ĐC CHL-2024

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ENGLISH EXAM PREPARATION

HANDOUTS
LEVEL B.1

(For internal use only)

1
Table of Contents
LISTENING ..................................................................................................................................................... 5
TEST 1 ................................................................................................................................................................................. 7
TEST 2 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 11
TEST 3 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 15
TEST 4 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 19
TEST 5 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 23
TEST 6 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 27
CLOZE TESTS .........................................................................................................................................................31
TEST 1 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 32
TEST 2 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 33
TEST 3 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 34
TEST 4 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 35
TEST 5 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 36
TEST 6 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 37
TEST 7 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 38
TEST 8 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 39
TEST 9 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 40
TEST 11 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 42
TEST 12 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 43
TEST 13 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 44
TEST 14 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 45
TEST 15 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 46
TEST 16 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 47
TEST 17 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 48
TEST 18 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 49
READING COMPREHENSION .................................................................................................................................50
TEST 1 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 51
TEST 2 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 54
TEST 3 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 56
TEST 4 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 58

2
TEST 5 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 60
TEST 6 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 62
TEST 7 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 64
TEST 8 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 66
TEST 9 ............................................................................................................................................................................... 68
TEST 10 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 70
TEST 11 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 72
TEST 12 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 74
TEST 13 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 76
TEST 14 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 78
TEST 15 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 80
TEST 16 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 82
TEST 17 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 84
TEST 18 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 86
TEST 19 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 88
TEST 20 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 90
TEST 21 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 92
TEST 22 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 94
TEST 23 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 96
TEST 24 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 98
TEST 25 ........................................................................................................................................................................... 100
WRITING............................................................................................................................................................ 102
TEST 1 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 103
TEST 2 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 106
TEST 3 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 108
TEST 4 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 110
TEST 5 ............................................................................................................................................................................. 114
SPEAKING .......................................................................................................................................................... 116
PRACTICE TEST 1 ............................................................................................................................................................ 117
Part 2 .............................................................................................................................................................................. 117
Picture 1 ......................................................................................................................................................................... 118
Parts 3 & 4 ...................................................................................................................................................................... 119
PRACTICE TEST 2 ............................................................................................................................................................ 121
Part 2 .............................................................................................................................................................................. 121

3
Picture 1 ......................................................................................................................................................................... 122
Parts 3 & 4 ...................................................................................................................................................................... 123
PRACTICE TEST 3 ............................................................................................................................................................ 125
Part 2 .............................................................................................................................................................................. 125
Picture 1 ......................................................................................................................................................................... 126
Parts 3 & 4 ...................................................................................................................................................................... 127
PRACTICE TEST 4 ............................................................................................................................................................ 129
Part 2 .............................................................................................................................................................................. 129
Picture 1 ......................................................................................................................................................................... 130
Parts 3 & 4 ...................................................................................................................................................................... 131
PRACTICE TEST 5 ............................................................................................................................................................ 133
Part 2 .............................................................................................................................................................................. 133
Picture 1 ......................................................................................................................................................................... 134
Parts 3 & 4 ...................................................................................................................................................................... 135

4
LISTENING

5
6
TEST 1
PART 1: Questions 1-7

- There are seven questions in this part.


- For each question, there are three pictures and a short recording.
- Choose the correct picture, and put a tick (ü) in the box below it.

7
3

8
7

PART 2: Questions 8-13


- You will hear part of a radio program about musical classical music
- For each question, put a tick (ü) in the correct box.

10

11

9
12

13

PART 3: Questions 14-18


- You will hear a radio programme in which young people from different parts of the country are interviewed.
- For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

Information sheet

Name: Mike Davis

Age: 13 years

Favourite subject: (14) ......................................

Favourite sport: (15) ......................................

Usual transport: (16) ......................................

On Saturday: (17) ......................................

On (18) ...................................... : Young Farmers' Group

10
TEST 2
PART 1: Questions 1-7

- There are seven questions in this part.


- For each question, there are three pictures and a short recording.
- Choose the correct picture, and put a tick (ü) in the box below it.

11
3

12
7

PART 2 : Questions 8-13


-You will hear a recorded message about an arts festival.
-For each question, put a tick (✓) in the correct box.

10

11

13
12

13

PART 3: Questions 14-18


- You will hear someone talking on the radio about a Language Study Fair.
- For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

THE LANGUAGE STUDY FAIR DETAILS:

Dates: 17th to 19th (14) ………………………


Place: National Education Centre
Fair includes: * stands with textbooks
* ………………………(15) by educational speakers
* exhibition of furniture
* demonstrations of latest (16) ………………………
Opening hours: 9.30 a.m.–5.00 p.m. Thursday and Friday
9.30 a.m.–4.00 p.m (17) ………………………
Tickets: £5
or £3 for (18) ……………………

14
TEST 3
PART 1: Questions 1-7

- There are seven questions in this part.


- For each question, there are three pictures and a short recording.
- Choose the correct picture, and put a tick (ü) in the box below it.

15
4

16
PART 2: Questions 8–13
- You will hear a radio interview with a man who works on an international camp.
- For each question, put a tick (✓) in the correct box.

10

11

12

17
13

PART 3: Questions 14–18


- You will hear a young woman who has applied for an office job talking about her jobs abroad.
- For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space

18
TEST 4
PART 1: Questions 1-7

- There are seven questions in this part.


- For each question, there are three pictures and a short recording.
- Choose the correct picture, and put a tick (ü) in the box below it.

19
3

20
PART 2: Questions 8–13
- You will hear a talk given to visitors to a fashion museum.
- For each question, put a tick (✓) in the correct box

10

11

12

21
13

PART 3: Questions 14–18

- You will hear a man talking about Tanya Perry's life.


- For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

22
TEST 5
PART 1: Questions 1-7

- There are seven questions in this part.


- For each question, there are three pictures and a short recording.
- Choose the correct picture, and put a tick (ü) in the box below it.

23
4

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PART 2: Questions 8-13
- You will hear an announcement about what's on television tomorrow.
- For each question, put a tick (✓) in the correct box.

10

11

12

25
13

PART 3 Questions 14-18


- You will hear a radio announcer talking about Plymouth Sea Life Centre.
- For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

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TEST 6
PART 1: Questions 1-7

- There are seven questions in this part.


- For each question, there are three pictures and a short recording.
- Choose the correct picture, and put a tick (ü) in the box below it.

27
4

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PART 2 Questions 8-13

- You will hear part of a local radio programme in which someone is talking about a shopping centre.
- For each question, put a tick (✓) in the correct box.

10

11

12

13

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PART 3 Questions 14-18

- You will hear five messages left on an answerphone.


- For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

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CLOZE TESTS

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TEST 1
CLOZE TEST

The invention of crisps


Potato crisps were invented by accident in 1853, by a chef called Geogre Crum. He was extremely
(1) …………............. of his cookery skills, and the expensive hotel where he worked attracted
customers who were (2) …………… to eating only the best food.
One evening, a particularly difficult-to-please guest complained about Crum’s fried potatoes.
‘They’re too thick,’ he said, ‘too soft, and have no flavour.’ He (3)....................... that they should
be replaced.
The customer’s negative (4) ……….. made Crum extremely angry, so he decided to annoy the
customer. He cut a potato into paper-thin slices, fried the pieces until they were hard, then put far
too much salt on them. ‘He’ll hate them,’ Crum thought. But the customer loved them and ordered
more.
News of this new snack travelled fast and an absolutely (5) ………………… global industry has
grown from Crum’s invention – even though his fried potatoes were actually (6) …………………..
to taste disgusting!

For each question, choose the correct answer.

1 A proud B satisfied C pleased D impressed

2 A prepared B familiar C used D known

3 A convinced B wanted C needed D demanded

4 A comments B notes C reasons D explanations

5 A big B huge C large D wide

6 A hoped B intended C attempted D tried

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TEST 2
CLOZE TEST

For each question, write the correct answer. Write one word for each gap.

Moving house
Hi Alex,

How are you? This week’s been a very busy one for me – I finally moved house! (1)………..
wasn’t until I started to pack a few days ago that I realised how much stuff I had. I really think
moving house is one of the (2) ……….. stressful things I’ve ever done! I was sad to leave my old
house – after (3) ……….. , I’d lived there my whole life so I have lots of good memories.

Anyway, I’m looking (4) ……….. to being in this new house. It’s not as big as the old one, but (5)
……….. least it’s got a great garden. I’m planning to have a small party on Saturday night. Are
you free then? Why don’t you come along (6) ……….. you are? I hope you can make it. Let me
know.

All the best,

Sam

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TEST 3
CLOZE TEST

My travel blog
This summer, I travelled to Copenhagen, the capital of Denmark, on my own. I am only 20 and to
(1) ……….. honest, I was nervous about exploring a new city alone. I decided to go on a free
walking tour the first day I was there. I hoped the tour would help me to become more familiar (2)
……….. the city.

Unfortunately, the weather wasn’t great, but the tour was still absolutely fantastic! Magnus, our
tour guide, knew all about the city’s history. We also learnt loads (3) ……….. interesting facts
about Danish culture. At the end of the tour, he gave (4) ……….. all suggestions for the best
places (5) ……….. eat and visit.

Apart from learning so much, I actually had a lot more fun on the walking tour (6) ……….. I’d
expected. It was an excellent way to experience the city, and learn about its culture and history.

For each question, write the correct answer. Write one word for each gap.

34
TEST 4
CLOZE TEST

Starting at college
Hi, my name’s Emma. Welcome to the college! I’ve been studying here for a year now. Starting at
college isn’t easy, but I’m sure you’ll soon feel at home. When I first started studying here last year,
I was (1) ……….. nervous that I couldn’t even ask anyone for help. I got lost five times on my first
day!

Remember that (2) ……….. student at the college has been new at one time, and understands
how you feel. So (3) ……….. you’re not sure where to go, just ask – we’re all happy to help!

You probably don’t know many people here. To make some friends, (4) ……….. not spend break
times with some of your new classmates in the café? Or how (5) ……….. joining one of the many
clubs we have at the college? (6) ……….. are lots to choose from.

Good luck on your new course!

For each question, write the correct answer. Write one word for each gap.

35
TEST 5
CLOZE TEST

Inventing the telephone


The telephone was invented by Alexander Graham Bell. His first career involved teaching people
how to use a system which his father had (1)………………………. to help deaf people communicate.
Because of this, Bell became more and more interested in all types of communication.

Bell wanted to (2)……………….. it possible for people to talk to each other over (3)…………….….
distances. He realised that he had to turn sound into electricity and then back to sound again. This
was a big engineering (4)…………………. .

In 1876, after several months of hard work on this problem, Bell and his assistant Thomas Watson
(5)……………………. it.

The first words ever spoken on the telephone are famous. Bell was working on their new invention
in his laboratory when he accidentally (6)…….....………. dangerous liquid on his clothes. He called
Watson and said, ‘Come here, I want to see you!’

For each question, choose the correct answer.

1 A thought B developed C done D reached

2 A create B have C get D make

3 A long B high C wide D far

4 A request B demand C challenge D method

5 A solved B answered C succeeded D found

6 A lost B kept C fell D spilt

36
TEST 6
CLOZE TEST

From: Harry

To: Oliver

Subject: Piano lessons

Hi Oliver,

Guess what? I’ve finally started piano lessons, like you! As you know, it’s something I’ve wanted to
do ever (1) ……….. I was young. Anyway, a couple of months ago I saw someone playing the
piano on TV – he was brilliant. And when I found out he’d only started playing quite recently, that
encouraged (2) ……….. to start lessons.

