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Questions & Answers from Oct. 01, 2024

to Oct. 31, 2024
Topics Covered:
• Schemes
• Banking and Economy
• RBI and Finance
• Reports and Indices
• Appointments and Resignation
• Science and Technology
• Organizations and MoU
• Sports News
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Questions & Answers from Oct. 01, 2024 to

Oct. 31, 2024
Schemes
1. What is the primary objective of the Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam campaign?
Option 1: To promote recycling initiatives.

Option 2: To celebrate Father's Day through tree planting.
Option 3: To combat global warming and encourage tree planting.
Option 4: To launch a mobile app for environmental awareness.
Option 5: To monitor carbon emissions in urban areas.
Answer: 3) To combat global warming and encourage tree planting.
Explanation:
The main goal of the Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam campaign is to address global warming
by promoting extensive tree planting efforts as a means to protect the
environment and nature. Participants are encouraged to plant trees as a symbol of love
and respect for their mothers while contributing to environmental sustainability. This
initiative aims to combat environmental challenges and create a greener planet through
widespread tree planting activities.
Context:
Launch of Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam App by Union Minister Jyotiraditya M. Scindia:
Union Minister Scindia Launches the Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam Mobile App
Union Minister Jyotiraditya M. Scindia, representing the Ministry of Communications

(MoC) and the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER), launched
the Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam mobile application at the National Media Centre (NMC) in New
Delhi. This user-friendly app serves as a unique platform enabling users to plant trees in
honor of their mothers, thereby contributing to environmental sustainability and
fostering a greener planet.
Key Features:
• The app allows users to plant and dedicate a tree in memory of their mothers.
• Users can dedicate a tree by taking a photo and providing details such as the tree
type, location (state), and the occasion for planting.
• The app enables users to update the tree's growth every 30 days, facilitating
ongoing tracking.
• Users can monitor the carbon credits they have earned through their
contributions.

Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam Campaign:
• The Government of India launched the Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam nationwide tree-
plantation campaign on June 5, 2024, to coincide with World Environment Day
(WED). This initiative aims to combat global warming through large-scale tree
planting, protecting the environment and nature.
• Objectives:
◦ To inspire individuals to plant a tree as a symbol of love, respect, and honor
for their mothers.
◦ To combat land degradation and restore degraded lands.
The campaign has successfully planted 80 crore saplings, achieving this milestone five
days ahead of its September 2024 target.
2. What is the primary goal of the Jal Hi AMRIT scheme?
Option 1: Encouraging the reuse of plastics

Option 2: Promoting effective water management
Option 3: Establishing a CoE for enhancing water management
Option 4: Investing in solar energy projects on river banks
Option 5: All of these
Answer: 2) Promoting effective water management
Explanation:
The main aim of the Jal Hi AMRIT scheme is to focus on recycling and processing
water for reuse in both rural and urban areas, thereby supporting effective water
management efforts. It includes initiatives like the Clean Water Credit System to
motivate proper management of Sewage Treatment Plants and incentivize the
production of high-quality treated water.
Context:
Introduction of a New Government Scheme - Jal Hi AMRIT:
Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs, Manohar Lal, announced the launch of the
Jal Hi AMRIT scheme as part of the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban
Transformation (AMRUT) 2.0 within the first 100 days of the initiative, aimed at
promoting efficient water management. Additionally, the government has
approved three metro projects totaling ₹31,000 crores, which include Bengaluru Metro
Phase-3, Thane Internal Ring Road Metro Projects, and the southern extension of the
Pune Metro Rail Project.
About Jal Hi AMRIT:
1. The government is prioritizing the recycling and processing of water, focusing on

reuse in both rural and urban areas. The Jal Hi AMRIT scheme is designed to
bolster these water management efforts.

2. The Clean Water Credit System intends to encourage States and Union Territories
(UTs) to effectively manage used Water Treatment Plants (UWTPs/STPs) to ensure
the availability of high-quality recyclable treated water. Urban Local Bodies (ULBs)
and parastatal organizations are in the process of designating STPs for their
respective regions.
3. This system fosters competition among cities, enhances their operational
capacities, and incentivizes the production of high-quality treated water.
4. STPs will be awarded star ratings ranging from 3 to 5 stars, serving as clean
water credits valid for six months.
5. Incentives will be allocated to STPs based on their star ratings and clean water
credits.
6. The initiative aims to promote the reuse and recycling of water.
Additional Information:
1. Under AMRUT 2.0, a total of 68 projects worth ₹3,020 crore and 41 projects worth
₹3,805 crore will be implemented across the states of Gujarat, Jharkhand,
Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh (MP), Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Odisha, Rajasthan,
and Uttar Pradesh (UP) as part of the 100 days achievement program, totaling
₹6,825 crore.
2. Within this 100-day period, the inauguration and foundation laying of 263 projects
valued at ₹9,352 crore will be completed.
3. What was the new name given to the Rural Business Incubator (RBI) Scheme
in Uttarakhand?
Option 1: Gramothan Yojana

Option 2: Chief Minister (CM) Udyamshala Yojana
Option 3: Entrepreneurship Acceleration Program
Option 4: Rural Enterprise Growth Scheme
Option 5: Rural Development Initiative
Answer: 2) Chief Minister (CM) Udyamshala Yojana
Explanation:
The new name given to the Rural Business Incubator (RBI) Scheme in Uttarakhand is
Chief Minister (CM) Udyamshala Yojana. This scheme aims to provide financial
assistance and training to rural entrepreneurs, with a focus on creating self-
employment and entrepreneurship opportunities, especially for the youth and women in
rural areas. The renaming is part of the government's efforts to simplify and boost rural
entrepreneurship initiatives in the region.
Context:
Renaming of Key Schemes by Uttarakhand CM to Enhance Rural

Entrepreneurship:

Uttarakhand Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami has announced the renaming of two
government schemes to enhance their accessibility and simplicity for villagers. These
changes are part of the government's ongoing efforts to foster rural development and
economic growth.
Renamed Schemes:
1. The Rural Enterprise Acceleration Project (REAP) has been

renamed Gramothan Yojana. This initiative aims to improve the livelihoods of
rural families by linking them with entrepreneurial opportunities. Under this
scheme, 50% of the total cost for establishing an enterprise is covered by a bank
loan, while 20% comes from beneficiary contributions and 30% is provided as
financial assistance through the REAP project.
2. The Rural Business Incubator (RBI) Scheme is now called the Chief Minister
Udyamshala Yojana. This program provides financial assistance and training to
rural entrepreneurs, focusing on creating more self-employment and
entrepreneurial opportunities, especially for youth and women in rural areas.
These initiatives are expected to benefit both individual participants and community-
based organizations, ultimately strengthening the rural economy and supporting
sustainable livelihoods.
About Uttarakhand:
• Chief Minister: Pushkar Singh Dhami

• Governor: Gurmit Singh
• Wildlife Sanctuaries: Binsar Wildlife Sanctuary, Mussoorie Wildlife Sanctuary
• Airports: Jolly Grant Airport, Pant Nagar Airport
4. Which of the following is correct about the PM Internship Scheme?
Option 1: Interns will receive Rs 60,000 per annum for a period of three years.
Option 2: The scheme will be executed in two phases through an online portal.
Option 3: It is aimed at Indian youth aged 21-24.
Option 4: All 1), 2) and 3)
Option 5: Only 2) and 3)
Answer: 5) Only 2) and 3)
Explanation:
The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) is partnering with the Ministry of

Corporate Affairs (MCA) to launch the pilot phase of the Prime Minister's
Internship Scheme 2024. This significant initiative, part of the 2024-2025 budget,
aims to provide 1.25 lakh internships for Indian youth with a budget allocation of
approximately Rs 800 crore for the Financial Year 2024-25 (FY25). The long-term
goal of the PM Internship Scheme is to create one crore internships by March 2029.

Key Features of the PM Internship Scheme
• Financial Assistance: Interns will receive Rs 60,000 per annum for a period of
five years.
• Implementation Phases: The scheme will be executed in two phases through an
online portal (www.pminternship.mca.gov.in). Registration will open from October
12 to October 25, 2024.
• Target Audience:
◦ Aimed at Indian youth aged 21-24, the scheme will partner with 500
leading companies.
◦ Eligible candidates must have a family income below Rs 8 lakh for
the Financial Year 2023-24 (FY24).
◦ Full-time employees and students in full-time education are not eligible.
However, those pursuing online or distance learning can apply.
Context:
Collaboration for the Prime Minister's Internship Scheme 2024:
The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) is partnering with the Ministry of

Corporate Affairs (MCA) to launch the pilot phase of the Prime Minister's
Internship Scheme 2024. This significant initiative, part of the 2024-2025 budget,
aims to provide 1.25 lakh internships for Indian youth with a budget allocation of
approximately Rs 800 crore for the Financial Year 2024-25 (FY25). The long-term
goal of the PM Internship Scheme is to create one crore internships by March 2029.
Key Features of the PM Internship Scheme
• Financial Assistance: Interns will receive Rs 60,000 per annum for a period of
five years.
• Implementation Phases: The scheme will be executed in two phases through an
online portal (www.pminternship.mca.gov.in). Registration will open from October
12 to October 25, 2024.
• Target Audience:
◦ Aimed at Indian youth aged 21-24, the scheme will partner with 500
leading companies.
◦ Eligible candidates must have a family income below Rs 8 lakh for
the Financial Year 2023-24 (FY24).
◦ Full-time employees and students in full-time education are not eligible.
However, those pursuing online or distance learning can apply.
• Educational Qualifications:
◦ The scheme targets high school graduates and holders of undergraduate

degrees, such as BA, BSc, BCom, BBA, BCA, BPharma, or diplomas.
◦ Graduates from prestigious institutions like IITs or IIMs, as well as those
with professional degrees (e.g., MBA, MBBS, CA, CMA), are ineligible to
ensure opportunities are available to those in greater need.

Internship Details
• Start Date: Internships will commence on December 2, 2024.

• Stipend: Interns will receive a monthly stipend of Rs 5,000, with Rs
4,500 funded by the government and Rs 500 contributed by partner companies
through their Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives. Additionally,
interns will receive a one-time grant of Rs 6,000 for incidental expenses.
• Insurance Coverage: Interns will be covered under government insurance
schemes like the PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana and PM Suraksha Bima
Yojana, with the government paying the premiums. Companies may opt to
provide additional coverage.
• Skill Development: The program includes a structured 12-month training,
providing practical skills to interns. A multilingual helpline
(1800-116-090) and a grievance redressal mechanism will support participants
throughout the process.
Objectives of the Scheme
The Prime Minister's Internship Scheme is designed as a strategic effort to address the
skill gap and unemployment issues facing Indian youth, aligning with the government's
vision of creating an empowered and skilled workforce.
Eligibility for Companies
To participate in the PM Internship Scheme, companies must:
• Maintain a consistent CSR expenditure over the past three years.

• Demonstrate commitment to youth development and skill training through their
CSR activities.
• Partner voluntarily and provide internships that align with the government's goal
of offering practical work experiences.
• Adhere to the government's reservation policy, including quotas for individuals
from Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) and Scheduled Castes
(SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST).
Recent Related Developments
Union Minister of State (MoS) Jayant Chaudhary has launched an

enhanced Model Skill Loan Scheme for skill development courses, raising the
maximum loan limit to Rs 7.5 lakh from Rs 1.5 lakh. Announced in the Union
Budget 2024-2025, this revised scheme aims to benefit 25,000 students annually.
5. What is the main objective of the CM-SATH Scheme launched in Tripura?
Option 1: To offer free textbooks to students

Option 2: To provide financial assistance for vocational training
Option 3: To support meritorious students for higher education
Option 4: To offer scholarships for sports activities
Option 5: To organize cultural events for students

Answer: 3) To support meritorious students for higher education
Explanation:
The primary aim of the CM-SATH Scheme launched in Tripura is to support talented
students in pursuing higher education by providing them with financial
assistance. This initiative ensures that financial constraints do not hinder the
educational progress of deserving students, thereby promoting higher education among
meritorious individuals.
Context:
Launch of CM-SATH Scheme in Tripura to Support Talented Students for

Higher Education:
Prof. Dr. Manik Saha, the Chief Minister (CM) of Tripura, has launched the CM-SATH
Scheme to provide financial assistance to deserving students pursuing higher
education. Through this initiative, a total of 200 students will receive financial
support of ₹60,000 (₹5,000 per month), with 100 students at the Madhyamik level
receiving assistance for two years and another 100 at the Higher Secondary level for
three years.
i. The scheme aims to empower talented students and ensure that financial constraints
do not impede their educational opportunities.
ii. The selection process will include 152 students from the block level, 12 from the
Nagar Panchayat level, 26 from the Municipal Council level, and 10 from the Agartala
Municipal Corporation level, ensuring representation from various regions and
educational levels.
iii. This merit-based support is designed to encourage higher education, with
beneficiaries being selected by the District Education Officer in each district.
6. What is the aim of the National Mission on Edible Oils & Oilseeds (NMEO-
Oilseeds)?
Option 1: To increase domestic oil production to 200 million tonnes.

Option 2: It aims to raise domestic edible oil production to 25.45 million tonnes by
2030-31.
Option 3: To enhance domestic oilseed production and achieve self-sufficiency in edible
oils.
Option 4: Both 2) and 3)
Answer: 4) Both 2) and 3)
Explanation:
The Union Cabinet has approved the National Mission on Edible Oils-Oilseeds (NMEO-
Oilseeds) to enhance domestic oilseed production and achieve self-reliance

(Atmanirbhar Bharat) in edible oils. This mission, running from 2024-25 to 2030-31,
has a financial allocation of Rs 10,103 crore. The NMEO-Oilseeds aims to boost the
production of key oilseed crops such as rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soybean,
sunflower, and sesame, while also improving the extraction efficiency from secondary
sources like cottonseed, rice bran, and tree-borne oils.
Key Highlights of the Mission:
1. The mission targets increasing primary oilseed production from 39 million tonnes
in 2022-23 to 69.7 million tonnes by 2030-31. Along with the National Mission on
Edible Oils-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP), it aims to raise domestic edible oil production to
25.45 million tonnes by 2030-31, covering 72% of the projected domestic
demand.
2. A 5-year rolling seed plan will be introduced through the Seed Authentication,
Traceability & Holistic Inventory (SATHI) Portal to help states secure timely seed
supplies through agreements with seed-producing agencies such as cooperatives,
Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), and seed corporations. Additionally, 65
new seed hubs and 50 seed storage units will be set up in the public sector to
strengthen seed production infrastructure.
Context:
Approval of National Mission on Edible Oils & Oilseeds by Union Cabinet for
2024-25 to 2030-31:
The Union Cabinet has approved the National Mission on Edible Oils-Oilseeds (NMEO-
Oilseeds) to enhance domestic oilseed production and achieve self-reliance
(Atmanirbhar Bharat) in edible oils. This mission, running from 2024-25 to 2030-31,
has a financial allocation of Rs 10,103 crore. The NMEO-Oilseeds aims to boost the
production of key oilseed crops such as rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soybean,
sunflower, and sesame, while also improving the extraction efficiency from secondary
sources like cottonseed, rice bran, and tree-borne oils.
Key Highlights of the Mission:
1. The mission targets increasing primary oilseed production from 39 million tonnes
in 2022-23 to 69.7 million tonnes by 2030-31. Along with the National Mission on
Edible Oils-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP), it aims to raise domestic edible oil production to
25.45 million tonnes by 2030-31, covering 72% of the projected domestic
demand.
2. A 5-year rolling seed plan will be introduced through the Seed Authentication,
Traceability & Holistic Inventory (SATHI) Portal to help states secure timely seed
supplies through agreements with seed-producing agencies such as cooperatives,
Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), and seed corporations. Additionally, 65
new seed hubs and 50 seed storage units will be set up in the public sector to
strengthen seed production infrastructure.
3. Over 600 Value Chain Clusters will be established in 347 districts, covering more
than 10 lakh hectares annually, managed by FPOs, cooperatives, and public or
private entities.

The mission plans to bring 40 lakh hectares under oilseed cultivation by utilizing
4. fallow lands from rice and potato farming, promoting intercropping, and
encouraging crop diversification.
5. Support will be provided to FPOs, cooperatives, and industry players to establish

or upgrade post-harvest units, enhancing recovery from cottonseed, rice bran,
corn oil, and tree-borne oils (TBOs).
6. The mission will also promote dietary guidelines for edible oils through an
Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) campaign to spread awareness.
The Government of India has taken various steps to improve domestic edible oil
production, including launching the National Mission on Edible Oils-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP)
in 2021 with an allocation of Rs 11,040 crore to promote oil palm cultivation across the
country.
7. What is the unique health identification assigned to every individual under

the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)?
Option 1: ABHA Number

Option 2: AYUSH ID
Option 3: Health Connect Code
Option 4: Health Record Identifier
Option 5: Health Access Key
Answer: 1) ABHA Number
Explanation:
Under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), a unique health identification
called Ayushman Bharat Digital Health Account Identifier (ABHA ID) is assigned
to every individual. This 14-digit ABHA number helps in securely storing and
managing the health records of an individual. It serves as a key component in
revolutionizing India's digital healthcare ecosystem by enhancing accessibility,
efficiency, and transparency.
Context:
A Comprehensive Overview of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission's 3-Year

Achievement in Enhancing Digital Healthcare:
On 27th September 2024, the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), a key initiative
under the Government of India's flagship Ayushman Bharat (AB) scheme, marked its
third anniversary. Launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 27th September
2021, ABDM aims to revolutionize the nation's digital healthcare ecosystem by
enhancing accessibility, efficiency, and transparency. The National Health Authority

(NHA), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), is responsible for its
implementation.
Key Features of ABDM:
1. Unique Health Identification (ABHA ID): ABDM assigns a unique Ayushman

Bharat Digital Health Account Identifier (ABHA ID) to individuals, enabling secure
storage and management of personal health records. The ABHA ID is a 14-digit
number that uniquely identifies individuals within India's digital healthcare
system.
2. Health Professionals Registry (HPR): This comprehensive database includes

healthcare professionals from various systems of medicine, connecting them to
India’s digital health ecosystem.
3. Health Facility Registries (HFR): A repository of all health facilities, both

private and public, across various medical systems, including hospitals, clinics,
labs, and pharmacies.
4. Health Information Exchange and Consent Manager (HIE-CM): This feature

empowers individuals to securely access and share their health records, ensuring
data sharing is driven by informed consent.
5. Unified Health Interface (UHI): UHI facilitates the discovery and delivery of
health services, enhancing service accessibility and improving patient-provider
interactions.
6. National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX): This platform streamlines the

insurance claim process, making it faster and more efficient.
7. Data Privacy and Security: ABDM adheres to the Digital Personal Data
Protection Act, 2023 (DPDP Act 2023), ensuring the confidentiality, security, and
safe sharing of patient health information.
8. Interoperability and Transparency: ABDM enables interoperability across

systems through HIE-CM, NHCX, and UHI, promoting transparency, compliance,
and accountability in healthcare services.
Key Initiatives under ABDM:
1. Scan and Share: A QR-code-based service for outpatient department (OPD)

registration that allows patients to scan the facility's code and share demographic
details, reducing queue times and errors in data entry. Over 5 crore OPD tokens
have been generated, halving the waiting time from 1 hour to 30 minutes, saving
2.5 crore man-hours.
2. Digital Health Incentive Scheme (DHIS): Launched in January 2023, DHIS

offers financial incentives to encourage adoption of ABDM. The scheme, extended
until 30th June 2025, has been well-received across both public and private
sectors.
3. Microsites for Private Sector Adoption: To overcome adoption challenges in

the private sector, ABDM has established 106 operational microsites, surpassing
its initial target of 100.

