4 Jeem 2023 Jan 25 Second Shift Paper
4 Jeem 2023 Jan 25 Second Shift Paper
4 Jeem 2023 Jan 25 Second Shift Paper
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.
3. This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and
Part-C is Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
4. Section – A : Attempt all questions.
6. Section-A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
7. Section-B (1 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question
is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-2
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q2. For a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection in the coil is 0.05rad when a current of 10mA is
passed through it, If the torsional constant of suspension wire is 4.0 10 5 N m rad1, the magnetic
field is 0.01T and the number of turns in the coil is 200, the area of each turn (in cm2) is :
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.5
(C) 1.5 (D) 2.0
Q4. The light rays from an object have been reflected towards an observer from a standard flat mirror,
the image observed by the observer are :-
A. Real
B. Erect
C. Smaller in size then object
D. Laterally inverted
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-3
Q6. Two objects are projected with same velocity ‘u’ however at different angles and with the
horizontal. If 90 , the ratio of horizontal range of the first object to the 2nd object will be :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
Q8. The resistance of a wire is 5 . It’s new resistance in ohm if stretched to 5 times of it’s original
length will be :
(A) 625 (B) 125
(C) 25 (D) 5
Q9. A point charge of 10 C is placed at the origin. At what location on the X-axis should a point
charge of 40 C be placed so that the net electric field is zero at x = 2cm on the X-axis ?
(A) x = -4 cm (B) x = 6 cm
(C) x = 4 cm (D) x = 8 cm
Q10. The distance traveled by a particle is related to time t as x 4t 2 . The velocity of the particle at
t 5 s is :-
-1 -1
(A) 40 ms (B) 20 ms
-1 -1
(C) 25 ms (D) 8 ms
Q11. A wire of length 1m moving with velocity 8m/s at right angles to a magnetic field of 2T. The
magnitude of induced emf, between the ends of wire will be _________
(A) 8 V (B) 12 V
(C) 16 V (D) 20 V
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-4
Q14. A body of mass m is taken from earth surface to the height h equal to twice the radius of earth
(Re), the increase in potential energy will be:
(g = acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Earth)
2 1
(A) mgRe (B) mgRe
3 2
1
(C) mgRe (D) 3mgRe
3
(A) Q
180 100
tQ t P 180
(B)
150 100
tQ t P 30
(C)
100 150
tP t Q 180
(D)
100 150
Q17. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = -A and x = +A. If time taken buy particle
A A
to go from x = 0 to is 2s; then time taken by particle in going from x = to A is
2 2
(A) 1.5s (B) 3s
(C) 2s (D) 4s
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-5
Q19. According to law of equipartition of energy the molar specific heat of a diatomic gas at constant
volume where the molecule has additional vibrational mode is:-
9 7
(A) R (B) R
2 2
3 5
(C) R (D) R
2 2
Q20. Statement I : When a Si sample is doped with Boron, it becomes P type and when doped by
Arsenic it becomes N – type semi conductor such that P-type has excess holes and N-type has
excess electrons.
Statement II : When such P – type and N – type semi-conductors, are fused to make a junction,
a current will automatically flow which can be detected with an externally connected ammeter.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
(A) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(B) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(D) Both Statement I and statement II are correct
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-6
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded
off to the nearest integer value.
Q1. A train blowing a whistle of frequency 320 Hz approaches an observer standing on the platform at
a speed of 66 m/s. The frequency observed by the observer will be (given speed of sound =
-1
330ms )__________Hz.
Q2. Two long parallel wires carrying currents 8A and 15A in opposite directions are placed at a
distance of 7cm from each other. A point P is at equidistant from both the wires such that lines
joining the point P to the wire are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of magnetic field at
P is _______ 166 T.