I’ve got a really good teacher, and I go to her house twice a week (3) ……….. lessons. She’s very
patient. Every time I make a mistake, she explains what I did wrong. Also, I couldn’t read music
when I started. It’s been hard to learn to read the notes on the page and decide which piano keys
to use at the (4) ……….. time! But when I finally play something that other people recognise, it
really makes me happy. Maybe (5) ……….. day, I’ll become even better (6) ……….. you are at
playing the piano!

For each question, write the correct answer. Write one for each gap.

37
TEST 7
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

Good walks
You’re rarely far from a good walk in Britain – (1)…………. you live in the town or the country. From
mountains in the North to gentle hills in the South, you’re (2)………… to find some wide open spaces
you will like. People (3)………… live in the city can enjoy walks (4)…….. canals and in the many
beautiful parks to be found.
Walking gives you the (5) ………….. of exercise and at the same time allows you to experience
wonderful scenery. You can also (6)…………. about local wildlife. On foot, in the countryside, you
see much more than you’d (7)…………. see from a car or on a bike.
However, if you are out and about in the countryside make sure you follow the rules. You mustn’t go
(8)………….. that’s private, you (9)…………… stay on public footpaths and (10)……….. animals in
fields!

1. A whether B while C because D although

2. A confident B sure C definite D clear

3. A who B whom C whose D which

4. A round B through C along D between

5. A help B benefit C assistance D allowance

6. A know B find C learn D look

7. A ever B never C yet D always

8. A any B anywhere C anyway D anyhow

9. A could B ought C would D should

10. A stay B avoid C keep D let

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TEST 8
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

Different sides of Egypt


When most people think of Egypt they think of ancient history, but in fact Egypt offers much more.
There are (1)……….…. many different Egypts to enjoy – it just depends (2)…………. how you’re
feeling. On some days Egypt (3)……………… a country of beautiful palaces and days spent visiting
the pyramids at Giza. On others you have a (4)…………… to find bargains in the lively markets of
Old Cairo. Egypt also (5)………..….. adventure tours including visits to the desert, and sports
including scuba diving and (6)….…………… golf and fishing. For people who just want to relax, they
can lie in the sun (7)……….. the sea, or go on a boat (8)………….… down the River Nile, watching
birds and crocodiles. In the evening they can visit fine restaurants and (9)……...…… time enjoying
the exciting night life, or going out to the opera. Whoever you are, whatever you like doing, you’ll find
something you’ll love (10)…….. Egypt.

1 A too B more C over D so

2 A in B on C from D of

3 A means B knows C understands D feels

4 A time B possibility C chance D method

5 A goes B does C provides D offers

6 A even B still C yet D however

7 A along B by C through D next

8 A tour B trip C visit D break

9 A make B find C have D spend

10 A at B for C about D with

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TEST 9
CLOZE TEST

The Cannes Film Festival


The Cannes Film Festival is the most famous film festival in the world. (1)………… a film is presented
there it is immediately famous. The festival is (2)………. where some of the film industry’s most
important business takes place and where many actors and directors (3)………… stars.
The (4)………….. began in 1939 when the French government (5)…………. to have an international
festival. They chose Cannes, (6)…………… is in southern France, because it is a sunny and
beautiful town. In fact, Cannes was (7)………… seen as a fashionable place to go. The festival was
put (8)………… until after the war and finally took place on September 20, 1946. At (9)…………… ,
the festival was mainly a tourist and a social event. However, as more and more films were
(10)………… it was seen as something much more important. Today it has become the most
important event of the year for the film industry.

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

1. A Although B Whether C If D As

2. A and B too C also D else

3. A become B turn C get D change

4. A fact B idea C opinion D view

5. A decided B thought C considered D wondered

6. A where B what C who D which

7. A yet B even C already D ever

8. A off B away C on D through

9. A least B first C once D last

10. A done B had C tried D shown

40
TEST 10
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

DOLPHINS IN WALES
I fell in love with the Welsh landscape after watching a television programme about dolphins off the west coast.
I decided to (1)……………….. a holiday there. The programme (2)…………. the best place to see them was
Cardigan Bay and the best (3)………………. was late afternoon.
The first evening I expected a long wait, (4)……………… I sat on a bench with some fish and chips.
(5)……………. other people were there and after a few minutes we heard a child’s voice cry out, ‘There!’ The
dolphins had arrived and they were playing and (6)……………. fun. It was wonderful to see them as they
(7)………………. always be – free.

I also (8)………… out that this area has beautiful beaches and fantastic castles to explore. It was the first time
I had (9)…………….. in Wales and I knew it would not be the last. I have returned (10)……………….. the same
place several times.

1. A tour B pass C spend D stay

2. A told B said C talked D spoke

3. A period B hour C part D time

4. A so B since C but D because

5. A Lots B All C Many D Much

6. A feeling B getting C enjoying D having

7. A ought B should C have D could

8. A looked B realized C found D learnt

9. A been B visited C come D gone

10. A to B for C at D on

41
TEST 11
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

Beatrice Wright, a Storyteller


Beatrice is a retired librarian and a member of The Storytellers, a group of people who (1)…………. into
schools to read with children. The Storytellers are volunteer, so they are not (2)…………… for their work.
There are now almost 3,000 storytellers of all (3)………….. across Great Britain, from young students to
people in their seventies. (4)………….. qualifications at all are needed to be a storyteller, but all storytellers
(5)………. be patient and kind.

Beatrice applied to (6)…………… a storyteller when she saw an advertisement on TV. She had never
(7)………….. of The Storytellers before. She says, ‘Many children do not have books at home and this
(8)…………… it harder for them to do well at school. They are delighted when they get all my attention.
People should not do this sort of work (9)……………… they really like children. I look forward to it so much
that I really (10)…………… the children during the holidays.

1. A appear B attend C visit D go

2. A charged B paid C owed D fined

3. A ages B years C times D dates

4. A None B Nothing C No D Any

5. A ought B need C must D have

6. A train B turn C work D become

7. A heard B told C informed D listened

8. A means B makes C does D gets

9. A if B though C unless D even

10. A lose B lack C leave D miss

42
TEST 12
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

THE FIRST WOMAN SCIENTIST


Hypatia was born in Alexandria, in Egypt, in 370 A.D. for many centuries she was (1)…………… only woman
scientist to have a place in the history books.
Hypatia’s father was director of Alexandria University, and he (2)………………. sure his daughter had the
best education available. This was unusual, as most women then had few (3)………… to study.
After studying in Athens and Rome, Hypatia returned to Alexandria (4)………………. she began teaching
mathematics. She soon became famous (5)……………. her knowledge of new ideas.
We have no copies of her books, (6)………………. we know that she wrote several important mathematical
works. Hypatia was also interested in technology and (7)………………. several scientific tools to help with
her work.
At the (8)…………….. many rules were afraid of science, and (9) ……………. connected with it was in
danger. One day in March 315, Hypatia (10)…………….. attacked in the street and killed.

1. A one B the C a D an

2. A could B made C said D put

3. A classes B customs C opportunities D teachers

4. A where B how C there D which

5. A from B by C for D in

6. A because B but C or D as

7. A did B experimented C invented D learnt

8. A day B period C year D time

9. A anyone B nobody C all D something

10. A was B had C has D is

43
TEST 13
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

SAMUEL PEPYS
The most famous diary in English was written by Samuel Pepys. It gives a detailed and interesting
(1)……………… of everyday life in England (2)………………. 1660 and 1669. Pepys writes about important
news stories of the time, like disease, and enemy navy (3)………….. up the River Thames and the Great Fire
of London.
He also writes about himself, even about his (4)…………….. – he often slept during church or (5)…………..
at the pretty girls. He describes his home life – a (6)…………. with his wife and how they became friends
again, his worry about her illness. As well as books, he liked music, the theatre, card (7)……………….. , and
parties with good food and (8)…………………. of fun. Pepys was a busy man who had many important
(9)………………. – he was a Member of Parliament and President of the Royal Society. He is also
(10)………………… for his work for the British Navy.

1. A description B letter C notice D story

2. A between B from C through D to

3. A driving B flying C running D sailing

4. A accidents B plans C dreamt D faults

5. A looked B prays C talked D thought

6. A conversation B discussion C quarrel D talk

7. A battles B games C matches D plays

8. A amount B plenty C much D some

9. A acts B hobbies C jobs D studies

10. A reviewed B remembered C reminded D reported

44
TEST 14
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

CARTOON FILMS
Cartoon films have very few limits. If you can draw something, you can (1)……………… it move on the cinema.
The use (2)……………….. new ideas and advanced computer programs means that cartoons are becoming
exciting again for people (3)………………. ages.
By the (4)…………….. of the 1970s, the cinema world had decided that cartoons were only for children.
But soon (5)………………., one or two directors had some original new ideas. They proved that it was
possible to make films in which both adults and children could (6)…………… the fun.
However, not (7)……………. cartoon film was successful. The Black Cauldron, for example, failed,
mainly because it was too (8)……………. for children and too childish for adults. Directors learnt from this
(9)……………, and the film companies began to make large (10)……………. of money again.

1. A get B cause C wish D make

2. A for B of C with D by

3. A more B other C all D these

4. A end B finish C departure D back

5. A afterwards B later C next D then

6. A divide B add C mix D share

7. A every B both C any D each

8. A nervous B fearful C afraid D frightening

9. A damage B crime C mistake D fault

10. A amounts B accounts C numbers D totals

45
TEST 15
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

NEW OPPORTUNITIES WITH AN OPEN UNIVERSITY DEGREE


Like any other university, the Open University can give you a degree. However, you don’t have to
(1)……………….. working to study. It can also open up a whole variety (2)……………. interests.
If you have (3)………….. studied before, you will enjoy the special, new pleasure of (4)……………. Your
knowledge. You will make friends of (5)……………….. kinds.
You may also (6)……………. that your qualification provides new career opportunities.
You don’t actually (7)………………… to the Open University for lectures, but study at home, using television,
radio and computer software. You can (8)……………… one class a month of you wish at on Open University
centre. Of course, there are exams to takes, as in (9)…………… university.
If you (10)……………….. like to know more, all you have to do is complete the form below. It could be the
start of a wonderful new period in your life.

1. A stop B end C break D leave

2. A from B of C in D for

3. A ever B never C often D always

4. A growing B changing C adding D increasing

5. A all B each C both D every

6. A suggest B find C wish D want

7. A join B enter C arrive D go

8. A give B attend C learn D study

9. A any B some C many D most

10. A did B will C would D can

46
TEST 16
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

LITTLE CAT, LITTLE CAT, WHERE HAVE YOU BEEN?


When Bo the cat decided to explore a furniture van, she had a bigger adventure than she expected. She was
discovered (1)…………….. the driver, after he had completed a (2)…………….. of over 500 kilometres. It
was (3)……………… end of long day. The driver and the cat were both hungry! He gave her some milk and
started making enquiries. He telephoned his last (4)……….. but they had not lost a cat. It was getting late, so
he took Bo home for the night and (5)…………. morning delivered her to an animal hospital.

The cat’s owner (6)…………… done some detective work too. After (7)………….. everywhere for the
cat, he suddenly remembered the furniture van (8)……………. had made a delivery to neighbour.
Fortunately, he (9)…………… the name of the company. He called their office and in a short time Bo was
(10)………….. safely.