End-to-End ABDM Adoption Pilot: This initiative focuses on digitizing public

4. and private health facilities across the country, setting a benchmark for future
digitization efforts.
Milestones Achieved under ABDM:
• Over 67 crore ABHA IDs have been created, and 42 crore health
records have been linked to ABHA, enhancing access to patient medical histories.
• 236 private entities, including labs, pharmacies, and digital health companies,
have integrated with the ABDM ecosystem, promoting seamless interoperability.
• 3.3 lakh health facilities and 4.7 lakh healthcare professionals have been
registered, with over 1.3 lakh ABDM-enabled facilities, including more than
17,000 private institutions.
Other Key Initiatives:
1. ABDM's collaborations with institutions such as IIT Kanpur and Maharashtra

University of Health Sciences (MUHS) have been crucial in advancing digital
healthcare solutions and education in India.
2. The NHA Whatsapp Chatbot serves as a platform to train stakeholders in ABDM
practices, making it more accessible.
3. Initiatives such as the National Accreditation Board of Hospitals
(NABH) standards and integration with eSwasthya Dham demonstrate ABDM’s
focus on integrating digital health into India’s healthcare infrastructure.
4. The Clinical Decision Support System (CDSS) is being rolled out to aid
healthcare professionals in making informed decisions, improving patient
outcomes.
Recognition for Naga Hospital Authority Kohima (NHAK):
On 30th September 2024, Naga Hospital Authority Kohima (NHAK) was recognized as
the best-performing hospital in Kohima district under the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan
Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY), for treating 2,558 patients and registering
1,601 beneficiaries.
About the National Health Authority (NHA):
NHA is the apex body responsible for implementing the Government of India's flagship
scheme AB PM-JAY. Initially set up as the National Health Agency in 2018, it was
reconstituted as the NHA in January 2019. LS Changsan currently serves as the Chief
Executive Officer, with its headquarters located in New Delhi.
8. What is the total budgetary outlay of the National Quantum Mission?
Option 1: ₹6,003.65 crore

Option 4: ₹4005.50crore
Option 5: ₹8764.50 crore

Answer: 1) ₹6,003.65 crore
Explanation:
National Quantum Mission (NQM):
Launched in 2023, NQM is a government initiative with a budget of ₹6,003.65 crore

over eight years (2023-2031). Led by the Department of Science & Technology (DST),
the mission aims to develop quantum computers with 50 to 1000 physical qubits using
various platforms such as superconducting and photonic technologies. NQM is part of
the Prime Minister's Science Technology Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC) and
aims to position India as a global leader in quantum technology, benefiting sectors such
as telecommunications, defense, finance, and healthcare.
Context:
Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh Launches Initiative for Thematic Hubs and
Technical Groups in Quantum Technology:
Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science & Technology, Dr. Jitendra
Singh, announced the launch of Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) and Technical Groups for the
National Quantum Mission (NQM) during a virtual ceremony in New Delhi. The
initiative includes the creation of four T-Hubs, encompassing 14 Technical Groups and
17 Project Teams across 17 states and two Union Territories in India. These hubs aim to
bridge the gap between research and industry, ensuring that innovations lead to
tangible advancements in the marketplace.
About Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs):
1. Multidisciplinary Approach: These hubs integrate expertise from fields such as

physics, computer science, engineering, and material science to drive holistic
advancements in quantum technology. They foster collaborations between
academia, industry, and government.
2. Research Collaboration: A total of 152 researchers from 43 institutions—
including 31 institutes of national importance, eight research laboratories, one
university, and three private institutions—will be involved.
3. Sectors Impacted: The hubs are expected to benefit industries such as
telecommunications, defense, healthcare, and metrology.
4. Hub-Spoke-Spike Model: Each T-Hub operates under a cluster-based model,
supporting research projects (Spokes) and individual research groups (Spikes),
encouraging resource sharing and collaboration among research institutions.
Institutes Involved in T-Hubs:
1. Quantum Computing Hub: Based at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc)

Bengaluru, with involvement from institutions such as IIT Delhi, IIT Kanpur, IIT
Roorkee, and many more.
2. Quantum Communication Hub: Headquartered at IIT Madras, involving
institutions such as ISRO, IIT Kanpur, and IIT Delhi, among others.
3. Quantum Sensing and Metrology Hub: Based at IIT Bombay, with partners
including IISc Bengaluru, IIT Madras, and other leading institutions.

4. Quantum Materials and Devices Hub: Based at IIT Delhi, collaborating with
institutions like IIT Bombay, IIT Madras, and DRDO.
National Quantum Mission (NQM):
Launched in 2023, NQM is a government initiative with a budget of ₹6,003.65 crore

over eight years (2023-2031). Led by the Department of Science & Technology (DST),
the mission aims to develop quantum computers with 50 to 1000 physical qubits using
various platforms such as superconducting and photonic technologies. NQM is part of
the Prime Minister's Science Technology Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC) and
aims to position India as a global leader in quantum technology, benefiting sectors such
as telecommunications, defense, finance, and healthcare.
Launch of Bharat Gen, the World's First Government-Funded Multimodal

Large Language Model (LLM):
On September 30, 2024, Dr. Jitendra Singh also launched Bharat Gen, a groundbreaking
project in generative Artificial Intelligence (AI) aimed at transforming public service
delivery and boosting citizen engagement. Bharat Gen is the world's first government-
funded multimodal LLM, focusing on creating AI solutions in Indian languages.
About Bharat Gen:
1. Led by IIT Bombay: The initiative is managed by IIT Bombay under the National
Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) of the DST, in
partnership with other top academic institutions such as IIIT Hyderabad, IIT Mandi,
and IIT Kanpur.
2. Key Milestones: The project plans to develop and experiment with AI models,
setting benchmarks for India by July 2026.
3. Key Features:
◦ Multilingual and Multimodal: The AI models will support text and speech,
tailored to India’s linguistic diversity.
◦ Open-Source: The platform will foster open-source AI development to
promote generative AI research in India.
◦ Bhartiya Data: It will build and train AI models using Indian datasets,
contributing to Atmanirbhar Bharat.
About the Ministry of Science & Technology (MoS&T):
• Union Minister: Dr. Jitendra Singh (Constituency: Udhampur, Jammu & Kashmir)
9. When was the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) launched?
Option 1: October 2, 2015


Answer: 2) October 2, 2014
Explanation:
About the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)
• Launched on October 2, 2014 by Prime Minister Modi in New Delhi, SBM took
a whole-of-government approach to sanitation, targeting a "Clean India"
by October 2, 2019, marking Mahatma Gandhi’s 150th birth anniversary.
• It consists of two components: SBM-Gramin (SBM-G), led by the Ministry of Jal
Shakti (MoJS), and SBM-Urban (SBM-U), under the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
Context:
Commemoration of a Decade of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan by PM Modi:
On the occasion of Mahatma Gandhi's 155th birth anniversary, Prime Minister Narendra
Modi attended the Swachh Bharat Diwas event at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi,
celebrating the 10th anniversary of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM). The event
highlighted India's decade-long sanitation achievements, as well as the recently
concluded Swachhata Hi Seva 2024 (SHS 2024) campaign.
Key Dignitaries Present:
• Union Minister Manohar Lal Khattar (Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs -
MoHUA)
• Union Minister C.R. Patil (Ministry of Jal Shakti - MoJS)
• Union Ministers of State Tokhan Sahu (MoHUA) and Dr. Raj Bhushan Choudhary
(MoJS)
About the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)
• Launched on October 2, 2014 by Prime Minister Modi in New Delhi, SBM took
a whole-of-government approach to sanitation, targeting a "Clean India"
by October 2, 2019, marking Mahatma Gandhi’s 150th birth anniversary.
• It consists of two components: SBM-Gramin (SBM-G), led by the Ministry of Jal
Shakti (MoJS), and SBM-Urban (SBM-U), under the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
Key Achievements:
1. Toilet Construction: Over 10 crore toilets were built, and 6 lakh

villages were declared Open Defecation-Free (ODF) by October 2, 2019.
◦ As of 2019, urban India (except for cities in West Bengal) was also declared
ODF.
2. Improved Safety for Women: A UNICEF report found that 93% of women felt
safer after the construction of household toilets.
3. Economic Benefits: Households in ODF villages saved Rs 50,000 annually on
health-related expenses.

4. Health Impact: According to a 2018 WHO report, enhanced

sanitation prevented 3 lakh diarrheal deaths by 2019.
◦ Nature Magazine also estimated that SBM helped avert 60,000-70,000
child deaths annually.
5. Reduced Groundwater Contamination: ODF villages reported a 12.7 times
lower risk of human waste contamination.
6. Global Recognition: In 2019, PM Modi received the Goalkeeper Award from
the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation for SBM’s progress.
SBM-Gramin Phase II (2019–2025)
• Launched in 2019 with an investment of Rs 1.40 lakh crore to sustain ODF

status and manage solid and liquid waste by 2025.
• As of September 2024:
◦ 5.87 lakh villages achieved ODF Plus status.
◦ Over 3.92 lakh villages implemented solid waste management systems.
◦ 4.95 lakh villages established liquid waste management systems.
SBM-Urban (SBM-U)
• Since its launch on October 2, 2014, SBM-U has transformed urban sanitation,
achieving 100% ODF status and promoting scientific solid waste
management (SWM).
• By September 2024, 63 lakh household toilets and 6.3 lakh public
toilets were constructed.
Other Key Achievements:
• Plastic Waste Management: Implemented in 3,000 blocks, plastic waste is

now used in road construction to replace bitumen.
◦ Under Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), 40,000 km of
rural roads were built using this technique, with 13,000 km completed in
the last two years.
Indore (Madhya Pradesh) retained its title as the cleanest city in India for the 7th
consecutive year in Swachh Survekshan 2023.
Key Highlights of Swachh Bharat Diwas 2024
Launch of Sanitation Projects Worth Over Rs 9,600 Crore
• PM Modi inaugurated projects worth Rs 9,600 crore, including:

◦ Rs 6,800 crore for enhancing urban water and sewage systems
under AMRUT and AMRUT 2.0.
◦ Rs 1,550 crore for improving water quality and waste management
in Ganga basin areas under the National Mission for Clean Ganga.
◦ 15 compressed biogas (CBG) plants worth Rs 1,332 crore launched
under the GOBARdhan scheme.

Conclusion of Swachhata Hi Seva 2024 Campaign
• The Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) 2024 campaign ran from September 17 to

October 2, 2024, with the theme Swabhav Swachhata - Sanskar
Swachhata.
◦ Over 26.25 crore people participated in 26.44 lakh events across the
country.
◦ 2.11 lakh roadside areas were cleaned, 56,526 market spaces were
transformed, and 61 lakh trees were planted.
Notable Achievements of SHS 2024:
• 48,418 office areas were improved.

• 15,710 Swachh Food Streets were set up to promote hygiene.
• 76,837 cultural fests were organized to raise awareness about cleanliness.
• 1 lakh Safai Mitra Suraksha Shivirs benefitted over 30 lakh Safai Mitras.
Other Activities on Swachh Bharat Diwas
• Special Gram Sabhas for Swachhata were organized.

• Safai Mitras and other state champions were recognized and awarded for their
contributions.
The event underscored India's remarkable progress in sanitation and its ongoing
commitment to achieving complete cleanliness across the nation.
10. What is the increased monthly nutritional support provided to TB patients

under the Ni-Kshay Poshan Yojana (NPY)?
Option 1: Rs. 700

Option 2: Rs. 800
Option 3: Rs. 900
Option 4: Rs. 1,000
Option 5: Rs. 1,100
Answer: 4) Rs. 1,000
Explanation:
The Ni-Kshay Poshan Yojana (NPY) has increased the monthly nutritional support from
Rs. 500 to Rs. 1,000 per month per patient for TB patients throughout their
treatment. This enhancement in support is aimed at improving the health and recovery
of TB patients and their household contacts.
Context:
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Enhances Nutritional Support for TB

Patients:

Union Minister Jagat Prakash (JP) Nadda of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(MoH&FW) announced significant improvements to nutritional support for tuberculosis
(TB) patients, aimed at enhancing their health and recovery, as well as that of their
household contacts.
Key Initiatives:
1. Increased Nutritional Support:
◦ The Ni-Kshay Poshan Yojana (NPY) has raised monthly nutritional

support from Rs. 500 to Rs. 1,000 per patient throughout their treatment.
2. Energy Dense Nutritional Supplementation (EDNS):
◦ Introduced for all patients with a Body Mass Index (BMI) below 18.5 kg/
m² at the time of diagnosis.
◦ Eligible TB patients will receive nutritional support ranging from Rs.
3,000 to Rs. 6,000 annually under the NPY.
◦ EDNS will be provided during the first two months of treatment to qualifying
patients, with the initiative costing an additional Rs. 1,040 crores, shared
between the central and state governments at a 60:40 ratio.
3. Expanded Scope of Ni-Kshay Mitra Initiative:
◦ This initiative will now extend to the family members (household contacts)
of TB patients under the Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan
(PMTBMBA), providing them with food baskets to help improve their
immunity.
• To date, Rs. 3,202 crores have been disbursed to 1.13 crore

beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) under the NPY.
• India aims to eliminate tuberculosis by 2025, ahead of the global target
of 2030 for sustainable development.
• The NPY, launched in 2018, serves as a financial support scheme by MoHFW to
assist TB patients in purchasing food.
11. Which of the following is correct about the GREEN Meghalaya Plus (GMP)
Scheme which was in news recently?
Option 1: The scheme offers financial incentives of up to Rs 20,000 per hectare annually
for selective communities.
Option 2: This scheme is a crucial element of the state's Payment for Ecosystem Services
(PES) program.
Option 3: The minimum land requirement has been reduced from 2 hectares to 0.5 hectare
as per the scheme.

Explanation:
Launch of GREEN Meghalaya Plus (GMP) Scheme
• Event: Meghalaya Chief Minister Conrad Kongkal Sangma launched the GREEN
Meghalaya Plus (GMP) Scheme in Tura, West Garo Hills District.
• Objective: The scheme offers financial incentives of up to Rs 20,000 per
hectare annually for communities and individuals engaged in forest
conservation, showcasing the government's commitment to sustainable
development and environmental preservation.
Key Features of the GMP Scheme:
• Part of PES Program: GMP is a crucial element of the state's Payment for
Ecosystem Services (PES) program, initiated in 2022 to promote forest
conservation.
◦ Goals: The scheme aims to combat climate change, preserve biodiversity,

and enhance local livelihoods through eco-friendly projects.
◦ Green Cover Target: The objective is to expand Meghalaya’s green cover
by an additional 50,000 hectares (500 square kilometers) with active
community participation.
◦ Funding: The state government has allocated Rs 200 crore for future forest
conservation initiatives.
• Updated Guidelines:
◦ The minimum land requirement has been reduced from 2 hectares to 1

hectare, making the program more inclusive for smaller landowners and
communities.
Context:
Launch of GREEN Meghalaya Plus (GMP) Scheme:
Launch of GREEN Meghalaya Plus (GMP) Scheme
• Event: Meghalaya Chief Minister Conrad Kongkal Sangma launched the GREEN
Meghalaya Plus (GMP) Scheme in Tura, West Garo Hills District.
• Objective: The scheme offers financial incentives of up to Rs 20,000 per
hectare annually for communities and individuals engaged in forest
conservation, showcasing the government's commitment to sustainable
development and environmental preservation.

Key Features of the GMP Scheme:
• Part of PES Program: GMP is a crucial element of the state's Payment for
Ecosystem Services (PES) program, initiated in 2022 to promote forest
conservation.
◦ Goals: The scheme aims to combat climate change, preserve biodiversity,

and enhance local livelihoods through eco-friendly projects.
◦ Green Cover Target: The objective is to expand Meghalaya’s green cover
by an additional 50,000 hectares (500 square kilometers) with active
community participation.
◦ Funding: The state government has allocated Rs 200 crore for future forest
conservation initiatives.
• Updated Guidelines:
◦ The minimum land requirement has been reduced from 2 hectares to 1

hectare, making the program more inclusive for smaller landowners and
communities.
Overview of the Payment for Ecosystem Services (PES) Program:
• Launch Date: The PES scheme was launched on June 13, 2022, by Chief Minister
Conrad Sangma.
• Financial Incentives:
◦ Communities, clans, and individuals can receive up to Rs 8,000 per hectare
annually for five years for conserving natural forests.
◦ Additional rewards include Rs 5,000 per hectare for areas designated as
community reserves and Rs 2,000 per hectare for very dense forests or
sacred groves in eco-sensitive zones.
About Meghalaya:
• Chief Minister: Conrad Kongkal Sangma

• Governor: Chadrashekhar H. Vijayashankar
• Capital: Shillong
• National Parks: Balpakram National Park, Nokrek National Park
12. Which scheme has been extended by ESIC to provide continued support
during job searches?
Option 1: Extension of Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojna

Option 2: Extension of Sarva Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojna
Option 3: Extension of Atal Beemit Jan Kalyan Yojna
Option 4: Extension of Sarva Beemit Jan Kalyan Yojna
Option 5: None of these
Answer: 1) Extension of Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojna
Explanation:

The scheme extended by ESIC to provide continued support during job searches is the
Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojna. This initiative offers an unemployment allowance
to insured persons and has been prolonged until June 30, 2026, to aid individuals in
their job search efforts.
Context:
Union Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya Leads 194th ESIC Meeting in New
Delhi:
Union Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya, from the Ministry of Labour & Employment
(MoL&E), presided over the 194th meeting of the Employees State Insurance
Corporation (ESIC) at its headquarters in New Delhi. The meeting focused on enhancing
medical services, administration, financial matters, and reviewing ongoing construction
projects. The Union Minister announced several key decisions aimed at improving ESIC’s
infrastructure and medical facilities.
Key Attendees:
• Union Minister of State (MoS) Sushri Shobha Karandlaje, MoL&E

• Sumita Dawra, Secretary, MoL&E
• Ashok Kumar Singh, Director General (DG), ESIC
• Other senior officials
Key Announcements:
1. Establishment of 10 New ESIC Medical Colleges:

To boost medical education, ESIC approved the establishment of 10 new medical
colleges in Andheri (Maharashtra), Basaidarapur (Delhi), Guwahati-Beltola
(Assam), Indore (Madhya Pradesh), Jaipur (Rajasthan), Ludhiana (Punjab), Naroda-
Bapunagar (Gujarat), Noida & Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh), and Ranchi (Jharkhand).
This supports Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s plan to create 75,000 new medical
seats within five years.
2. Extension of Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojna:

The unemployment allowance scheme for insured persons has been extended
from July 1, 2024, to June 30, 2026, to provide continuous support during job
searches. This program offers relief for up to 90 days and can be availed once in a
lifetime by employees covered under Section 2(9) of the ESI Act, 1948.
3. Medical Care under Ayushman Bharat PMJAY:

The Minister announced that ESIC beneficiaries will now receive medical care
through the convergence of ESIC with Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan
Aarogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY). This will provide access to treatment at empaneled
hospitals in underserved areas.
4. Introduction of Para-medical & B.Sc Nursing Courses:

ESIC approved new para-medical and nursing courses to be offered in ESIC
Medical Colleges in Alwar (Rajasthan), Bihta (Bihar), Faridabad (Haryana), Joka
(West Bengal), K.K. Nagar (Tamil Nadu), Sanathnagar (Telangana), and Rajajinagar
(Karnataka) to address the need for trained healthcare professionals.

