PYPs Jee

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.
3. This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and
Part-C is Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
4. Section – A : Attempt all questions.
5. Section – B : Do any 5 questions out of 10 Questions.
6. Section-A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
7. Section-B (1 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question
is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com.
JEE-MAIN-2023 (24th January-First Shift)-PCM-2
(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. Match List I with List II

List – I List – II
1 2 -2
(A) Planck’s constant (h) (I) [ M L T ]
1 1 -1
(B) Stopping potential (Vs) (II) [ M L T ]
1 2 -1
(C) Work function ( ) (III) [ M L T ]
1 2 -3 -1
(D) Momentum (p) (IV) [ M L T A ]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Q2. Consider the following radioactive decay process

218
A A1 A2 A3 A4 A5 A6
84
The mass number and the atomic number of A6 are given by:
(A) 210 and 84 (B) 210 and 82
(C) 210 and 80 (D) 211 and 80
Q3. The maximum vertical height to which a man can throw a ball is 136m. The maximum horizontal
distance upto which he can throw the same ball is :
(A) 136 m (B) 272 m
(C) 68 m (D) 192 m
Q4. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : An elevator can go up or down with uniform speed when its weight is balanced with
the tension of its cable.
Statement II : Force exerted by the floor of an elevator on the foot of a person standing on it is
more than his/her weight when the elevator goes down with increasing speed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q5. The weight of a body at the surface of earth is 18N. The weight of the body at an altitude of
3200km above the earth’s surface is (given, radius of earth Re = 6400 km):
(A) 19.6 N (B) 4.9 N
(C) 9.8 N (D) 8 N
5
Q6. 1g of a liquid is converted to vapour at 3 × 10 Pa pressure. If 10% of the heat supplied is used
3
for increasing the volume by 1600 cm during this phase change, then the increase in internal
energy in the process will be :
8
(A) 4.32 × 10 J (B) 4800 J
(C) 432000 J (D) 4320 J
Q7. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : If the Brewster’s angle for the light propagation from air to glass is B , then the
Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is B

2
Statement II : The Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air
is tan 1 g where g is the refractive index of glass.
(B) Both Statements I and Statement II are false
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q8. A modulating signal is a square wave, as shown

in the figure. If the carrier wave is given as c(t) = 2 1
sin 8 t volts, the modulation index is : m(t) 0 1 2 t(s)

volts
1
(A) (B) 1
4
1 1
(C) (D)
2 3
Q9. As per given figure, a weightless pulley P is attached on

a double inclined frictional surfaces. The tension in the P
2
string (massless) will be (if g = 10 m/s )
(A) 4 3 1N 4Kg 1Kg
60 30
(B) 4 3 1N
(C) 4 3 1 N
(D) 4 3 1 N
10
Q10. A conducting circular loop of radius cm is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of
0.5 T. The magnetic field is decreased to zero in 0.5 s at a steady rate. The induced emf in the
circular loop at 0.25s is :
(A) emf = 1 mV (B) emf = 10 mV
(C) emf = 100 mV (D) emf = 5 mV
Q11. A circular loop of radius r is carrying current IA. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of
circular loop and at a distance r from the centre of the loop on its axis is :
(A) 2 2 : 1 (B) 3 2 : 2
(C) 1: 3 2 (D) 1: 2
-4 2 10 -2
Q12. A 100 m long wire having cross-sectional area 6.25 × 10 m and Young’s modulus is 10 Nm is
subjected to a load of 250 N, then the elongation in the wire will be :
(A) 4 10 3 m (B) 4 10 4 m
3
(C) 6.25 10 m (D) 6.25 10 6 m
Q13. As shown in the figure, a network of resistors is R1 2 R4 20

connected to a battery of 24V with an internal R3 2 R6 2
resistance of 3 . The currents through the

