AIBE 18 Question Paper (Set A)

Question 1: The concept of freedom of trade and commerce mentioned in the Indian
Constitution is motivated from the experience of the following country?
(A) America
(B) Australia
(C) Ireland
(D) United Kingdom

Question 2: Which of the following writ is issued to enforce the performance of public
duties by the authority?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Quo warranto
(C) Certiorari
(D) Prohibition

Question 3: Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act had made the provi-
sion for publishing Hindi Translation of the Constitution?
(A) 52nd Amendment
(B) 54th Amendment
(C) 56th Amendment
(D) 58th Amendment

Question 4: Which of the following is the landmark judgment on the Colourable legisla-
tion?
(A) State of Bihar v Kameshwar Singh
(B) M. Karunanidhi v Union of India
(C) State of Karnataka v Union of India
(D) Keshavan Madhava Menon v State of Bombay

Question 5: Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in light
of the advisory opinion received in Re Berubari case?
(A) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955
(B) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
(C) The Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 1960
(D) The Constitution (Eleventh Amendment) Act, 1961

Question 6: Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India is relevant for
solving questions of repugnancy between a Central law and a State law?
(A) Article 248
(B) Article 252
(C) Article 254

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(D) Article 256

Question 7: What transition period was provided in the Constitution of India for chang-
ing official language of Union from English to Hindi?
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 25 years

Question 8: In which of the following case it was held that there could be no reservation
on single post in the cadre?
(A) Chakradhar Paswan v State of Bihar
(B) K.C. Vasanth Kumar v State of Karnataka
(C) A.B.S.K. Sangh (Rly) v Union of India
(D) State of Kerala v N.M. Thomas

Question 9: Sexual harassment of a working woman at her place of work may also be
considered as the violation of which of the following provision of the Constitution of In-
dia?
(A) Article 19(1)(b)
(B) Article 19(1)(d)
(C) Article 19(1)(e)
(D) Article 19(1)(g)

Question 10: Which of the following doctrine has been applied to resolve the conflict
between Article 25(2)(b) and 26(b) of the Constitution of India?
(A) Doctrine of Harmonious construction
(B) Doctrine of Casus Omissus
(C) Doctrine of Liberal interpretation
(D) Doctrine of Pith and substance

Question 11: In which of the following situations Indian Penal Code, 1860 may not ap-
ply?
i. An offence committed by Indians outside India.
ii. An offence committed by any person on any ship registered in India.
iii. Any person committing offence targeting computer resources located in any country.
(A) Only i
(B) Only ii
(C) Only iii
(D) Only i & ii

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Question 12: How many types of punishment are currently existing under the Indian
Penal Code, 1860?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

Question 13: A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. In the course of
such fencing, while playing fairly, A hurts Z severely. Which of the following offence is
committed by A?
(A) Hurt
(B) Attempt to murder
(C) Grievous hurt
(D) No offence

Question 14: In which of the following situations right of private defence can not extend
to causing death?
(A) In case when an assault is causing apprehension of murder.
(B) In case when assault is reflecting intention of committing rape.
(C) In case when assault is reflecting intention of causing simple hurt.
(D) In case when assault is reflecting intention of gratifying unnatural lust.

Question 15: For which of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the word
benefit does not include pecuniary benefits?
(A) Section 89
(B) Section 155
(C) Section 156
(D) Section 370

Question 16: X intentionally pulls up a woman’s veil without her consent intending to
annoy her. As per the Indian Penal Code, 1860 which of the following offence has he
committed?
(A) Hurt
(B) Criminal force
(C) Assault
(D) Grievous hurt

Question 17: What punishment is prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 for a
person who maims any minor in order that such minor may be used for the purposes of
begging?
(A) Imprisonment for 5 years and fine
(B) Imprisonment for 7 years and fine

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(C) Imprisonment for 10 years and fine
(D) Imprisonment for life and fine

Question 18: X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives him
money. Which of the following punishment may be given to X for the act committed by
him as per the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) Imprisonment up to 2 years, or with fine or with both.
(B) Imprisonment up to 3 years, or with fine or with both.
(C) Imprisonment up to 5 years, or with fine or with both.
(D) Imprisonment up to 7 years, or with fine or with both.