Recruitment of Nursing Officers through NORCET:

5. ESIC will adopt the recruitment process for Nursing Officers through the National
Online Registration for Nursing Entrance Test (NORCET), conducted by AIIMS, to
ensure no shortage of nurses in ESIC hospitals, colleges, and dispensaries.
6. Acquisition of Land for New Hospitals and Dispensaries:

ESIC approved land acquisition for the construction of new healthcare facilities,
including:
◦ A 100-bed hospital in Guntur (Andhra Pradesh)

◦ A doctor dispensary in Fatehpur (Uttar Pradesh)
◦ Dispensary cum branch offices in Pratapgarh and Auraiya (Uttar Pradesh)
◦ A 350-bed hospital in Pune (Maharashtra)
◦ A dispensary and branch office in Dhubri (Assam)
◦ A 100-bed hospital in Muzaffarpur (Bihar)
Additional Announcements:
• The construction of 717 new staff quarters at ESIC residential colony in Sector-56,
Noida (Uttar Pradesh), was also approved.
• Various agenda items regarding the improvement of medical care services,
administration, and financial matters were discussed, along with a review of
ongoing construction projects.
Recent Related News:
• The 46th session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee (WHC) was hosted by
India at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, from July 21 to 31, 2024.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has set up a five-member committee, led by
Ravi Gandhi, Additional Director General (ADG) of the Border Security Force (BSF)
and Eastern Command of the Indian Army, to monitor the situation at the Indo-
Bangladesh Border (IBB).
About ESIC:
• Director General: Ashok Kumar Singh

• Parent Ministry: Ministry of Labour & Employment (MoL&E)
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Established: 1952
13. What are the new names given to the urban administration schemes in
Chhattisgarh in honor of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay?
Option 1: Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Swavalamban Yojana and Pandit Deendayal

Upadhyay Aajeevika Kendra Yojana
Option 2: Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Swabhimaan Yojana and Pandit Deendayal
Option 3: Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Swavalamban Yojana and Pandit Deendayal
Upadhyay Nirbhaya Kendra Yojana
Option 4: Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Swamitva Yojana and Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay
Unnati Kendra Yojana

Answer: 1) Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Swavalamban Yojana and Pandit Deendayal

Explanation:
The Chhattisgarh government decided to rename the urban administration schemes,

formerly named after Rajiv Gandhi, after Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay. The new names
are Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Swavalamban Yojana and Pandit Deendayal
Upadhyay Aajeevika Kendra Yojana, as per the order issued by the Urban
Administration Department of Chhattisgarh.
Context:
Chhattisgarh Government Renames Two Urban Schemes in Honour of Pandit

Deendayal Upadhyay:
The Chhattisgarh government has renamed two urban administration schemes in honor
of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay, the ideologue of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh, which is the
predecessor of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). Previously named after former Prime
Minister Rajiv Gandhi, the Rajiv Gandhi Swavalamban Yojana will now be referred to as
the Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Swavalamban Yojana, and the Rajiv Gandhi
Aajeevika Kendra Yojana has been renamed the Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay
Aajeevika Kendra Yojana.
• The Urban Administration Department of Chhattisgarh issued this order on

September 18, 2024.
• These schemes are overseen by the Chhattisgarh Urban Infrastructure
Development Fund.
14. What is the primary goal of the PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana introduced
by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy?
Option 1: To promote electric vehicle usage in urban areas

Option 2: To support research in renewable energy technologies
Option 3: To enhance solar rooftop capacity and enable households to generate electricity
Option 4: To provide financial assistance for traditional energy projects
Option 5: To increase subsidies for wind energy initiatives
Answer: 3) To enhance solar rooftop capacity and enable households to generate

electricity
Explanation:
The PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana specifically aims to boost solar rooftop
capacity, allowing households to generate their own electricity and thus addresses the
solar energy needs of residential consumers.

Context:
Overview of the PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana and Related Initiatives:
Introduction to the PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has announced Scheme
Guidelines to implement the Rs 500 crore Innovative Projects component under
the PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana. This initiative seeks to enhance solar energy
adoption, providing affordable access to low-income or marginalized households
in India.
Implementation Agency The Scheme Implementation Agency (SIA) designated for

this project is the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) based in Gurugram,
Haryana*, an autonomous entity under the MNRE.
Key Components of the Scheme Support for Innovative Projects: The scheme will
fund innovative solar energy projects that showcase new technologies or business
models for residential use, lasting up to 18 months.
Financial Assistance: Funding for these projects is capped at 60% of the total
project cost or Rs 30 crore, whichever is lesser.
Awards for Innovation: Annual awards will recognize innovative contributions in Rooftop
Solar, offering cash prizes and citations worth Rs 1 crore, Rs 50 lakh, Rs 30 lakh, and 10
consolation prizes of Rs 5 lakh each.
Target Beneficiaries: The scheme encourages participation from startups, Research
Institutions (RIs), and Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) aiming for
scalable and replicable projects.
Benefits*: By enhancing efficiency in solar energy generation and distribution, the
initiative is expected to lower electricity costs for consumers.
About PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana Launched on February 29, 2024, this
scheme aims to elevate solar rooftop capacity, fostering self-generation of electricity by
households.
With a budget of Rs 75,021 crore, it is set to run until the Financial Year 2026-27
(FY27). The plan encompasses a subsidy scheme offering up to 60% for systems up to
2 kW and 40% for 2 to 3 kW systems— with specific subsidy amounts of Rs 30,000
for 1 kW, Rs 60,000 for 2 kW, and Rs 78,000 for systems equal to or above 3 kW.
Households will also be able to sell any surplus electricity back to the grid, providing an
additional income stream.
Implementation is carried out by a National Programme Implementation Agency
(NPIA) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
at the national level and by State Implementation Agencies (SIAs) at the state
level.
15. What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay
SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) as indicated in the government's scheme?
Option 1: To implement price controls on all agricultural products.

Option 2: To integrate various existing support schemes for better management.

Option 3: To ensure that farmers receive fair prices while stabilizing market prices for
consumers.
Option 4: To eliminate price fluctuations in international markets.
Answer: 3) To ensure that farmers receive fair prices while stabilizing market prices for
consumers.
Explanation:
The primary objective of PM-AASHA is clearly stated as providing remunerative prices

for farmers while also, importantly, stabilizing market prices to make essential
commodities affordable for consumers.
Context:
Overview of the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-

AASHA):
The Union Cabinet has approved the continuation of the Pradhan Mantri Annadata
Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) to ensure fair prices for farmers while
monitoring price fluctuations of essential commodities for consumers.
Financial Commitment: The total financial outgo will amount to Rs. 35,000 crore during
the 15th Finance Commission Cycle up to 2025-26.
Key Changes in PM-AASHA:
• * Integration of the Price Support Scheme (PSS) and Price Stabilisation

Fund (PSF) under PM-AASHA aims to provide farmers with better prices for their
produce.
• * The revamped scheme ensures stability in the market for consumers as well.
Components of PM-AASHA:
• * Price Support Scheme (PSS)

• * Price Stabilization Fund (PSF)
• * Price Deficit Payment Scheme (PDPS)
• * Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)
About PM-AASHA:
• * Launched in 2018 by the Government of India, PM-AASHA serves as an umbrella

scheme designed to assure Minimum Support Price (MSP) for farmers.
• * Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW).
Objectives:
i. To improve farmer incomes by strategizing procurement mechanisms with State
Governments.
ii. To ensure that farmers obtain remunerative prices for oilseeds, pulses, and copra.

Scheme Components:
• * Price Support Scheme (PSS)

• * Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)
• * Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS)
16. What is the primary goal of the IndiaAI mission?
Option 1: To enhance technological self-reliance and ethical AI use.

Option 2: To create 8 AI-powered CoE.
Option 3: To develop AI tools solely for government use.
Answer: 1) To enhance technological self-reliance and ethical AI use.
Explanation:
The IndiaAI mission aims to democratize the benefits of AI across society, strengthen
global leadership in AI, promote technological self-reliance, and ensure ethical and
responsible use of AI.
Context:
Overview of the IndiaAI Mission:
The IndiaAI mission has identified eight AI projects emphasizing responsible and ethical
development, chosen through an Expression of Interest (EoI) under its Safe and Trusted
AI Pillar. These projects will foster the development of indigenous tools, frameworks,
and guidelines for ethical, transparent, and trustworthy AI technology, aligning with the
Government of India’s vision to harness AI for inclusive growth.
Key Points:
• EoI Objectives: The IndiaAI mission invited responsible AI proposals targeting

themes such as Machine Unlearning, Synthetic Data Generation, AI Bias
Mitigation, Ethical AI frameworks, Privacy-Enhancing Tools, Explainable AI, AI
Governance Testing, and Algorithm Auditing.
• Proposal Response: Over 2000 proposals from prominent academic institutions,
start-ups, research organizations, and civil society groups were received. A multi-
stakeholder committee evaluated these, selecting eight impactful projects across
various themes.
Details of Selected AI Projects:
S.No. Theme Applicant Project Title

Machine Machine Unlearning in Generative
1 IIT Jodhpur, Rajasthan
Unlearning Foundation Models

S.No. Theme Applicant Project Title

Synthetic Data IIT Roorkee, Generating Synthetic Data to
2
Generation Uttarakhand Mitigate Bias in ML Datasets
AI Bias Mitigation NIT Raipur, Responsible AI for Bias Mitigation in
3
Strategy Chhattisgarh Healthcare Systems
Explainable AI DIAT Pune, Maharashtra Explainable and Privacy-Preserving
4
Framework & Mindgraph AI for Security
Privacy-Enhancing IIT Delhi, IIT Dharwad, Robust Privacy-Preserving Machine
5
Strategy IIIT Delhi, TEC Learning Models
AI Ethical IIIT Delhi in partnership Nishpaksh: Fairness Assessment
6
Certification with TEC Tools for AI Models
AI Algorithm ParakhAI: Open-source toolkit for
7 Civic Data Labs
Auditing Tool Algorithmic Auditing
Track-LLM: Transparency & Risk
AI Governance Amrita Vishwa
8 Assessment for Large Language
Testing Vidyapeetham & TEC
Models
About the IndiaAI Mission
• Launch and Budget: Approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2024 under the
leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi, the IndiaAI mission has a budget of Rs
10,371.92 crore (USD 1.25 billion) for the next five years. Its goals include
democratizing AI benefits, advancing India's global AI leadership, promoting
technological self-reliance, and ensuring the ethical use of AI.
• Implementation: IndiaAI operates as an Independent Business Division (IBD)
under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)’s Digital India
Corporation (DIC).
• Mission Pillars: The mission focuses on seven key pillars: IndiaAI Compute
Capacity, IndiaAI Innovation Centre, IndiaAI Datasets Platform, IndiaAI Application
Development, IndiaAI Future Skills, IndiaAI Startup Financing, and Safe and
Trusted AI.
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
• Union Minister: Ashwini Vaishnaw (Rajya Sabha - Odisha)

• Minister of State: Jitin Prasada (Constituency - Pilibhit, Uttar Pradesh)
17. What key initiative did Union Minister Piyush Goyal launch on the successful
completion of three years of PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan?
Option 1: The District Master Plan for 27 aspirational districts.

Option 2: Guidelines for international trade agreements.
Option 3: A new funding scheme for rural development.
Option 4: A nationwide infrastructure audit program.
Option 5: A framework for digital marketing in Indian cities.

Answer: 1) The District Master Plan for 27 aspirational districts.
Explanation:
Piyush Goyal launched the District Master Plan (DMP) for 27 aspirational
districts as part of the activities marking the three-year milestone of PM Gati Shakti
NMP.
Context:
Launch of District Master Plan under PM Gati Shakti NMP:
Recently, Union Minister Piyush Goyal from the Ministry of Commerce and
Industry (MoC&I) launched the District Master Plan (DMP) under the PM Gati
Shakti National Master Plan (NMP) for 27 aspirational districts in India. This
event celebrated the successful completion of three years of the PM Gati Shakti NMP.
DMP Expansion: Goyal announced that the DMP will extend its coverage to over 750
districts nationwide in the upcoming 18 months.
City Logistics Plans: During the event, Goyal also introduced Guidelines for
Preparing City Logistics Plans for Indian cities. These guidelines aim to assist cities
in customizing their logistics planning according to their unique vision, objectives, and
local characteristics.
DMP Portal Development: The DMP portals for all districts will be rolled out in a phased
approach, expected to finalize by 31st March 2025*.
Key Points Highlighted by Goyal: 1. He emphasized that NMP serves as a faster,

better, and more cost-effective tool for developing world-class infrastructure in
India.
2. The integration of geospatial and advanced technologies in the PM Gati Shakti
NMP significantly enhances connectivity across the country.
3. The NMP's scope has been broadened to include social infrastructure through the
Area Development Approach, facilitating mapping of facilities such as power
distribution lines, schools, and hospitals.
About PM Gati Shakti NMP: Launched by PM Narendra Modi on 13th October 2021 at
Pragati Maidan, New Delhi with a budget of Rs 100 lakh crore.
Developed by Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and
Geoinformatics (BISAG-N) using a dynamic Geographic Information System
(GIS) platform incorporating data from all ministries and departments into a
comprehensive database.
Driven by seven engines: roads, airports, mass transport, logistics infrastructure,
railways, ports, and waterways.
About Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoC&I): Union Minister: Piyush Goyal
(Constituency: Mumbai North, Maharashtra)
Minister of State (MoS): Jitin Prasada (Constituency: Pilibhit, Uttar Pradesh).

18. What are the main objectives of the Samarth scheme as announced by the
Government of India?
Option 1: To train government officials in AI/ML-related skills.

Option 2: To promote and support job generation in the automotive industry and to provide
skilling and upskilling programs.
Option 3: To promote and support job generation in the agricultural industry.
Option 5: To promote and support job generation in the textile industry and to provide
skilling and upskilling programs.
Answer: 5) To promote and support job generation in the textile industry and to
provide skilling and upskilling programs.
Explanation:
The Samarth scheme aims to extend skilling opportunities and support job creation
specifically in the organized textile sector while also covering upskilling for existing
workers, thus highlighting its demand-driven and employment-oriented nature.
Context:
Overview of the Samarth Scheme for Capacity Building in Textiles Sector:
Overview of the Scheme
The Government of India (GoI) has decided to extend the Samarth Scheme (Scheme
for Capacity Building in Textiles Sector) for two more years - Financial Year 2024-25
(FY25) and FY26. This extension comes with a budget of Rs 495 crore aimed at
training 3 lakh persons in various textile-related skills.
Objectives of Samarth The scheme is designed to:
• Promote and support the textile industry in generating jobs in the organized
textile and related sectors.
• Cover the entire value chain of textiles, while excluding spinning and
weaving.
• Provide entry-level skilling, as well as upskilling/reskilling programs to boost
productivity in the Apparel & Garmenting segments.
• Address the upskilling/reskilling needs of traditional textile sectors, including
handloom, handicraft, silk, and jute.
Background of the Samarth Scheme i. The scheme is a flagship initiative of the GoI.
ii. Approved in continuation of the Integrated Skill Development Scheme for the
12th Five Year Plan (FYP) by the Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs
(CCEA).
iii. Launched with an initial target to train 10 lakh persons over three years
(2017-2020), with an estimated budget of Rs 1300 crore.
Implementation

Implemented through various Implementing Partners (IPs) such as:

* Textile Industry/Industry Associations
* Central/State government agencies
* Sectoral Organisations of MoT like Development Commissioner (DC)/Handloom, DC/
Handicrafts, Central Wool Development Board (CWDB), and Central Silk Board (CSB)*.
Current Achievements
As of now, the scheme has trained 3.27 lakh persons.

Out of these, 2.65 lakh (approximately 80%) have found employment.
Furthermore, 2.89 lakh recipients of the training have been women* (88.3%).
Top Manufacturing States
The leading states for textile and clothing manufacturing in India include Andhra
Pradesh (AP), Telangana, Haryana, Jharkhand, and Gujarat*.
About the Ministry of Textiles (MoT)
Union Minister: Giriraj Singh (Constituency: Begusarai, Bihar)

Minister of State (MoS): Pabitra Margherita (Rajya Sabha: Assam)
19. What is the primary goal of the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) as
it relates to steel production?
Option 1: To promote the use of high quality ore in steel production.

Option 2: To increase steel production capacity in India.
Option 3: To improve the quality of steel produced in India.
Option 4: To reduce carbon emissions in steel production by utilizing green hydrogen.
Answer: 1) To reduce carbon emissions in steel production by utilizing green

hydrogen.
Explanation:
The primary goal of the NGHM is focused on utilizing green hydrogen to create
cleaner steel-making technologies, consequently aiming at reducing carbon
emissions in the steel industry.
Context:
Initiatives Under the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM):
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has given approval for three
pilot projects under the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) aimed at
using green hydrogen in steel production.
The Government of India (GoI) has allocated Rs 347 crore to support these
projects, with expectations for them to become operational in the next three years.

These projects signify a critical move towards cleaner steel-making technologies,

with a goal of reducing carbon emissions in the steel sector.
Note: The NGHM was launched on January 4, 2023, with a budget of Rs 19,744
crore.
Selected Pilot Projects 1. Matrix Gas and Renewables Limited (Ahmedabad,

Gujarat) leads a consortium including Gensol Engineering Ltd, IIT Bhubaneswar,
and Metsol AB (Sweden) for a pilot project with a capacity of 50 tons per day (TPD).
2. Simplex Castings Limited (Bhilai, Chhattisgarh) leads a consortium with BSBK
Private Limited, Ten Eight Investment, and IIT Bhilai to work on a 40 TPD plant.
3. Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) in New Delhi is managing the largest
project under NGHM, featuring a 3200 TPD plant in Ranchi, Jharkhand aimed at
advancing green hydrogen in steel production.
Key Objectives
The MNRE has set out several guidelines to direct the development of these pilot
projects, focusing on:
• Exploring new methods for integrating green hydrogen into steel production.
• Ensuring safety measures and assessing the technical feasibility of
hydrogen in steelmaking processes.
• Testing cost-effectiveness of hydrogen use for low-carbon steel production* on a
larger scale.
Key Components 1. Direct Reduced Iron (DRI) Production using 100%

Hydrogen: Developing a process for producing DRI entirely using hydrogen in vertical
shaft furnaces.
2. Hydrogen in Blast Furnaces: Reducing coal and coke consumption by injecting
hydrogen into blast furnaces.
3. Hydrogen Injection in DRI Units: Implementing hydrogen injection in vertical
shaft-based DRI production units.
About the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
• Union Minister: Pralhad Joshi (Dharwad, Karnataka)

• Minister of State (MoS): Shripad Yesso Naik (North Goa)
20. What is the significance of the RCS-UDAN scheme in Indian civil aviation?
Option 1: To connect only major metropolitan areas within India.