(Given : 2 1.4 )
Q3. A series LCR circuit is connected to an AC source of 220V, 50Hz. The circuit contains a
resistance R 80 , an inductor of inductive reactance XL 70 , and a capacitor of capacitive
x
reactance XC 130 . The power factor of circuit is . The value of x is :
10
Q4. Two cells are connected between points A and B as shown. 12V Cell 1
Cell 1 has emf of 12 V and internal resistance of 3 . Cell 2 6
has emf of 6V and internal resistance of 6 . An external A B
resistor R of 4 is connected across A and B. The current 6V 6
Cell 2
flowing through R will
be ________A.
Q5. A nucleus disintegrates into two smaller parts, which have their velocities in the ratio 3 : 2. The
1
x 3
ratio of their nuclear size will be . The value of ‘x’ is :-
3
Q7. If a solid sphere of mass 5kg and a disc of mass 4kg have the same radius. Then the ratio of
moment of inertia of the disc about a tangent in its plane to the moment of inertia of the sphere
x
about its tangent will be . The value of x is _________.
7
Q8. A capacitor has capacitance 5 F when it’s parallel plates are separated by air medium of
thickness d. A slab of material of dielectric constant 1.5 having area equal to that of plates but
d
thickness is inserted between the plates. Capacitance of the capacitor in the presence of slab
2
will be _________ F.
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-7
Q9. A spherical drop of liquid splits into 1000 identical spherical drops. If ui is the surface energy of
the original drop and uf is the total surface energy of the resulting drops, the (ignoring
u 10
evaporation), f . Then value of x is ________:
ui x
Q10. A body of mass 1kg collides head on elastically with a stationary body of mass 3kg. After
collision, the smaller body reverses its direction of motion and moves with a speed of 2m/s. The
initial speed of the smaller body before collision is _________ ms 1.
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-8
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. Which one among the following metals is the weakest reducing agent?
(A) Rb (B) Li
(C) Na (D) K
Q2. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
Isomeric pairs Type of isomers
A. Propanamine and N-Methylethanamine I. Metamers
B. Hexan-2-one and Hexan-3-one II. Positional isomers
C. Ethanamide and Hydroxyethanimine III. Functional isomers
D. o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol IV. Tautomers
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A- II, B-III, C-I, D- IV (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Q3. ‘A’ in the given reaction is
H COOH
HO H+
'A'
major
O
O OH
(A) OH (B) COOH
O O
O
O
(C) HO C O (D) O
Q4. Which of the following represents the correct order of metallic character of the given elements?
(A) K < Mg < Be < Si (B) Si < Be < Mg < K
(C) Be < Si < Mg < K (D) Be < Si < K < Mg
Q5. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Carbon forms two important oxides-CO and CO2, CO is neutral whereas CO2 is
acidic in nature.
Reason R: CO2 can combine with water in a limited way to form carbonic acid, while CO is
sparingly soluble in water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A) A is not correct but R is correct
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(D) A is correct but R is not correct
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-9
Q6. Find out the major product from the following reaction.
H2SO4 (Concentrated)
OH
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q8. A chloride salt solution acidified with dil HNO3 gives a curdy white precipitate, [A], on addition of
AgNO3. [A] on treatment with NH4OH gives a clear solution B.
A and B are respectively.
(A) AgCl & (NH4)[Ag(OH)2] (B) H[AgCl3] & [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
(C) H[AgCl3] & (NH4)[Ag(OH)2] (D) AgCl & [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
Q9. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Butylated hydroxy anisole when added to butter increases it shelf life.
Reason R: Butylated hydroxy anisole is more reactive towards oxygen than food.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(B) A is not correct but R is correct
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Q10. Potassium dichromate acts as a strong oxidizing agent in acidic solution. During this process, the
oxidation state changes from
(A) +2 to +1 (B) +6 to +2
(C) +3 to +1 (D) +6 to +3
Q11. The isomeric deuterated bromide with molecular formula C4H8DBr having two chiral carbon atoms
is.