1. A of B from C at D by

2. A trip B visit C tour D travel

3. A an B some C the D any

4. A shoppers B buyers C callers D customers

5. A next B following C tomorrow D others

6. A has B is C had D was

7. A seeing B searching C watching D spying

8. A what B this C it D which

9. A called B remembered C saw D reminded

10. A given B brought C returned D taken

47
TEST 17
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

MONEY
What is money? The pound, the dollar or the euro are actually just like a gram or a kilometre. The difference
is that you can exchange money for something (1)…………….. . A ten pound note may buy a book, a huge
bag of sweets, or a (2)…………….. of cinema tickets. But the note itself is only a printed (3)………………. of
paper which costs almost nothing to make. Thousands of years (4)…………….., people didn’t have money
as we know (5)……………… . There were no banks (6)……………….. even shops. In those days, Mr Green
the farmer exchanged the corn he (7)……………… grown for Mr. Hive’s honey. This was an exchange
arranged between two (8)………….., each of whom had something that the other wanted. But in time, most
societies invented their own ‘currencies’ (9)…………….. that people could exchange more. The different
currencies began to join together, which is why (10)…………….. everyone uses the same currency in their
country.

1. A other B else C another D apart

2. A couple B double C few D several

3. A slice B part C side D piece

4. A since B past C before D ago

5. A them B it C some D that

6. A or B neither C and D but

7. A did B was C had D has

8. A jobs B people C things D goods

9. A for B by C because D so

10. A tomorrow B today C recently D soon

48
TEST 18
CLOZE TEST

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space.

CAMPING
Although some groups of people have always lived outdoors in tents, camping as we know it today only
began to be (1)…………….. about 50 years ago. The increase in the use of cars and improvement in
camping (2)………………. have allowed more people to travel longer (3)…………………. into the countryside
and to stay there in greater comfort.

Many campers like to be (4)………………… themselves in quiet areas, so they (5)……………… their tent
and food and walk or cycle into the forests or the mountains. Others, preferring to be near people, drive to a
public or privately-owned campsite (6)………………… has up-to date facilities, (7)………………….. hot
showers and swimming pools.

Whether campers are (8)……………… in the mountains or on a busy site, they should remember to
(9)…………………. the area clean and tidy. In the forest, they must put out any fires and keep food hidden to
avoid attracting (10)………………. animals.

1. A famous B popular C favourite D current

2. A tools B baggage C equipment D property

3. A ways B directions C voyages D distances

4. A on B by C at D of

5. A take B make C pick D do

6. A where B who C which D when

7. A such B like C as D just

8. A lonely B single C separate D alone

9. A remain B stay C leave D let

10. A wild B natural C loose D free

49
READING
COMPREHENSION

50
TEST 1
READING COMPREHENSION

51
For each question, choose the correct answer.

Basketball player
Luka Horvat writes about his early career
My dad was a professional basketball player in Germany, as his father had been before him, and I
went to watch many of his games when I was a kid. You might think that seeing so many matches
would give me a love of the sport, but it actually had the opposite effect. I loved telling my friends
how good my dad was, of course, especially when he won a game, but I used to take a book with
me to read instead of watching.

Starting secondary school, I was still two years away from being a teenager but was already two
metres tall. Seeing my height, my sports teacher asked if I’d be interested in training with the
basketball team. Even though I enjoyed the session, I thought I’d need to develop my skills before I
took part in a real match, but the teacher had more confidence in me than I did. It took me a while to
agree, but a few weeks later I found myself playing against a team from another school. Mum and
Dad coming to watch didn’t really help – it made me more nervous. But it was OK in the end!

For the next four years, I practised every day and did really well, even joining an adult team before I
moved abroad to a special sports academy in the USA when I was fifteen. The coach there trains
Olympic basketball players, and it was fantastic to work with him. However, I can’t say I enjoyed my
first experience of living far from my parents. At home, I’d never been able to spend much time with
my friends due to all the training, so that wasn’t such a change for me. I got used to everything about
my new life in the end, though, and my English improved quickly too!

I turned professional at the age of eighteen, three years after arriving in the USA. I’d been taller than
most players in the professional league since I was fifteen, but had been much too light for my height,
so had to get that right first. My coach already knew a team that would take me while I was still at
college, so I joined them and have never regretted it.

52
1 What does Luka say about his childhood?
A He had a great interest in basketball.
B He enjoyed watching his father play basketball.
C He felt proud of his father’s success at basketball.
D He knew he wanted to become a basketball player.

2 How did Luka feel before his first match at secondary school?
A He wasn’t sure that he would do well.
B He was pleased that his parents would be there.
C He wasn’t happy about his teacher’s attitude.
D He was delighted to be part of the team.

3 Luka thinks the most difficult thing about moving to the USA was
A learning a new language.
B being away from his family
C getting a good coach.
D missing his friends.

4 What did Luka have to do before he became a professional player?


A complete his studies.
B find a suitable team.
C reach a certain height.
D put in weight.

5 What would be a good way to introduce this article?

A Luka Horvat has always been as B Luka Horvat tells us how he


interested in reading as in became the latest member of a
basketball. Here, in his own words, sporting family to become a
he explains why. professional basketball player.

C Professional basketball player Luka D Even though he only started playing


Horvat explains how luck has been basketball as a teenager, Luka
so much more important than hard Horvat still managed to become a
work in his career. professional by the age of eighteen.

53
TEST 2
READING COMPREHENSION

For each question, choose the correct answer.

Ana Ronson
Singer-songwriter
Singer-songwriter Ana Ronson grew up in Ireland. Although her parents weren’t musicians, there
was always music in the house. Her grandfather played the guitar, and taught Ana and her brother
to play.

The first time Ana tried singing in front of an audience was at school – she was so nervous that her
teacher had to lead her off the stage. This teacher suggested that joining the school theatre club
might take her more confident. After attending the club for a while, she happily sang with 50 other
students at an end-of-term concert.

A year later, her brother, who was in a band, asked her to write a song for them, and so she wrote
her first ever song, Falling Stars. Writing it took just three days and she enjoyed it so much that she
enrolled on a songwriting course run by a professional songwriter. Despite being the youngest
student, she already knew more about music than many of the others. But Ana says the teacher
didn’t listen to anything she said, and she wrote Something to Say about how annoyed this made
her feel.

She posted this song online, and it became a huge success. She was delighted when people left
comments saying that they loved it and found new meanings in the words each time they heard
them. Joss Alton, the owner of a recording company called Isotope Music, flew from his office on the
other side of Ireland to ask her to join Isotope. At first she wasn’t sure; she didn’t know anything
about the company, and didn’t want someone telling her what to sing. However, Joss persuaded her
this wouldn’t happen, and a short time later she performed at a concert in Dublin arranged by Isotope.
They sold all the tickets very quickly and it was an amazing evening.

Ana says she’s less interested in writing songs about when life’s good; when it’s not, there’s more
for her to say. One of her favourite songs is Decision, written about why her brother stopped singing
for a while, and how unhappy it made him. While she hopes that fans will like her songs, her aim is
to write about personal experiences that matter to her.
54
1 What help Ana stop being scared of singing to an audience?
A practising her singing with a band.
B asking a teacher to stand on stage with her.
C being in a drama group at school.
D making sure she was not in the front row.

2 How was the songwriting course useful for Ana?


A She was able to meet some well-known singers.
B The teacher’s attitude gave her an idea for a song
C She learnt a lot from other writers on the course.
D The teacher gave her advice about the music business.

3 Ana decided to work with Joss Alton because

A he promised to let her choose which songs to sing


B he offered to help her put on a concert.
C she liked some other singers that he worked with.
D he owned a company in her hometown.

4 Ana most enjoys writing songs that

A she is sure her fans will like.


B deal with difficult times.
C her brother can sing with his band.
D help people remember their own experiences.

5 What would Ana write to fans in her blog?


Listening to my parents playing Writing songs just gets easier with
A B
music on their instruments really practice. Nowadays it only takes a
encouraged me to become a singer week or so – it wasn’t like that
myself. when I started!

C I loved playing the concert in D I read what people write about me


Dublin. I hope that next time we’ll online – it means a lot to me that
sell all the tickets – it was a shame they like listening carefully to my
to have some empty seats! songs.

55
TEST 3
READING COMPREHENSION

For each question, choose the correct answer.

My Canadian trip
by Louise Walton
Last year I went on an amazing trip – travelling by boat on a guided group tour along the west coast
of Canada. It was my brother Harry’s idea. He’s a journalist, like me, and he wanted to write articles
about the trip. He’s also a great fan of boats, although that’s one interest we definitely don’t share.
But I’d dreamt of visiting the area ever since seeing it on TV as a child, especially as I knew it was
where our great-grandparents had lived before moving to Europe. So I kept asking Harry if I could
go too – until he finally agreed!

A few weeks before we left home, there were storms in the area we were going to. But luckily the
forecast for the time we intended to be there was for calm seas. Although there was plenty to arrange,
I was busy at work so didn’t have much time to think about what needed doing. But Harry promised
he’d taken care of everything, so I knew everything would be all right.

After arriving in Canada, we joined the group, packed our limited supplies into small boats and set
off. The guide had mentioned that very few people now lived along that coast, and sure enough, the
only other living creatures we saw for the first days were dolphins and birds. We knew there were
islands in the distance, but the early-morning fog made it hard to see very far, so I just focused on
the beautiful patterns our boat made in the water.

We often stopped for hours to explore the rock pools on the beaches. They were full of amazing
coloured fish, many of which I didn’t recognise. And it was great to be able to stop caring about how
quickly or slowly the day was passing. We never forgot lunch or dinner, thought, which we all made
together over camp fires. When we finally fell asleep on the boats each evening, even though the
beds were hard, it really felt like stress-free living!

When the time came to leave, I was sad. How could I return to normal life again? But I knew if I
stayed, I’d miss family and friends. I was also looking forward to telling everyone at home about our
adventures!

56
1 Why was Louise keen to go on the trip to Canada?
A She liked the idea of spending time in a boat.
B She know her brother wanted her to accompany him.
C She had wanted to travel there for a long time.
D She had heard from some relatives who lived there.

2 Just before their departure, Louise


A began to wonder how they would deal with bad weather.
B was confident that they were fully prepared for the trip.
C wished she could help her brother more.
D felt she was better organised than usual

3 On the first morning of the trip, Louise says she admired

A the way the sea around them looked.


B the wildlife which their boats attracted.
C the homes that people had built in the area.
D the views of islands they were passing.

4 During the trip, Louise enjoyed

A learning the names of the fish she saw.


B not having to cook regular meals.
C spending the nights in comfort.
D not having to worry about time.

5 What would Louise write in her diary during the trip?

A B
There are wonderful pools along the I can’t believe I’m in the same place
coast, lead behind by the sea. I wish I saw on that programme ages ago.
we had the time to look at them Our great-grandparents would be
more carefully. amazed.
C D

We’ve brought a lot of stuff with us It’ll be hard to say goodbye to the
in the boats – I’m sure it’s not all place at the end, but I can’t wait to
necessary. It’s surprising they don’t get back to work – I’ve really
sink! missed it

57
TEST 4
READING COMPREHENSION

Read the text and questions below.


For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

Exercise can be fun!


Exercise has become a huge part of our world. There are gyms everywhere, but if you’re not keen
on them, there are hundreds of exercise videos to choose from. Exercise is good for you. It makes
you feel better, look better and can help you live longer.

But what happens if you are the kind of person who would do anything rather than spend live
minutes on an exercise bike, including cleaning the house, visiting a boring relative or watching a
terrible TV programme? If you are that kind of person, you need a plan!

First of all decide when you are going to exercise. Choose three times a week, like me. Write
EXERCISE in your diary, on your calendar, on the wall if necessary! Then make sure you do it.
Don’t do anything else. I never make other arrangements.

Next, vary what you do. I went to the same aerobics class for two years! No wonder I was bored!
Now I use different machines at the gym, I often change my jogging route and I never do aerobics

Make exercise fun and find an exercise you enjoy. Why not play a sport, or join a dance class? I
recently started a modern class. It’s great fun and I’ve met lots of a new people, but as soon as I
get bored I’ll find something else!