Option 2: To create employment opportunities for aviation professionals.
Option 3: To boost regional connectivity and promote tourism while connecting
underserved areas.
Option 4: To reduce the aviation fuel prices nationwide drastically.
Answer: 3) To boost regional connectivity and promote tourism while connecting

underserved areas.

Explanation:
The RCS-UDAN scheme is designed to enhance regional connectivity and facilitate

air travel to underserved and remote regions, thus boosting tourism and the civil
aviation sector as a whole.
Context:
Overview of the RCS-UDAN Scheme in Indian Civil Aviation:
Overview of RCS-UDAN Scheme
The Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) UDAN (Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik),
initiated by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA), celebrated 8 years in operation
on 21st October 2024. The scheme was launched on 21st October 2016, marking a
significant step in India's National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP).
Key Highlights:
• Launch: The inaugural flight under RCS-UDAN was inaugurated by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi on 27th April 2017, connecting Shimla and Delhi.
• Market-Driven Approach: Airlines evaluate demand and submit proposals,
receiving support through Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for operating in
underserved areas.
Support Mechanism:
• * Airport Operators: Exemptions from landing, parking, and navigation charges for
RCS flights.
• * Government Support: Initial 3 years of capped excise duty on Aviation Turbine
Fuel (ATF) and encouragement for airlines to enter code-sharing agreements.
• * State Governments*: Commitments to reduce VAT on ATF and support services
at reduced rates.
Benefits of the Scheme: 1. Increasing Demand for Aircraft: Revitalization of

regional carriers and increased aircraft demand.
2. Promoting Tourism: Significant growth in tourism to various religious destinations
and improved accessibility in the Northeast region.
3. Boosting Air Connectivity: Connecting 34 states/UTs and operationalizing 10
airports in the Northeast.
Versions of the UDAN Scheme:
• UDAN 1.0: 128 flight routes across 70 airports.

• UDAN 2.0: Inclusion of helipads and targeting underserved regions.
• UDAN 3.0: Focus on tourism routes and North-East connectivity.
• UDAN 4.0: Expansion to seaplanes and helicopters in remote regions.
• UDAN 5.0 - 5.4*: Removal of distance cap and enhancement of helicopter
services.

Key Airports under UDAN:
• Darbhanga Airport: Gateway for 14 districts of North Bihar.

• Jharsuguda Airport: Second airport in Odisha serving multiple routes.
• Pithoragarh Airport: Connects important states in India.
• Tezu Airport: Vital connection in Arunachal Pradesh.
Accomplishments and Future Vision:
• Transformation in the civil aviation sector with 601 operational routes.

• Goals to increase the number of airports in India significantly by 2047.
• Recent expansions include 3 new airports inaugurated by PM Modi on 20th
October 2024.
About Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA):
• Union Minister: Kinjarapu Rammohan Naidu

• Minister of State: Murlidhar Mohol
Banking and Economy

1. What is the key offering of the Bank of Baroda EaseMyTrip Debit Card?
Option 1: Discounts on travel and hotel stays

Option 2: Free movie tickets
Option 3: Cashback on grocery purchases
Option 4: Exclusive access to concerts
Answer: 1) Discounts on travel and hotel stays
Explanation:
The primary feature of the Bank of Baroda EaseMyTrip Debit Card is the discounts it
offers on travel and hotel stays, along with other benefits such as complimentary
OTT platform memberships and e-commerce discounts. This makes it a valuable option
for frequent travelers and those spending on entertainment and lifestyle.
Context:
Introduction of Co-branded Travel Debit Card by Bank of Baroda in

Collaboration with EaseMyTrip:
Bank of Baroda (BOB), one of India's leading commercial banks, has partnered with
EaseMyTrip.com, one of the largest online travel platforms in the country, to introduce
a co-branded travel debit card: the Bank of Baroda EaseMyTrip Debit Card.
This card is designed for frequent travelers and individuals who spend on
entertainment and lifestyle. Notably, this marks the first co-branded travel debit card

launched by a Public Sector Bank (PSB) in India, and EaseMyTrip is the first Online Travel
Agency (OTA) in India to collaborate with a PSB for a debit card.
Key Offerings
• Travel Discounts: Cardholders receive discounts on travel and hotel

bookings, complimentary annual memberships to Over-The-Top (OTT) platforms,
as well as vouchers and discounts on e-commerce sites.
• Flexible Booking: There is no Minimum Order Value (MOV) for travel bookings,
and these benefits are available year-round. Each cardholder can make up to two
transactions per quarter per product category within the travel segment.
Key Features and Benefits
1. Travel Discounts:
◦ 10% instant discount on domestic and international flight bookings.

◦ 15% instant discount on domestic and international hotel bookings.
◦ 10% instant discount on bus and airport transfers/outstation cab
bookings.
2. Airport Lounge Access:
◦ Complimentary domestic airport lounge access (2 visits per quarter) and

international lounge access (2 visits per year).
3. Additional Benefits:
◦ Comprehensive air insurance coverage of up to Rs 50 lakh and 24/7

concierge services.
About Bank of Baroda (BoB)
• Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO): Debadatta

Chand
• Headquarters: Vadodara, Gujarat
• Tagline: India’s International Bank
2. What is one of the key insurance solutions offered through the partnership
between SBI General Insurance and BLS E-Services?
Option 1: Home insurance

Option 2: Travel insurance
Option 3: Hospicash
Option 4: Life insurance
Option 5: Pet insurance
Answer: 3) Hospicash
Explanation:

One of the primary insurance solutions provided as a result of the collaboration

between SBI General Insurance and BLS E-Services is Hospicash. This plan is an
income protection policy that offers daily hospitalization benefits, especially
catered to individuals who earn daily wages. It safeguards against income loss
during hospitalization, with customers being able to select daily benefits ranging from
Rs 1,000 to Rs 2,000.
Context:
Collaboration Between SBI General Insurance and BLS E-Services for Offering
Insurance Products:
SBI General Insurance Company Limited, a prominent general insurance provider in

India, has teamed up with BLS E-Services Limited (formerly known as BLS E-Services
Private Limited), a leading integrated technology-enabled digital service provider. This
partnership aims to offer a variety of insurance products directly to customers
throughout India.
Key Initiatives:
1. Insurance Solutions:
◦ The collaboration focuses on delivering essential insurance solutions,

including:
▪ Hospicash: A flexible income protection plan that provides daily
hospitalization benefits, designed for individuals who earn their living
daily, ensuring financial security during hospitalization. Customers can
select daily benefits of either Rs 1,000 or Rs 2,000.
▪ Vehicle insurance, personal accident insurance, and shop insurance.
2. Enhanced Accessibility:
◦ This partnership seeks to streamline the insurance acquisition process,

making it more efficient and user-friendly for customers.
3. Leveraging E-Governance:
◦ BLS E-Services will utilize its strong presence in the Electronic Governance
sector, having already assisted over 40,000 customers, to promote these
insurance offerings effectively.
Background:
SBI General Insurance Company Limited began operations in 2010 as a joint venture
between the State Bank of India (SBI) and Insurance Australia Group (IAG).

3. As per recent news, the Government of India (GoI) has authorized the sale of
Ferro Scrap Nigam Limited (FSNL) and the transfer of management control to
Japan’s Konoike Transport Co., Ltd. for _______.
Option 1: ₹420 crore

Answer: 2) ₹320 crore
Explanation:
The Government of India (GoI) has authorized the sale of Ferro Scrap Nigam Limited
(FSNL) and the transfer of management control to Japan’s Konoike Transport Co., Ltd.
for ₹320 crore. This marks the first privatization effort in over two years. The sale
received approval from the Alternative Mechanism, which operates under the Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), including Union Ministers Nitin Gadkari (Ministry
of Road Transport and Highways), Nirmala Sitharaman (Ministry of Finance), and HD
Kumaraswamy (Ministry of Steel).
Context:
Indian Government Greenlights Sale of Ferro Scrap Nigam Ltd. to Konoike

Transport from Japan for Rs 320 Cr:
The Government of India (GoI) has authorized the sale of Ferro Scrap Nigam Limited
(FSNL) and the transfer of management control to Japan’s Konoike Transport Co., Ltd.
for ₹320 crore. This marks the first privatization effort in over two years. The sale
received approval from the Alternative Mechanism, which operates under the Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), including Union Ministers Nitin Gadkari (Ministry
of Road Transport and Highways), Nirmala Sitharaman (Ministry of Finance), and HD
Kumaraswamy (Ministry of Steel).
The CCEA had previously granted in-principle approval for FSNL’s disinvestment in
2016, with a reserve price set at ₹262 crore, and Konoike's bid being the highest.
The only other bidder was Indic Geo Resources Private Limited, a subsidiary of Chandan
Steel Ltd. FSNL is a Mini Ratna-II undertaking based in Bhilai, Chhattisgarh, and
operates as a subsidiary of MSTC Limited (formerly known as Metal Scrap Trade
Corporation Limited) under the Ministry of Steel.
Note: The most recent successful strategic sale of a Public Sector Unit (PSU) was the
acquisition of Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited (NINL) by Tata Steel Long Products Limited
(TSLP), a unit of Tata Steel Limited, which was completed as part of the government’s
disinvestment program in 2022-23.

4. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has granted approval for Naspers
Ventures B.V. (Naspers Ventures) to acquire less than _______ equity
shareholding in Vastu Housing Finance Corporation Limited (VHFCL) on a fully
diluted basis.
Option 1: 5%
Option 2: 10%
Option 3: 15%
Option 4: 50%
Option 5: 51%
Answer: 2) 10%
Explanation:
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has granted approval for Naspers Ventures
B.V. (Naspers Ventures) to acquire less than 10% equity shareholding in Vastu Housing
Finance Corporation Limited (VHFCL) on a fully diluted basis.
Context:
Approval by CCI for Acquisition of Vastu Housing Finance Corporation by

Naspers Ventures:
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has granted approval for Naspers Ventures
B.V. (Naspers Ventures) to acquire less than 10% equity shareholding in Vastu Housing
Finance Corporation Limited (VHFCL) on a fully diluted basis.
Key Details:
• Naspers Ventures is an indirect, wholly-owned subsidiary of Prosus N.V.,

functioning as an investment holding company primarily engaged in direct and
indirect equity and debt funding.
• VHFCL provides various loan services, including home and construction loans. Its
subsidiary, Vastu Finserve India Private Limited (VFIPL), offers car, vehicle, and
equipment loans.
CCI Approves Acquisition of Home Credit India Stakes by TVS Holdings and
Others
CCI has also approved the acquisition of shares in Home Credit India Finance Private
Limited (Home Credit) by TVS Holdings Limited (TVSH), STPL Trading and Services
Private Limited (STPL), and PI Opportunities Fund-II (PIOF). Additionally, K. Gopala
Desikan, Anuraag Agarwal, V. Ganesh, and GWC Family Fund Investments Pte. Ltd. are
acquiring shares of STPL.
Proposed Combination:
The CCI has approved the acquisition of 100% of Home Credit's issued and paid-up
share capital by the acquirers, including:
• TVSH acquiring 80.74%

• STPL acquiring 8.47%

• PIOF acquiring 10.79%
Furthermore, K. Gopala Desikan, Anuraag Agarwal, V. Ganesh, and GWC are acquiring
2.6%, 4.3%, 2.7%, and 90.4% of STPL's equity share capital, respectively.
Key Points:
• In May 2024, TVS Holdings' board approved the acquisition of an 80.74% equity
stake in Home Credit for ₹554.06 crore.
• The remaining 19.26% will be acquired by Premji Invest and other associates.
• This transaction enables TVS Holdings to strengthen its presence across various
regions in India and broaden its financial customer base.
Key Entities:
• Home Credit is part of an international consumer finance provider group

operating in Europe and Asia.
• TVSH is a Core Investment Company (CIC) registered with the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI), involved in sectors such as automotive, financial services, and real
estate.
• STPL is an inactive company registered in India and abroad, established for
trading goods and securities.
• PIOF is a Category-I Alternate Investment Fund (AIF) registered with the
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and associated with the Premji
Invest Group.
CCI Approves Craftsman Automation Ltd's Full Acquisition of Sunbeam

Lightweighting Solutions
The CCI has also approved Craftsman Automation Limited's acquisition of 100% share
capital of Sunbeam Lightweighting Solutions Private Limited on a fully diluted basis.
Key Points:
• Craftsman Automation is a publicly listed company in India, operating in the

powertrain, aluminum products, and industrial and engineering sectors.
• Sunbeam Lightweighting Solutions is a private company incorporated in India,
owned by Kedaara Capital Fund II LLP, specializing in automotive aluminum die-
casting and aluminum auto-components for two-wheelers and passenger vehicles.
About the Competition Commission of India (CCI):
• Chairperson: Ravneet Kaur

• Headquarters: New Delhi, Delhi
• Operational Since: 2009

5. State Bank of India (SBI) General Insurance Company Limited has introduced
the _______________, an add-on health insurance product designed to enhance
existing basic health coverage, whether for corporate or personal loans, in a
cost-effective manner.
Option 1: SBI Health Super Top-Up plan

Option 2: SBIG Health Super Top-Up plan
Option 3: SBIL Health Super Top-Up plan
Option 4: SBIT Health Super Top-Up plan
Answer: 2) SBIG Health Super Top-Up plan
Explanation:
State Bank of India (SBI) General Insurance Company Limited has introduced the SBIG
Health Super Top-Up plan, an add-on health insurance product designed to enhance
existing basic health coverage, whether for corporate or personal loans, in a cost-
effective manner. This policy aims to provide extensive support during unforeseen
medical emergencies that are typically not covered by standard health plans. This
initiative is particularly relevant given the increasing prevalence of lifestyle diseases
and annual medical inflation of approximately 14%.
Context:
Introduction of SBIG Health Super Top-Up Plan by SBI General Insurance

Company Limited:
State Bank of India (SBI) General Insurance Company Limited has introduced the SBIG
Health Super Top-Up plan, an add-on health insurance product designed to enhance
existing basic health coverage, whether for corporate or personal loans, in a cost-
effective manner. This policy aims to provide extensive support during unforeseen
medical emergencies that are typically not covered by standard health plans. This
initiative is particularly relevant given the increasing prevalence of lifestyle diseases
and annual medical inflation of approximately 14%.
Key Features:
1. Flexible Deductible Options: Offers both annual and long-term aggregated

deductible choices.
2. Sum Insured Options: Provides two coverage options with sum insured amounts
ranging from ₹5 lakhs to ₹4 crores, and deductibles from ₹2 lakhs to ₹2 crores.
3. Cumulative Bonus Protection: Includes cumulative bonus protection with no
reduction during claims.
4. Long-Term Policy Options: Available for durations of up to three years.
5. Unlimited Restore Benefit: Features an unlimited restore benefit for related or
unrelated illnesses and injuries.
6. Affordable Premiums: Premiums start at ₹3,377 for individuals aged 18-35
years.

7. Reduced Waiting Periods and Global Coverage: Offers options to minimize

waiting periods and provides global coverage.
8. Early Adoption Discount: To promote early enrollment, SBI General Insurance is
offering a one-time welcome discount of 5% on all policies purchased within five
days of receiving a quote.
9. Claims Payment Conditions: Claims under this policy are payable when the
primary health insurance coverage is exhausted or when expenses exceed the
deductible amount.
10. Target Audience: Particularly suitable for group and retail health customers,
urban and semi-urban populations with inadequate or no insurance, as well as
high-net-worth individuals seeking extensive coverage.
About SBI General Insurance Company Limited:
• Managing Director (MD) & Chief Executive Officer (CEO): Naveen Chandra
Jha
• Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra
• Founded: 2009
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the new digital payment products
launched by City Union Bank Limited?
Option 1: Delegate payments

Option 2: Unified Payments Interface (UPI) lite auto topup
Option 3: National Common Mobility Card (NCMC)
Option 4: Swift credit card on UPI
Option 5: Loan against securities (Mutual Fund)
Answer: 4) Swift credit card on UPI
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 4) Swift credit card on UPI. Among the products listed,
Swift credit card on UPI was not mentioned as one of the offerings introduced by City
Union Bank Limited at the Global Fintech Fest 2024. The bank unveiled various other
products, including Delegate payments, UPI lite auto topup, NCMC, and Loan against
securities (Mutual Fund), but the Swift credit card on UPI was not part of the new
launches.
Context:
City Union Bank Limited's Launch of 8 Payment Products at the 5th Global
Fintech Fest 2024:
City Union Bank Limited (CUB), a prominent scheduled commercial bank in the private
sector, has unveiled a suite of eight innovative digital payment products and solutions
aimed at enhancing the financial ecosystem for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises
(MSMEs) as well as retail customers. This launch took place during the 5th edition of the

Global Fintech Fest (GFF 2024), held from August 28 to 30, 2024, at the Jio World
Convention Centre in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
New Products & Services:
1. Digital Payment Products: The new offerings include:
◦ Delegate Payments
◦ Unified Payments Interface (UPI) Lite Auto Top-up
◦ National Common Mobility Card (NCMC)
◦ Credit Line on UPI
◦ RuPay Credit Card on UPI
◦ Loan Against Securities (Mutual Fund)
2. Innovative Services: Two new services, Open Network Digital Commerce

(ONDC) for MSMEs and ONDC for Retail, have been launched to specifically
address the needs of the MSME and retail sectors. Through the ONDC platform,
CUB aims to support MSMEs with various services, including:
◦ Digital store management

◦ Digital ledger and inventory management
◦ E-invoicing
◦ Collateral-free business loans
◦ Payments and collections
◦ Expense management
◦ Filing Income Tax (IT) and Goods and Services Tax (GST) returns
These advancements are expected to promote the adoption of digital payments in India
by streamlining payment processes, enhancing transaction security, and improving the
customer experience for both businesses and consumers.
About City Union Bank Limited (CUB):
• Established: Originally incorporated as The Kumbakonam Bank Limited in 1904,

it was renamed City Union Bank Limited in December 1987.
• Managing Director (MD) & Chief Executive Officer (CEO): Dr. N. Kamakodi
• Headquarters: Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu (TN)
• Tagline: Trust and Excellence Since 1904
7. Axis Bank Limited, in collaboration with Mastercard, has introduced MyBiz, a

credit card tailored for _______________.
Option 1: sole proprietors and Small-and-Medium Enterprises (SME) owners

Option 2: retired senior citizens
Option 3: salaried class
Option 4: working women
Answer: 1) sole proprietors and Small-and-Medium Enterprises (SME) owners
Explanation:

Axis Bank Limited, in collaboration with Mastercard, has introduced MyBiz, a business
credit card tailored for sole proprietors and Small-and-Medium Enterprises (SME)
owners. This credit card, part of the World Mastercard category, offers a variety of
business and travel benefits designed to meet the unique needs of SME owners.
Context:
Partnership between Axis Bank and Mastercard for MyBiz Credit Card for
Small Business Owners:
Axis Bank Limited, in collaboration with Mastercard, has introduced MyBiz, a business
credit card tailored for sole proprietors and Small-and-Medium Enterprises (SME)
owners. This credit card, part of the World Mastercard category, offers a variety of
business and travel benefits designed to meet the unique needs of SME owners.
Key Features:
1. Digital Experience: The MyBiz credit card provides a fully digital solution,
simplifying the user experience for small business clients.
2. Enhanced Purchasing Power: Cardholders benefit from increased purchasing
power and greater rewards.
3. Employee Control & Protection: The card offers enhanced employee controls
and zero liability protection for small business clients.
Benefits:
1. Travel Perks: Includes access to airport lounges and travel insurance.