Question 19: Which of the following sentence is an Assistant Sessions Judge authorised
to pass as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Sentence of death.
(B) Sentence of imprisonment for life.
(C) Sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.
(D) Sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years.

Question 20: A person arrested by a private person for committing a non-bailable and
cognizable offence shall be re-arrested by a police officer if such person comes under
which of the following provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 41A
(C) Section 42
(D) Section 43

Question 21: Under which of the following situation wife is not entitled for maintenance
under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Husband presumes that wife is living in adultery.
(B) Voluntarily wife refuses to live with husband.
(C) Wife living separately as husband keeps a mistress.
(D) Wife is forcefully removed from the house.

Question 22: Which of the following procedure is dealt under Section 164-A of the Code
of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Medical examination of the victim of rape.
(B) Attendance of witness by police officer.
(C) Recording of confession statement.
(D) Recording of first information report by police officer.

Question 23: Which of the following is incorrect with respect to diary of proceedings in

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investigation as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) The statements of witnesses recorded during investigation shall be inserted in the diary.
(B) The diary shall be duly paginated.
(C) The diary may be used as evidence.
(D) Can be used by the police officers to refresh memory.

Question 24: In which of the following cases manner of committing offence is not re-
quired to be mentioned in the charge as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) A is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place.
(B) A is accused of cheating B at a given time and place.
(C) A is accused of disobeying a direction of the law with intent to save B from punishment.
(D) A is accused of giving false evidence at a given time and place.

Question 25: Which of the following offences may be tried summarily as per the Code
of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Offence under Section 454 of the IPC.
(B) Offence under Section 504 of the IPC.
(C) Offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years.
(D) Offence punishable with life imprisonment.

Question 26: Which of the following Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
provides for reference to High Court?
(A) Section 275
(B) Section 325
(C) Section 383
(D) Section 395

Question 27: A person accused of the following offence may not be granted bail under
Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:
i. Accused of offence under Section 376AB of the IPC.
ii. Accused of offence under Section 376DA of the IPC.
iii. Accused of offence under Section 376DB of the IPC.
(A) i & ii
(B) ii & iii
(C) iii & i
(D) i, ii & iii

Question 28: Which of the following act if done by any Magistrate, even in good faith
without being empowered, shall vitiate the proceedings as per the Code of Criminal Pro-
cedure, 1973?
(A) Tender a pardon under Section 306 of CrPC.
(B) Recall a case and try it under Section 410 of the CrPC.

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(C) Attaches property under Section 83 of the CrPC.
(D) Hold an inquest under Section 176 of the CrPC.

Question 29: Which of the following is material for deciding the jurisdiction of the Civil
Court in the light of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Averments made in the plaint
(B) Averments made in the written statement
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Question 30: Which of the following cannot be considered as the suit of civil nature for
Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Suit for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings.
(B) Suit for rights of franchise.
(C) Suit for specific reliefs.
(D) Suit relating to rights of worship.

Question 31: Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
makes the doctrine of res judicata applicable in representative suits?
(A) Section 11, Explanation V
(B) Section 11, Explanation VI
(C) Section 11, Explanation VII
(D) Section 11, Explanation VIII

Question 32: In which of the following situations a court will not issue summons for per-
sonal appearance to the defendant?
(A) If defendant resides within the local limit of the court’s jurisdiction.
(B) If defendant resides within 40 miles from the court.
(C) If defendant resides 250 miles away from the court in an area having public conveyance
available.
(D) Woman to whom Section 132 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not apply.

Question 33: In which of the following situation plaintiff is precluded from bringing a
fresh suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Dismissal of suit where summons not served in consequence of plaintiff’s failure to pay
costs.
(B) Dismissal of suit because neither party appeared.
(C) Dismissal of suit because plaintiff did not appear.
(D) Dismissal of suit because plaintiff did not apply for fresh summons within given time
limit once it returned unserved.

