Rajasthan Judicial Service Preliminary Exam 2011: Maansarovar Law Centre Class Notes
Rajasthan Judicial Service Preliminary Exam 2011: Maansarovar Law Centre Class Notes
Rajasthan Judicial Service Preliminary Exam 2011: Maansarovar Law Centre Class Notes
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(d) Cannot be held liable because instigation was not given on Indian territory.
6. Offence under Chapter IV of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
Act, 1985 are cognizable:
(a) But bailable
(b) As well as non-cognizable
(c) And compoundable
(d) And not bailable.
7. The establishment of a Sessions Court as a special court to try offences under
the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
requires concurrence of:
(a) State government
(b) Chief justice of the concerned High Court
(c) District Judge of the concerned area
(d) Advocate General of the State.
8. Any person aggrieved by the order made by the competent authority under
the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000 can appeal to:
(a) The Sessions Court
(b) The High Court
(c) Home Minister
(d) Chief Justice Magistrate.
9. Which one of the following is not a condition precedent to the release of an
offender on probation under Section 4, Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?
(a) Circumstances of the case
(b) Nature of the offence
(c) Character of the offender
(d) Amount of damage caused by the offender.
10. Which one of the following is not theft of electricity?
(a) Using electricity through a tampered meter
(b) Tapping off any connection with underground cables
(c) Using electricity for the purpose other than the authorised
(d) Using electricity as per the licence.
11. Which one of the following Act, 2000 applies also to an offence committed
outside of India?
(a) When the accused is an Indian national only
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32. A caveat under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 may be lodged when any:
(a) Suit is instituted
(b) Proceeding is initiated or instituted
(c) Suit is about to be instituted
(d) Suit or proceeding is instituted or about to be instituted.
33. 'A' and 'B', two members of a three of the debt due from 'X' to the firm, but
their firm is not registered on the date of the institution of the suit. The suit:
(a) Is maintainable with leave of the court
(b) Is maintainable with the concurrence of 'X'
(c) Is liable to be rejected in view of section 69, Partnership Act
(d) Will become maintainable after the original defect is cured by subsequent
registration.
34. Which one of the following contracts is specifically enforceable?
(a) 'A', an author, contracts with a publisher, to complete a literary work
(b) 'A' contracts to sell and 'B' contracts to buy a residential building
(c) 'A' contracts to marry 'B'
(d) 'A' contract by a guardian to purchase immovable property on behalf of a minor.
35. Crossword competition is:
(a) Wagering agreement
(b) Contingent contract
(c) Illegal agreement
(d) Valid agreement.
36. An advertisement of auction is:
(a) Proposal
(b) Mere statement
(c) Invitation to offer
(d) Standing offer.
37. In which one of the following, consideration is not required?
(a) Contract of insurance
(b) Contract of bailment
(c) Contract of guarantee
(d) Contract of service.
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38. 'A' agrees to pay 'B' a sum of money if 'B' gets married to 'C'. 'C' marries 'D'.
In such a situation, which one of the following statements, is correct?
(a) The agreement will be effective when 'C' will divorce 'D'
(b) The performance of the agreement will be deemed impossible
(c) 'B' is bound to get married to 'C' under the agreement
(d) 'A' is bound to pay 'B' the agreed sum of money.
39. 'A' asked 'B', "I want to purchase your bike. What will be the cost"? 'B' replied
that the cost will not be less than Rs. 20,000. 'A' was interested to purchase it
for Rs. 20,000. Which one of the following statement is correct? ADE
(a) There was a proposal that was accepted
(b) There was neither a proposal nor an acceptance
(c) There was proposal but no acceptance
(d) There was a counter offer that was accepted.
40. An easement which, not being an easement of absolute necessity, comes
into existence by presumed grant or operation of law is called:
(a) Easement by prescription
(b) Easement by local custom
(c) Easement by necessity
(d) Quasi-easement.
41. Neighbour principle was propounded by Lord Atkin in:
(a) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(b) Polemis case
(c) Derry v. Peek
(d) Rylands v. Fletcher.
42. 'The rule of last opportunity' was laid down in:
(a) Thomas v. Quartermaine
(b) Davies v. Mann
(c) Smith v. Baker
(d) Fardon v. Harcourt Rivington.
43. Which one of the following is defamatory?
(a) Publishing a report of parliament for which the editor tendered an apology
(b) Publishing a report of parliamentary proceedings showing the misconduct of a
member present there
(c) Publishing a report of judicial proceeding showing statement made by a witness
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(b) Voidable
(c) Valid
(d) Unenforceable under law.
55. Under Hindu Law a mother, in the absence of her son's father, sells her
minor son's immovable property. The minor son, on attaining majority, can
challenge this transaction:
(a) On the ground of not taking permission from the court
(b) As the transaction was not done by his father
(c) As no such transaction can be done for minor son
(d) But he will be unsuccessful because the transaction is valid.
56. Which one of the following is not correct? Under Hindu Law a person can
be adopted if he is:
(a) Hindu
(b) Unmarried
(c) Above fifteen years of age
(d) Not already adopted.