(A) 2-Bromo-1- deuterobutane (B) 2- Bromo-3-deuterobutane
(C) 2-Bromo-1-deutero-2- methylpropane (D) 2- Bromo-2-deuterobutane
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-10
Q14. When the hydrogen ion concentration [H+] changes by a factor of 1000, the value of pH of the
solution ___________.
(A) Decreases by 2 units (B) Increases by 1000 units
(C) Decreases by 3 units (D) Increases by 2 units
Q15. Statement I: Dipole moment is a vector quantity and by convention it is depicted by a small arrow
with tail on the negative centre and head pointing towards the positive centre.
Statement II: The crossed arrow of the dipole moment symbolizes the direction of the shift of
charges in the molecules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(C) Both statement I Statement II are correct
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Q16. Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: The alkali metals and their salts impart characteristic colour to reducing flame.
Reason R: Alkali metals can be detected using flame tests.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriates answer from the options given
below:
(A) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(B) A is correct but R is not correct
(C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-11
Q18. What is the mass ratio of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2, molar mass = 62 g/mol) required for making
500 g of 0.25 molal aqueous solution and 250 mL of 0.25 molal aqueous solution?
(A) 3:1 (B) 1:2
(C) 2:1 (D) 1:1
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-12
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1. Number of hydrogen atoms per molecule of a hydrocarbon A having 85.8% carbon is____
(Given: Molar mass of A = 84 g mol1)
Q2. Total number of moles of AgCl precipitated on addition of excess of AgNO3 to one mole each of
the following complexes [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl,[Ni(H2O)6]Cl2,[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] and [Pd(NH3)4]Cl2 is______.
Liquid molecule
on the bulk
Q4. The number of pairs of the solutions having the same value of the osmotic pressure from the
following is__________________.
(Assume 100% ionization)
A. 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq) and 0.25 M KBr(aq)
B. 0.100 M K4 [Fe(CN)6](aq) and 0.100 M FeSO4(NH4)2SO4(aq)
C. 0.05 M K4[Fe(CN)6](aq) and 0.25 M NaCl (aq)
D. 0.15 M NaCl(aq) and 0.1 M BaCl2(aq)
E. 0.02 M KCl.MgCl2.6H2O(aq) and 0.05 M KCl(aq)
Q5. 28.0L of CO2 is produced on complete combustion of 16.8 L gaseous mixture of ethene and
methane at 25oC and 1 atm. Heat evolved during the combustion process is ____kJ.
Given: HC(CH4) =900kJ mol1
HC(C2H4) =1400kJ mol1
Q6. Number of compound giving (i) red colouration with ceric ammonium nitrate and also (ii) positive
iodoform test from the following is_______________.
O
O
CH3
,
, OH H
OH OH
O ,
,
OH
OH ,
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-13
Q7. A first order reaction has the rate constant, k = 4.6103 s1. The number of correct statements
from the following is / are __________.
Given log 3 = 0.48
A. Reaction completes in 1000s.
B. The reaction has a half-life of 500s
C. The time required for 10% completion is 25 times the time required for 90%
completion.
D. The degree of dissociation is equal to (1ekt)
E. The rate and the rate constant have the same unit.
Q8.
Pt(s) H2(g) 1bar H(aq) 1M M3 aq
, M Pt
(aq) (s)
M aq
10a
The Ecell for the given cell is 0.1115 V at 298 K When
M3 aq
The value of a is________________.
Given: E 3 0.2V
M /M
2.303RT
0.059V
F
Q9. The number of given orbitals which have electron density along the axis is_________
p x , py , pz ,dxy , dyz , dxz , d 2 , d 2 2
z x y
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-14
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. Let f x 2x n , R, n N and f 4 133, f 5 255 . Then the sum of all the positive
integer divisors of f 3 f 2 is
(A) 60 (B) 61
(C) 59 (D) 58
1 3
1 i
10 10
Q2. Let A and B , where i 1 .