58
1 What is the writer’s main aim in writing the A to describe different ways of keeping fit.
text?
B to persuade people about the benefits of
exercise.
C to talk about the exercise classes she goes.
D to encourage people to take exercise.

2 What does the writer say about herself? A She prefers to exercise at home.
B She isn’t keen on joining classes.
C She likes to do different kinds of exercise.
D She doesn’t like watching TV.

3 What does the reader learn about the writer’s A She exercise three times a week.
habits?
B She often exercises with friends.
C She does the aerobics regularly.
D She runs the same route every day.

4 What does she say about her dance class? A She sometimes finds it boring.
B She may not do it forever.
C She thinks some people are unfriendly.
D She prefers doing sport.
5 What would be a good title for the article?

A B
Exercise may be boring, Many people do too much
but it’s good for you. exercise.

C D
Regular exercise is best. Exercising once a week is
better than nothing.

59
TEST 5
READING COMPREHENSION

Read the text and questions below.


For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

Night Work
Can you imagine what it would be like working at night? You’d start your day when everyone else
was going to bed, and you’d go to bed when everyone else was getting up. Is that really a natural
way to live?

These days more and more jobs need to be done at night. Most big hotels offer 24-hour room
service, and need staff at reception and working in the bars. Many companies have 24-hour call
centres to deal with emergency enquiries. There are 24-hour supermarkets, and of course there
are the workers for the emergency services such as fire-fighters, the police and hospital workers.

However, few people can work well at night. This is partly because we cannot easily change our
sleeping habits. Some people can manage on as little as three hours’ sleep while others need as
many as eleven hours – you’re either a ‘short sleeper’ or a ‘long sleeper’. If working at night stops
you from getting the amount of sleep you need, you will damage your health.

The best part of the day for everyone is around lunchtime and the worst point is between
2 a.m. and 4 a.m. So if you’re driving home at this time or doing something important at work,
things are far more like to go wrong!

Humans are used to sleeping at night and being awake during the day, and they’ll be never be
able to do things the other way round. The problem is that today’s 24-hour society isn’t going to
slow down which means that night-workers will remain.

60
1 What is the writer’s main aim in writing the A to describe the importance of work.
text?
B to say how working at night can be bad for you.
C to suggest how people can change their way of life.
D to encourage people to take exercise.

2 What does the writer say about night


jobs? A Many people refuse to work at night.
B It is easier than working during the day.
C It is easier to demand better working conditions.
D There is a variety of them.

3 What would the reader learn about sleep A Everybody needs the same amount.
from the text?
B It’s difficult to change your sleeping needs.
C People sleep better in the early morning.
D Many people need more than 11 hours’ sleep.

4 What does she say about the future? A Fewer people will work during the day.
B Some jobs will always be done at night.
C People will demand fewer services.
D People will work longer hours.

5 Which of the following could also be a good title for the text?

A B
A good night’s sleep can A worker that sleeps
change your life! more, works more!

C D
Society is changing but The loneliest jobs in the
our bodies are not! world!

61
TEST 6
READING COMPREHENSION

Read the text and questions below.


For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

A healthy mind
The brain is the most amazing part of our body and despite all medical research nobody really
understands everything about it. But just like our bodies, it needs to be cared for in ways that can
be quite simple. Getting a good night’s sleep, eating a balanced diet and taking deep breaths are
all important methods of looking after both your body and your brain.

Many people think their brain will slow down with age and their memory will get worse as a result.
The truth is, just like our body, you can also improve your mind. I’ve found I can improve my
memory by imaging what I need to remember. For example, if I’m going shopping and I need
bread, milk and a birthday card for my brother, I imagine a loaf of bread, a carton of milk with a
cow on the front and a birthday card with a football on it.

The same kind of method can be used with important dates. If you have a picture in your mind of a
particular event it’s much easier to remember than just a member on a calendar.

Another way of improving your mind is to make sure you regularly visit new places and have new
experiences. Personally I find learning Spanish is a great way to keep the brain working, but
communication in any language is important. Having a conversation is so much better for your
brain than staring at a computer screen or at other people talking on TV.

62
1 What is the writer’s main aim in writing the A to explain how the brain works.
text?
B to talk about problems with the brain.
C to describe how clever she has become.
D to suggest the brain needs attention.

2 What does the reader learn about the A She has a computer.
writer from the text?
B She is learning another language.
C She likes shopping.
D She enjoys travelling.

3 What would the writer say about the brain? A It should be treated in a similar way to our
bodies.
B Not enough medical research is being done on it.
C It definitely becomes less quick when we are
older
D It ages faster than our bodies
4 What does the writer say about her own A It has been possible to make it better.
memory?
B She finds objects more difficult to remember than
numbers.
C It has got worse over the years.
D She often forgets birthdays

5 What would be another title for the text?

A Easy ways to develop you B The latest research into


mind. the brain.
C D
The amazing power of How to remember things
memory. you thought you’d
forgotten.

63
TEST 7
READING COMPREHENSION

Read the text and questions below.


For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

Learn Indian Dancing


I’ve always wanted to learn how to dance. When I was younger, I loved going to discos and I used
to spend hours practising my moves in front of the mirror! I think I was quite good, but as I got
older, I became less confident.

Recently I decided I’d join a dance class. The problem with most dance classes is that you need a
partner, and none of my male friends ever wanted to come with me. I was beginning to give up on
the idea when I came across a magazine article about Indian dancing. It sounded great and best of
all I could do it on my own! So, I found a class on the internet and booked myself onto a course.

I turned up for our first lesson feeling very nervous. I needn’t have worried though because
everyone was really friendly. We were all female, the youngest was about eighteen and the oldest
was forty something.

Our teacher came in looking fantastic in her traditional dance clothes and we soon all caught her
energy and enthusiasm. She put on the music immediately which was a combination of western
pop songs set to an Indian beat, and we started following her moves. Any nervousness soon
disappeared because the moves are so complicated. There’s no time to worry about whether
you’re doing them right!

I’ve noticed a lot of changes about myself since I started dancing. I’m much fitter and I feel more
confident. I’ve also made some great friends at the class. If you’re interested in dancing, or you just
want to feel fitter, I’d recommend Indian dance!

64
1 What is the writer’s main purpose in writing A to describe her childhood.
the text?
B to say how she began her hobby.
C to explain why she likes dancing.
D to talk about the people she has met.

2 What would a reader learn about the A She is good at Indian dancing.
writer from the text?
B She enjoys dancing.
C She likes listening to pop music.
D She’s interested in keeping fit.

3 What does the writer say about herself? A She hasn’t always been confident.
B She doesn’t enjoy doing new things.
C She likes meeting people.
D She was a very nervous child.

4 What would the writer say about the first A Everybody was keen to dance.
dance class? B Nobody spoke to each other at first.
C Everybody admired the teacher.
D A lot of time was spent discussing the moves.

5 Which advert do you think the writer found on


the internet?

A B
Learn how to dance! No Have you always wanted to learn
experience necessary! No need to how to dance? We teach you
bring a partner! We’ll match you simple steps from Latin American
with somebody when you arrive! to Indian dancing.
C D

If you’re interested in dance why Are you bored with doing the same
not learn art of Indian dancing! old thing? Persuade your partner to
Friendly classes! Excellent join a dance class! Have fun and
teacher! Everybody welcome! keep fit at the same time!

65
TEST 8
READING COMPREHENSION

Read the text and questions below.


For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

Are you shopping too much?


Shopping used to be my favourite activity. It started when I was a teenager and I worked in a
clothes shop. I had a staff discount in the shop and I used to spend all my wages on clothes. When
I got a job in an office I carried on spending all my spare money on clothes – even after I had got
married, bought a house and had children!

I used to go shopping every weekend and probably spent about £500 a month on clothes. It wasn’t
something I only did when I wasn’t very happy, I always went shopping however I felt. Sometimes
I’d look for ages to find what I wanted. Other times, I’d just buy the first thing I saw.

Most of the things I didn’t need. One day I bought three pairs of boots, even though I already had
another ten pairs at home. I never even took the most expensive pair out of the box!

I realised I had a problem when one day my five-year-old daughter looked into my wardrobe and
asked me why I had so many handbags. I counted them. I had seventy-five handbags and they
must have cost me thousands of pounds. I couldn’t believe what I’d done.

First of all, I threw away my credit card. Then I gave away all the clothes that I’d never worn. After
that I made arrangements every Saturday to visit friends or go on a day trip, so I wouldn’t be able
to go shopping.

66
1 What is the writer’s main aim in writing the A to advise people how to shop sensibly.
text?
B to talk about her expensive way of living.
C to describe her addiction to shopping.
D to talk about different fashions.

2 What does the writer say about herself A She tried to stop spending so much.
after she got married?
B She managed to spend less than before.
C She continued spending unwisely.
D She became depressed about her spending.

3 What does the writer say about her past A She only bought expensive clothes.
shopping habit?
B She always thought carefully about what she
bought.
C She liked to buy something different every day.
D She sometimes bought things she already had

4 How did the writer feel when she realised A Shocked.


she had a problem?
B Embarrassed.
C Angry with herself.
D Miserable.

5 Which of the following is the best A The woman who grew up loving clothes and
description of the writer?
looked fantastic in everything she wore.
B The woman who recognise her problem but
failed to change herself.
C The woman who loved collecting clothes and
succeeded in fighting her habit.
D The woman who shopped and shopped until she
had no money left to spend.

67
TEST 9
READING COMPREHENSION

Read the text and questions below.


For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

Jim Benson, pianist and songwriter


People often ask me who I have to thank for my success as a pianist and songwriter. They expect
to hear that I was born into a musical family and had an excellent piano teacher. However, the truth
is different. When I was little, nobody played an instrument at home. I learnt to play the piano and
sing because there was a piano in my house and I just wanted to make music.

My parents allowed me to sit at the piano and sing for as long as I wanted. If they were afraid that I
would break the old piano, they never mentioned it. They didn’t suggest that I should take lessons
either. The songs just came to me when I had my hands on the piano. I suppose I had musical
talent and that is all you need.

I started writing proper songs when I was a teenager. The music was mine but the words were
from other song writers. It seemed no easy. When you start to compose, you do that, you copy
other people’s best songs. Then you start changing the melodies and the words and you develop
your own style. That only happened later, when I had grown beyond my teenage years.

For a time, I thought music would be just a hobby. My parents had developed a strong belief that I
would be able to make a living as musician, but I had my doubts, so after school I took a job in
radio advertising. Then one day one of my songs won a prize and that changed everything. I
realized my happiness was in music, I have been a musician ever since that day.

68
1 What is Jim Benson’s main purpose in writing the text?
A to suggest how children can be taught music.
B to describe his life as a successful musician.
C to explain how he became a musician.
D to complain about his lack of musical training.

2 When Jim Benson started making music on the piano, his parents
A seemed happy to let him play it.
B said the piano might get damaged.
C saw the need for a piano teacher.
D wanted him to play his own songs.

3 What does Jim Benson say about the songs he wrote as a teenager?

A They were not well-written.


B They took a long time to write.
C They were not very original.
D They showed his personal style.

4 Jim Benson took a job in advertising because

A his parents suggested it was a goof career for him.


B he thought he might not earn enough as a musician.
C he had learnt about advertising jobs at school.
D If offered him the opportunity to change his life

5 What advice would Jim Benson give talented young people?


You need somebody in your It’s OK to copy other people’s
A B
family to guide you when you songs when you are learning.
start.

