-down times are configurable by the administrator. e) The purpose of a hold-down timer is to smooth out updates on a congested network. 2. [RxNx] Which statement best describes a "Triggered Update"? (Choose two.) a) A method of setting a specific time for route tables to be exchanged. b) A triggered update is a new routing table that is sent to neighbor routers based upon some change. c) Triggered updates in conjunction with hold-down timers help prevent routing loops d) Triggered updates cannot be used if hold-downs are also being used. e) With triggered updates, nodes are prevented from sending messages every time they notice a change in their routing tables. 3. [CxNx] What would be the proper command to set a DCE clock rate of 56k for a serial interface? (Choose one.) a) Router# clockrate 56000. b) Router (config) # clockrate 56000 c) Router (config-if) # clockrate 56k d) Router (config-if) #clock rate 56k

e) Router (config-if) #clock rate 56000 f) Router (config-if) #clockrate 56000 4. [CxNx] What would be the proper command to set a bandwidth of 56K for a serial interface? (Choose one.) a) Router# bandwidth 56000 b) Router (config) #bandwidth 56000 c) Router (config-if) #bandwidth 56,000 d) Router (config-if) #bandwidth 56 e) Router (config-if) #bandwidth T1 5. [CxNx] The line console 0 command could be used to: (Choose one.) a) Establish a telnet session with a remote router. b) Set a login password on the console terminal. c) Set a login password for an incoming telnet session. d) Set a password to restrict access to privileged EXEC mode. e) Establish a session on the console terminal. 6. [RXNx] Which one of the following is true as it pertains to IPX RIP Load Balancing? a) The parallel paths must have the same hop count. b) The parallel paths must have the same bandwidth. c) The parallel paths must have the same clock rate. d) The parallel paths must have the same tick count and the same hop count. e) None of the above. 7. [CxNx] Given the following dialog, what is the most logical command that the user should use next? Router_B#sh art ^ % Invalid input detected at '^' marker. a) show art b) sh ar ? c) show arap d) sh ar? e) Can not be determined

8. [CxNx] Which of the following information will "show cdp neighbors detail" reveal? (Choose all that apply.) a) Router Platform b) All layer 3 addresses limited to one per protocol c) IOS version d) Incoming and outgoing port e) IP address only f) IP address and mask g) Router Name

9. [xINx] What would the class and major network be for the IP address 191.12.45.254? (Choose one.) a) Class B, 191.12.45.0 b) Class B, 191.12.0.0 c) Class C, 191.12.45.0 d) Class C, 191.12.0.0 e) Class C, 255.255.255.0 f) Class B, 255.255.0.0 10. [xINx] What statement about the IP address 0.10.10.10 is most correct? (Choose one.) a) This a Class A address. b) This a reserved private address. c) For a Class A address, indicates "this route." d) This is not a legal address. e) This address can only be used for a network that is not exposed to the Internet.

11. [xINx] What would be the maximum number of hosts that a class C address could support assuming that the default subnet mask was used? (Choose one.) a) 65,534 b) 255 c) 254 d) 16,777,214 e) 1024 f) 2048 12. [xINx] The Class addresses that an administrator would most likely assign to a host are: (Choose one.) a) Class A and B addresses only b) Class A, B, C and D addresses c) Class A, B, C, D and E addresses d) Class A, B, and C addresses e) None of the above.

10. [xINx] The way that TCP uses acknowledgements is best referred to as: (Choose one.) a) Expectational b) Sequential c) Current d) Sliding e) Incremental 11. [xINx] Which of the following would most likely use the protocol UDP? (Choose four.) a) DNS b) FTP c) TFTP d) TELNET