2. Business Support Services: Offers services like marketing tools, productivity
enhancements, online readiness, security services, and compliance assistance
through Mastercard Easy Savings Special.
3. Exclusive Experiences: Cardholders can enjoy unique experiences in culinary
arts, wellness, and sports through priceless.com.
About Axis Bank Limited:
• Managing Director (MD) & CEO: Amitabh Chaudhry

• Founded: December 3, 1993
About Mastercard:
• CEO: Michael Miebach

• Chairman (Mastercard India): Rajnish Kumar
• Founded: 1966
• Headquarters: New York, United States

8. Axis Asset Management Company Limited (Axis AMC) has introduced the AXIS
CRISIL-IBX AAA NBFC Index Jun 2027 Fund, an __________ Target Maturity Index
Fund that invests in the constituents of the CRISIL-IBX AAA NBFC Index Jun
2027.
Option 1: closed-ended
Option 2: open-ended
Option 3: hybrid
Option 4: alternative
Answer: 2) open-ended
Explanation:
Axis Asset Management Company Limited (Axis AMC) has introduced the AXIS CRISIL-
IBX AAA NBFC Index Jun 2027 Fund, an open-ended Target Maturity Index Fund that
invests in the constituents of the CRISIL-IBX AAA NBFC Index Jun 2027. This marks the
first target maturity mutual fund scheme in India focused on the Non-Banking Financial
Company (NBFC) sector. The fund offers moderate interest rate risk and relatively low
credit risk. The New Fund Offer (NFO) is open for subscription until September 23, 2024,
with a maturity date set for June 30, 2027.
Context:
Axis AMC Launches India's First NBFC-Focused Target Maturity Fund: AXIS
CRISIL-IBX AAA NBFC Index Jun 2027 Fund:
Axis Asset Management Company Limited (Axis AMC) has introduced the AXIS CRISIL-
IBX AAA NBFC Index Jun 2027 Fund, an open-ended Target Maturity Index Fund that
invests in the constituents of the CRISIL-IBX AAA NBFC Index Jun 2027. This marks the
first target maturity mutual fund scheme in India focused on the Non-Banking Financial
Company (NBFC) sector. The fund offers moderate interest rate risk and relatively low
credit risk. The New Fund Offer (NFO) is open for subscription until September 23, 2024,
with a maturity date set for June 30, 2027.
Key Details:
• Minimum Investment: The scheme requires a minimum investment of Rs 5,000,

with additional investments in multiples of Re 1.
• Passive Strategy: The fund provides exposure to high-quality, AAA-rated NBFCs
through a passive investment approach that tracks the index.
• Asset Allocation: The scheme will allocate 95% to 100% of its assets to fixed-
income instruments linked to the index, while a small portion will be set aside for
liquidity needs through debt and money market instruments.
• Buy-and-Hold Strategy: The fund follows a buy-and-hold strategy, meaning the
NBFC-issued debt instruments will be held until maturity, unless sold to meet
redemptions or for portfolio rebalancing.
• Fund Manager: The scheme will be managed by Aditya Pagaria, Fund Manager-
Fixed Income at Axis AMC.

9. Which bank has recently introduced a Multi-Currency World Travel Card

(MCWTC), a prepaid foreign currency card that enables users to load and
manage multiple currencies on a single card?
Option 1: Bank of Baroda

Option 2: Canara Bank
Option 3: Punjab National Bank
Option 4: Indian Bank
Option 5: State Bank of India
Answer: 3) Punjab National Bank
Explanation:
Punjab National Bank (PNB) has introduced the PNB Multi-Currency World Travel
Card (MCWTC), a prepaid foreign currency card that enables users to load and
manage multiple currencies on a single card. This card supports six major foreign
currencies: United States Dollar (USD), Euro (EUR), British Pound Sterling (GBP), United
Arab Emirates Dirham (AED), Canadian Dollar (CAD), and Singapore Dollar (SGD).
Context:
Punjab National Bank Launches Multi-Currency World Travel Card for Hassle-
Free International Transactions:
Punjab National Bank (PNB) has introduced the PNB Multi-Currency World Travel Card
(MCWTC), a prepaid foreign currency card that enables users to load and manage
multiple currencies on a single card. This card supports six major foreign currencies:
United States Dollar (USD), Euro (EUR), British Pound Sterling (GBP), United Arab
Emirates Dirham (AED), Canadian Dollar (CAD), and Singapore Dollar (SGD).
About PNB MCWTC:
• Eligibility: Indian nationals with a valid Permanent Account Number (PAN) who
wish to travel abroad for any purpose permitted by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI).
Features:
1. The card can be used worldwide, except in India, Nepal, and Bhutan.
2. It can be issued against cash for amounts below Rs. 50,000. The card is equipped
with 3D Secure and Chip-and-Personal Identification Number (PIN) technology,
offering real-time transaction alerts.
3. Users can lock in exchange rates at the time of loading, helping them avoid
fluctuations in currency rates while traveling.
4. The card is accepted at Automated Teller Machines (ATMs), point-of-sale (POS)
terminals, and for online transactions globally. It also supports contactless
payments for added convenience.

5. It includes insurance coverage of up to Rs. 3.50 lakh for theft or misuse.
About Punjab National Bank (PNB):
• Founded: 12th April 1895 in Lahore; nationalized on 19th July 1969.

• Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO): Atul Kumar Goel
• Tagline: "The Name You Can Bank Upon"
10. BOBCARD Limited, a wholly-owned subsidiary of Bank of Baroda (BoB) and a

Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC), has teamed up with _______ to introduce
an Equated Monthly Installment (EMI) feature for Unified Payments Interface
(UPI) transactions.
Option 1: RuPay
Option 2: NPCIL
Option 3: SBI
Option 4: ICICI Bank
Answer: 1) RuPay
Explanation:
BOBCARD Limited, a wholly-owned subsidiary of Bank of Baroda (BoB) and a Non-

Banking Financial Company (NBFC), has teamed up with RuPay to introduce an
Equated Monthly Installment (EMI) feature for Unified Payments Interface
(UPI) transactions. This new option enables users to convert their purchases into
EMIs, enhancing their payment experience.
Context:
BOBCARD and RuPay Launch EMI Feature for UPI Payments to Enhance Digital
Credit Adoption:
BOBCARD Limited, a wholly-owned subsidiary of Bank of Baroda (BoB) and a Non-

Banking Financial Company (NBFC), has teamed up with RuPay to introduce an
Equated Monthly Installment (EMI) feature for Unified Payments Interface
(UPI) transactions. This new option enables users to convert their purchases into
EMIs, enhancing their payment experience.
Key Highlights:
1. Users can make payments via UPI at both online and offline merchants, with the
option to convert transactions into EMIs during the checkout process.
2. Customers can directly apply for EMIs using their linked RuPay credit card on any
UPI app, providing their UPI PIN for authorization.
3. At the time of payment, users can choose the EMI option and select their
preferred installment period, as well as track ongoing EMIs through the UPI app.

4. This feature is particularly targeted at the festive season to encourage digital

credit adoption, especially in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.
Note: BOBCARD Limited, based in Mumbai, Maharashtra, was previously known as BOB
Financial Solutions Limited and was established in 1994.
11. ____________ has joined forces with Kotak Mahindra Life Insurance Company
Limited to introduce life insurance solutions, thereby broadening its product
offerings and improving financial security for its customers.
Option 1: AU Small Finance Bank

Option 2: Jana Small Finance Bank
Option 3: Dwara Small Finance Bank
Option 5: Canara Bank
Answer: 1) AU Small Finance Bank
Explanation:
AU Small Finance Bank (AU SFB) has joined forces with Kotak Mahindra Life
Insurance Company Limited to introduce life insurance solutions, thereby broadening its
product offerings and improving financial security for its customers.
Context:
AU Small Finance Bank Partners with Kotak Mahindra Life Insurance to

Enhance Financial Security for Customers:
AU Small Finance Bank (AU SFB) has joined forces with Kotak Mahindra Life
Insurance Company Limited to introduce life insurance solutions, thereby broadening its
product offerings and improving financial security for its customers.
1. This partnership grants AU SFB customers access to Kotak Life's extensive range
of life insurance products, which includes term, retirement, savings, and
investment plans.
2. The collaboration caters to both new and existing customers, encompassing those
from the former Fincare SFB branches.
3. This alliance will bolster AU SFB's presence in southern India by leveraging Kotak
Life's diverse portfolio.
12. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has permitted Mutual
Funds (MFs) to sell ___________ to enhance liquidity in the corporate bond market.
Option 1: Bearer Bond

Option 2: Government Bond

Option 3: Shares and Debentures

Option 4: Credit Default Swaps
Answer: 4) Credit Default Swaps
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has permitted Mutual Funds
(MFs) to sell Credit Default Swaps (CDSs) to enhance liquidity in the
corporate bond market. This decision was announced in a circular issued by SEBI,
exercising its powers under Section 11 (1) of the SEBI Act, 1992, along with the relevant
provisions of regulation 43 (1) and regulation 77 of the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations,
1996. Previously, MFs were only allowed to engage in CDS transactions as buyers,
primarily to hedge credit risks on corporate bonds within Fixed Maturity Plans (FMPs)
lasting over one year.
Context:
SEBI's Decision to Permit Mutual Funds to Trade Credit Default Swaps for
Enhancing Corporate Bond Market Liquidity:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has permitted Mutual Funds
(MFs) to sell Credit Default Swaps (CDSs) to enhance liquidity in the
corporate bond market. This decision was announced in a circular issued by SEBI,
exercising its powers under Section 11 (1) of the SEBI Act, 1992, along with the relevant
provisions of regulation 43 (1) and regulation 77 of the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations,
1996. Previously, MFs were only allowed to engage in CDS transactions as buyers,
primarily to hedge credit risks on corporate bonds within Fixed Maturity Plans (FMPs)
lasting over one year.
Key Changes: i. MF schemes can now sell CDSs only when investing in synthetic debt
securities backed by cash, Government Securities (G-Secs), or Treasury Bills (T-bills).
ii. According to the new guidelines, the total exposure for a scheme, including both the
buying and selling of CDSs, must not exceed 10% of the scheme's assets. CDSs
will be valued based on actual traded levels or credit spreads.
iii. SEBI has instructed MFs to disclose details of their CDS transactions, including the
rating of the CDS seller and dealings with sponsor group companies.
Note: CDSs are credit derivatives that protect buyers against potential defaults,
allowing them to manage and transfer credit risk.
13. Which of the following are correct regarding the recently revised framework
released by SEBI as per the Equity Shares Regulations, 2024?
Option 1: Promoters can propose to buy back all publicly held shares at a price that is at
least 25% higher than the stock's fair price.

Option 2: The floor price cannot be lower than the highest price paid in acquisitions during
the 26 weeks leading up to the reference date.
Option 3: Investment holding companies (holdcos) must ensure that at least 75% of their
fair value consists of direct investments in equity shares of other listed companies.
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has revised the Delisting of
Equity Shares Regulations, 2024, allowing companies to delist their shares through
a fixed price process as an alternative to the Reverse Book Building (RBB) process. This
change aims to enhance the ease of doing business for listed companies.
Key Changes:
1. Buyback Offer: Under the new framework, promoters can propose to buy back
all publicly held shares at a price that is at least 15% higher than the stock's
fair price. This framework applies only to companies with frequently traded
shares.
2. Fixed Delisting Price: If the acquirer opts for the fixed price process, they must
offer a delisting price that is at least 15% above the floor price, which is
determined according to Regulation 19A of the new regulations.
3. Floor Price Calculation: The floor price cannot be lower than the highest
price paid in acquisitions during the 26 weeks leading up to the reference date, or
based on other criteria, including the volume-weighted average price paid by the
acquirer in the 52 weeks prior to the reference date and adjusted book value.
4. Participation Threshold: SEBI has lowered the threshold for successful delisting
under the RBB process from 90% to 75% of public shareholder participation,
provided that at least 50% of public shareholding has been tendered.
5. Investment Holding Companies: Investment holding companies (holdcos) must

ensure that at least 75% of their fair value consists of direct investments in
equity shares of other listed companies. This fair value will be determined through
a joint report from two independent valuers. Additionally, shares of holdcos that
are delisted will not be eligible for relisting for three years following the delisting.
Context:
Amendments to SEBI Regulations on Delisting of Equity Shares and

Introduction of Fixed Price Process:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has revised the Delisting of
Equity Shares Regulations, 2024, allowing companies to delist their shares through
a fixed price process as an alternative to the Reverse Book Building (RBB) process. This
change aims to enhance the ease of doing business for listed companies. These

amendments have been enacted under the authority of Section 31 in conjunction with
Section 21A of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, and Section 30,
subsection (1) of Section 11, and subsection (2) of Section 11A of the SEBI Act, 1992.
The updated regulations are now referred to as the SEBI (Delisting of Equity Shares)
(Amendment) Regulations, 2024.
Key Changes:
1. Buyback Offer: Under the new framework, promoters can propose to buy back
all publicly held shares at a price that is at least 15% higher than the stock's
fair price. This framework applies only to companies with frequently traded
shares.
2. Fixed Delisting Price: If the acquirer opts for the fixed price process, they must
offer a delisting price that is at least 15% above the floor price, which is
determined according to Regulation 19A of the new regulations.
3. Floor Price Calculation: The floor price cannot be lower than the highest
price paid in acquisitions during the 26 weeks leading up to the reference date, or
based on other criteria, including the volume-weighted average price paid by the
acquirer in the 52 weeks prior to the reference date and adjusted book value.
4. Participation Threshold: SEBI has lowered the threshold for successful delisting
under the RBB process from 90% to 75% of public shareholder participation,
provided that at least 50% of public shareholding has been tendered.
5. Investment Holding Companies: Investment holding companies (holdcos) must

ensure that at least 75% of their fair value consists of direct investments in
equity shares of other listed companies. This fair value will be determined through
a joint report from two independent valuers. Additionally, shares of holdcos that
are delisted will not be eligible for relisting for three years following the delisting.
Financial Implications:
The new fixed price process is projected to save approximately ₹200 crore over five
years due to reduced operational costs.
Key Definitions:
• Fixed Delisting Price: The price offered by an acquirer for the delisting of
shares.
• Floor Price: The minimum price set in delisting proposals.
About SEBI:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the principal regulatory authority
for the securities and commodity markets in India. Established as a non-statutory body
in April 1988, it gained statutory status through the SEBI Act, 1992, on January 30,
1992. The current chairman is Madhabi Puri Buch, and the headquarters is located in
Mumbai, Maharashtra.

14. What is the main objective of IDBI Bank's Sugam Rinn Bhugtan Yojana
(SUGAM Scheme)?
Option 1: To extend the repayment period for non-retail borrowers

Option 2: To offer financial rewards to high-performing borrowers
Option 3: To facilitate recovery from non-performing retail loans
Option 4: To provide discounts on future loans
Answer: 3) To facilitate recovery from non-performing retail loans
Explanation:
The main goal of the Sugam Rinn Bhugtan Yojana (SUGAM Scheme) by IDBI Bank is to
aid in the recovery process of non-performing retail loans. The scheme is
designed to help distressed borrowers settle their dues and avoid legal complications,
providing a chance for recovery without facing harsh consequences.
Context:
IDBI Bank Introduces Settlement Scheme for Retail NPA Borrowers to Enhance
Recovery:
IDBI Bank has introduced the Sugam Rinn Bhugtan Yojana (SUGAM Scheme), a
one-time settlement (OTS)/Negotiated Settlement scheme aimed at recovering non-
performing retail loans. This scheme is available for borrowers with outstanding
principal amounts ranging between ₹10 lakh and ₹10 crore, offering more lenient terms
for loans categorized as Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) as of March 31, 2021, and
continuing until August 31, 2024. The scheme will be active from September 2,
2024, to March 25, 2025.
Key Points:
• Resolution for Distressed Borrowers: The scheme provides an opportunity for

borrowers to settle their dues and avoid legal issues.
• Focus on Long-Standing NPAs: It aims to resolve long-pending retail NPA cases
and facilitate recovery.
• Payment Structure:
◦ Borrowers are required to pay at least 10% of the settlement amount by
December 31, 2024, with the remaining amount payable within 90 days of
the Letter of Approval (LOA) without interest.
◦ Alternatively, the balance can be paid by March 25, 2025, with interest
calculated as the 1-year MCLR as of August 31, 2024, plus 2% simple
interest for payments made after 90 days from the LOA.
◦ All payments must be completed by March 25, 2025, even if the remaining
time from the LOA is less than 90 days.
• Exclusions: Borrowers involved in vendor bill discounting, vendor finance,
corporate guarantees, or cases under the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
as part of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) are not eligible for the OTS.

About IDBI Bank:
• CEO: Rakesh Sharma

• Tagline: Banking For All
15. What route did the CCI use to grant clearance for TIGA Investments'
acquisition of Dream11's parent company?
Option 1: Green channel route

Option 2: Red channel route
Option 3: Blue channel route
Option 4: Yellow channel route
Option 5: Purple channel route
Answer: 1) Green channel route
Explanation:
The CCI gave clearance for TIGA Investments' acquisition under the green channel
route, indicating that the deal is not anticipated to have any adverse effects on
competition in India. This route is used for transactions that are deemed to present no
competition concerns.
Context:
Approval granted to TIGA Investments by CCI for Acquisition of Stake in

Dream11:
TIGA Investments, an investment firm based in Singapore, has been approved by the
Competition Commission of India (CCI) to purchase a share in Dream Sports Inc (DSI),
the parent company of Dream11. The deal, valued at over USD 150 million, comes
after China's Tencent Holdings decided to sell its entire stake in Dream Sports due to
regulatory pressures on Chinese investments in India.
Key Points: i. As part of the agreement, Tiga Acquisition Corp III will buy preferred
stock and specific rights from an existing shareholder of Dream Sports, whose identity
remains undisclosed.
ii. The CCI clearance for TIGA Investments' acquisition was granted under the green
channel route, signifying that the transaction is not expected to have any negative
impact on competition in India.
iii. Established in 2008, Dream11 is a prominent fantasy gaming platform in India that
has shown considerable growth, with a 32% rise in net profit for the fiscal year 2023.