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Question 34: How many times at max. may an adjournment be granted to a party dur-
ing hearing of the suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Two times
(B) Three times
(C) Four times
(D) No limit prescribed

Question 35: Which of the following Amendment Act made the provision in the Code of
Civil Procedure, 1908 to produce a witness without a summons?
(A) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976
(B) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999
(C) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002
(D) Such provision does not exist.

Question 36: Which of the following is not included in the word costs as provided under
the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) The expenses of the witnesses incurred.
(B) Legal fees and expenses incurred.
(C) Fooding and lodging expenses incurred.
(D) Any other expenses incurred in connection with the proceedings.

Question 37: What period is prescribed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for
defendant to enter an appearance for filing address for service of notice on him in case
of a suit where summary procedure is to be applied?
(A) Seven days from the date of receiving of summons.
(B) Ten days from the date of receiving of summons.
(C) Fifteen days from the date of receiving of summons.
(D) Thirty days from the date of receiving of summons.

Question 38: Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908 the appellate court may remit an issue for trial to lower court?
(A) Order XLI Rule 23
(B) Order XLI Rule 23-A
(C) Order XLI Rule 24
(D) Order XLI Rule 25

Question 39: A is accused of the murder of B by beating him. Which of the following
will not be considered as relevant fact forming part of the same transaction as per the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Whatever said by A or B at the time of beating.
(B) Whatever done by A or B at the time of beating.
(C) Whatever said by by-standers at the time of beating.

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(D) Whatever said by A or B a day before the day of beating.

Question 40: Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 says
that the confession to a police officer shall not be proved against him?
(A) Section 24
(B) Section 25
(C) Section 26
(D) Section 27

Question 41: Under which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
dying declaration may be admitted as evidence?
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 29
(C) Section 32
(D) Section 37

Question 42: Which of the following is correct according to the Indian Evidence Act,
1872 pertaining to proof of contents of the documents?
(A) Contents of the documents shall be proved by primary evidence.
(B) Contents of the documents may be proved by secondary evidence.
(C) Contents of the documents shall be proved by both primary and secondary evidence.
(D) Contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence.

Question 43: Which of the following is a correct statement as per the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872?
(A) Leading questions may be asked in examination-in-chief.
(B) Leading questions may be asked in cross-examination.
(C) Leading questions may be asked in re-examination.
(D) Leading questions cannot be asked in cross-examination.

Question 45: Which of the following is incorrect statement in the light of Indian Evi-
dence Act, 1872?
(A) Confession always goes against a person making it.
(B) Admissions are conclusive as to the matters admitted.
(C) Admissions may operate as an estoppel.
(D) Confession is a statement, written or oral, which is a direct admission of guilt.

Question 46: Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an ex-
ception to the hearsay rule?
(A) Section 32(1)
(B) Section 32(2)
(C) Section 32(3)

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(D) Section 32(5)

Question 47: Which of the following is not a recognized alternate dispute resolution
mechanism under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Arbitration
(B) Conciliation
(C) Lok Adalat
(D) Negotiation

Question 48: Which of the following is incorrect statement with respect to Lok Adalat?
(A) No court fee is required in Lok Adalat.
(B) Lok Adalat can deal with all civil & criminal matters.
(C) Award of Lok Adalat is a deemed decree.
(D) No appeal against the award of Lok Adalat is allowed.

Question 49: Which of the following is incorrect with respect to arbitration agreement
as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(A) Arbitration agreement may be written as well as oral.
(B) Arbitration agreement may be in the form of a separate agreement.
(C) Arbitration agreement may be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract.
(D) Arbitration agreement may be for all or certain disputes which may arise between the
parties.

Question 50: In which of the following circumstances an arbitrator may not be chal-
lenged as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(A) When a justifiable doubt as to his independence arises.
(B) When a justifiable doubt as to his impartiality arises.
(C) When he possesses the qualifications agreed by the party.
(D) When he becomes ineligible as per the seventh schedule of the Act.