C It is not a good idea to write D If you want to be successful, you


songs when you are very young. must have good music teacher.

69
TEST 10
READING COMPREHENSION

Read the text and questions below.


For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

Sarah Radford, international athlete


‘If when you hear the words ‘international athlete’, you imagine a runner in an exotic location,
enjoying life in a five-star hotel, think again, I won the Dublin Marathon and the European Games
and I now want to win a place in the Olympic Games. I also have a demanding job and a family life
to organize. My life is exciting, but I don’t live in luxury.

My route to the top was not what you might expect. I ran until I was sixteen, then went to college
and got married. At 25 I made a come-back. That year my daughter was four and although fitting in
a full-time job, family and running was not easy, I was managing it all fine. Then I had to stop when
I hurt my left knee while running. I started back again a year later, and I’m now running really well.

I am pleased that I am now performing at a high level, but I know that if I make it to the Olympic
team there will be more training to do. I may have to decide to work only part-time then, until
midday, and get somebody to help with the housework. You have to take an opportunity to
compete in the Olympics when it comes because you don’t know if it will ever come again.

For the moment, thought, training has to fit around everything else in my life. I usually run into
work, nearly eight miles along a main road, in my running shoes and tracksuit. Then I quickly
change into my work uniform – my employers are used to that! They are also understanding about
the demands of life as an athlete, which means I do not work weekends because of races.’

1 What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the text?


A To complain about her lack of time for running.
B To describe her fitness training programme.
C To show how difficult being a runner can be.
D To give advice to other female runners.

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2 Why did the writer give up running when she was 25?
A She had a child to look after.
B She suffered an injury.
C She wanted to study at college.
D She was working full-time.

3 if she joins the Olympic team, the writer is thinking of?

A Training more at weekends.


B Giving up her present job.
C Spending more time at home.
D Reducing her working hours.

4 What does the writer say about her employers?

A they allow her free time for running.


B They would like her to give up running.
C They pay for some of her equipment.
D They want her to work weekends.

5 Which of the following is the best description of the writer?

A An athlete who has not won B An excellent runner who has won a
important competitions because of number of competitions thanks to a
the pressures of family and work. lot of hard work.

C A woman who put her ambition to D A disappointed runner who would


win competitions before her duties like to have the luxuries that other
as a mother. international athletes have.

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TEST 11
READING COMPREHENSION

Read the text and questions below.


For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

SUMMER JOBS FOR STUDENTS


Employers are more and more interested in taking on students during their holiday periods. Students
can do the easier tasks and free up time for their permanent employees to concentrate on the more
demanding ones. Although there is little financial reward for students, it is a great chance to explore
their interests and add to their CVs. However, few students know what jobs may be available.

Colleges sometimes advertise summer jobs on their notice-boards and in newspapers, and there
are also well-known international organizations which can help. Students can also search the web,
find an interesting company and email the manager to ask what temporary jobs exist. This may
sound time-consuming, but students then get to work in the company of their choice, so it is what I
recommend.

As a science student, two years ago I spent two weeks in a laboratory in California, helping a group
of researchers with their work. To begin with, the job seemed uninteresting because my
responsibilities were not clear, but when I started working on a range of projects, such as writing
research papers and creating web pages, my attitude changed.

I was paid enough to cover all my daily needs, so I had no financial worries. One of my jobs was to
prepare educational material for schools. This was an entirely new challenge which I enjoyed so
much that I decided to train as a teacher rather than a researcher when I got back. My only regret
was that I’d been too busy to learn more about the USA, but then a good summer job seldom leaves
you much free time and you should be prepared for that.

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1 What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the text?
A To warn students about low-paid summer jobs.
B To describe the best summer jobs for students.
C To encourage students to look for summer jobs.
D To offer students interesting summer jobs.

2 The writer says the best way to find a good summer job is
A to ask their own colleges for help.
B to read the job advertisements in the press.
C to join an organized student programme.
D to contact possible employers directly.

3 The writer found the California job disappointing at first because?

A He was not sure what he had to do.


B He had to work on too many projects.
C He did not like the research work.
D He lacked goof computer skills.

4 In what way did the California job benefit the writer?

A It allowed him to save some money.


B It gave him contacts he could use later.
C It made him change his career plans.
D It taught him what life was like in the USA

5 Which of these could be the writer speaking?

A A summer job is a good way of B Students are often unaware of


getting to see the world. summer job opportunities.

C Employers are unwilling to offer D


Students should be better paid
summer jobs to students. for doing summer jobs.

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TEST 12
READING COMPREHENSION

Read the text and questions below.


For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

A month ago I had no idea that on a Saturday afternoon in November I’d be hanging 30 metres
above the ground and enjoying it. Now I looked down at the river far below me, and realised why
people love rock-climbing.

My friend Matt and I had arrived at the Activity Centre on Friday evening. The accommodation wasn’t
wonderful, but we had everything we needed (beds, blankets, food), and we were pleased to be out
of the city and in the fresh air.

On Saturday morning we met the other ten members of our group. Cameron had come along with
two friends, Kevin and Simon, while sisters Carole and Lynn had come with Amanda. We had come
from various places and none of us knew the area.

We know we were going to spend the weekend outdoors, but none of us was sure exactly how. Half
of us spent the morning caving while the others went rock-climbing and then we changed at
lunchtime. Matt and I want to the caves first. Climbing out was harder than going in, but after a good
deal of pushing, we were out at last – covered in mud but pleased and excited by what we’d done.

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1 What is the writer trying to do in the text?
A Advertise the Activity Centre.
B Describe some people she met.
C Explain how to do certain outdoor sports.
D Say how she spent some free time.

2 What can the reader learn from the text?


A When to depend on other people at Centre.
B How to apply for a place at the Centre.
C What sort of activities you can experience at the Centre.
D Which time of year is best to attend the Center.

3 How do you think the writer might describe her weekend?

A Interesting.
B Relaxing.
C Frightening.
D Unpleasant.

4 What do we learn about the group?

A Some of them had been there before.


B They had already chosen their preferred activities.
C Some of them already knew each other.
D They came from the same city.

5 Which of the following advertisements describes the Activity Centre?


ACTIVITY CENTRE ACTIVITY CENTRE
A B
Set in beautiful countryside. Set in beautiful countryside.
Accommodation and meals provided. Make Accommodation provided. Work with a
up your own timetable – choose from a group - we show you a range of
variety of activities (horse – riding, fishing, outdoor activities that you didn’t realise
hill-walking, sailing, mountain-biking). you could do!

C ACTIVITY CENTRE D ACTIVITY CENTRE


Set in beautiful countryside. Enjoy the Set in beautiful countryside. You can
luxury of our accommodation – each room spend the day doing outdoor activities
has its own bathroom. Work with a group, and we will find your accommodation
or have individual teaching. with a local family.

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TEST 13
READING COMPREHENSION

Read the text and questions below.


For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

Winter Driving
Winter is dangerous because it’s so difficult to know what is going to happen and accidents take
place so easily. Fog can be waiting to meet you over the top of a hill. Ice might be hiding beneath
the melting snow, waiting to send you off the road. The car coming towards you may suddenly
slide across the road.

Rule Number One for driving on icy roads is to drive smoothly. Uneven movements can make a car
suddenly very difficult to control. So every time you either turn the wheel, touch the brakes or
increase your speed, you must be as gentle and slow as possible. Imagine you are driving with a
full cup of hot coffee on the seat next to you. Drive so that you wouldn’t spill it.

Rule Number Two is to pay attention to what might happen. The more ice there is, the further down
the road you have to look. Test how long it takes to stop by gently braking. Remember that you
may be driving more quickly than you think. In general, allow double your normal stopping distance
when the road is wet, three times this distance on snow, and even more on ice. Try to stay in
control of your car at all time and you will avoid trouble.

76
1 What is the writer trying to do in the text?
A Complain about bad winter driving.
B Give information about winter weather.
C Warn people against driving in winter.
D Advise people about safe driving in winter.

2 Why would somebody read this text?


A To find out about the weather.
B For information on driving lessons.
C To learn about better driving.
D To decide when to travel.

3 What does the writer think?

A People should avoid driving in the snow.


B Drivers should expect problems in winter.
C People drive too fast in winter.
D Winter drivers should use their brakes less.

4 Why does the writer talk about a cup of coffee?

A To explain the importance of smooth movements.


B Because he thinks refreshments are important for drivers.
C Because he wants drivers to be more relaxed.
D To show how it can be spilled.

5 Which traffic sign shows the main idea of the text?

A DRIVE CAREFULLY B REDUCE SPEED NOW

ICE ON ROAD AHEAD FOG AHEAD

C D
DRIVE CAREFULLY SLOW DOWN

ROAD REPAIRS AHEAD ACCIDENT AHEAD

77
TEST 14
READING COMPREHENSION

Learn Now
Learning is for life
People who begin Learn Now soon find that learning is fun and that it doesn’t have to stop at
school or at college. It’s something you can do all your life. Over half those taking Learn Now
courses come back and study again and again.
What is Learn Now?
Learn Now is perfect for anyone who hasn’t been successful with traditional ways of learning and
wants to try something different. The courses allow you to learn just what you want to learn when
you want to learn it. You don’t have to do a long course that may include many things that you
don’t actually need. And you don’t have to take any exams!
Who is Learn Now for?
Everyone can benefit from Learn Now – from company employees who need to learn new skills
quickly, to people wanting to return to work. many business use Learn Now as part of their staff
development. Others have found that an extra skill has helped them to change their career paths
while many people use Learn Now just for their own interest.
What courses can I do?
There are 400 courses to choose from, so there is something for everyone. The most popular
courses are in computing and you can do any of these at any stage. Business courses are also
very popular and there are some excellent ‘Skills for Life’ courses that help you improve your
maths and communication skills. Remember you don’t need experience or knowledge for any of
our course.
Where do I learn with Learn Now?
You can learn by distance learning at home or at work, or you can go to one of our Learning
Centres. However, if you are very new to the world of the internet and computing, we do suggest
you come to a centre where we can guide you along in person.
How do I get start
Just call in or telephone one of our centres and we will get you started without delay. If you want to
learn at one
of our learning centres, we will ask you to come in for some training, and from then on you just book
in whenever you want to. If you want to work only at home, or at the office, we can organise
everything by telephone or
e-mail. We’ll start you off with some basic training and then keep in contact with you to make sure
you are getting the best from Learn Now. Our skilled staff are always available to help.

78
Look at the sentences below about doing courses on the interne
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

1. Most people do more than one course with Learn Now.

2. Learn Now is only for people who have done well at school.

3. With Learn Now, people study only the subjects they feel are necessary.

4. Testing is an important part of Learn Now.

5. Some companies use Learn Now for training their employees.

6. You must have some basic skills to be able to do a computing course.

7. Learn Now recommends all students learn at a centre.

8. You can begin learning as soon as you contact Learn Now.

9. Learning at a centre means attending regularly.

10. Everybody must go to a centre for training at least once.

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TEST 15
READING COMPREHENSION
Look at the sentences below about a centre that teaches music.