16. What is the main focus of Bharat Serums and Vaccines Limited (BSV)?
Option 1: Research, development, and manufacturing of FDFs and APIs.

Option 2: Biotech and biological formulations, food supplements, medical devices, and
Ayurvedic medicines.
Option 3: Focusing on therapeutic areas such as gynecology, in vitro fertilization (IVF),
critical care, and emergency medicine.
Answer: 4) All 1), 2) and 3)
Explanation:
Bharat Serums and Vaccines Limited's primary areas of expertise include

gynaecology, IVF, critical care, and emergency medicine. This focus distinguishes
BSV's core activities within the pharmaceutical industry, emphasizing specific
therapeutic segments for which the company develops and manufactures relevant
products.
Context:
Approval Granted for Mankind Pharma Ltd.'s Acquisition of Bharat Serums

and Vaccines Limited:
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has granted approval for Mankind Pharma
Ltd. to acquire Bharat Serums and Vaccines Limited (BSV) for ₹13,630 crores, which
entails a complete takeover of BSV's shareholding (100% stake). Mankind Pharma
intends to raise up to ₹10,000 crores through non-convertible debentures and
commercial papers, including an issuance of up to ₹5,000 crores in non-convertible
debentures, structured in 3-4 series with maturities of up to 48 months.
Key Points:
1. Mankind Pharma Ltd.: This publicly listed company specializes in the

development, manufacturing, and marketing of a wide range of pharmaceutical
products, including:
◦ Finished dosage formulations (FDFs) for both acute and chronic conditions.
◦ Consumer healthcare products.
◦ Active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs) and packaging solutions through its
subsidiaries.
2. Bharat Serums and Vaccines Limited (BSV): BSV is involved in:
◦ Research, development, and manufacturing of FDFs and APIs.

◦ Biotech and biological formulations, food supplements, medical devices, and
Ayurvedic medicines.
◦ Focusing on therapeutic areas such as gynecology, in vitro fertilization (IVF),
critical care, and emergency medicine.

17. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has mandated that
individual investors applying for amounts up to __________ via intermediaries—
such as syndicate members, registered stock brokers, registrars to an issue,
transfer agents, and depository participants—must now use the Unified
Payments Interface (UPI) to block funds.
Option 1: Rs 10 lakh
Option 2: Rs 5 lakh
Option 4: Rs 50 akh
Answer: 2) Rs 5 lakh
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has mandated that individual
investors applying for amounts up to Rs 5 lakh via intermediaries—such as syndicate
members, registered stock brokers, registrars to an issue, transfer agents, and
depository participants—must now use the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) to
block funds. These regulations will take effect for public issues of debt securities
starting from November 1, 2024.
Context:
SEBI Mandates UPI for Small Investors in Public Debt Issues and NPCI Updates
UPI AutoPay Rules:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has mandated that individual
investors applying for amounts up to Rs 5 lakh via intermediaries—such as syndicate
members, registered stock brokers, registrars to an issue, transfer agents, and
depository participants—must now use the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) to
block funds. These regulations will take effect for public issues of debt securities
starting from November 1, 2024.
Key Points:
1. The move is intended to simplify the application process for public issues of debt
securities, non-convertible redeemable preference shares, municipal debt
securities, and securitized debt instruments, aligning it with the process for public
issues of equity shares and convertibles.
2. Despite this change, individual investors will still have the option to use other
methods, such as Self Certified Syndicate Banks (SCSBs) and stock exchange
platforms, to apply for a public issue.
UPI AutoPay Rule Changes:

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has updated the UPI Autopay
framework, eliminating the need for a 24-hour pre-debit notification for two
types of recurring payments:
1. Auto-replenishment of the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) FASTag.

2. RuPay National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) top-ups.
These changes align with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)'s Statement on
Developmental and Regulatory Policies from July 7, 2024, which introduced an e-
mandate framework for automatic balance top-ups for NETC FASTag and RuPay NCMC.
Key Details:
1. Auto-replenishment will now occur automatically when the balance falls below a
customer-set threshold, providing more flexibility for users.
2. UPI members have been directed to remove the Pre-Debit Notification (PDN)
validation for UPI Autopay transactions related to these specific Merchant
Category Codes (MCCs).
18. Which measure is aimed at preventing speculative activity around options

positions on the day of options contracts expiry?
Option 1: Upfront collection of Option Premium from buyers

Option 2: Removal of Calendar Spread Treatment on the Expiry Day
Option 3: Intraday monitoring of position limits
Option 4: Increase in tail risk coverage on the day of options expiry
Option 5: Limiting Weekly Index Expiry to One Per Exchange
Answer: 4) Increase in tail risk coverage on the day of options expiry
Explanation:
The measure aimed at preventing speculative activity around options positions on the
day of options contracts expiry is the increase in tail risk coverage by levying an
additional Extreme Loss Margin (ELM) of 2% for short option contracts. This
new rule helps to mitigate risks associated with short options contracts due for expiry
on the same day, reducing speculative activities and risks on that day.
Context:
SEBI's Measures to Control Speculation in Stock Market:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has introduced six new measures
to the index derivatives trading framework in an effort to reduce excessive speculation,
following concerns over significant losses faced by individual traders. These reforms
were introduced through a circular issued under Section 11(1) and Section 11(2)(a) of
the SEBI Act, 1992, along with Regulation 51 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation)
(Stock Exchanges and Clearing Corporations) Regulations, 2018 (SECC). The measures
include:

No. Measure Effective From

1 Upfront collection of Option Premium from buyers 1st February 2025
2 Removal of Calendar spread treatment on Expiry Day 1st February 2025
3 Intraday monitoring of position limits 1st April 2025
4 Contract size for index derivatives 20th November 2024
5 Rationalization of Weekly Index derivatives products 20th November 2024
6 Increase in tail risk coverage on options expiry 20th November 2024
Key Points:
• These measures will be implemented in phases starting on 20th November 2024.

• SEBI had earlier formed an Expert Working Group (EWG) to assess the regulatory
framework aimed at safeguarding investors and promoting the growth of the
equity derivatives market.
• On 30th July 2024, SEBI released a consultation paper based on EWG's
recommendations, which were also discussed by SEBI's Secondary Market
Advisory Committee (SMAC).
Details of the 6 Measures:
1. Upfront Collection of Option Premium from Buyers:
◦ Starting 1st February 2025, SEBI will require the upfront collection of options
premiums from buyers through their Trading Member (TM) or Clearing
Member (CM). This is intended to limit intraday leverage and discourage
positions beyond available collateral at the client level.
2. Removal of Calendar Spread Treatment on Expiry Day:
◦ To mitigate the risks associated with the high trading volumes seen on
expiry days, SEBI will remove the benefit of calendar spread (offsetting
positions across different expiries) on the expiry day, effective from 1st
February 2025.
3. Intraday Monitoring of Position Limits:
◦ Stock exchanges will be required to monitor position limits throughout the

day, with at least four position snapshots taken during trading hours,
starting on 1st April 2025. This will reduce the risk of positions being created
beyond allowable limits on expiry days.
4. Reduction in Minimum Contract Size for Index Derivatives:
◦ From 20th November 2024, SEBI will increase the minimum contract size for
index Futures & Options (F&O) derivatives to Rs 15 lakh. The lot size will be
structured so that the contract value remains between Rs 15 lakh and Rs 20
lakh, marking SEBI’s first revision since 2015.
5. Limiting Weekly Index Expiry to One Per Exchange:
◦ SEBI has decided to rationalize weekly index derivatives products. Each

exchange (NSE and BSE) will be limited to offering one weekly index

derivative product from 20th November 2024, aiming to curb excessive

trading on expiry days.
6. Increase in Tail Risk Coverage on Options Expiry Day:
◦ SEBI has introduced a 2% Extreme Loss Margin (ELM) for short option
contracts on the day of expiry, applicable to all open short options and
contracts initiated on the same day. This measure, effective from 20th
November 2024, aims to curb speculative activity around options
positions.
Important Terms:
• F&O Derivatives: These financial derivatives allow traders to speculate on asset

price movements without owning the asset itself. They include underlying assets
like stocks, bonds, commodities, currencies, and indices.
• ELM (Extreme Loss Margin): An additional margin levied by exchanges to
cover risks beyond the expected level predicted by Value at Risk (VaR) models.
About SEBI:
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the primary regulatory body
for securities and commodity markets in India. It was initially established in 1988
as a non-statutory body, but was granted statutory status under the SEBI Act,
1992.
• Chairman: Madhabi Puri Buch
19. As per recent guidelines, SEBI now requires publicly placed InvITs to declare
distributions at least _______, while privately placed InvITs must do so _______.
Option 1: semi-annually, annually

Option 2: quarterly, semi-annually
Option 3: annually, every two years
Option 4: quarterly, annually
Answer: 1) semi-annually, annually
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has implemented several
amendments to the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014, and the
SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014, as authorized under Section
30 in conjunction with Sections 11 and 12 of the SEBI Act, 1992 (15 of 1992).
A major change is the reduction of the trading lot size for privately placed Infrastructure
Investment Trusts (InvITs) to ₹25 lakh, aimed at increasing investor participation and
enhancing liquidity in these investment vehicles. These revised regulations are now
referred to as the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) (Third Amendment)
Regulations, 2024, and the SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) (Third Amendment)

Regulations, 2024. The regulations took effect upon official notification by SEBI, with
certain provisions coming into force 60 days later.
Note: Previously, the trading lot for secondary market trading of privately placed InvITs
was ₹1 crore, while it was ₹2 crore if the InvIT invested at least 80% of its asset
value in completed and revenue-generating assets.
Key Changes for REITs and InvITs:
1. Distribution Declarations: SEBI now requires publicly placed InvITs to declare

distributions at least semi-annually (every six months), while privately
placed InvITs must do so annually.
2. Distribution Timeline: The new regulations mandate that Real Estate

Investment Trusts (REITs) and InvITs must complete distributions to unit holders
within five working days from the record date, thereby improving efficiency
and allowing investors quicker access to funds.
3. Meeting Notices: Both REITs and InvITs can now convene meetings with
unitholders after providing shorter notice (less than 21 days), provided they
obtain consent in writing or electronically. For annual meetings, a minimum of
95% unit holder consent is required, while majority consent is needed for other
meetings.
Context:
SEBI's New Regulations for Infrastructure and Real Estate Investment Trusts
(InvITs and REITs):
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has implemented several
amendments to the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014, and the
SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014, as authorized under Section
30 in conjunction with Sections 11 and 12 of the SEBI Act, 1992 (15 of 1992).
A major change is the reduction of the trading lot size for privately placed Infrastructure
Investment Trusts (InvITs) to ₹25 lakh, aimed at increasing investor participation and
enhancing liquidity in these investment vehicles. These revised regulations are now
referred to as the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) (Third Amendment)
Regulations, 2024, and the SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) (Third Amendment)
Regulations, 2024. The regulations took effect upon official notification by SEBI, with
certain provisions coming into force 60 days later.
Note: Previously, the trading lot for secondary market trading of privately placed InvITs
was ₹1 crore, while it was ₹2 crore if the InvIT invested at least 80% of its asset
value in completed and revenue-generating assets.
Key Changes for REITs and InvITs:
1. Distribution Declarations: SEBI now requires publicly placed InvITs to declare

distributions at least semi-annually (every six months), while privately
placed InvITs must do so annually.

Distribution Timeline: The new regulations mandate that Real Estate

2. Investment Trusts (REITs) and InvITs must complete distributions to unit holders
within five working days from the record date, thereby improving efficiency
and allowing investors quicker access to funds.
3. Meeting Notices: Both REITs and InvITs can now convene meetings with
unitholders after providing shorter notice (less than 21 days), provided they
obtain consent in writing or electronically. For annual meetings, a minimum of
95% unit holder consent is required, while majority consent is needed for other
meetings.
4. Remote Participation: The new regulations require that all unit holder meetings
offer options for attendance via video conferencing or other audiovisual means,
alongside remote electronic voting.
5. Voting Requirements: For any issues discussed in meetings needing unit holder
approval, votes in favor must constitute at least 50% of the total votes cast
unless specified otherwise.
6. Backup Systems: The manager and trustee are responsible for maintaining
adequate backup systems, data storage capabilities, and other arrangements for
alternative communication methods for records kept electronically.
7. Continuity Plans: Managers and trustees must ensure a business continuity plan
and disaster recovery site are established for electronically maintained records,
ensuring data and transaction integrity.
Important Terms:
• InvIT: Similar to mutual funds, InvITs allow direct investments from individuals
and institutional investors in infrastructure projects, providing a return on
investment.
• REIT: A company that owns and manages income-generating real estate or
related assets, including office buildings, shopping malls, hotels, and warehouses.
About SEBI:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) serves as the principal regulatory
authority for the securities and commodity markets in India. Initially established as a
non-statutory body in April 1988, SEBI was granted statutory status through the SEBI
Act, 1992, on January 30, 1992. The current chairman is Madhabi Puri Buch, with its
headquarters located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
20. What is the source of the recent funding obtained by SATYA Micro Capital?
Option 1: Axis Bank

Option 2: Mizuho Bank
Option 3: HDFC Bank

Answer: 2) Mizuho Bank
Explanation:
SATYA Micro Capital has secured Rs 100 Crore in funding from Mizuho Bank. This
funding marks the first collaboration between SATYA and Mizuho Bank and will enable
SATYA to enhance its operations and product offerings.
Context:
Funding Boost for SATYA Micro Capital from Mizuho Bank, Fostering Women
Entrepreneurs:
New Delhi-based SATYA Micro Capital Limited, a Non-Banking Financial Company -

Microfinance Institution (NBFC-MFI), has successfully secured ₹100 crore from
Mizuho Bank Limited, a subsidiary of Mizuho Financial Group, Inc., based in Tokyo,
Japan. This marks the first time SATYA has received backing from Mizuho Bank,
broadening its lending network. The infusion of debt funding will allow SATYA to
enhance its operational model, innovate credit offerings, expand its product portfolio,
and streamline business processes for its clients. Additionally, this funding will promote
financial inclusion for micro-entrepreneurs and support women's empowerment through
microfinance initiatives.
21. Bank of Baroda (BoB) has introduced the ___________, a premium savings
account tailored for high-end customers seeking exclusive banking services.
Option 1: BoB Mater Savings Account

Option 2: BoB HiFi Savings Account
Option 3: BoB Master Blaster Savings Account
Option 4: BoB Masterstroke Savings Account
Answer: 4) BoB Masterstroke Savings Account
Explanation:
Bank of Baroda (BoB) has introduced the BoB Masterstroke Savings Account, a
premium savings account tailored for high-end customers seeking exclusive banking
services. The bank also announced the appointment of cricketer Sachin Tendulkar as its
global brand ambassador.
Context:
Bank of Baroda (BoB) Launches BoB Masterstroke Savings Account and

Appoints Sachin Tendulkar as Global Brand Ambassador:

Bank of Baroda (BoB) has introduced the BoB Masterstroke Savings Account, a premium
savings account tailored for high-end customers seeking exclusive banking services.
The bank also announced the appointment of cricketer Sachin Tendulkar as its global
brand ambassador.
About BoB Masterstroke Savings Account:
1. Higher Interest Rates: Offers premium customers higher interest rates through
the Flexi Fixed Deposit facility.
2. Concessional Loan Rates: Provides a 0.25% concession on interest rates for
retail loans, making borrowing easier for account holders.
3. Exclusive Cards: Account holders receive a bob World Opulence Visa Infinite
Debit Card (Metal Edition) and a lifetime-free Eterna Credit Card (subject to
eligibility).
4. High Withdrawal Limits: Allows daily ATM withdrawals up to Rs 5 lakh and Rs
10 lakh for Point of Sale (POS) transactions.
5. Free Transactions: Unlimited free NEFT, RTGS, and IMPS services ensure
convenient banking.
6. Sweep Facility: Enables more efficient fund management for account balances
exceeding Rs 20 lakh.
7. Quarterly Balance Requirement: A Quarterly Average Balance (QAB) of Rs 10
lakh must be maintained, with a Rs 3,000 penalty for non-compliance each
quarter.
Sachin Tendulkar as Global Brand Ambassador:
1. Role: Sachin Tendulkar will promote financial literacy, fraud prevention, and
enhance the bank’s visibility globally.
2. Campaigns: He will feature in all branding campaigns, starting with "Play The
Masterstroke."
BoB to Sell Oman Operations to Bank Dhofar:
Bank of Baroda is in the process of selling its Oman operations to Bank Dhofar as part of
its strategy to streamline foreign operations. This acquisition has been approved by BoB
and is pending regulatory approval.
• Business in Oman: BoB's Oman operations had a total business worth

113.35 million Omani Rial, with a net worth of 25.54 million Omani Rial.
About Bank of Baroda (BoB):
• Managing Director (MD) & CEO: Debadatta Chand

• Headquarters: Vadodara, Gujarat
• Founded: 1908
• Tagline: "India’s International Bank"
22. ___________ has announced a strategic partnership with PhonePe, India's

largest digital platform, to provide instant credit on Unified Payments Interface
(UPI) to its pre-approved customers through the PhonePe app.
Option 1: ICICI Bank Limited

Option 2: Axis Bank Limited

Option 3: HDFC Bank Limited
Option 4: IDBI Bank Limited
Answer: 1) ICICI Bank Limited
Explanation:
ICICI Bank Limited, a leading private sector bank in India, has announced a strategic
partnership with PhonePe, India's largest digital platform, to provide instant credit on
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) to its pre-approved customers through the
PhonePe app. This collaboration allows ICICI Bank's pre-approved customers to
seamlessly and securely use a credit line for UPI transactions. The service has been
introduced ahead of the festive season, enabling customers to make high-value
purchases such as electronics, travel, hotel bookings, and bill payments.
Context:
ICICI Bank Partners with PhonePe to Offer Instant Credit on UPI:
ICICI Bank Limited, a leading private sector bank in India, has announced a strategic
partnership with PhonePe, India's largest digital platform, to provide instant credit on
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) to its pre-approved customers through the
PhonePe app. This collaboration allows ICICI Bank's pre-approved customers to
seamlessly and securely use a credit line for UPI transactions. The service has been
introduced ahead of the festive season, enabling customers to make high-value
purchases such as electronics, travel, hotel bookings, and bill payments.
Key Points:
• Instant Credit Facility: Eligible customers can access up to Rs 2 lakh of credit

with a 45-day repayment period.
• Interoperability: This credit line facility works across different UPI apps,
providing customers with added flexibility and convenience.
Additional Details:
• PhonePe's Market Share: PhonePe holds a 49% market share of UPI

transactions in India, followed by Google Pay with 38%. PhonePe processes
transactions worth approximately Rs 200 crore per month.
• Credit Line on UPI: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched
the credit line on UPI service in 2023, offering small, high-frequency retail loans to
individuals and businesses.
• Other Participating Banks: Besides ICICI Bank, other major banks like Axis
Bank, HDFC Bank, Indian Bank, Punjab National Bank (PNB), and State Bank of
India (SBI) have also adopted this facility on platforms like Google Pay, BHIM, and
Paytm.