3 1 0 1
10 10
If M A TB A , then the inverse of the matrix AM2023 A T is
1 0 1 2023i
(A) (B)
2023i 1 0 1
1 2023i 1 0
(C) (D)
0 1 2023i 1
Q3. Let A, B, C be 3 x 3 matrices such that A is symmetric and B and C are skew-symmetric.
Consider the statements
S1 A13B26 B26 A13 is symmetric
S2 A 26C13 C13 A 26 is symmetric
(A) Both S1 and S2 are false (B) Both S1 and S2 are true
(C) Only S1 is true (D) Only S2 is true
Q4. The number of numbers, strictly between 5000 and 10000 can be formed using the digits
1,3,5,7,9 without repetition, is
(A) 72 (B) 120
(C) 6 (D) 12
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-15
dy
Q7. Let y y t be a solution of the differential equation y et
dt
where, 0, 0 and 0 . Then lim y t
t
(A) is 0 (B) is -1
(C) is 1 (D) does not exist
2
dx
Q8. The integral of 16 2
is equal to
1 x 3
x2 2
11 11
(A) loge 4 (B) loge 4
12 6
11 11
(C) loge 4 (D) loge 4
6 12
Q9. If the four points, whose position vectors are 3iˆ 4ˆj 2k,
ˆ ˆi 2ˆj k,
ˆ 2iˆ ˆj 3kˆ and 5iˆ 2ˆj 4kˆ
are coplanar, then is equal to
73 107
(A) (B)
17 17
73 107
(C) (D)
17 17
Q10. Let T And C respectively by the transverse and conjugate axes of the hyperbola
16x 2 y 2 64x 4y 44 0 . Then the area of the region above the parabola x 2 y 4 , below
the transverse axis T and on the right of the conjugate axis C is :
28 44
(A) 4 6 (B) 4 6
3 3
44 28
(C) 4 6 (D) 4 6
3 3
6
51 k
Q11.
k 0
C3 is equal to
52 45 52 45
(A) C4 C4 (B) C3 C3
51 45 51 45
(C) C3 C3 (D) C4 C4
Q12.
ˆ a b 1 and a b ˆi ˆj . Then a 6b is equal to
Let a ˆi ˆj k,
(A) 3 ˆi ˆj kˆ
(B) 3 ˆi ˆj kˆ
(C) 3 ˆi ˆj kˆ (D) 3 ˆi ˆj kˆ
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-16
z 2i
Q14. Let z be a complex number such that 2, z i . Then z lies on the circle of radius 2 and
zi
centre
(A) 0, 2 (B) 2, 0
(C) 0, 0 (D) 0, 2
Q15. The equations of two sides of a variable triangle are x = 0 and y = 3, and its third side is a tangent
to the parabola y 2 6x . The locus of its circumcentre is :
(A) 4y 2 18y 3x 18 0 (B) 4y 2 18y 3x 18 0
(C) 4y 2 18y 3x 18 0 (D) 4y 2 18y 3x 18 0
1 cos x cos x , 0x
2
Q16. If the function f x , x is continuous at x , then
2 2
cot 6 x
e cot 4 x , x
2
6 6
9 6loge e is equal to
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 2e4 8 (D) 8
Q18. Let N be the sum of the numbers appeared when two fair dice are rolled and let the probability
k
that N 2, 3N, N 2 are in geometric progression be . Then the value of k is
48
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 2 (D) 16
x 1 y 1 z 1
Q20. The foot of perpendicular of the point 2,0,5 on the line is , , . Then,
2 5 1
which of the following is NOT correct?
4
(A) (B) 8
15
5
(C) (D) 5
8
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-17
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
1
Q1. Let a R and let , be the roots of the equation x 2 60 4 x a 0 . If 4 4 30 , then the
product of all possible values of a is…………
2023
Q2. The remainder when 2023 is divided by 35 is……..
Q3. 25% of the population are smokers. A smoker has 27 times more chances to develop lung cancer
than a non smoker. A person is diagnosed with lung cancer and the probability that this person is
k
a smoker is . Then the value of k is……..