Music for Life


Learning music is important for the educational and personal development of young people! Learning
music is also great fun!
Learning an Instrument: how do pupils choose?
All our teacher are highly qualified and experienced musicians, and pupils can learn to play a wide range of
instruments, form the keyboard to the drums. We have open days when new pupils who are unsure which
instrument to choose can came to the centre. They are able to speak to teachers about which instrument
might be best for them, and they can also see and hear classes in action.
How are pupils taught?
Pupils can learn in small groups, in classes or individually, depending on their needs. Small groups of three
or four pupils have lessons that last for a minimum of thirty minutes. Class lessons last for a minimum of
forty-five minutes and have at least ten pupils. Individual lessons are offered only to pupils who have some
experience.
When and where do lessons take place?
Lessons are available in many schools, usually during the day. If there is no lesson available for a
particular instrument can be made at one of our music centre for lessons on Saturday afternoons or
weekday evenings.
Who is responsible for buying the instruments?
Parents usually have to provide instruments and music. But parents of beginners are advised not to buy an
instrument until they are told that a place is available. They should also find out from the teacher the most
suitable type of instrument to get.
Singing lessons: what are the benefits?
The Centre also offers singing lessons. Singing can encourage young people to develop different abilities.
It can help with communication, and for those who go to drama school, singing provides good training for
acting too. Pupils can come for an hour every week to sing and just enjoy themselves, or they can choose
to take exams and sing at concerts.
Starting young: when can pupils begin?
Children are never too young to become interested in music. We have special ‘Musical Youth” classes for
children from the age of 3½ to 8. These are designed to encourage young children to enjoy music through
a variety of activities including singing, musical games, listening and movement. ‘Musical Youth’ classes
take place on Saturday mornings with groups of about 18 children. A parent or other adult must attend
each session, and they are encouraged to sit with their child and help them with the activities.

80
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

1 Advice is offered to new pupils on special open days.

2 The maximum number of pupils learning an instrument in a small group is four.

3 Beginners can be taught their instrument on their own.

4 All lessons take place at the same school.

5 It is possible to have a lesson at the weekend.

6 Parents should buy an instrument as soon as they apply for a place.

7 Singing helps students to improve other skills.

8 Singers are expected to take exams.

9 Only eight children can attend a ‘Musical Youth’ class at the same time.

10 Parents can join in the ‘Musical Youth’ classes

81
TEST 16
READING COMPREHENSION
Look at the sentences below about a gym that has recently opened.

Fighting Fit Health Club


Membership Card
Fighting Fit is a members only club. When you first join, we give you a computerised card. This has
your name and membership number on. We also take your photo and use it for your identity card,
which takes a few days to make.
Please have your card with you every time you use the club. The card is for your use only, and there is
a small charge to provide a new one if you lose it. Members are permitted to bring guests to use the
facilities at the club. A visiting guest fee is charged for each guest.
Fitness Programmes
Your Fitness Programme includes a meeting with one of our skilled instructors. This will happen two or
three weeks after you have joined. The instructor looks at your health, your current needs and the way
you live, and organises a programme suitable for you.
Gymnasium
Our gymnasium are the most modern in the area and have high quality exercise equipment. For safety
reasons, sportswear and trainers must be worn while exercising, and please remember to take a small
towel into the gymnasium too. It is one of our rules that you wipe the equipment after use.
There is no limit to how long you spend in the gymnasium, but we ask you to respect other members by
only spending 20 minutes on each piece of equipment. There are experienced staff in the gymnasiums
at all times, who will help you with the equipment and your exercise programme, and answer your
questions. You can make a half-hour appointment to discuss your progress if you prefer.
Locker Rooms
We have large male and female locker rooms. Please ensure that your property is kept in your locker at
all times. Any belongings which are found either in a locker or anywhere else overnight will be removed
and taken to Lost Property. We cannot be responsible for any items which are lost in the club.
Café
The café offers a relaxing space where you can help yourselves to free tea, coffee and soft drinks. You
will also find cold snacks including sandwiches and a range of delicious salads at a very low cost.
Suggestion Box
Members’ suggestions, and comments – good or bad – are always welcome, and the suggestion box
an forms can be found at reception. Please include your name and your membership number together
with your comments. We try to respond within two days.

82
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

1 You are given an identity card as soon as you join the gymnasium.

2 Other people can use your membership card.

3 A programme is organised for each member on their first visit.

4 You must wear certain kinds of clothes in the gym.

5 You must take a towel into the gymnasium.

6 You can spend as long as you like on all equipment.

7 Staff are always able to answer your questions.

8 You can leave personal items at the gymnasium for 24 hours.

9 You must pay for food in the café.

10 All complaints should be made directly to the receptionist.

83
TEST 17
READING COMPREHENSION
Look at the sentences below about trips to the Great Bear Rainforest.

Explore The Great Bear Rainforest

The Great Bear Rainforest is on an island on British Columbia’s central coast, in Canada. The rainforest
is the largest remaining piece of unbroken rainforest in the world and is full of interesting plants, birds and
animals, including the Spirit Bear. It is thought that there are no more than 400 of these bears in the while
of the Great Bear Rainforest – and they don’t exist anywhere else in the world.

The Island is a fantastic place to go bear and whale watching. It is also a great place to go diving,
snorkelling and fishing. Even better, tourism is encouraged by local people and conservationists, as it
shows that money can be made from the island without changing it, and this helps to protect the
rainforest.,

One of the best times to visit the island is mid-September. This is when salmon return in great numbers
from the Pacific Ocean to the streams and rivers of British Columbia’s west coast. It is also when the
bears come out to hunt them!

Knight Inlet is a place well known for its population of grizzly bears. It is on the southern edge of the
Great Bear Rainforest. There can be up to 40 bears within a few miles during autumn when the fish are
swimming up the river. Guests who stay at Knight Inlet start their adventure with a boat ride. They then
board a small bus and travel through the northern rainforest to the river. They can go to five different
viewing platforms, in three different areas, which are specially built to provide a safe and comfortable
place to watch the bears from. It is not uncommon to see 10-15 bears on the river at a time.

Autumn isn’t the only season that grizzly bears go to the area. Starting in April, when they’re woken from
their winter sleep, both black and grizzly bears arrive to feed on the new spring growth. Even in mid-
summer, when many of the bears have moved into the forests for their food, you can see several bears
each day.

Knight Inlet offers wildlife viewing holidays ranging from one to seven nights for our spring, summer and
autumn bear viewing. All their holidays begin at Campbell River and include one night in one of the two
hotels there. This is essential because the plane journey to Knight Inlet starts very early in the morning.

84
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

1 The Great Bear Rainforest is divided into several parts.

2 Spirit Bears can only be found in the Great Bear Rainforest.

3 You can have various kinds of holiday on the island.

4 People who live in the area welcome tourists.

5 The bears appear when the fish are returning to the Pacific Ocean.

6 Knight Inlet is in the middle of the rainforest.

7 Guests at Knight Inlet travel straight to the river by boat.

8 There is a choice of places to see the bears from.

9 Tourists can watch the bears all year round.

10 All tourists must sleep more than one night at Campbell River.

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TEST 18
READING COMPREHENSION

Look at the sentences below about the island of Jura in Scotland.

THE ISLAND OF JURA

The Island of Jura is one of Scotland’s best kept secrets – a beautiful but little known island with a
population of some 200 people. The quiet life of Jura would be hard to find anywhere else, and the
inhabitants of Jura are proud of that. However, if you want an active holiday, there are many things for
you to see and do.
Climb the hills
If you enjoy walking and hill climbing, for example, then the hills of Jura, which rise to more than 800
metres, should be on your list. As these walks take about seven hours, strong walking boots are
recommended and an early start is essential for a safe return before dark.
Enjoy the wildlife
Beautiful birds, seals, golden eagles… From the moment you get off the Jura ferry at Feolin, the
chances are that you will see deer happily feeding on sea plants along the shoreline. In fact, you
would do well to have a camera with a flash within easy reach, as there will be many opportunities to
get those special once-in-a-lifetime photographs.
Visit the Ardfin Gardens
They are open all year round. Entry is through the main gate, where you will find an information board
and a box with maps and short guides to the two garden walks you can do. The beginning of both
walks will take you over a small stream. It is here that you turn left to do the longer of the two walks
along the cliff tops. The views are spectacular and on a clear day you will be able to see as far as
Northern Ireland. Back at sea level, do not forget to visit the walled garden. Here you will see native
plants mixed with plants from far-away countries.
Where to stay and shop
The island has only one large hotel. The Jura Hotel offers visitors a warm and friendly atmosphere and
an excellent menu, and their prices are what you would expect to pay in other parts of Scotland. For
those wishing to camp on Jura, the hotel field is excellent, with shower facilities at the back of the
hotel. Just opposite the hotel is ‘Jura Stores’. From the outside it looks like any other small village
shop. However, once inside you will be surprised at the selection of goods on offer – from delicious
cakes to waterproofs and sleeping bags. Steve (the owner) has built his own website, so you can
email him and have the goods you need delivered to your accommodation for your arrival.
So why not spend a few days on Kura? You will come away feeling refreshed, invigorated and
planning your next visit.

86
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

1 The people who live Jura would like to have more excitement in their lives.

2 Walkers are advised to start the climbing of a hill in the morning.

3 Visitors can expect to see wildlife as soon as they arrive in Jura.

4 Visitors should avoid the use of a flash when photographing wild animals.

5 At Ardfin gardens, a tour guide gives visitors information about walks.

6 The path for the garden walks divides in two before visitors cross the stream.

7 The walled garden has a display of plants from different parts of the world.

8 The Jura Hotel prices are higher than in other similar hotels in Scotland.

9 Visitors are unable to buy camping equipment at Jura Stores.

10 Visitors can order items from Jura Stores before they arrive on the island.

87
TEST 19
READING COMPREHENSION

Look at the sentences below about a singing group.

CITY VOICEWORKS
Based in the south of England, City Voiceworks is a singing group which has performed in the United
Kingdom and in many other countries around the world. It was started nearly 20 years ago and within
five years it had grown to around 40 singers. It has continued to grow ever since and it now attracts
members from a very wide area who enjoy singing exciting pieces in a pleasant environment. There are
no requirements or entrance exams for membership but new members are not allowed to miss practise
sessions (Mondays throughout the year except during school holidays). Some knowledge of the music
in advantage, though the ability to read music is not necessary in order to become a member. The best
time to join is at the beginning of September, but new members are welcome throughout the year.
Special Events this year
27 March: Performing music gives pleasure to everyone, but you can increase your enjoyment when you
study music and understand how it is made. In this six –hour class, singers will look at a number of
musical pieces and learn how they were created. After the class there will be a group discussion for all
participants.
28 to 31 May: Singers will have the opportunity to experience the musical and social delights of touring
once again. This annual event has proved very popular with members. Tours both in the UK and abroad
have resulted in some fine and memorable performances.
13 Junes: An open-air concert with the songs everyone knows and enjoys singing, as well as less well-
known pieces. The programme, which includes songs from the 14th century to the present day, is
designed to have something for all tastes.
Joining Details
Students must bring their college university card when they register. Members must pay the full annual
fee no later than three weeks after joining. If a particular has not paid their fees, a small extra fee may be
charged.
A fee of £12 per year is payable by all members to cover the cost of music sheets. This has to be paid
even if members have personal copies of the sheets.
Membership fees
Full membership: £80 per year (or three payment of £30 each).
Full-time Students: £68 per year (or three payments of £25 each).
Contacts
Please contact the Membership Secretary for further information, TEL. 01228 400460 or visit our
website: www.cityvoiceworks.co.uk
We would be delighted to expand on this information, provide details of our music library collection and
welcome you to sing with City Voiceworks.