Question 51: When may two persons be said to be related to each other by half-blood in
accordance with the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) When they are descended from a common ancestor by the same wife.
(B) When they are descended from a common ancestor by different wives.
(C) When they are descended from a common ancestress by different husbands.
(D) When they are not descended from a common ancestor at all.

Question 52: Which of the following is generally not considered as a valid condition for
a Hindu marriage as per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) The parties should not have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
(B) The parties should be within the degrees of prohibited relationship.

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(C) The parties should not be sapindas of each other.
(D) The parties should not be suffering from epilepsy.

Question 53: Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for the following:
i. Grounds for restitution of conjugal rights
ii. Grounds for judicial separation
iii. Grounds for divorce
(A) i & ii
(B) ii & iii
(C) iii & i
(D) Only iii

Question 54: What is the meaning of the batil marriage in Muslim Law?
(A) Valid marriage
(B) Void marriage
(C) Voidable marriage
(D) Irregular marriage

Question 55: What is ‘a contract of marriage which may be dissolved by the wife under
a power delegated to her’ called under the Muslim Law?
(A) Talaq-us-sunnat
(B) Talaq-ul-biddat
(C) Talaq-i-tafweez
(D) Talaq-a-hasan

Question 56: A Hindu boy and a Hindu girl may be married under the following law:
i. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
ii. The Special Marriage Act, 1954
(A) Only i is correct.
(B) Only ii is correct.
(C) Both i and ii are correct.
(D) Neither i nor ii is correct.

Question 57: Through which of the following Amendment Act the rights in the coparce-
nary property is made available to a girl child as well?
(A) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2002
(B) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2004
(C) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
(D) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2006

Question 58: What should be the age difference between the adoptive father and his

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adopted daughter for a valid adoption?
(A) 15 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 21 years
(D) No specific age difference required.

Question 59: Which of the following case may be considered as the first reported case of
PIL in India?
(A) S.P. Gupta v Union of India
(B) Hussainara Khatoon v State of Bihar
(C) M.C. Mehta v Union of India
(D) Kalyaneshwari v Union of India

Question 60: Who among the following is considered as the father of PIL in India?
(A) Justice S.R. Das
(B) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
(C) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(D) Justice H.R. Khanna

Question 61: Against which of the following a PIL cannot be filed?

(A) Against a State Government
(B) Against Central Government
(C) Against a private party
(D) Against Municipal Corporation

Question 62: In the light of the guidelines issued by the Supreme Court of India on which
of the following issue a PIL cannot be entertained by the Court?
(A) Bonded labour matters.
(B) Petition from jail for pre-mature release.
(C) Matters pertaining to neglected children.
(D) Petitions against police for refusing to register a case.

Question 63: In which of the following landmark case it was held that Principles of Nat-
ural Justice were applicable not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions, but also to
administrative functions?
(A) A.K. Kraipak v Union of India
(B) Ram Jawaya Kapoor v State of Punjab
(C) Sonik Industries Rajkot v Municipal Corporation, Rajkot
(D) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India

Question 64: In which of the following judgment did the Supreme Court comprehen-

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sively reconsider S.P. Sampath Kumar v Union of India case?
(A) J.B. Chopra v Union of India
(B) L. Chandra Kumar v Union of India
(C) R.K. Jain v Union of India
(D) S.K. Sarkar v Vinay Chandra Mishra

Question 65: Who among the following defined administrative law as ‘the law relating
to the control of governmental power’?
(A) Ivor Jennings
(B) Wade
(C) K.C. Davis
(D) Garner

Question 66: What penalty is prescribed for persons illegally practising in courts under
the Advocate Act, 1961?
(A) Imprisonment upto 3 months
(B) Imprisonment upto 6 months
(C) Imprisonment upto 9 months
(D) Imprisonment upto 12 months

Question 67: Which provision of the Advocate Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of
India to prescribe the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by
advocates?
(A) Section 42
(B) Section 42A
(C) Section 48A
(D) Section 49

Question 68: Which of the following is incorrect according to the Bar Council of India
Rules?
(A) An Advocate can plead in any matter in which he is himself pecuniarily interested.
(B) An advocate shall appear in court at all times only in the prescribed dress.
(C) An Advocate shall not stand as a surety for his client.
(D) An Advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any improper means.