10
Q4. A triangle is formed by X-axis, Y-axis and the line 3x 4y 60 . Then the number of points
P a,b which lie strictly inside the triangle, where a is an integer and b is a multiplier of a,
is………
1 1
Q5. For the two positive numbers a, b, if a, b and are in a geometric progression, while ,10 and
18 a
1
are in an arithmetic progression, then 16a 12b is equal to…….
b
Q6. If m and n respectively are the numbers of positive and negative values of in the interval
9
, that satisfy the equation cos2 cos 2 cos3 cos 2 m then mn is equal to……..
3
m n2
Q7. If loge x dx loge , where m and n are coprime natural numbers, then m2 n2 5 is
1 n e
3
equal to……….
Q8. Suppose Anil‘s mother wants to give 5 whole fruits to Anil from a basket of 7 red apples, 5 white
apples and 8 oranges. If in the selected 5 fruits, at least 2 oranges, at least one red apple and at
least one white apple must be given, then the number of ways, Anil’s mother can offer 5 fruits to
Anil is……….
Q9. If the shortest distance between the line joining the points 1,2,3 and 2,3,4 , and the line
x 1 y 1 z 2
is , then 28 2 is equal to…….
2 1 0
Q10. Points P 3,2 , Q 9, 10 and R , 4 lie on a circle C with PR as its diameter. The tangents to C
at the points Q and R intersect at the point S. If S lies on the line 2x ky 1 , then k is equal
to…………
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-18
FIITJEE
KEYS to JEE (Main)-2023
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C
5. B 6. A 7. A 8. B
9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A
13. B 14. A 15. D 16. C
17. D 18. B 19. B 20. B
SECTION – B
1. 400 2. 68 3. 8 4. 1
5. 2 6. 30 7. 5 8. 6
9. 1 10. 4
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. B
5. C 6. B 7. C 8. D
9. D 10. D 11. B 12. C
13. A 14. C 15. B 16. D
17. B 18 C 19. D 20. B
SECTION - B
1. 12 2. 5 3. 2 4. 4
5. 847 6. 3 7. 1 8. 3
9. 5 10. 2
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-19
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A
5. B 6. A 7. A 8. B
9. A 10. D 11. A 12. A
13. C 14. D 15. B 16. DROP
17. B 18 A 19. D 20. D
SECTION - B
1. 45 2. 7 3. 9 4. 31
5. 3 6. 25 7. 20 8. 6860
9. 18 10. 3
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-20
FIITJEE
Solutions to JEE (Main)-2023
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A
Sol1. A Young modulus
stress
y ML1T 2
strain
B coefficient of viscosity
dv
F A
dx
ML1 T 1
C Hanck’s constant
hr = Energy
h = [ML2 T-1]
D Work function
[ML2 T-2]
A 10 4 m2 = 1cm2
hc
Sol3. KEmax eVs
is work function
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-21
mg mg
2F
ii 2 2
2
i mg mg
2
1 mgsin
2
1
2 2x 1 45
mgcos
1 3
1
3
Sol7. Isothermal process – no change in internal energy Adiabatic work done by gas decreases
internal energy
Isochoric – no work done
L
Sol8. 5,
A1
L A1 5L A 2
A1
A2
5
New resistance
5L 5
5 5 5 125
A1
10 40
Sol9. 2
4 x
x 2 16
x4
10 c 40 c
40 c is placed at 2 x 4cm from origin
dx
Sol10. 8t 8 5 40m / s.
dt
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-22
Sol13. 124.1nm
122 ev nm
Energy E 2 E1
124.1nm
=1
D satisfies this case
GMm
Sol15. F and T 2 a 3
r2
150
Sol16. Slope of graph
100
tP 30 150
tQ 100
tP 30 t
Q
150 100
A
Sol17. from x 0 to x 2sec
2
T
2s
12
T 24 s
A A
Time taken from x to x
2 2
T T T
4 sec
4 12 6
Sol19. Two additional degree of freedom are added due to vibration at higher temperatures.