About ICICI Bank Limited:
• Managing Director & CEO: Sandeep Bakshi

• Tagline: "Hum Hai Na, Khyal Apka"
About PhonePe:
• CEO: Sameer Nigam

• Headquarters: Bengaluru, Karnataka
23. What was the initial investment amount committed by both JFSL and
BlackRock for their Mutual Fund business in India?
Option 1: USD 130 million each

Answer: 3) USD 150 million each
Explanation:
Both JFSL and BlackRock each committed an initial investment of USD 150 million
for their Mutual Fund business in India, as per the agreement between the two
companies. This significant investment showcases the strong partnership and
commitment towards the growth of the MF industry in India.
Context:
Jio Financial Services and BlackRock's Mutual Fund Business Approval by

SEBI:
Jio Financial Services Limited (JFSL), a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) backed
by Reliance Industries Limited (RIL), has received in-principle approval from the
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to establish a Mutual Fund (MF) business
in partnership with BlackRock Financial Management Inc., the world’s largest asset
manager, based in New York, USA. Final registration approval will be granted by SEBI
once JFSL and BlackRock fulfill the conditions outlined in SEBI's official notification.
Key Points:
• Initial Investment: JFSL will contribute Rs 3 crore for the initial subscription of 30
lakh equity shares, each with a face value of Rs 10.
• Mutual Fund Business: Both companies have committed to invest USD 150
million each towards establishing the MF business in India.

• July 2023: Jio Financial Services announced a 50:50 joint venture with BlackRock
to launch asset management services in India, each contributing USD 150 million.
• SEBI Application: The partners filed for in-principle sponsor approval with SEBI
in the third quarter of FY24.
• April 15, 2024: The partnership was expanded to include wealth management
and broking services.
Joint Venture:
• September 6, 2024: Jio Financial Services and BlackRock Advisors Singapore

Pte. Ltd. formed Jio BlackRock Investment Advisers Private Limited, focused on
investment advisory services.
• Incorporation: The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MoCA) issued the Certificate of
Incorporation on September 7, 2024.
Indian Mutual Fund Industry:
• The industry is growing rapidly, with Assets Under Management (AUM) increasing
from Rs 25.48 lakh crore in 2019 to Rs 66.67 lakh crore in 2024.
About Jio Financial Services Limited (JFSL):
• Managing Director (MD) & CEO: Hitesh Kumar Sethia

• JFSL offers a range of financial services including payment services and insurance
broking.
24. Which platforms are the KrisFlyer SBI Card and KrisFlyer SBI Card Apex
available on?
Option 1: American Express and Mastercard

Option 2: Visa and Discover
Option 3: Diners Club and JCB
Option 4: UnionPay and RuPay
Option 5: Maestro and Verve
Answer: 1) American Express and Mastercard
Explanation:
The KrisFlyer SBI Card and KrisFlyer SBI Card Apex are available on the American
Express and Mastercard platforms, providing users with the convenience and
benefits associated with these widely-accepted card networks. The partnership between
SBI Card and Singapore Airlines aims to offer frequent flyers enhanced rewards and
travel privileges through these co-branded credit cards.

Context:
Partnership Between SBI Card and Singapore Airlines Introduces Two Co-
Branded Credit Cards: KrisFlyer SBI Card and KrisFlyer SBI Card Apex:
SBI Cards and Payment Services Limited (SBI Card), a non-banking financial company,
has partnered with Singapore Airlines (SIA) to introduce two co-branded credit cards:
the KrisFlyer SBI Card and the KrisFlyer SBI Card Apex. These contactless cards,
available on American Express and Mastercard platforms, are designed for frequent
flyers, offering curated rewards.
Key Features:
1. Target Audience:
◦ The travel-centric co-branded credit cards are tailored for super-premium

cardholders, providing exclusive privileges both in the air and on the ground
with the SIA Group, which includes Singapore Airlines, Scoot, KrisShop.com,
the Kris+ lifestyle app, and Pelago.
2. Global Acceptance:
◦ These cards will be accepted at over 24 million outlets worldwide,

including 325,000 outlets in India.
3. Fees:
◦ The joining and annual renewal fee for the KrisFlyer SBI Card is Rs
2,999 plus applicable taxes, while the KrisFlyer SBI Card Apex has a fee
of Rs 9,999 plus applicable taxes.
25. With the recent changes by SEBI, how many nominees can holders of Mutual
Funds and Demat Accounts now include?
Option 1: 5
Option 2: 8
Option 3: 10
Option 4: 12
Option 5: 15
Answer: 3) 10
Explanation:
The recent changes made by SEBI now allow holders of Mutual Funds and Demat
Accounts to include up to 10 nominees, providing them with more flexibility in
managing their investments.
Context:

SEBI's Alteration of Nomination Rules for Demat Account and Mutual Fund
Investments:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has revised the nomination rules for
Mutual Funds (MF) and Demat Accounts, allowing holders to include up to 10
nominees. This decision was made during SEBI's board meeting on September 30,
2024, in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
Key Changes:
• Nominees' Role: Nominees can now act on behalf of investors who are unable
to, with certain safeguards in place. The process for transferring assets to
nominees will be simplified, reducing paperwork.
• Legal Heirs and Creditors: Legal heirs of a deceased nominee will not have
rights over the assets, and creditors’ claims will take priority over the
transmission of assets to nominees.
• Account Freezing: Non-submission of a nomination choice will no longer result in
the freezing of demat accounts or mutual fund folios.
• Joint Accounts: Nomination is optional for joint demat accounts and jointly held
mutual fund folios. Investors can change nominees as often as they like, with no
limit on the number of changes.
• Unique Identifiers: Nominees must be identified using either a PAN, Passport
number, or Aadhar.
26. What primary features distinguish the MakeMyTrip ICICI Bank Credit Card,
especially for aspirational travelers in India?
Option 1: Cardholders earn unlimited reward points that never expire.

Option 2: Unique value through myCash, where 1 myCash is equivalent to Rs 1 in
spendable money.
Option 3: A co-branded card that connects to UPI for secure transactions and offers
myCash rewards.
Explanation:
Overview of the New Credit Card
Mumbai-based ICICI Bank Limited has established a partnership with MakeMyTrip

(MMT), a leading travel company, to introduce a premium co-branded credit card.
Card Details:
• - Named MakeMyTrip ICICI Bank Credit Card- Targeted towards aspirational

travelers in India.
• - Features of the card include:
• - A dual offering with convenience of two cards, powered by Mastercard and
RuPay.

• - Joining Fee: Rs 999.

• - Annual/Renewal Fee: Applicable from the second year.
Rewards Program:
• - Cardholders earn unlimited reward points that never expire.

• - Unique value through myCash, where 1 myCash is equivalent to Rs 1 in
spendable money.
Context:
Launch of MakeMyTrip ICICI Bank Credit Card:
Overview of the New Credit Card
Mumbai-based ICICI Bank Limited has established a partnership with MakeMyTrip

(MMT), a leading travel company, to introduce a premium co-branded credit card.
Card Details:
• - Named MakeMyTrip ICICI Bank Credit Card- Targeted towards aspirational

travelers in India.
• - Features of the card include:
• - A dual offering with convenience of two cards, powered by Mastercard and
RuPay.
• - Joining Fee: Rs 999.
• - Annual/Renewal Fee: Applicable from the second year.
Rewards Program:
• - Cardholders earn unlimited reward points that never expire.

• - Unique value through myCash, where 1 myCash is equivalent to Rs 1 in
spendable money.
Security Features:
• - The RuPay credit card can be linked to Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
for safe and secure transactions through UPI-enabled applications.
Exclusive Benefits:
• - Complimentary MMTBLACK Gold membership for cardholders, which offers

exclusive perks across hotels, flights, and holiday packages.
27. As per recent news, which tech company has recently partnered with Aditya
Birla Finance Limited (ABFL) to offer personal loans?
Option 1: Google
Option 2: Microsoft
Option 3: OpenAI
Option 4: Meta

Answer: 1) Google
Explanation:
Google's Partnerships at the 'Google for India' Event
New Partnerships:
• - Partnered with Aditya Birla Finance Limited (ABFL) to offer personal loans
• - Partnered with Muthoot Finance Limited to provide gold-backed loans
Context:
Google's Partnerships for Enhanced Financial Services:
Google's Partnerships at the 'Google for India' Event
New Partnerships:
• - Partnered with Aditya Birla Finance Limited (ABFL) to offer personal loans
• - Partnered with Muthoot Finance Limited to provide gold-backed loans
Benefits of Partnerships:
• - Access to credit products for Indians

• - Offers affordable interest rates
• - Allows for flexible usage options
• - Provides flexibility to borrowers and security to lenders
Market Insights:
• - Organised gold loan market expected to surpass Rs 10 trillion in FY25

• - May reach Rs 15 trillion by March 2027, according to ICRA Limited.
28. What is the significance of the partnership between NPCI Bharat BillPay
Limited and the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority?
Option 1: It allows individuals to open new NPS accounts directly on the Uni Connect
platform.
Option 2: It enables contributions to existing NPS accounts through various Bharat
Connect-enabled platforms.
Option 3: It eliminates the need for external agencies for PPF contributions.
Option 4: It restricts contributions to only select banks on the Bharat Connect platform.
Option 5: Only 1), 2) and 3)
Answer: 2) It enables contributions to existing NPS accounts through various Bharat

Connect-enabled platforms.

Explanation:
The correct answer is option 2. Individual investors will be able to contribute to existing
NPS accounts using platforms enabled by Bharat Connect. This demonstrates the
partnership's focus on facilitating contributions rather than creating new accounts or
limiting access.
Context:
Integration of NPS into Bharat Connect Platform:
Integration of NPS with Bharat Connect
NPCI Bharat BillPay Limited (NBBL) is a wholly owned subsidiary of the National
Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). They have formed a partnership with the
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) to integrate the
National Pension System (NPS) as a biller category on the Bharat Connect
platform (formerly known as Bharat Bill Payment System-BBPS).
Key Features of the Partnership:
1. Individual investors can now contribute to their existing NPS accounts using
platforms enabled by Bharat Connect.
2. This category has become operational for contributions on various platforms,
including:
• - Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) - PhonePe

• - MobiKwik
• - Kotak Mahindra Bank's net banking channel.
3. Bharat Connect has successfully onboarded all central record-keeping agencies:
• - Protean
• - KFintech
• - Computer Age Management Services Limited (CAMS)
ensuring that every existing NPS customer can utilize Bharat Connect for their
contributions.
Additional Notes:
• - NBBL has collaborated with Axis Bank Limited as a Biller Operating Unit
(BOU) and enlisted technology service provider Setu to aid in the integration of
NPS with the platform.
29. What is the primary purpose behind JM Financial Group's recent acquisitions
as approved by the Competition Commission of India (CCI)?
Option 1: To consolidate its holdings in the wholesale debt syndication and distressed
credit businesses.

Option 2: To lower the risk profile of JM Financial Credit Solutions Limited (JMFCSL) and JM
Financial Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (JMFARC).
Option 3: To increase its equity stake in publicly traded companies.
Option 4: To improve operational efficiency without changing its core business strategy.
Option 5: To comply with regulatory requirements imposed by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI).
Answer: 1) To consolidate its holdings in the wholesale debt syndication and distressed
credit businesses.
Explanation:
The acquisitions aim to consolidate JM Financial Group's holdings under a unified

platform, allowing it to leverage its expertise to achieve higher risk-adjusted
returns.
Context:
JM Financial Group's Strategic Acquisitions:
Overview of the Acquisition
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved JM Financial Limited

(JMFL)’s acquisition of 43% of JM Financial Credit Solutions Limited (JMFCSL) for
approximately Rs 1,282 crore.
• - This acquisition increases JMFL's stake in JMFCSL from 46.68% to 89.67%.

• - JMFCSL is a Non-Deposit-taking Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC)
registered as systematically important by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• - JMFL is listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) and National Stock
Exchange (NSE).
• - JMFRC, a subsidiary of JMFL, operates as an Asset Reconstruction Company
(ARC) under the SARFAESI Act, 2002.
Key Approvals by CCI
1. The CCI has also approved JMFSCL's acquisition of 71.79% of JM Financial Asset
Reconstruction Company Limited (JMFARC) for Rs 856 crore.
• - This will raise JMFSCL’s stake from 9.98% to 81.77%.
Strategic Shift
2. In July 2024, JM Financial Group announced plans to consolidate its holdings for
higher risk-adjusted returns and shift towards a diversified syndication model in
wholesale debt syndication and distressed credit sectors.
3. Expected cash outflow for the transaction is around Rs 426 crore, funded from
JMFL’s surplus cash.

30. What is the significance of the Competition Commission of India's approval

for Patanjali Foods Limited's acquisition of Patanjali Ayurved Limited's HPC
division?
Option 1: It provides Patanjali Foods Limited with an opportunity to expand its FMCG
product offerings.
Option 2: It indicates the financial instability of Patanjali Ayurved Limited's division.
Option 3: It signifies a decrease in related party transactions between Patanjali entities.
Option 4: It represents a turnaround in revenue trends for Patanjali Foods Limited.
Option 5: It highlights the monopoly of Patanjali Foods Limited in the FMCG sector.
Answer: 1) It provides Patanjali Foods Limited with an opportunity to expand its FMCG
product offerings.
Explanation:
The CCI's approval allows Patanjali Foods Limited to acquire a significant business
division which will strengthen its FMCG product portfolio and consequently enhance
its growth in the food sector, making option 1 the most relevant answer.
Context:
Acquisition Approval by CCI for Patanjali Foods Limited:
Acquisition of Home and Personal Care Division
• - The CCI (Competition Commission of India) approved Patanjali Foods Limited's

(PFL) acquisition of the Home and Personal Care (HPC) business division of
Patanjali Ayurved Limited (PAL) for Rs 1100 crore.
• - This acquisition involves related party transactions performed on a fair
value and arms length basis.
Impact on Patanjali's Brand
• - The acquisition is set to strengthen the Patanjali brand's Fast-Moving

Consumer Goods (FMCG) product portfolio.
• - This will further boost the food growth of PFL.
Financial Overview
• - PFL, acquired by PAL via an insolvency process, reported a total revenue of Rs

31,961.62 crore in Financial Year 2023-24 (FY24), up from Rs 31,821.45
crore in FY23.
About the Competition Commission of India (CCI)
• - The CCI is a statutory body formed under the Competition Act, 2002.
• - Chairman: Ravneet Kaur
• - Headquarters: New Delhi, Delhi
• - Established: 2003

31. What are the requirements for an entity to register as a Category 1

Execution-Only Platform (EOP) according to the guidelines set by AMFI?
Option 1: The entity must be a body corporate and have appointed at least three
Compliance Officer.
Option 2: It must ensure that its directors are experienced in the securities market and
meet RBI standards.
Option 3: It must maintain a net worth of at least Rs 1 crore, including capital and
reserves, and have two qualified managerial personnel.
Option 4: The entity should be a public limited company and provide regular audits to GoI.
Option 5: It must have a minimum transaction volume of Rs 7 crore within the last
financial year to qualify.
Answer: 3) It must maintain a net worth of at least Rs 1 crore, including capital and
reserves, and have two qualified managerial personnel.
Explanation:
This answer is correct because the text explicitly states that a Category 1 EOP must
maintain a net worth of at least Rs 1 crore, and it details the requirement of having
at least two key managerial personnel with the appropriate qualifications.
Context:
Understanding Jio Payments Bank's EOP License:
Jio Payments Bank Limited and its EOP License
• - Jio Payments Bank Limited is a subsidiary of Jio Financial Services.

• - It has received a Category 1 Execution-Only Platform (EOP) license from the
Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) for Mutual Fund distribution.
• - The license allows the bank to distribute direct mutual fund plans and
receives transaction fees capped at Rs 2 per transaction.
• - There are currently 15 Category 1 EOPs registered with AMFI.
Key Points:
1. ARN (AMFI Registration Number):
• - Assigned to mutual fund distributors.

• - Acts as a unique identifier ensuring registration and compliance with industry
rules.
Investment Increase:
• - In August 2024, Jio Financial Services raised its stake in Jio Payments Bank from
78.95% to 82.17% with an investment of Rs 68 crore.
About EOP:
• - EOPs act as digital platforms for transactions related to mutual fund direct
plans.

• - Category 1 EOPs can charge transaction fees from asset management

companies (AMCs), while Category 2 EOPs charge investors directly.
• - AMFI-registered EOPs can charge up to Rs 2 and may impose additional
payment gateway charges. AMCs can offer incentives of Rs 0.50.
Criteria to Register as Category 1 EOP:

1. Entity must be a body corporate.
2. Appointment of a Compliance Officer is mandatory.
3. At least two qualified key managerial personnel with a minimum of three years'
experience in the securities market.
4. Key personnel must have qualifications in finance, law, or related fields from
recognized institutions or a post-graduate degree in Securities Market from NISM.
5. The EOP and its directors/partners must be fit and proper persons as per SEBI
regulations.
6. Requirement to maintain a net worth of at least Rs 1 crore as per SEBI guidelines.
About Jio Payments Bank Limited:
• - Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO): Vinod

Easwaran
• - Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra
32. What significant regulatory change regarding financial statement delivery

was implemented by SEBI that affects listed companies until September 30,
2025?
Option 1: Listed companies no longer need to send any financial statements to

shareholders.
Option 2: Listed companies can choose to send either physical or electronic copies of
financial statements.
Option 3: The relaxation of sending physical copies of financial statements has been
extended until September 2025.
Option 4: Listed companies must send physical copies of financial statements for all AGMs
regardless of the new regulations.
Option 5: The requirement for sending physical copies of only the auditors report has been
removed.
Answer: 3) The relaxation of sending physical copies of financial statements has been
extended until September 2025.
Explanation:
This answer is correct because the text explicitly states that SEBI has extended the
allowance for companies to not send physical copies of financial statements until
September 30, 2025.
Context:

Extension of Financial Statement Delivery Relaxation by SEBI:
SEBI Decision: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has extended the
relaxation for sending physical copies of financial statements to shareholders for
Annual General Meetings (AGMs) until September 30, 2025.
• - Previous Validity: The previous deadline was September 2024.