Question 69: Which of the following authority acts as an appellate authority against the
order made by the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India?
(A) Chairman of the Bar Council of India
(B) Vice-chairman of the Bar Council of India
(C) High Courts
(D) Supreme Court of India

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Question 70: In which of the following situations a one person company (OPC) will
mandatorily get converted into either private or public company?
(A) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds twenty-five lakh rupees.
(B) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds fifty lakh rupees.
(C) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds seventy-five lakh rupees.
(D) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds one crore rupees.

Question 71: What is the minimum number of directors required for a public company
as per the Companies Act, 2013?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7

Question 72: In which of the following case did the Supreme Court of India explain the
Precautionary Principle in detail?
(A) Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum v Union of India
(B) A.P. Pollution Control Board v M.V. Nayudu
(C) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India
(D) M.C. Mehta v Kamal Nath

Question 73: Which of the following is a landmark case on the public trust doctrine in
Environmental Law?
(A) Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum v Union of India
(B) Olga Tellis v Bombay Municipal Corporation
(C) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v Union of India
(D) M.C. Mehta v Kamal Nath

Question 74: In which of the following cases was Section 66A of the Information Tech-
nology Act, 2000 struck down by the Supreme Court?
(A) Shreya Singhal v Union of India
(B) K.A. Abbas v Union of India
(C) Kartar Singh v State of Punjab
(D) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India

Question 75: In which of the following case an electronic record shall not be attributed
to the originator as per the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(A) Electronic record sent by the originator himself.
(B) Electronic record sent by an authorised person.
(C) Electronic record sent by an automated system programmed by him.
(D) Electronic record sent by an unauthorized person.

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Question 76: What is the maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to
maternity benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
(A) 6 weeks
(B) 8 weeks
(C) 12 weeks
(D) 26 weeks

Question 77: For what duration is a woman entitled to leave with wages for tubectomy
operation as per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks

Question 78: What should be the minimum number of workers originally employed in
any factory for having at least one canteen in the factory as per the Factories Act, 1948?
(A) 100 workers
(B) 150 workers
(C) 200 workers
(D) 250 workers

Question 79: Who among the following is not included in the definition of a workman as
per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(A) A supervisor drawing a monthly salary of |6,000.
(B) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of |8,000.
(C) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of |10,000.
(D) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of |12,000.

Question 80: Who has defined tort as ’tortious liability arises from the breach of duty
primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redress-
ible by an action for unliquidated damages’?
(A) Lindsell
(B) Pollock
(C) Salmond
(D) Winfield

Question 81: The Gloucester Grammar School case relates to which of the following im-
portant maxims?
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria sine damno
(C) Ubi jus ibi remedium
(D) Volenti non fit injuria

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Question 82: Which of the following provision of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 relates to
no fault liability?
(A) Section 140
(B) Section 151
(C) Section 162
(D) Section 128

Question 83: How many consumer rights are identified under the Consumer Protection
Act, 2019?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8

Question 84: Which of the following body constituted under the Consumer Protection
Act, 2019 is authorised to render advice on promotion and protection of consumers’
rights under the Act?
(A) Central Consumer Protection Authority.
(B) Central Consumer Protection Council
(C) State Consumer Protection Authority
(D) State Consumer Protection Council

Question 85: Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India states that no
tax can be levied or collected except by authority of law?
(A) Article 246
(B) Article 256
(C) Article 260
(D) Article 265

Question 86: Which of the following would be the first previous year in case of a business
or profession newly set up on 31st March, 2020 as per the Income Tax Act, 1961?
(A) Start from 1st April, 2019 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
(B) Start from 31st March, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
(C) Start from 1st April, 2020 and will end on 31st December, 2020.
(D) Start from 1st January, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.