57. Maina Bibi v. Choudhary Vakil Ahmed is related to:
(a) Mehr
(b) Guardianship
(c) Maintenance
(d) Wakf.
58. Which one of the following is not a ground for dissolution of a Muslim
Muslim marriage under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939?
(a) Where abouts of the husband is not known for four years
(b) Option of puberty
(c) Non-maintenance of the wife by the husband for two years
(d) Non-payment of mehr.
59. Which one of the following is not an actionable claim?
(a) Claim for arrears of rent
(b) Provident fund payable after retirement
(c) A share in partnership
(d) A secured debt.
60. Which one of the following is an exception to the rule against perpetuity?
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71. An Executive Magistrate may act even ex-parte under Section 144, Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973, if immediate prevention or speedy remedy is
desirable:
(a) To prevent obstruction, annoyance or injury to any lawfully employed person
(b) To avoid danger to human life, health or safety
(c) To avoid disturbance to public peace and tranquility, riot or affray
(d) On anyone or all off the above grounds.
72. While exercising its inherent powers under section 482, Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 the High Court cannot:
(a) Review its own Judgement
(b) Do all the mentioned things
(c) Convert itself into court of appeal when the legislature has not conferred a right
to appeal to it
(d) Grant police custody from Judicial Custody.
73. Habitual offender is one who:
(a) Habitually commits offence
(b) Habitually remains in company of habitual offenders
(c) Deals with and gives asylum to habitual offenders
(d) Commits offences mentioned in section 110 and against whom record of
commission of more than two offences is available at the time of initiation of
proceeding against him.
74. Who out to the following may investigate a cognizable case even without
the order of the Magistrate?
(a) Superintendent of Police
(b) Deputy Inspector General of Police
(c) Deputy Superintendent of Police
(d) In charge of Police Station.
75. 'A' is tried for a riot and is proved to have marched as the head of a mob.
The cries of the mob are relevant as:
(a) They are related to things said or done by the conspirators in reference to the
common design
(b) Explanation of the nature of the transaction
(c) Explanatory of motive or preparation
(d) Explanatory of occasion, cause or effects or facts.
76. The expression 'Police Custody' means and includes:
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(c) Cheating
(d) Mischief.
82. A hangman who hangs a prisoner pursuant to an order of a court is exempt
from criminal liability under the Indian Penal Code under:
(a) Section 75
(b) Section 77
(c) Section 78
(d) Section 79.
83. 'A' knows that 'B' is suffering from a heart disease and also that if a blow is
given to 'B' on his chest it is likely to cause his death. Knowing this, 'A' gives
blow on 'B's' chest causing 'B's' death. 'A' is guilty of:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) Grievous hurt
(d) Causing death by rash or negligent act.
84. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Every culpable homicide is murder
(b) Death caused by negligent act is murder
(c) Every murder is culpable homicide
(d) Death caused in course of quarrel is murder.
85. ______________ you like to stay the night?
(a) Dare
(b) Would
(c) Need
(d) Can
86. She___________ be able to drive to school.
(a) dare
(b) need
(c) can
(d) will
87. __________you pass me the salt ?
(a) Could
(b) Need
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(c) Dare
(d) Ought
88. I'm trying to phone her, but I can't_____________
(a) get up
(b) get through
(c) get on
(d) get away
89. The weather is_______ _________
(a) carrying on
(b) closing down
(c) clearing up
(d) come round
90. ____________and see me any time.
(a) Past perfect
(b) Past. Continuous
(c) Past Simple
(d) Present Simple
91. They ran past me and jumped into a car.
(a) Past Perfect
(b) Past Continuous
(c) Fast Simple
(d) Present Simple
92. I was standing outside the post office.
(a) Present Continuous
(b) Past Continuous
(c) Past Simple
(d) Past Perfect
93. Note: Select. the sentence with coordinating conjunction.
(a) He held my hand lest I should fall.
(b) He is slow but he is honest .
(c) Rama will go if Hari goes.
(d) A book is a book although there is nothing in it.
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(a) उत्कर्ष
(b) विकर्ष
(c) विरकर्ष
(d) दु र्षर्ष.
(a) वर्क्षा
(b) रज्जु
(c) साां स
(d) जलेबी.
(a) विरा
(b) ईला
(c) सविता
(d) श्री.
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(a) आ
(b) आ
(c) आछ
(d) अ.
110. 'रसोत्पवि' र्ब्द संवि से बना है वजसका वनमाशर् इन िर्ों के वमलने से हुआ है :
(a) उ + अ
(b) आ + उ
(c) ओ + उ
(d) अ + उ.
(a) विर्ा
(b) यावमिी
(c) उवमष
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(d) विभािरी.
112. 'कृप्या आिश्यक कार्शिाही करें विप्पर् के वलए अंग्रेजी में वलखा जाता है :
(a) Estimate
(b) Present
(c) Evidence
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(d) Exempt.
(b) स्थवित
(a) स्वित
(b) स्वायत्त
(c) स्वचावलत
(d) स्ववित्तपाणी.
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