fR 7R
CV
2 2
SECTION – B
330 320 330
Sol1. I received = 320 = 400 Hz
330 66 264
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-23
Sol2. x 2 x2 49 7
8A 15A
7
x
2
2 2
I I x x
BP 0 1 0 2
2x 2x
0 2 P
152 82
2 7
24 10 7 1.4
17
2 7
68 106 T
Sol3. R 80 xC 130
XL 70
x xL 60 3
tan C
R 80 4
4 8
cos
5 10
12 6
Sol4. E eq 6 6
2 1 2
1 1 6v
3 6
Re q 4 2 6
6
current 1A
6
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-24
2 Sphere
Sol7. MR2 MR2
5
7
M1R2 7R2
5
M2R2
M2R
4
5 Disk
M2R2 5R 2
4
A 0
Sol8. 5F
d
d d
Ceq
2A 0 K A 0 2 Ceq
1 1 K
15 10
23
6F
30
d12 d12
4 3 4
Sol9. R 1000 r13
3 3
R 10
R
10
i T 4R2
4 R2
f 1000 T 10i
100
f
10
i
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-25
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A
0
Sol1. ELi
/Li
3.05V
E0Cs /Cs 2.92V
EK0 /K 2.93V
0
ENa
/Na
2.71V
Higher reduction potential means weaker reducing capability.
Sol2.
CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2 C2 H5 NH CH3 Functional Isomer
(Propanamine) (N- methylenthananamine)
O O
CH3 C (CH2)3 CH3 CH3 CH2 C (CH2)2 CH3 Metamer
(Hexan-2-one) (Hexane-3-one)
O OH
CH3 C NH2 CH3 C NH Tautomer
(Ethanamide) (Hydroxyethanimine)
OH OH
NO2
Positional Isomer
NO2
(o- nitrophenol) (p- nitrophenol)
Sol3.
H
H
C C O
OH COOH H+ C
C
O HO C O
+
-H
OH
O
-H2O
CH O
O C
O OH
O OH
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-26
Sol4. Metallic character increases down the group and decreases along the period.
Sol5. Oxide forming acid upon getting dissolved in water is acidic oxide
Sol6.
H+ /
-H+
-H2O
OH
Sol7. It is fact
NH4OH
Sol8. Cl AgNO3 AgCl Ag NH3 2 Cl
( White) Solub le complex
6
Sol10. Cr2 O7 14H 6e 2Cr 3 7H2O
Change in O.N is from +6 to +3
Sol11.
H H
CH3 C C CH3
Br D
Sol12. The rotating paddle draws air in and stirs the pulp.
Sol13. Delocalization of lone pair of electron in aniline deceases the basic strength.
pH log H 3
Sol15. No option is correct.
In chemistry direction of dipole moment is from +ve end to –ve end both statements are false.
Crossed arrow symbolizes direction of shift of electron density in molecule.
Sol16. Alkali metal and their salts impart characteristic colour to oxidisizing flame.
Sol17. It is a fact
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-27
1
Sol19. CFSE strength of ligand
obserbed
SECTION – B
Sol1. C 35.12 H14.2 CH2 [ Empirical formula]
12 1
Empirical formula mass = 14 Molecular mass = 84 = 14 6
Molecular formula = (CH2)6 = C6H12
Sol4. i CRT
iC
A, B, D, E have same value of osmotic pressure.
OH OH
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-28
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION – A
n
Sol1. f(x) = 2x +
Given that f(4) = 133 and f(5) = 255
n n
133 = 2 × 4 + ……… (i) and 255 = 2 × 5 + …………… (ii)
Subtracting (ii) – (i) we get 122 = 2(5 – 4 ) n – 4n = 61 n = 3 & = 5
n n
3 3
f(3) – f(2) = 2(3 – 2 ) = 38 Number of Divisors is 1, 2, 19, 38
Their sum is 60.