R2 2 R5 5
resistors R4 and R5 are I4 and I5 respectively.
The values of I4 and I5 are :
+ -
(24V, 3 )
8 2 6 24
(A) I4 A and I5 A (B) I4 A and I5 A
5 5 5 5
2 8 24 6
(C) I4 A and I5 A (D) I4 A and I5 A
5 5 5 5
Q14. Two long straight wires P and Q carrying equal current 10A each were kept parallel to each other
at 5cm distance. Magnitude of magnetic force experienced by 10cm length of wire P is F1.If
distance between wires is halved and currents on them are doubled, force F2 on 10cm length of
wire P will be :
F F
(A) 1 (B) 1
10 8
(C) 10F1 (D) 8F1
Q15. If two charges q1 and q2 are separated with distance ‘d’ and placed in a medium of dielectric
constant K. What will be the equivalent distance between charges in air for the same electrostatic
force ?
(A) d k (B) 2d k
(C) k d (D) 1.5d k
Q16. From the photoelectric effect experiment, following observations are made.
Identify which of these are correct.
(A) The stopping potential depends only on the work function of the metal.
(B) The saturation current increases as the intensity of incident light increases.
(C) The maximum kinetic energy of a photo electron depends on the intensity of
the incident light.
(D) Photoelectric effect can be explained using wave theory of light.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) B,C only (B) A,C,D only
(C) A,B,D only (D) B only
Q17. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The temperature of a gas is 73 C. When the gas is heated to 527 C, the root mean
square speed of the molecules is doubled.
Statement II : The product of pressure and volume of an ideal gas will be equal to translational
kinetic energy of the molecules.
(B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q18. In E and K represent electric field and propagation vectors of the EM waves in vacuum, then
magnetic field vector is given by :
( angular frequency):
1
(A) K E (B) K E
(C) K E (D) E K
Q19. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A : Photodiodes are preferably operated in reverse bias condition for light intensity
measurement.
Reason R : The current in the forwards bias is more than the current in the reverse bias for a p –
n junction diode.
(A) A is false but R is true

(B) A is true but R is false
(C) Both A and R are true but R is Not the correct explanation of A
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q20. A travelling wave is described by the equation

y x,t [ 0.05 sin 8x 4t ] m
The velocity of the wave is : [ all the quantities are in SI unit ]
-1 -1
(A) 0.5 ms (B) 8 ms
-1 -1
(C) 2 ms (D) 4 ms
(Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
-27
Q1. Assume that protons and neutrons have equal masses. Mass of a nucleon is 1.6 × 10 kg and
-15 1/3
radius of nucleus is 1.5 × 10 A m. The approximate ratio of the nuclear density and water
13
density is n × 10 . The value of n is ________.
Q2. A block of a mass 2kg is attached with two

identical springs of spring constant 20N/m each. 2Kg
The block is placed on a frictionless surface and
the ends of the springs are attached to rigid supports (see figure). When the mass is displaced
from its equilibrium position, it executes a simple harmonic motion. The time period of oscillation
is in SI unit.
x
The value of x is __________.
Q3. A spherical body of mass 2kg starting from rest acquires a kinetic energy of 10000 J at the end of
th
5 second. The force acted on the body is _________N.
Q4. As shown in the figure, a combination of a thin plano concave

40cm
lens and a thin plano convex lens is used to image an object
placed at infinity. The radius of curvature of both the lenses is
30cm and refraction index of the material for both the lenses is
1.75. Both the lenses are placed at distance of 40cm from
each other. Due to the combination, the image of the object is o x
formed at distance x = ______cm, from concave lens.
Q5. A hollow cylindrical conductor has length of 3.14m, while its inner and outer diameters are 4mm
and 8 mm respectively. The resistance of the conductor of the conductor is n 10 3 . If the
-8
resistivity of the material is 2.4 × 10 m. The value of n is ________.
Q6. Vectors a î bjˆ kˆ and 2iˆ 3ˆj 4kˆ are perpendicular to each other when 3a + 2b = 7, the ratio of
x
a to b is . The value of x is _______.
2
Q7. A hole is drilled in a metal sheet. At 27 C, the diameter of hole is 5cm. When the sheet is heated
to177 C, the change in the diameter of hole is d 10 3 cm. The value of d will be ______if
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is 1.6 10 5 / C.
q C
Q8. A stream of a positively charged particles having 2 1011 and velocity v 0 3 107 î m / s is
m kg
deflected by an electric field 1.8ˆjkV / m. The electric field exists in a region of 10cm along x
direction. Due to the electric field, the deflection of the charge particles in the y direction is
_______ mm.
Q9. Solid sphere A is rotating about an axis PQ. If the radius of P

the sphere is 5cm then its radius of gyration about PQ will
A
be PQ will be x cm. The value of x is ________.
10cm
Q10. In the circuit shown in the figure, the ratio of the quality 10
factor and the band width is_______s.
230V 27 F
3.0H