e) SNMP f) NFS g) SMTP 12. [xINx] The protocol IP is best described as: (Choose one.) a) Determines the data link address for known MAC addresses b) Determines network addresses when data link addresses are known c) Provides connectionless, best effort delivery routing of datagrams d) Provides connection oriented, reliable delivery of datagrams e) Provides connection oriented, best effort delivery routing of datagrams 13. [xINx] The protocol ICMP is best described as: (Choose one.) a) Helps IP by determining the data link addresses for known IP addresses b) Resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses c) Resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses d) Adds a reliable connection-oriented service to IP e) Helps IP by providing control and messaging capabilities 14. [xINx] What two protocols would be needed to send a host unreachable message to a source host? (Choose two.) a) IP b) ARP c) FTP d) ICMP e) RARP f) SNMP 1. [RxNx] On an IP over Ethernet network, when one host sends data to another host, which statement is most correct. Choose one. a) Actual communications is between IP addresses. b) Actual communications is from IP address on the sender to MAC address on the receiver. c) Actual communications is between physical addresses. d) Actual communications is from MAC address on the sender to IP address on the receiver. e) On an Ethernet network, all communication is via either broadcasts or multicasts. 2. [RINx] On an IP over Token Ring network, which answer best describes the role of ARP? (Choose one.) a) ARP is used to map an IP address to a MAC address. b) ARP is used to map Ring numbers to IP addresses. c) ARP is used to map Ring numbers to MAC addresses of the hosts on that ring. d) ARP is used to map a MAC address to an IP address. e) ARP is not used on Token Ring networks. 3. [RINx] The role of RARP in an IP over Ethernet network is best described by: (Choose one.) a) Is used to resolve a MAC address to an IP address. b) Is used to resolve an Ethernet NET number to Token Ring number. c) Is used to resolve an IP address to a MAC address. d) Is used to resolve Ethernet NET numbers to the major IP network number. e) RARP is used only on Token Ring networks.

4. [RINx] At what layer of the OSI model does ICMP operate? a) The Application layer b) The Data link layer c) The Physical layer d) The Network layer e) The Transport layer f) The Session layer 5. [RINx] Which statements about IP numbers are correct? (Choose four.) a) An IP number can be used to identify a ring in a Token Ring network. b) An IP number can be used to identify a serial interface in a router. c) An IP number can be used to identify a logical Ethernet network. d) An IP address must be unique only on the logical network where it exists. e) All bits of an IP number are assigned by InterNIC and may not be modified. f) An IP address may be 8, 16, 24, or 32 bits long depending upon class. g) An IP number can be used to identify a Host on a remote logical network. 6. [RxNx] Which of the following are benefits of segmenting with routers? a) Increases bandwidth available to nodes b) Controls broadcasts c) Increases the size of the frames d) Reduces the number of collisions e) None of the above 7. [RINx] IP subnetting provides the ability to: (Choose the best answers.) a) Conserve major network IP addresses b) Construct a hierarchical addressing scheme c) Make networking more complicated so we can make more money d) Gain access to the intranet e) None of the above 8. [RXNx] Which of the following are true of the IPX addressing scheme: a) The total address length is 24 bits. b) The address has a network and a host part. c) It is hierarchical in nature. d) The host part is the MAC address of the host. e) All of the above. 9. [RANx] Which of the following are true of an Appletalk address? a) The total address length is 24 bits. b) The address has a network and a host part. c) It is hierarchical in nature. d) The node part is usually the MAC address of the host. e) All of the above. 1. [OxNx] Which of the following statements does NOT define a purpose of the OSI Reference Model? (Choose one.) a) To define standard interfaces for plug-and-play compatibility and multi-vendor integration b) To constrain or define the implementation of network functions c) To allow areas to evolve more quickly by preventing changes in one area from

impacting other areas d) To allow engineers to design and develop in a modular fashion e) To make it easier to understand the complexity of internetworking 2. [OxNx] The presentation layer of the OSI model is primarily responsible for which of the following? (Choose two.) a) Ensuring reliable end-to-end communications by using connection oriented protocols b) Providing code formatting and conversion such as EBCDIC to ASCII c) Managing encryption of data d) Coordinating applications such as NFS and SQL as they interact on different hosts e) Providing support for the intelligent segmentation and reassembly of upper-layer application data streams 3. [OxNx] When discussing the subject of Multiplexing or Demultiplexing, the concept of a Port Number is best described by which one of the following statements? a) A method of ensuring the delivery of data in the correct encapsulation format for the receiving host b) The assembly of data from different layers of the OSI model into separate data streams, identified by port numbers c) A method of distinguishing the data from different applications as it travels over a single data stream d) The numbering system used to identify the data portion of an outgoing (multiplexing) or incoming (demultiplexing) data segment 4. [OxNx] Handshaking is a technique found primarily at which layer of the OSI model? a) The Session layer during outgoing communications b) The Data-link layer during Token ring framing c) The Network layer if a connection oriented protocol is being used d) The Transport layer when connection oriented UDP is being used e) The Transport layer when TCP is being used 5. [OxNx] The establishment of a window during a session setup allows for which of the following? (Choose two.) a) Multiple data segments to be sent before the sender requires an acknowledgement. b) Multiple frame types to be sent over the same media type. c) Multiple data segments to be sent before the receiver requires an acknowledgement. d) Separate data streams from different hosts to a common host. e) More efficient use of the available bandwidth.