88
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

1 City Voiceworks has had the same number of members for many years.

2 If you want to become a member of City Voiceworks, you have to pass a test.

3 When you first become a member, you are expected to attend all the practise sessions.

4 You can join City Voiceworks in the first days of September or whenever you want.

5 On 27 March, members will have the opportunity to create their own piece of music.

6 It may be possible to visit other countries with the singing group.

7 The open-air concert will include favourite songs and songs we are not so familiar with.

8 If you want to pay £68 a year, you have to show a document that says you are a student.

9 Everyone must pay a £12 music fee except members who own copies of the sheet music.

10 You are advised to go to the City Voiceworks website rather than phone their Secretary.

89
TEST 20
READING COMPREHENSION
Look at the sentences below about women investors.

TWO GREAT WOMAN INVESTORS


In the 19th and early 20th centuries, women had limited opportunities for a technical education and
career, and few of them had an independent income. However, the history of women inventors in
this period is very long. What sorts of women chose to become inventors under such difficult
circumstances? The personal stories of two of them will give you an idea.
The nineteenth-century inventor Margaret Knight was born in the USA in 1838. As a young girl, she was
made to work in a cotton factory by her parents. While she was working there, there was an accident
and somebody was almost killed by a machine. Margaret was only 12 at the time, but she invented a
way to fix the machine so that if there was the same fault again, straight away the machine would shut
down completely.
She had more than eighty inventions, from a machine for cutting shoes to improvements for the
steam engine. But her most important invention – a machine that produced paper bags with flat bottoms
– never made her much money. In fact, the idea for the original invention was stolen by the person who
made the model for the machine. She had to go through a long legal battle to be finally recognized as
the owner of the idea.
In those days, women were not encouraged to be business people any more than they were
encouraged to be inventors. Once Margaret Knight had produced an invention, she would usually sell it
to somebody for not much cash, and when she died in 1914, all she left was 275 dollars.
Beulah Henry also began inventing things when she was a young girl. In 1912 at age 25, she got her
first patent for an ice-cream freezer. A year later, she patented a parasol – an umbrella for the sun –
with changeable covers so that a woman could match her parasol with her clothes. Working out how to
fix the covers so that they would not fly away on windy days was difficult, but she managed to do it. In
fact, as she herself put it, ‘The biggest umbrella men in the country told me it could not be done.’ The
invention earned her about 50.000 dollars from the manufacturers.
In all, she patented 49 inventions. But for someone with such a long career, surprisingly little is known
about Beulah Henry’s personal life. She was born in the USA in 1887 and grew up in artistic family. She
entered university in 1909 and we suppose her education did not include technical or mechanical
subjects, as she was always honest about her lack of such skills
These women’s lives and achievements will always inspire future generations of inventors.

90
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

1 There were a large number of women inventors in the 19th and early 20th centuries.

2 When Margaret Knight was twelve, she told her parents she wanted to work in a factory.

3 Margaret Knight’s first invention made a machine stop when it became dangerous to use.

4 Margaret Knight won her fight to be considered the inventor of a machine to make paper bags.

5 In the 19th century, being an inventor was as difficult for a woman as being a business person.

6 Margaret Knight always had great difficulty finding a buyer for her inventions.

7 Women found that the covers of Beulah Henry’s parasol often came off in the wind.

8 Beulah Henry was encouraged to invent her parasol by large umbrella manufactures.

9 There is plenty of information about Beulah Henry’s private life.

10 Beulah Henry was prepared to admit that her technical skills were not very developed.

91
TEST 21
READING COMPREHENSION

Look at the sentences below about an English city.

Norwich
Norwich, the capital of the part of Britain known as East Anglia, has existed as a place to live for more
than two thousand years. It began as a small village beside the River Wensum. At the time of the
Norman invasion in 1066 it had grown to become one of the largest towns in England.
With two cathedrals and a mosque, Norwich has long been a popular center for various
religions. The first cathedral was built on 1095 and has recently celebrated its 900th anniversary, while
Norwich itself had a year of celebration in 1994 to mark the 800th anniversary of the city receiving a
Royal Charter. This allowed it to be called a city and to govern itself independently.
Today, in comparison with places like London or Manchester, Norwich is quite small, with a
population of around 150,000, but in the 16th century Norwich was the second city of England. It
continued to grow for the next 300 years and got richer and richer, becoming famous for having as
many churches as there are weeks in the year and as many pubs as there are days in the year.
Nowadays, there are far fewer churches and pubs, but in 1964 the University of East Anglia
was built in Norwich. With its fast-growing student population and its success as a modern
commercial centre (Norwich is the biggest centre for insurance services outside London), the city now
has a wide choice of entertainment: theaters, cinemas, nightclubs, busy café, excellent restaurants,
and a number of arts and leisure centres. There is also a football team, whose colours are green and
yellow. The team in known as ‘The Canaries’, though nobody can be sure why.
Now the city’s attractions include another important development, a modern shopping centre
called ‘The Castle Mall’. The people of Norwich lived with a very large hole in the middle of their city
for over two years, as builders dug up the main car park. Lorries moved nearly a million tons of earth
so that the roof of the Mall could become a city centre park, with attractive water pools and hundreds
pf trees. But the local people are really pleased that the old open market remains, rights in the heart
of the city and next to the new development. Both areas continue to do goof business, proving that
Norwich has managed to mix the best of the old and the new.

92
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

1 The River Wensum flows through East Anglia.

2 People have lived by the River Wensum for at least 2000 years.

3 In the 11th century, Norwich was a small village.

4 Norwich has been a city since its first cathedral was built.

5 Norwich has always been one of the smallest English cities.

6 There are more than 50 churches in Norwich.

7 The number of students in Norwich is increasing.

8 The Norwich City football team is call ‘The Canaries’ because the colours the players wear.

9 ‘The Castle Mall’ took more than two years to build.

10 Norwich people still like using the old market as well as shopping in ‘The Castle Mall’.

93
TEST 22
READING COMPREHENSION
Look at the sentences below about an English city.

The Outdoor Centre

Opening times
Water sports: 10 am – 6 pm
Play Park: 10 am – 5.30 pm.

Entrance/Car park fees


Low season: Weekdays £2.00 per car High season: 21 July – 11 September
Weekends £3.00 per car Weekdays and weekends
£3.00 per car

Fees are for car with four people. Each extra person is 50p. fees to be paid at main office.
The centre is not a private club; it is an organisation whose aim is to provide outdoor sport and
recreation facilities for all members of the public.
Group visitors are requested to inform the centre in advance of their intended visit.
Windsurfing – One-day course
Beginner windsurfing courses are offered on Saturdays and Sundays when the weather is good
enough. Learning to windsurf is a lot of fun, the excitement when you sail across the water for the first
time is not easily forgotten. Boards with small sails are available for beginners.
Course fee: £32.60 (this includes all equipment).
One-day adventure course
This is an opportunity you have been waiting for. Come and try sailing, climbing, surfing and archery.
This course is intended to introduce outdoor activities to adults in a fun, leisurely manner. You do not
need to be extremely fit or to have had previous experience of the activities. All you need is to be
interested.
Course fee £22.50
Play Park
The Play Park is suitable for children from two to ten years of age. It is one of the best of its type in the
country. It has sand and water play, slides, large ball pool, play castle and much, much more. Next year
the centre will open a new Play Palace an Play Ship.
Group day resident courses
We also offer day and long weekend courses for group. We receive regular visits from schools, colleges
and youth groups. There are three large rooms with twelve beds in each, which can be booked in
advance for groups of to 36 people (minimum 12).
Summer adventure holidays (for 8-14 years of age)
Sailing Climbing Windsurfing Fun Games
Safety is of primary importance at the Outdoor Centre. All staff are fully trained in First Aid, and qualified
to each the activities on offer. We also make certain that all children only take part in activities that are
suitable for their age and physical abilities. For this programme children must be able to swim 25 metres
and be in good physical health.
94
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

1 In August, four people visiting the centre together by car would pay more than two people.

2 The centre has activities for a range of age groups.

3 There are windsurfing courses every weekend.

4 The centre has special equipment for people who are learning to windsurf.

5 There is an extra hire charge for the board on the windsurfing course.

6 The adventure course is suitable for beginners.

7 The centre is planning to add extra facilities to the Play Park.

8 It is possible for visitors to stay overnight at the centre.

9 On the holiday programme children are allowed to do any sport they are interested in.

10 Summer adventure holidays are open to any child between eight and fourteen years who can

swim.

95
TEST 23
READING COMPREHENSION
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

STAMP COLLECTING – IT’S A HOBBY THAT


CAN GROW AND GROW
Millions of people of all ages enjoy a hobby which is both interesting and fun. And every year, more
and more people start a stamp collection of their own and discover an interest which can last a
lifetime. Starting your collection is easy because stamps are everywhere. Holiday postcards from
friends, birthday cards from favourite aunts and letters from pen-friends can all provide you with
stamps from all over the world. But once you’ve started collecting seriously, you will probably want to
join the Stamp Collectors’ Club which exists to provide collectors with new British stamps.

As a Club member you order the special sets of new stamps you want for your collection. You can
receive these in three different ways. We can either post you a complete set of stamps on an envelope
addressed to you, or send you the same stamps in a colourful information pack with lots of interesting
facts. Or, if you prefer, we can send you the individual stamps for you to arrange in a special book of
your own.

The Stamp Collectors’ Club has about 70,000 members and you could become a member too, with a
two-year membership costing just £5. You can even get a reduction if a group of you join at the same
time. We’re sure you’ll agree that this is great value for money.

And when you join, the Club sends you a Started Pack at no extra cost. This contains 100 stamps to
begin your collection, together with an attractive box to keep them in. You also receive our helpful 4-
page guide to collecting, which has further suggestions on how to add to your collection and includes
useful addresses of shops and businesses that sell stamps.

Every two months you’ll get a copy of the club magazine, which is packed full of competitions and
quizzes, and gives you the chance to exchange stamps with members around the world.

Why not start on an adventure which will give you years of pleasure? You’ll spend many happy hours
looking at the amazing variety of stamps in your collection or searching for unusual ones which you
know are out there somewhere just waiting to be found. So join the Stamp Collectors’ Club today and
discover the fun excitement of stamp collecting.

To join the Club simply complete the application form and send your membership fee. Your Starter
Pack will be sent within 28 days of receipt of your application.

96
1 The Stamp Collectors’ Club sends you special stamps from many different countries.

2 The Club sends every member the same set of new stamps.

3 Information packs include a full set of stamps.

4 It costs £5 a year to join the Stamp Collectors’ Club.

5 It is cheaper if several people join the Club together.

6 The Club sends each new member a hundred free stamps.

7 The guide tells you where you may be able to buy the stamps you want.

8 Members of the Club are sent a monthly magazine.

9 The magazine helps you to contact other members.

10 You must write a letter to the Club if you want to join.

97
TEST 24
READING COMPREHENSION
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

Gallery News
Easter quiz for children
During the Easter holidays young visitors can take part in a quiz on the subject of Surprises. The free
quiz sheets can be picked up from the desk at the Orange Street entrance. Children will be directed to
14 surprising paintings and asked a variety of questions about them.
The quiz sheets will be available during normal gallery hours from 25 March until 9 April.
New picture
The gallery now has a fine still life by the Dutch 18th century painter Jan van Os. This large picture
(89.1 x 71 cm) of flowers and fruits is panted in light, bright, colours on wood. It is one of the first
pictures of the type in the Gallery, the picture is signed and dated 1777 and 1778. It is not unusual for
a picture like this to be dated in two years: the artist waited for particular flowers to bloom In their
different seasons in order to paint them. The picture was generously given to the Gallery by Miss
Violet Churchman in memory of her sister Ida Nancy. It is now on display in Room 25.
Special exhibition
The exhibition ‘Painting I Spain during the late 18th century’ opened in the Sunley Room on 15 March.
Recently the Gallery has bought works by three Spanish painters of this periods: Paret, Melendez and
Francisco Bayeu, who are the focus of the exhibition. These three artists are joined by Francisco’s
brother Ramon, by Antonio Gonzalez, and by two Italians who worked in Spain during these years –
Corrado Giaquinto and Giovanni Battista Tiepolo. The exhibition runs until 31 May.
Lecture news
The series of lectures arranged to go with the special exhibition continues every Wednesday. On 5
April Lizzie Barker will discuss the work Melendez, while on 12 April Sarah Symmons will lecture on
Luis Paret. On 19 and 26 April Juliet Wilson will talk about Francisco Bayeu.
On Tuesdays in April, Erika Langmuir will explain how artists often ‘tell a story’ through their pictures.
Gallery restaurant improvements
The Gallery is delighted to announce that an improved and expended service is now available in the
Gallery restaurant. with its new kitchens the restaurant offers a wide choice of hot and cold dishes at
reasonable prices.
Information for visitors
Free guided tours of the Gallery take place very day at 11.00 am and 3.00 pm (except Sundays).
These tours introduce some of the Gallery’s greatest pictures, and show the whole range of the
Gallery’s collection of some of the most important European paintings from the 13th to the early 20th
centuries.