Q1. It is observed that characteristic X-ray spectra of elements show regularity. When frequency to
n
the power “n” i.e ” of X-rays emitted is plotted against atomic number “Z”, following graph is
obtained.
Z
The value of “n” is
1
(A) 1 (B)
2
(C) 2 (D) 3
Q2. Assertion A: Hydrolysis of an alkyl chloride is a slow reaction but in the presence of NaI,
the rate of the hydrolysis increases.
Reason R: I is a good nucleophile as well as a good leaving group.
In the light of the above statements choose correct answer from options given below:
(A) A is false but R is true
(B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(C) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(D) A is true but R is false
Q3. In the depression of freezing point experiment

A. Vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure solvent
B. Vapour pressure of the solution is more than that of pure solvent
C. Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point
D. Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) A and D only (B) A only
(C) B and C only (D) A and C only
Q4. An ammoniacal metal salt solution gives a brilliant red precipitate on addition of
dimethylglyoxime. The metal ion is?
2+ 2+
(A) Fe (B) Co
2+ 2+
(C) Cu (D) Ni
Q5. Which of the Phosphorus oxoacid can create silver mirror from AgNO3 solution?
(A) H4P2O7 (B) (HPO3)n
(C) H4P2O6 (D) H4P2O5
Q6. In the following given reaction, ‘A’ is

CH3
C CH2
+ HBr 'A'
major product
CH3 Br CH3
Br CH3
(A) (B)
H3C Br
H3C CH3
(C) Br (D)
Q7. Order of Covalent bond;

A. KF > KI; LiF> KF
B. KF < KI; LiF> KF
C. SnCl4 > SnCl2; CuCl > NaCl
D. LiF > KF; CuCl < NaCl
E. KF < KI; CuCl> NaCl
(A) B, C only (B) C, E only
(C) A, B only (D) B, C, E only
Q8. The primary and secondary valencies of cobalt respectively in [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 are:
(A) 2 and 8 (B) 3 and 6
(C) 3 and 5 (D) 2 and 6
Q9. Statement I: For colloidal particles, the values of colligative properties are of small order
as compared to values shown by true solutions at same concentration.
Statement II: For colloidal particles, the potential difference between the fixed layer and the
diffused layer of same charges is called the electrokinetic potential or zeta potential. In the light of
the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

List-I List-II
A. Chlorophyll I. Na2CO3
B. Soda ash II. CaSO4
2+
C. Density, Ornamental work III. Mg
D. Used in white washing IV. Ca(OH)2
(A) A- III, B-I, C-II, D- IV (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Q11. Decreasing order of the hydrogen bonding in following forms of water is correctly represented by
A. Liquid water
B. Ice
C. Impure water
(A) A > B > C (B) A = B > C
(C) B > A > C (D) C > B > A
Q12. Compound (X) undergoes following sequence of reactions to give the Lactone (Y).
O
OH
(i) HCHO, KOH
(ii) KCN (alc) H
Compound (X) O Lactone (Y)
(iii) H3O+ H3C
CH3
Compound (X) is
CH3
(A) H C CHO (B) H2C CH2 CHO

CH3 CH3
CH3
(C) HOH2C C CHO (D) H2C CH2 CH2 CH2 CHO
CH3 OH
Q13. Increasing order of stability of the resonance structures is:

