CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME CBSE: CLASS-XII

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2024-2025) DATE: 27-12-2024

BIOLOGY_QP PAPER CODE: 1103CMD303021250004

GTime : 3 Hrs
ENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
[CBSE BOARD(SET_I)] Max. Marks : 70
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
(i) This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into Five sections-section A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) In section A-question number1 to 16 are Multiple Choice (MCQ) type questions carrying 1 mark each.
(iv) In section B-question number 17 to 21 are Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 2 marks each.
(v) In section C-question number 22 to28 are Short Answer (SA) type question carrying 3 marks each.
(vi) In section D-question number 29 to 30 are case-based questions carrying 4 marks each. Each question has subparts
with internal choice in one subpart.
(vii) In section E question number 31 to 33 are Long Answer (LA) type questions carrying 5 marks each.

Syllabus : Units VI-Reproduction VII-Genetics and Evolution

SECTION A 16M
Q.1 Select & Write the correct Answer
1. The aquatic plant having long and ribbon like pollen grains is 1m
a) Vallisneria b) Hydrilla c) Eichhornia d) Zostera
2. Which one of the following diagram correctly represents DNA replication in 1m
eukaryotes?

a) b) c) d)

3. The uterus opens into the vagina through a narrow 1m

a) Ampulla b) Isthmus c) Cervix d) Infundibulum
4. Identify the wrong statement from the following. 1m
a) High levels of oestrogen triggers the ovulatory surge.
b) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in regular
cycles from puberty onwards.
c) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are poorly motile/non–motile.
d) Progesterone level is high during the post–ovulatory phase of menstrual
cycle.
5. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of Modern man (Homo 1m
sapiens) from his ancestros?
a) Shortening of Jaws b) Binocular vision
c) Increasing cranial capacity d) Upright posture
6. Identify the disease which is not a sexually transmitted disease? 1m
a) Gonorrhoea b) Syphilis c) Amoebiasis d) Chlamydiasis
7. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s: 1m
a) They suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms.
b) They inhibit gametogenesis
c) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
d) They inhibit ovulation

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 8. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count which 1m
technique will be suitable for fertilization?
a) Intrauterine transfer b) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
c) Artificial Insemination d) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
9. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic 1m
ratios are same as 1 : 2 : 1. It represent a case of:
a) Co–dominance
b) Dihybrid cross
c) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
d) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
10. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by: 1m
(i) Seminal vesicle (ii) Prostate
(iii) Urethra (iv) Bulbo–urethral gland
a) (i) and (ii) b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) d) (i) and (iv)
11. Charging of tRNA during translation is necessary for: 1m
a) Binding of anticodons of tRNA to the respective codons of mRNA.
b) Peptide bond formation between two amino acids.
c) Movement of ribosomes from codon to codon.
d) Binding of ribosomes to the mRNA.
12. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined 1m
by:
a) Test cross b) Dihybird cross c) Monohybrid cross d) Back cross
13. A DNA molecule is 160 base pairs long. If it has 20% adenine, how many 1m
cytosine bases are present in this DNA molecule?
a) 48 b) 64 c) 96 d) 192
14. In Hardy–Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is 1m
represented by:
a) q 2 b) p2 c) 2pq d) pq
* Assertion (A) & Reason(R) based Qs.
15. Assertion (A): Cross of F1 individual with recessive homozygous parent is test 1m
cross.
Reason (R): No recessive individual are obtained in the monohybrid test cross
progeny.
a) If both assertion and Reason are True and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of direction
c) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) If both Assertion and Reason is false.
16. Assertion (A): Amphibians have evolved from fishes. 1m
Reason (R): Archaeopteryx is a fossil linking reptilian and amphibians.
a) If both assertion and Reason are True and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of direction
c) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) If both Assertion and Reason is false.