Question 87: As per the Income Tax Act, 1961, a person is said to be resident of India in
any previous year if he had been in India for a period of the following number of days in
the previous year:
(A) 180 days

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(B) 182 days
(C) 184 days
(D) 186 days

Question 88: Income is defined under which of the following provision of the Income
Tax Act, 1961?
(A) Section 2(31)
(B) Section 2(24)
(C) Section 2(9)
(D) Section 3

Question 89: Which of the following is not a fraud as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(A) A promise made without intention of performing it.
(B) An active concealment of fact by one having knowledge of the fact.
(C) Mere silence if not duty bound to speak.
(D) Any act or omission law specifically declares to be fraudulent.

Question 90: Which of the following statement is correct if A, intending to deceive B,

falsely represents that five hundred maunds of indigo are made annually at A’s factory,
and thereby induces B to buy the factory?
(A) Contract is void ab initio.
(B) Contract is voidable at the option of A.
(C) Contract is voidable at the option of B.
(D) Contract is voidable at the option of A & B.

Question 91: Which of the following injunction can be granted only by the decree made
at hearing and upon the merit of the suit?
(A) Temporary injunction
(B) Perpetual injunction
(C) Mandatory injunction
(D) Prohibitory injunction

Question 92: A stipulation in a bond for payment of compound interest on failure to pay
simple interest at the same rate as was payable upon the principal is not a penalty within
the meaning of which of the following provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(A) Section 73
(B) Section 74
(C) Section 75
(D) Section 76

Question 93: What is the default interest payable under Section 63A of the Transfer of

16
Property Act, 1882?
(A) 6% per annum
(B) 8% per annum
(C) 9% per annum
(D) No default rate prescribed.

Question 94: Which of the following is the time limit given under Section 17 of the Trans-
fer of Property Act, 1882?
(A) Life of the transferee
(B) A period of 18 years from the date of transfer.
(C) Either (A) or (B) whichever is longer
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Question 95: Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per the Negotiable
Instruments Act, 1881?
(A) Promissory note
(B) Hundi
(C) Bill of exchange
(D) Cheque

Question 96: In the light of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, at what rate interest will
be charged if the rate of interest is not mentioned on the negotiable instruments?
(A) 6% per annum
(B) 10% per annum
(C) 18% per annum
(D) 20% per annum

Question 97: Within what period from the date of publication of the declaration, if no
award is made, the entire proceedings for the acquisition of land shall lapse as per the
Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and
Resettlement Act, 2013?
(A) 6 months
(B) 12 months
(C) 18 months
(D) 24 months

Question 98: What is the minimum percentage of affected families that need to give
their prior consent for acquiring land for private companies as per the Right To Fair
Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement
Act, 2013?
(A) 75%
(B) 80%

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(C) 90%
(D) 100%

Question 99: Imagine an IPL team sets up a company to sell its own range of clothes.
What type of intellectual property can the team use to show that the clothes are made
by them?
(A) Patents
(B) Geographical Indications
(C) Trademarks
(D) Registered designs

Question 100: How long do patents usually last for?

(A) 10 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 50 years

18
 AIBE-XVIII
COMMOM FOR ALL LANGUAGES
Set Code-A
Set Code-A Answer Key Set Code-A Answer Key
1 B 51 C
2 A 52 D
3 D 53 B
4 A 54 B
5 C 55 C
6 C 56 C
7 C 57 C
8 A 58 C
9 D 59 B
10 A 60 C
11 C 61 C
12 C 62 B
13 D 63 A
14 C 64 B
15 A 65 B
16 B 66 B
17 D 67 D
18 B 68 A
19 C 69 D
20 A 70 B
21 B 71 B
22 A 72 A
23 C 73 D
24 A 74 A
25 C 75 D
26 D 76 D
27 D 77 A
28 C 78 D
29 A 79 D
30 A 80 D
31 B 81 A
32 C 82 A
33 C 83 C
34 B 84 B
35 B 85 D
36 C 86 B
37 B 87 B
38 D 88 B
39 D 89 C
40 B 90 C
41 C 91 B
42 D 92 B
43 B 93 C
44 A 94 B
45 B 95 B
46 A 96 C
47 D 97 B
48 B 98 B
49 A 99 C
50 C 100 B