A.OHC B. OHC
NH2 NH2
NH2
C. D. OHC
H
NH2
(A) D, C, B, A (B) C, D, A, B
(C) D, C, A, B (D) C, D, B, A

List – I List-II
A. Reverberatory furnace I. Pig iron
B. Electrolytic cell II. Aluminium
C. Blast furnace III. Silicon
D. Zone Refining furnace IV. Copper
(A) A- I, B-IV, C-II, D- III (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (D) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Q15. Reaction of BeO with ammonia and hydrogen fluoride gives A which on thermal decomposition
gives BeF2 and NH4F. what is ‘A’?
(A) (NH4)2BeF4 (B) (NH4)Be2F5
(C) H3NBeF3 (D) (NH4)BeF3
Q16. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Noradrenaline is a neurotransmitter.
Statement II: Low level of noradrenaline is not the cause of depression in human.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Q17. The magnetic moment of a transition metal compound has been calculated to be 3.87 B.M. The
metal ion is
2+ 2+
(A) V (B) Mn
2+ 2+
(C) Cr (D) Ti
Q18. ‘R’ formed in the following sequence of reactions is:

O
NaCN EtOH (i) 2MeMgBr

'P' 'Q' 'R'
HOAc H+ (ii) H3O+ major product
Cl
HO HO
Me
Me Me
(A) (B) Me
Me Me
CN CN
HO HO Me
Me
Me
(C) Me (D) C
Cl Cl OH Me
Q19. Which of the following is true about freons?

(A) These are chlorofluorocarbon compounds
(B) All radicals are called freons
(C) These are chemicals causing skin cancer
(D) These are radicals of chlorine and chlorine monoxide
Q20. ‘A’ and ‘B’ formed in the following set of reactions are
OH
HBr
A
CH2OH
OH
HBr
B
OCH3
OH Br Br Br
(A) A = (B) A=
,B = ,B =
CH2Br OCH3 CH2OH Br
OH OH OH OH
(C) A = (D) A =
,B = ,B =
CH2Br Br CH2Br OH

Q1. Uracil is a base present in RNA with the following structure % of N in uracil is_______
O
NH
N O
H
Given:
1
Molar mass N = 14 g mol
1
O = 16 g mol
1
C = 12 g mol
1
H = 1 g mol
Q2. 5 g of NaOH was dissolved in deionized water to prepare a 450 mL stock solution. What volume
(in mL) of this solution would be required to prepare 500 mL of 0.1 M solution?_____
1
Given: Molar mass of Na, O and H is 23,16 and 1 g mol respectively
Q3. Number of moles of AgCl formed in the following reaction is________________

Cl CH3
Cl AgNO3
Cl (A) + X AgCl
CH3
H
Cl
Q4. The dissociation constant of acetic acid is x 10 5 . When 25 mL of 0.2 M CH3COONa solution is
mixed with 25 mL of 0.02 M CH3COOH solution, the pH of the resultant solution is found to be
equal to 5. The value of x is_______________.
2
Q5. The d-electronic configuration of [CoCl4] in tetrahedral crystal field is em t 2n . Sum of “m” and
“number of unpaired electrons” is_______________.
Q6. The number of correct statement/s from the following is_______________

A. Larger the activation energy, smaller is the value of the rate constant.
B. The higher is the activation energy, higher is the value of the temperature coefficient.
C. At lower temperatures, increase in temperature causes more change in the value of k than at
higher temperature
1 Ea
D. A plot of ln k vs is a straight line with slope equal to
T R
Q7. If wavelength of the first line of the Paschen series of hydrogen atom is 720 nm, then the
wavelength of the second line of this series is _________nm. (nearest integer)
Q8. When Fe0.93O is heated in presence of oxygen, it converts to Fe2O3. The number of correct
statement/s from the following is______________
Molecular weight
A. The equivalent weight of Fe0.93O is
0.79
2+ 3+
B. The number of moles of Fe and Fe in 1 mole of Fe0.93O is 0.79 and 0.14 respectively
2
C. Fe0.93O is metal deficient with lattice comprising of cubic closed packed arrangement of O
ions
2+ 3+
D. The % composition of Fe and Fe in Fe0.93O is 85% and 15% respectively
3+
Q9. At 298 K, a 1 litre solution containing 10 mmol of Cr2 O7 2 and 100 mmol of Cr shows a Ph of 3.0
2 3 o
Given: Cr2 O7 Cr ;E 1.330V
2.303RT
and 0.059V
F
The potential for the half cell reaction is x 10 3 V. The value of x is___________.
Q10. For independent processes at 300K