1 3
10 10
Sol2. A also AA T A T A I
3 1
10 10
M A TBA IB B
AM2023 A T AA TM2023 IM2023 B 2023
1 i 1 i 1 2i 1 3i
BB B2 B3
0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
1 4i 1 2023i
B4 ……………….. B2023
0 1 0 1
1 2023i
Inverse of AM2023 A T is
0 1
Sol3. Given, AT = A, BT = –B, CT = – C Let M = A13 B26 – B26 A13 Then, MT = (A13 B26 – B26 A13)T =
13 26 T 26 13 T T 26 T 13 T 13 T 26 26 13 13 26
(A B ) – (B A ) = (B ) (A ) – (A ) (B ) = B A – A B = – M .
Hence, M is skew symmetric
Let, N = A26C13 – C13A26 then, NT = (A26 C13)T – (C13A26) T = – C13A26 + A26C13 = N
Hence, N is symmetric.
Only S2 is true
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-29
dy
Sol7. + y = et Now I.F = et
dx
( ) t e( )t
y et = e dt c y e t et
Now, lim y t = lim et e t = 0
t t
2 2
dx dx 2 1
Sol8. 16 3 2 2
16 1 put 1 2
t 3 dx dt
1 x (x 2)
2 2 x x
) x 3 .x 4 (1
x2
3 /2 3 /2 3 /2
(t 1)2 dt (t 2 2t 1)dt 2 1 11
2
2
(1 2 )dt = loge 4
3 t 3 t 3
t t 6
Sol9. Let a 3iˆ 4ˆj 2kˆ b ˆi 2ˆj kˆ c 2iˆ ˆj 3kˆ and d 5iˆ 2ˆj 4kˆ
AB 2iˆ 6ˆj 3kˆ , AC 5iˆ 3ˆj kˆ and AD 2iˆ (2 4)jˆ 2kˆ
2 63
73
A, B, C, D are coplanar points, then 5 3 1 = 0
17
2 (2 4) 2
(x 2)2 (y 2)2
Sol10. 1
1 16
6
2
6
2 28 (-2,2) 6, 2
A= (2 (x 4))dx (6 x )dx 4 6
2 2 3
51
C3 50
C3 49
C3 48
C3 47
C3 46
C3 45
C3 45
C4 45
C4
51
C3 50
C3 49
C3 48
C3 47
C3 46
C3 46
C4 45
C4
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-30
51
C3 50
C3 49
C3 48
C3 47
C3 47
C4 45
C4
51
C3 50
C3 49
C3 48
C3 48
C4 45
C4
51
C3 50
C3 49
C3 49
C4 45
C4
51
C3 50
C3 50
C4 45
C4
51 51 45
C3 C4 C4
52 45
C4 C4
ˆi ˆj kˆ
Sol12. Let b xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ ,Taking cross product with a then a b 1 1 1 ˆi ˆj
x y z
ˆi( z y) ˆj(x z) k(
ˆ y x) ˆi ˆj - z – y = 1, x + z = - 1 x – y = 0 and also a. b 1 -x
2 2 1 2 2 1
– y + z = 1 x ,y , z b ˆi ˆj kˆ a 6b = 3( ˆi ˆj kˆ )
3 3 3 3 3 3
Sol15. y2 = 6x y2 = 4ax 4a = 6
3
a=
2 (h,k)
3 6m 3
y = mx + ;m0 2m2 , 3
2m y=3
6m 3 6m 3
h 2
,k y=0
4m 4m x=0 3
y mx
Now eliminating m and we get 2m
4y2 – 18y + 3x + 18 = 0
3
0,
2m
x 1 y z x y 2 z 1
Sol17. and
2 1 1 6 6 1
6
Let A(-1 , 0 , 0) and B( 0 , – 2 , 1) b a ˆi 2jˆ kˆ
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-31
1
Also let p 2iˆ ˆj kˆ and q 6iˆ 6 ˆj kˆ
6
ˆi ˆj kˆ
1
p q 2 1 2iˆ 3 ˆj 6kˆ
6
6 6 1
(b a). p q 226
S.D. 2
pq 4 9 36
Sol19. Given (p q) (p q)
(A) = , =
p q (p q) (p q) (p q) (p q)
T T T T T
T F F T F
F T T T T
F F T T F
(B) = , =
p q (p q) (p q) (p q) (p q)
T T T T T
T F F F F
F T T F T
F F T F F
(C) = , =
p q (p q) (p q) (p q) (p q)
T T T T T
T F F T T
F T T T T
F F T F T
Hence, it is tautology.