98
1 Children can answer quiz questions about some specially chosen pictures.

2 The Gallery has few pictures like their new one by Jan van Os.

3 It took Jan van OS a lot of time to complete his picture.

4 The Gallery had to pay a lot for the new picture.

5 The special exhibition has pictures by Spanish artists and by other artists who worked in Spain.

6 The Easter quiz is on for longer than the special exhibition.

7 In the Gallery on any Wednesday in April you can learn about 18th century Spanish painters.

8 The Gallery has just opened a restaurant for visitors.

9 A guide takes visitors round the Gallery twice every day.

10 You can see paintings from all over the world in the Gallery.

99
TEST 25
READING COMPREHENSION
Look at the sentences below about an English city.

- ACCOMMODATION –
Near the town centre – Single rooms available.
SUNNIGNDALE HOTEL
French, German, Spanish and Russian spoken
200 per week single room or £36 day with English breakfast and dinner.
Double room £160 each person per week, £33 daily.
Half price for children under 14.
The Sunningdale Hotel was built in 1913 and opened by Princess Louise. It has provided excellent
service for people from all over the world and people of all ages and nationalities have stayed here.
During the past 80 years over 50,000 guests from 174 different countries have visited Sunningdale.
The hotel is one of the main roads leading to the town centre. It is about 20 minutes by bus from the
centre of town and buses to many other parts of the town stop outside the hotel. Guests should be
careful not to travel on buses with the blue sign express on the front because they do not stop near our
hotel. An underground station is less than 100 metres away.
The main building has 200 well-furnished, centrally-heated single rooms, each fitted with hot and cold
water basins. Showers, baths and toilets area at the end of all corridors. The hotel has a shop, sitting
rooms, four television rooms, table tennis room, library and laundry. There are also eight pianos
available for guests’ use. There are spaces to park cars in the hotel drive.
Daily newspapers are provided free and stamps can be bought at the office. Guests who stay for long
periods must pay for their accommodation weekly in advance and one week’s notice is required for
departures. Short or long term guests are welcome but long term guests are offered rooms first.
Meal times are: breakfast 7 am - 9.30 am; lunch 1 pm – 2 pm; dinner 5.30 pm – 7 pm. During the week,
for those studying or working late, dinner can be requested until 11 pm by writing your name on the late
list or by telephoning before 7 pm. A selection of 10 menu choices are available for breakfast and dinner.

No animals of any description or fires of any type (either for heating food or heating the room) are
allowed, and guests are requested to respect the comfort of others. If you have tapes or CDs, please try
to keep the noise level down to a minimum, especially between the hours of 11 pm and 8 am.

Guests are advise to use taxis to get to the hotel if they arrive by train because we are some distance
from the main railway station.

100
Read the text on the opposite page to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, mark A on your answer sheet.
If it is not correct, mark B on your answer sheet.

1 Food is included in the cost of a room.

2 A princess used to live in the building.

3 Sunningdale Hotel is on the a quiet road.

4 An Express bus will take you from the hotel to the centre of town.

5 The hotel provides facilities for washing clothes.

6 The hotel prefers guests who stay for a short time.

7 You can have dinner as late as 11 pm.

8 You are allowed to cook food in your room.

9 You can only play music until 11 pm.

10 It is a long way to walk from the hotel to the main railway station.

101
WRITING

102
TEST 1
WRITING (45 minutes)
Part 1
You must answer this question.
Write your answer in about 100 words on the answer sheet

Question 1
Read this email from your English-speaking college classmate Alex and the notes you have made.

103
Part 2
Choose one of these questions
Write your answer in about 100 words on the answer sheet

Question 2

104
Question 3

105
TEST 2

WRITING (45 minutes)


Part 1
You must answer this question.
Write your answer in about 100 words on the answer sheet

Question 1

106
Part 2
Choose one of these questions
Write your answer in about 100 words on the answer sheet

Question 2

Question 3

107
TEST 3

WRITING (45 minutes)


Part 1
You must answer this question.
Write your answer in about 100 words on the answer sheet

Question 1

108
Part 2
Choose one of these questions
Write your answer in about 100 words on the answer sheet

Question 2

Question 3

109
TEST 4

WRITING (45 minutes)


Part 1
You must answer this question.
Write your answer in about 100 words on the answer sheet

Question 1

110
Part 2
Choose one of these questions
Write your answer in about 100 words on the answer sheet

Question 2

Question 3

111
TEST 5

WRITING (45 minutes)


Part 1
You must answer this question.
Write your answer in about 100 words on the answer sheet

Question 1
Part 2
Choose one of these questions
Write your answer in about 100 words on the answer sheet

Question 2

Question 3
SPEAKING
PRACTICE TEST 1
Part 1

Phase 1: Select one or more questions from this list.

Personal Details
• What’s your surname?
• Where do you live/come from
• How old are you?
• Who do you live with?
• When’s your birthday?

Phase 2: Select one or more questions from this list.

Everyday life
• Have you got a job?
• What job do you do?/ What subjects do you study?
• How do you get to school/ work every day?
• Do you think that English will be useful for you in the future?

Part 2
1 Saying goodbye
2 Shopping for shoes

Candidate A Look at the photo on page 02. It shows people saying goodbye.
Say what you can see in the photo.
Candidate B Look at the photo on page 02. It shows people shopping for shoes.
Say what you can see in the photo.
Picture 1

Picture 2
Parts 3 & 4
Helping the environment

Part 3
A young man would like to do something to help the environment.
Here are some things he could do.
Talk together about the different things he could do to help the environment andsay
which would be the best.
Part 4
Answer and discuss together the following questions:
• Did you learn about protecting the environment at school?
• Do you ever ride a bicycle?
• Do you like being in places with lots of trees?
• Would you like to recycle more things?
• Do you think people do enough to protect the environment?
PRACTICE TEST 2
Part 1

Phase 1: Select one or more questions from this list.

Personal Details
• What’s your surname?
• Where do you live/come from
• How old are you?
• Who do you live with?
• When’s your birthday?

Phase 2: Select one or more questions from this list.

Freetime activity
• Do you have any hobbies?
• What do you do in your free time?
• What did you do last weekend?
• What are your plans for this weekend?
• What do you like doing after school?
• What activities do you enjoy doing on holiday?

Part 2
1 Relaxing at home
2 Playing ice hockey

Candidate A Look at the photo on page 06. It shows people relaxing at home.
Say what you can see in the photo.
Candidate B Look at the photo on page 06. It shows people playing ice hockey.
Say what you can see in the photo.
Picture 1

Picture 2
Parts 3 & 4
Using an empty building

Part 3
A town has a large public building that is empty. The people in the town want touse
the building.
Here are some ideas for how to use the building.
Talk together about the different ways the people of the town could use the empty
building and say which would be the best.
Part 4
Answer and discuss together the following questions:
• Where do you like going in your town? Why?
• Do you enjoy shopping in bid department stores? Why?
• When was the last time you went to the cinema?
• Do you prefer modern buildings or old buildings?
• Is it important to look after old buildings?
• Do you think people do enough to protect the environment?
PRACTICE TEST 3
Part 1

Phase 1: Select one or more questions from this list.

Personal Details
• What’s your surname?
• Where do you live/come from
• How old are you?
• Who do you live with?
• When’s your birthday?

Phase 2: Select one or more questions from this list.

Where do you live


• What activities can you do in your neighborhood?
• What do you like about your neighborhood?
• How can people travel around your town/ city/ area?
• Describe the room you are living in.

Part 2
1 In the street
2 Museum visit

Candidate A Look at the photo on page 10. It shows people in the street.
Say what you can see in the photo.
Candidate B Look at the photo on page 10. It shows people visiting museum.
Say what you can see in the photo.
Picture 1

Picture 2
Parts 3 & 4
A present to take to a cold country

Part 3
A young woman is going to spend six months living and working in a cold country.
Her friends would like to give her a present to take with her.
Here are some presents they could give her.
Talk together about the different presents her friends could give her and say
which would be the best.
Part 4
Answer and discuss together the following questions:
• Do you like cold weather?
• When you go on holiday, do you prefer to stay in your country or go to
other countries?
• Is there a country you would really like to live in?
• How do you keep in contact with friends and family when you’re away
from home?
• Is it better to live in lots of different places or always live in the same
place?
• Do you think people do enough to protect the environment?
PRACTICE TEST 4
Part 1

Phase 1: Select one or more questions from this list.

Personal Details
• What’s your surname?
• Where do you live/come from
• How old are you?
• Who do you live with?
• When’s your birthday?

Phase 2: Select one or more questions from this list.

Things you like


• What food do you like?
• What clothes do you usually wear?
• What things do you like most?
• What things are most important to you?
• What music do you like?
• How often do you watch TV?
• What’s your favorite film/ TV show? Why do you like it?

Part 2
1 People having breakfast
2 Cycling

Candidate A Look at the photo on page 14. It shows people having breakfast.
Say what you can see in the photo.
Candidate B Look at the photo on page 14. It shows people cycling.
Say what you can see in the photo.
Picture 1

Picture 2
Parts 3 & 4
Choosing a book about interesting people

Part 3
A young man enjoys reading books about people with interesting lives. He is
looking for new book to read.
Here are some books he could read.
Talk together about the different books he could read and say which would be the
best.
Part 4
Answer and discuss together the following questions:
• Do you like reading books about people with interesting lives?
• When was the last time you went to a bookshop?
• Have you ever bought a book as a present for someone?
• Do you prefer reading on a screen or reading printed books?
• Do you think people will still read printed books in the future?
• Do you think people do enough to protect the environment?
PRACTICE TEST 5
Part 1

Phase 1: Select one or more questions from this list.

Personal Details
• What’s your surname?
• Where do you live/come from
• How old are you?
• Who do you live with?
• When’s your birthday?

Phase 2: Select one or more questions from this list.

Work/Study
• Where do you work/ study?
• What do you do at work?/ What subjects do you study?
• What’s your favorite subject/ part of your job?
• What subjects/ tasks do you find easy/ difficult? Why?
• What are your plans for the future?

Part 2
1 On an outing
2 In a city

Candidate A Look at the photo on page 18. It shows people on an outing.


Say what you can see in the photo.
Candidate B Look at the photo on page 18. It shows people in a city.
Say what you can see in the photo.
Picture 1

Picture 2
Parts 3 & 4
Taking up a new sport

Part 3
A young man wants to do more exercise, but he doesn’t have a lot of money. He
wants to find a sport that he can do to get fit.
Here are some sports that he could take up.
Talk together about the different sports and say which would be the best.
Part 4
Answer and discuss together the following questions:
• What sports have you played?
• Wich sports do you play now?
• Did/ Do you enjoy these sports?
• Do you think it’s important to play sports?
136

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