1 1
Process H/kJ mol S/JK
A 25 80
B 22 40
C 25 50
D 22 20
The number of non- spontaneous processes from the following is__________

1 1 3 1 8 4 3
Q1. tan sec is equal to :
3 3 6 3 3
(A) (B)
6 3
(C) (D)
4 2
1 1 1 sin2 t
2 2 2
Q2. lim 1sin t
2 sin t
... n sin t is equal to
t 0
(A) n2 n (B) n2
n n 1
(C) (D) n
2
Q3. Let a tangent to the curve y 2 24x meet the curve xy 2 at the points A and B. Then the mid
points of such line segments AB lie on a parabola with the
(A) directrix 4x 3 (B) length of latus rectum 2
3
(C) directrix 4x 3 (D) length of latus rectum
2
22
22 23
Q4. The value of Cr Cr is
r 0
44 45
(A) C23 (B) C23
44 45
(C) C22 (D) C24
Q5. If A and B are two non-zero n x n matrices such that A 2 B A 2B , then

(A) A 2B BA 2 (B) A 2B I
(C) A 2 I or B = I (D) AB I
Q6. Let N denote the number that turns up when a fair die is rolled. If the probability that the system of
equations
x y z 1
2x Ny 2z 2
3x 3y Nz 3
k
has unique solution is , then the sum of value of k and all possible values of N is
6
(A) 18 (B) 21
(C) 19 (D) 20
Q7. Let PQR be a triangle. The points A, B and C are on the sides QR, RP and PQ respectively such
QA RB PC 1 Area PQR
that . Then is equal to
AR BP CQ 2 Area ABC
(A) 4 (B) 3
5
(C) (D) 2
2
Q8. Let u î ˆj 2k,

ˆ v 2iˆ ˆj k,
ˆ v w 2 and v w u v . Then u w is equal to
3
(A) 2 (B)
2
2
(C) (D) 1
3
Q9. Let be a root of the equation a c x 2 b a x c b 0 where a, b, c are distinct real

2
1
numbers such that matrix 1 1 1 is singular. Then, the value of
a b c
2 2 2
a c b a c b
is
b a c b a c c b a c b a
(A) 12 (B) 3
(C) 9 (D) 6
200
Q10. Let p,q R and 1 3i 2199 p iq , i 1 . Then p q q2 and p q q2 are roots of the
equation.
(A) x 2 4x 1 0 (B) x 2 4x 1 0
(C) x 2 4x 1 0 (D) x 2 4x 1 0
Q11. The distance of the point 7, 3, 4 from the plane passing through the points
2, 3,1 1,1, 2 and 3, 4,2 is :
(A) 4 2 (B) 5
(C) 5 2 (D) 4
1
Q12. Let y y x be the solution of the differential equation x 3 dy xy 1 dx 0, x 0, y 3 e.
2
Then y 1 is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 e
(C) e (D) 3
Q13. Let be the sample space and A be an event. Given below are two statements :
S1 : If P A 0 , then A
S2 : If P A 1 , then A
Then
(A) both S1 and S2 are true (B) only S2 is true
(C) both S1 and S2 are false (D) only S1 is true
Q14. The relation R a,b : gcd a,b 1,2a b,a,b Z is :

(A) symmetric but not transitive (B) neither symmetric nor transitive
(C) reflexive but not symmetric (D) transitive but not reflexive
2 2
Q15. For three positive integers p,q,r, x pq y qr zp r and r pq 1 such that 3,3logy x, 3logz y, 7logx z
1
are in A.P. with common difference . The r p q is equal to
2
(A) 12 (B) 6
(C) 2 (D) -6
Q16. The distance of the point 1, 9, 16 from the plane 2x 3y z 5 measured parallel to the line
x 4 2 y z 3
is
3 4 12
(A) 13 2 (B) 20 2
(C) 31 (D) 26
Q17. The area enclosed by the curves y 2 4x 4 and y 2x 2 is :