(D) = , =
p q (p q) (p q) (p q) (p q)
T T T T T
T F F F F
F T T F F
F F T F F
x +1 y-1 z+1
Sol20. L : = r
2 5 1
P (2,0,5) Let foot of perpendicular is Q(- 1 + 2r,1 + 5r , -1 - r )
Direction ratio of line PQ : 3 – 2r , - 1 – 5r , 6 + r
1
and also Direction ratio of line L : 2(3 – 2r ) + 5( - 1 – 5r ) -1( 6 + r ) = 0 r
6
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-32
4 4 5
Q , , = Q(, , ).
3 3 6
4 4 5
, ,
3 3 6
32 5 8
, 1, ,
15 8 5
SECTION – B
1
Sol1. = 60 and = a
4
4 4 = -30
(2 2 )2 22 30
{( )2 }2 – 2a2 = – 30
1
2a2 – 4.a 60 2 + 90 = 0
product of roots = 45
Sol2. (2023)2023 = (2030 – 7)2023 = (35 K – 7)2023 = 2023C0(35 K)2023(–7)0 + 2023C1 (35 K)2022 (–7) + ….. +
……. + 2023C2023 (–7)2023 = 35 N – 72023 .
–72023 = –7 × 72022 = –7 (72 ) 1011 = –7 (50 –1)1011 = –7(1011C0 501011 – 1011C1(50)1010 + …... 1011C1011
) = – 7 (5 –1) = – 35 + 7
Hence remainder is 7
1 3
Sol3. E1 : Smokers P(E1) = and E2 : non-smokers P(E2) =
4 4
E : diagnosed with lung cancer
27
P(E / E1 )
28
1
P(E / E2 )
28
1 27
P(E1 )P(E / E1 ) 4 28 9 k
P(E1 / E) =
P(E) 1 27 3 1 10 10
4 28 4 28
k=9
1
Sol5. a, b, are in G.P.
18
a
b2 ---------------(i)
18
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (25th January-Second Shift)-PCM-33
1 1
,10, are in A.P.
a b
1 1
20
a b
a + b = 20ab
2 3
18b + b = 360b
2
360b – 18b -1 = 0
1
b
12
1
a 16a + 12b = 3
8
9 9
Sol6. cos2 cos = cos3 cos 2cos2 cos = 2cos3 cos
2 2 2 2
15 5 15 5 2n n
cos cos after solving we get, 2n or
2 2 2 2 5 5
4 3 2 2 3 4
, , , , ,0, , , , , m = 5, n = 5
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
mn = 25
3 1 3
4 m n2
Sol7. log e x dx loge xdx loge xdx 2loge 3 1 = loge
n
1 1 1 3 e
3 3
m = 4 and n = 3 m2 + n2 – 5 = 16 + 9 – 5 = 20.
10 2 10 4 2a 1
S a,
Sol10. Product of slopes = 1 k
93 9 Q (9,10)
13
equation of circle is (x+3)(x-13)+ (y-2)(y-4)=0 R (,4)
x2 + y2 – 10x -6y - 31 = 0
Now equation of tangent at Q (9,10) is
4x + 7y – 106 = 0 ……..(i)
equation of tangent at R (13,4) is
8x + y – 108 = 0………(ii)
25
Solving (i) and (ii) we get x and y = 8
2
25 2a 1
x = a and 8 k 3
2 k
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