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 SECTION B 10M
17. When are the non–flowering plants said to be homothallic and monoecious, and 2m
heterothallic and dioecious? Give an example of each.
18. Copper ions–releasing IUDS are more efficient than non–medicated methods. 2m
Why?
19. List the changes occur when the primary oocyte undergoes in the tertiary 2m
follicular stage in human.
20. Name the scientist who came to similar conclusion as Darwin. Where did he 2m
worked?
21. (a) Explain the cause responsible in a human to have sex chromosomes as 2m
‘XXY’ instead of ‘XX’ or ‘XY’.
(b) List any two ways such individuals are different from the normal being.
SECTION C 21M
22. (a) Differentiate between analogous and homologous structures. 3m
(b) Select and write analogous structures from the list given below:
(i) Wings of butterfly and birds
(ii) Vertebrate hearts.
(iii) Tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita
(iv) Tuber of sweet potato and potato.
23. You are asked to find the genotypes of a tall pea plant growing in your school 3m
garden. Name the cross and explain how would you confirm the genotypes.
24. What are 'SNPs'? Where are they located in a human cell? State any two ways 3m
the discovery of SNPs can be of importance to humans.
25. (i) Name a terminal method to prevent pregnancy in humans. 3m
(ii) Describe the procedure of the terminal method carried in human male
and female.
26. Parthenocarpy and apomixis have been observed in some plants. Give an 3m
example of each. State a similarity and a difference observed between the two
processes.
27. 3m

With reference to the above schematic representation of (a) Spermatogenesis

and (b) Oogenesis, answer the following questions:
(a) About 300 million spermatozoa may be present in a human male
ejaculation at one time. Calculate how many spermatocytes will be
involved to produce 300 million spermatozoa.
(b) How many chromatids are found during oogenesis in (i) Primary oocyte
and (ii) First polar body in a human female?
28. Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule (enlarged) in 3m
humans and label its parts.

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 SECTION D 8M
29. Read the given passage and answer the questions. 4m
Oogenesis is the process of formation and maturation of the ovum. It takes
place in Graafian follicles. Oogonia or egg mother cells within each ovary
multiply to form primary oocytes which enter into prophase-I of the meiosis and
get temporarily arrested at that stage. Each primary oocyte gets surrounded by
a layer of granulosa cells to form a primary follicle. A large number of primary
follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty. Therefore, at
puberty, only 60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary. The
primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and a new
theca to form secondary follicles. The secondary follicles get transformed into a
tertiary follicle. It has a fluid-filled cavity (antrum). The theca layer forms an
inner theca interna and an outer theca externa.
(i) When is the process of oogenesis begins in a female?
(ii) What happens to the primary oocytes during oogenesis?
(iii) How Graafian follicles are formed?
(iv) What is ovulation?
30. Read the following passage and answer the questions below: 4m
The distance between two consecutive base pairs in DNA is 0.34 nm i.e.,
0.34 10 9
m . Thus the length of DNA for a human diploid cell is
6.6 109 bp  0.34 109 m  2.2 metres. This length of DNA is far greater than
the dimension of a typical nucleus which is about 10–6 m. This shows that the
long sized DNA can accommodate in small area through packaging, In
prokaryotic cells DNA is found in cytoplasm in coiled stage. In eukaryotes, the
organization is very complex. Negatively charged DNA molecules adhere to the
positively charged proteins and they form complexes called nucleosomes.
(i) Name the DNA form which has maximum number of base pairs per turn
and describe about it.
(ii) Name the protein involved in DNA packaging.
(iii) Name the structure present in core particle of nucleosome?

SECTION E 15M
31. (a) Explain the process of syngamy and triple fusion in angiosperms. 5m
(b) Trace the development of the product of syngamy up to its mature stage in
a dicot plant. (Mention the steps and structure)
(c) Draw and label three important parts of a mature dicot embryo.
32. (a) List any two reasons other than physical and congenital disorders for 5m
causing infertility in couples.
(b) Explain how IVF as a technique helped childless couples in having children.
(c) Compare ZIFT with ICSI.

33. (a) Explain adaptive radiation with the help of a suitable example. 5m
(b) Cite an example where more than adaptive radiation have occurred in an
isolated geographical area. Name the type of evolution your example depicts
and state why it is so named.

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