25 23
(A) (B)
3 3
22
(C) 9 (D)
3
Q18. The equation x 2 4x x 3 x x , where x denotes the greatest integer function, has :
(A) a unique solution in , (B) no solution
(C) a unique solution in ,1 (D) exactly two solutions in ,
Q19. The compound statement ~ P Q ~P Q ~P ~Q is equivalent to

(A) ~ P Q (B) ~P Q ~Q P
(C) ~P Q ~Q (D) ~ Q P
1
x 2 sin ,x 0
Q20. Let f x x then at x = 0
,x 0
0
(A) f' is continuous but not differentiable (B) f and f' both are continuous
(C) f is continuous but not differentiable (D) f is continuous but f' is not continuous

3
Q1. The value of 12 x 2 3x 2 dx is………..
0
2023
Q2. Suppose r 2 2023 Cr 2023 22022 . Then the value of is……..
r 0
2023
8 2 cos x
Q3. The value of 2023 2023
dx is……….
0 sin x cos x
Q4. Let a tangent to the curve 9x 2 16y2 144 intersect the coordinate axes at the points A and B.
Then, the minimum length of the line segment AB is………
Q5. Let R and let the equation E be x 2 2x 3 0 . Then the largest element in the set
S x : x is an int eger solution of E is………..
th 1
Q6. The 4 term of GP is 500 and its common ratio is , m N . Let Sn denote the sum of the first n
m
1
terms of this GP. If S6 S5 1 and S7 S6 , then the number of possible values of m
2
is……….
x 2 y 1 z 6 x 6 1 y z 8
Q7. The shortest distance between the lines and is equal
3 2 2 3 2 0
to………
Q8. A boy needs to select five courses from 12 available courses, out of which 5 courses are
language course. If he can choose at most two language courses, then the number of ways he
can choose five courses is ……….
Q9. The number of 9 digit numbers, that can be formed using all the digits of the number 123412341
so that the even digits occupy only even places, is……
x2 y2
Q10. Let C be the largest circle centered at (2,0) and inscribed in the ellipse 1 . If 1, lies
36 16
2
on C, then 10 is equal to…….

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Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

5. Section – B : Do any 5 questions out of 10 Questions.

(One Options Correct Type)

Q1. Match List I with List II

Q2. Consider the following radioactive decay process

Q4. Given below are two statements :

Q7. Given below are two statements:

Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is B

Q8. A modulating signal is a square wave, as shown

sin 8 t volts, the modulation index is : m(t) 0 1 2 t(s)

Q9. As per given figure, a weightless pulley P is attached on

Q13. As shown in the figure, a network of resistors is R1 2 R4 20

resistance of 3 . The currents through the

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q17. Given below are two statements :

(A) A is false but R is true

Q20. A travelling wave is described by the equation

(Numerical Answer Type)

Q2. A block of a mass 2kg is attached with two

Q4. As shown in the figure, a combination of a thin plano concave

Q9. Solid sphere A is rotating about an axis PQ. If the radius of P

(One Options Correct Type)

Q3. In the depression of freezing point experiment

Q6. In the following given reaction, ‘A’ is

Q7. Order of Covalent bond;

Q10. Match List I with List II

(A) H C CHO (B) H2C CH2 CHO

Q13. Increasing order of stability of the resonance structures is:

Q14. Match List I with List II

Q16. Given below are two statements:

Q18. ‘R’ formed in the following sequence of reactions is:

NaCN EtOH (i) 2MeMgBr

Q19. Which of the following is true about freons?

CH2Br OCH3 CH2OH Br

(Numerical Answer Type)

Q3. Number of moles of AgCl formed in the following reaction is________________

Q6. The number of correct statement/s from the following is_______________

Q10. For independent processes at 300K

(One Options Correct Type)

Q5. If A and B are two non-zero n x n matrices such that A 2 B A 2B , then

Q8. Let u ˆi ˆj 2k,

Q9. Let be a root of the equation a c x 2 b a x c b 0 where a, b, c are distinct real

Q14. The relation R a,b : gcd a,b 1,2a b,a,b Z is :

Q17. The area enclosed by the curves y 2 4x 4 and y 2x 2 is :

Q19. The compound statement ~ P Q ~P Q ~P ~Q is equivalent to

(Numerical Answer Type)

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