MM_27.01.2023
 AIBE-XVIII
COMMOM FOR ALL LANGUAGES
Set Code-B
Set Code-B Answer Key Set Code-B Answer Key
1 C 51 D
2 A 52 A
3 C 53 D
4 D 54 D
5 D 55 A
6 C 56 D
7 A 57 D
8 A 58 D
9 B 59 A
10 C 60 A
11 C 61 C
12 B 62 B
13 B 63 D
14 C 64 B
15 B 65 B
16 D 66 B
17 D 67 C
18 B 68 C
19 C 69 B
20 D 70 B
21 B 71 C
22 A 72 B
23 B 73 B
24 A 74 C
25 D 75 B
26 B 76 B
27 A 77 C
28 C 78 B
29 C 79 B
30 D 80 A
31 B 81 D
32 B 82 A
33 C 83 C
34 C 84 C
35 C 85 C
36 C 86 A
37 B 87 D
38 C 88 A
39 C 89 C
40 B 90 C
41 A 91 D
42 B 92 C
43 B 93 A
44 B 94 B
45 D 95 D
46 A 96 B
47 D 97 C
48 B 98 A
49 B 99 B
50 A 100 A

MM_27.01.2023
 AIBE-XVIII
COMMOM FOR ALL LANGUAGES
Set Code-C
Set Code-C Answer Key Set Code-C Answer Key
1 A 51 C
2 C 52 B
3 C 53 B
4 D 54 A
5 B 55 D
6 B 56 A
7 C 57 C
8 C 58 C
9 C 59 C
10 C 60 A
11 B 61 D
12 C 62 A
13 C 63 C
14 B 64 C
15 A 65 D
16 B 66 C
17 B 67 A
18 B 68 B
19 D 69 D
20 A 70 B
21 D 71 C
22 B 72 A
23 B 73 B
24 A 74 A
25 D 75 C
26 A 76 A
27 D 77 C
28 D 78 D
29 A 79 D
30 D 80 C
31 D 81 A
32 D 82 A
33 A 83 B
34 A 84 C
35 C 85 C
36 B 86 B
37 D 87 B
38 B 88 C
39 B 89 B
40 B 90 D
41 C 91 D
42 C 92 B
43 B 93 C
44 B 94 D
45 C 95 B
46 B 96 A
47 B 97 B
48 C 98 A
49 B 99 D
50 B 100 B

MM_27.01.2023
 AIBE-XVIII
COMMOM FOR ALL LANGUAGES
Set Code-D
Set Code-D Answer Key Set Code-D Answer Key
1 A 51 D
2 D 52 C
3 D 53 A
4 D 54 A
5 A 55 B
6 A 56 C
7 C 57 C
8 B 58 B
9 D 59 B
10 B 60 C
11 B 61 B
12 B 62 D
13 C 63 D
14 C 64 B
15 B 65 C
16 B 66 D
17 C 67 B
18 B 68 A
19 B 69 B
20 C 70 A
21 B 71 D
22 B 72 B
23 C 73 A
24 B 74 C
25 B 75 C
26 A 76 D
27 D 77 B
28 A 78 B
29 C 79 C
30 C 80 C
31 C 81 C
32 A 82 C
33 D 83 B
34 A 84 C
35 C 85 C
36 C 86 B
37 D 87 A
38 C 88 B
39 A 89 B
40 B 90 B
41 D 91 D
42 B 92 A
43 C 93 D
44 A 94 B
45 B 95 B
46 A 96 A
47 C 97 D
48 A 98 A
49 C 99 D
50 D 100 D

MM_27.01.2023