• - Regulations Affected: This extension applies to Regulation 36(1)(b) and
Regulation 44(4) of the SEBI’s Listing Obligations and Disclosure
Requirements (LODR).
• - MCA Circular: On September 19, 2024, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(MCA) issued a circular confirming this relaxation, including both the board's
report and auditor's report for AGMs until September 30, 2025.
• - Compliance Requirements: Listed companies must comply with conditions
specified in SEBI’s Master Circular dated July 11, 2023, while adhering to the
provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.
33. Which of the following statements correctly describes the features and
implications of the Visa Tokenized Asset Platform (VTAP)?
Option 1: VTAP will focus solely on minting stablecoins for local use and will not support
international transactions.
Option 2: VTAP is designed to allow banks to issue various types of tokens, including
stablecoins, and is set to launch in 2025.
Option 3: Stablecoins solely aim to match the value of traditional fiat currencies without
utilizing blockchain technology.
Option 4: PayPal USD (PYUSD) is the only stablecoin available, as all other companies are
still in testing phases.
Answer: 2) VTAP is designed to allow banks to issue various types of tokens, including
stablecoins, and is set to launch in 2025.
Explanation:
Option 2 accurately reflects the information given in the text about VTAP being a
platform for banks to issue stablecoins and other tokens, and it states the launch year,
corroborating the details provided.
Context:
Overview of Visa's Tokenized Asset Platform (VTAP):
Visa Inc., an American multinational payment card services corporation, has

initiated the Visa Tokenized Asset Platform (VTAP) to assist banks in issuing
stablecoins and other fiat-backed tokens on a global scale.

Launch Timing
VTAP is anticipated to become operational in 2025.
Functions of VTAP
The platform will enable banks to mint, burn, and transfer tokens, providing
infrastructure for financial institutions that seek to take advantage of blockchain
technology.
Testing and Adoption
• Banco Bilbao Vizcaya Argentaria (BBVA), a Spanish bank, has been testing Visa’s
platform for a year and aims to launch a pilot on the Ethereum blockchain for
selected customers in 2025.
• PayPal Holdings Inc. has already launched its stablecoin, PayPal USD
(PYUSD), into the market.
• Stripe Inc. has started to enable merchants to accept stablecoins* for online
transactions.
Understanding Stablecoins: Stablecoins are a variety of cryptocurrency that

serves as a bridge between traditional finance and cryptocurrencies. They offer users a
means of conducting transactions while protecting them from significant price
fluctuations associated with cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin and Ether.
34. What was the main outcome of Life Insurance Corporation of India's (LIC)
participation in the Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP) process with the
Bank of Maharashtra (BOM)?
Option 1: LIC increased its shareholding in BOM from 4.05% to 7.10% after acquiring 25.96
crore shares.
Option 2: LIC's shareholding in BOM decreased after the QIP process was completed.
Option 3: The top investor in the QIP process was LIC, acquiring 68% of the total shares
issued.
Option 4: A total of 255 crore shares were issued to institutional investors during the QIP
process.
Answer: 1) LIC increased its shareholding in BOM from 4.05% to 7.10% after acquiring
25.96 crore shares.
Explanation:
Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has raised its shareholding in the Bank of
Maharashtra (BOM) from 4.05% to 7.10%.
This increase follows the allotment of 25.96 crore shares as part of BOM's Qualified
Institutional Placement (QIP) process.

Context:
LIC Increases Stake in Bank of Maharashtra through QIP:
LIC's Increased Shareholding in BOM
• Location: Mumbai, Maharashtra

• Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has raised its shareholding in the Bank
of Maharashtra (BOM) from 4.05% to 7.10%.
• This increase follows the allotment of 25.96 crore shares as part of BOM's
Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP) process.
• LIC acquired an additional 3.376% of shares at an average price of Rs. 57.36
per share.
Key Investors in the QIP Process

Among the top investors:
• * LIC received 42.56% of the total issue size.

• * ICICI Prudential Life Insurance: 8.51%
• * Aditya Birla Sun Life: 5.67%
Regulatory Guidance
The share allotment was conducted under the guidelines of Regulation 30 of the
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), specifically the Listing
Obligations and Disclosure Requirements regulations issued in July 2023.
Note: Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP) is a method for listed companies to raise
capital by issuing equity shares to institutional investors.
35. Which of the following statements about the Tata Nifty Capital Markets
Index Fund is least accurate?
Option 1: It is the first index fund in India that tracks the Nifty Capital Markets Index.
Option 2: Investors can redeem their investments without any charges within 15 days.
Option 3: The fund can invest in a total of up to 20 stocks from the Nifty 500 Index.
Option 4: The New Fund Offer (NFO) period lasts from October 7th to October 21st, 2024.
Option 5: The maximum Total Expense Ratio (TER) permissible is 1% as per the SID.
Answer: 2) Investors can redeem their investments without any charges within 15
days.
Explanation:
This statement is inaccurate as an exit load of 0.25% applies if units are redeemed
within 15 days of allotment.
Context:
Launch of Tata Nifty Capital Markets Index Fund:

Launch of New Fund: Tata AMC has introduced the Tata Nifty Capital Markets Index
Fund, which is India's first index fund aimed at investing in companies included in the
Nifty Capital Markets Index to observe their performance from the Nifty 500 Index.
Investment Strategy: The fund will include a maximum of 20 stocks from the Nifty
500 Index, focusing on various segments of capital markets such as:
• * Financial services
• * Asset management firms
• * Exchanges
• * Stockbroking companies
• * Depositories
• * Clearing houses
• New Fund Offer (NFO)
Duration: The NFO for Tata Nifty Capital Markets Index Fund will be available from
October 7th to October 21st, 2024. It will reopen for subscription on or before October
30th, 2024.
Minimum Investment: The initial investment required is Rs.5000 in multiples of Rs.
1.
Exit Load: An exit load of 0.25% based on the applicable Net Asset Value (NAV) will be
charged if units are redeemed within 15 days of their allotment.
Expense Ratio: The maximum permissible Total Expense Ratio (TER) according
to Regulation 52(6)(b) is up to 1%.
36. What is the primary outcome of the merger approved by the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) involving Tata Motors Finance Limited and Tata Capital Limited?
Option 1: The creation of India's 10th largest Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC).
Option 2: The total dissolution of Tata Motors Finance Limited.
Answer: 5) The creation of India's 12th largest Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC).
Explanation:
The merger involves Tata Motors Finance Limited and Tata Capital Limited, resulting in
the formation of India's 12th largest NBFC.
Context:
Tata Capital and TMFL Merger Approved by RBI:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved the merger of Tata Motors Finance
Limited (TMFL) with Tata Capital Limited (TCL), leading to the formation of India’s
12th largest Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC).

Consideration for the Merger i. Equity Shares Issued: As part of the merger, TCL
will issue its equity shares to TMFL shareholders, causing TML to hold a 4.7%
stake in the newly merged entity.
ii. Shareholding Structure: As of 31st March 2024, Tata Sons holds 92.83% of
Tata Capital, while the rest is owned by various Tata Group companies and trusts.
Key Highlights i. Approval Process: The merger has received RBI approval
following approvals from both the Competition Commission of India (CCI) and the
boards of the involved companies.
ii. Strategic Goals: Through this merger, Tata Capital aims to expand its customer
base, particularly in the commercial vehicle and passenger car financing markets.
iii. Timeline: The merger is anticipated to take 9 to 12 months, depending on further
approvals from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and the
National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
iv. Future Plans: Tata Capital intends to list its shares by September 2025, aiming
to enhance its vehicle financing and digital service offerings.
37. What is the primary purpose of the collaboration between India Exim
Finserve and VoloFin Services?
Option 1: To provide insurance for large corporations.

Option 2: To enhance trade finance solutions for Indian exporters, particularly SMEs.
Option 3: To support only agricultural exporters in Gujarat.
Option 4: To develop new trading partnerships with Europe.
Answer: 2) To enhance trade finance solutions for Indian exporters, particularly SMEs.
Explanation:
The collaboration aims to provide comprehensive receivables financing solutions

specifically targeting underserved Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) exporters
in India, thereby addressing trade finance gaps.
Context:
Enhancing Trade Finance for SMEs in India:
Gandhinagar (Gujarat)-based India Exim Finserve IFSC Private Limited (Exim

Finserve) is a wholly owned subsidiary of the Export-Import Bank of India (India
Exim Bank).
Collaboration Details
Exim Finserve has collaborated with Singapore-based VoloFin Services Private Limited.
The goal is to provide comprehensive receivables financing solutions to Indian
exporters.

Target Audience
• The primary beneficiaries are underserved Small and Medium-sized Enterprise

(SME) exporters, crucial for the country's economic growth.
• This collaboration aims to address significant trade finance gaps.
• It will facilitate open account trading between India and its trade partners.
Trade Finance Insurance

As part of this initiative, New India Assurance Company Limited (backed by global
reinsurer Atradius) has launched a first-of-its-kind trade finance insurance policy
from GIFT City, Gujarat.
Strategic Impact
This collaboration between VoloFin, India Exim Bank, and New India Assurance is
expected to greatly enhance India’s trade ecosystem, mainly benefiting SMEs.
About Atradius
Atradius is a Netherlands-based global leader in credit insurance and risk
management, operating in over 50 countries.
38. What changes were made by the Life Insurance Corporation of India
regarding agent commissions and policy norms?
Option 1: The first-year agent commission was reduced from 35% to 32% and surrender
norms revised.
Option 2: Licensing fees for agents were increased to 35% and new surrender norms were
introduced.
Option 3: The first-year agent commission was reduced from 35% to 28% and surrender
norms revised.
Option 4: Commissions for renewal premiums were decreased to 5% and policies were
made simpler.
Option 5: The upper limit for purchasing LIC's new endowment plan was increased to 55
years.
Answer: 3) The first-year agent commission was reduced from 35% to 28% and
surrender norms revised.
Explanation:
This answer correctly summarizes the key changes implemented by LIC as stated in the
news, specifically focusing on the reduction of agent commissions and the new
surrender value norms.
Context:
Changes in LIC's Commissions and Norms:
Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has made significant changes to its agent
commissions and policy norms:

Reduction in First-Year Agent Commission:
• * The first-year agent commission has been decreased from 35% to 28%,
including a bonus.
• * Without a bonus, the commission has been reduced from 25% to 20%.
New Surrender Norms:
• * The updated surrender value norms came into effect on 1st October 2024.
Policy Adjustments:
• * The upper limit for purchasing LIC's new endowment plan has been revised
from 55 to 50 years.
• * The commission for renewal premiums has increased from 5% to 7.5%.
• * The minimum sum assured on the revised policies has been raised from Rs. 1
lakh to Rs. 2 lakhs.
• * The premium on life insurance products has increased by an average of 8-9%.
Regulatory Compliance:
• * These modifications are in line with the Insurance Regulatory and

Development Authority of India (IRDAI) master circular on life insurance
products, issued in June 2024 (Insurance Products Regulations, 2024).
39. What is the primary goal of the partnership between SLCM, Punjab National
Bank, and Bandhan Bank?
Option 1: To reduce interest rates on agricultural loans

Option 2: To provide Unified Collateral Management Solutions for the agricultural sector
Option 3: To increase the number of crops grown in India
Option 4: To improve the quality of seeds used in farming
Option 5: To establish new marketplaces (mandis) for selling commodities
Answer: 2) To provide Unified Collateral Management Solutions for the agricultural

sector
Explanation:
The partnership aims to enhance the agricultural sector through Unified Collateral
Management Solutions, specifically targeting challenges in post-harvest storage and
financing.
Context:
Partnership to Enhance Agricultural Sector:
New Delhi-based Sohan Lal Commodity Management Limited (SLCM) has entered
into a partnership with Punjab National Bank (PNB) and Bandhan Bank Limited

from Kolkata. The goal of this collaboration is to provide Unified Collateral

Management Solutions specifically aimed at improving the agricultural sector.
Objectives of the Partnership

This partnership addresses important issues related to post-harvest storage and
financing, which will ultimately benefit farmers and agri-businesses.
The main objectives include:
1. Facilitating access to post-harvest credit at competitive interest rates.
2. Offering scientific storage services.
3. Ensuring fair pricing for commodities in marketplaces (mandis).
Use of Technology
SLCM leverages its AI-powered application named Agri Reach to enhance the
efficiency of post-harvest credit and storage services offered to both banks involved.
The Agri Reach app has gained recognition for its effectiveness in significantly
reducing post-harvest losses from 10% to just 0.5%, regardless of the type of crop
or its location.
40. What new service has Ujjivan Small Finance Bank been approved to offer?
Option 1: Home loan services

Option 2: Foreign exchange services
Option 3: Automated teller machine services
Option 4: Personal loan services
Option 5: Insurance products
Answer: 2) Foreign exchange services
Explanation:
Ujjivan Small Finance Bank received approval from the Reserve Bank of India to offer
foreign exchange services.
Context:
Approval for Foreign Exchange Services by Ujjivan SFB:
Approval for Foreign Exchange Services by Ujjivan SFB
Ujjivan Small Finance Bank Limited, based in Bangalore (Karnataka), has received
important approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that allows it to provide
foreign exchange services. This approval is pivotal as it enables the bank to expand its
offerings in terms of forex products and services.
Licencing Details
The bank has been granted the Authorised Dealer Category 1 licence under Section
10(1) of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.

This licence allows Ujjivan SFB to engage in a broader scope of foreign exchange
transactions.
Retail Banking Services Offered
In the realm of retail banking, Ujjivan SFB will roll out a variety of remittance services,
which include:
• Foreign Currency Non-Resident (FCNR) deposits.

• Resident Foreign Currency (RFC) deposits.
• Forex cards.
• Currency exchanges.
Capital transactions that encompass:
• * External Commercial Borrowings (ECB),

• * Overseas Direct Investment (ODI),
• * Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
41. What significant development occurred at the BKC station of the Metro 3
Aqua Line?
Option 1: It was dedicated to the nation by Narendra Modi.

Option 2: It includes a digital bank branch and automated ticketing systems.
Option 3: Kotak Mahindra Group branded it as Kotak Bandra-Kurla Complex metro station.
Answer: 4) All of these
Explanation:
Branding of Metro Stations in Mumbai
Kotak Mahindra Group has branded the BKC Station of the Metro 3 Aqua Line in
Mumbai (Maharashtra) as Kotak Bandra-Kurla Complex metro station.
Inauguration by Prime Minister
The station was dedicated to the nation by Narendra Modi, the Prime Minister of India,
during the unveiling of the first phase of the Aqua Line, which is Mumbai's first
underground Metro*.
Partnership with Mumbai Metro Rail Corporation
Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited (KMBL) partnered with Mumbai Metro Rail Corporation
Limited (MMRCL) for the branding of the station. This partnership signifies a strong
connection to the Bandra-Kurla Complex (BKC)*, where the firm was founded.
Modern Facilities and Amenities

The BKC station offers state-of-the-art facilities including:
• * Automated ticketing systems

• * A digital bank branch
• * An Automated Teller Machine (ATM)
• * Accessibility features for all passengers.
Context:
Branding of Metro Stations in Mumbai by Kotak Mahindra Group:
Branding of Metro Stations in Mumbai
Kotak Mahindra Group has branded the BKC Station of the Metro 3 Aqua Line in
Mumbai (Maharashtra) as Kotak Bandra-Kurla Complex metro station.
Inauguration by Prime Minister
The station was dedicated to the nation by Narendra Modi, the Prime Minister of India,
during the unveiling of the first phase of the Aqua Line, which is Mumbai's first
underground Metro*.
Partnership with Mumbai Metro Rail Corporation
Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited (KMBL) partnered with Mumbai Metro Rail Corporation
Limited (MMRCL) for the branding of the station. This partnership signifies a strong
connection to the Bandra-Kurla Complex (BKC)*, where the firm was founded.
Modern Facilities and Amenities
The BKC station offers state-of-the-art facilities including:
• * Automated ticketing systems

• * A digital bank branch
• * An Automated Teller Machine (ATM)
• * Accessibility features for all passengers.
Enhanced Visibility through Branding Rights
Kotak has obtained branding rights for the BKC and Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
Terminus (CSMT) metro stations to enhance its visibility. These stations are significant
for the Kotak Group:
• * BKC is where the firm was founded (Janmabhoomi).

• * CSMT* is the current nerve center of their operations.
42. What significant achievement did In.Corp Global Pte. Limited accomplish at
the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City?
Option 1: It became the first firm to obtain a BATF licence at GIFT IFSC.
Option 2: It expanded services into the BFSI sector.

Option 3: It expanded services into the crypto sector.

Option 4: It opened a new headquarters in the UAE.
Option 5: It launched a new digital platform for financial services.
Answer: 1) It became the first firm to obtain a BATF licence at GIFT IFSC.
Explanation:
In.Corp Global Pte. Limited became the first firm to successfully obtain a BATF
licence at the GIFT International Financial Services Centre, signifying a
milestone for the firm and showcasing its capabilities in providing specialized financial
services.
Context:
In.Corp Global Achieves BATF Licence at GIFT IFSC:
Singapore-based In.Corp Global Pte. Limited, which provides corporate solutions and
professional services, has made history by being the first firm to acquire a BATF
(Bookkeeping, Accounting, Taxation, and Financial Crime Compliance) licence
at the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT) International Financial
Services Centre (IFSC).
Key Features of the BATF Licence
• This licence, granted under the IFSC Authority (BATF Services) Regulations, 2024,
empowers InCorp Global to offer BATF services beyond industries focused on
Banking, Financial Services, and Insurance (BFSI).
• The services provided under this licence are standardized following international
benchmarks.
• An essential feature of the BATF regulations involves financial crime compliance
services, bolstering the firm's abilities in Anti-Money Laundering (AML),
Countering the Financing of Terrorism (CFT), and Know Your Customer (KYC)
compliance.
• The acquired licence enables InCorp to leverage India's vast talent and resources
to deliver customized services to international clients, thus reinforcing its
global market presence.
Impact on International Clients
• InCorp Global is dedicated to facilitating the process of international clients

entering the Indian market, while also fostering the growth of GIFT City as a
significant financial hub.
• The firm currently serves a diverse clientele from numerous countries, including
Australia, Belgium, Canada, France, Germany, New Zealand, Singapore,
Switzerland, UAE, UK, and USA.

Background of the BATF Regulations
• These regulations were introduced via a government notification on January 18,

2024. The BATF services are categorized as financial services according to Section
3 of the IFSCA Act, 2019.
• The framework aims to create a robust financial market ecosystem at GIFT
IFSC, providing guidelines for BATF service providers and ensuring adherence to
international compliance standards while mitigating financial crime risks.
About In.Corp Global Pte Ltd.
• Chairman: Lennard Yong

• CEO (India): Manish Modi
• Headquarters: Singapore
RBI and Finance

1. Who is the current Chief Minister of Tripura?
Option 1: Manik Saha

Option 2: Indrasena Reddy Nallu
Option 3: Himanta Biswa Sarma
Option 4: Nongthombam Biren Singh
Answer: 1) Manik Saha
Explanation:
Manik Saha, the Chief Minister of Tripura, has laid the foundation for a water
supply project in Udaipur, Tripura, funded by the Manila-based Asian Development Bank
(ADB). The project, valued at Rs 530 crores, is part of the Mukhyamantri Nagar
Unnayan Prakalpa (CM Urban Development Scheme) and aims to modernize the
management of drinking water supply across 12 cities in Tripura. So far, the project has
secured Rs 330 crores in funding from ADB.
Context:
Inauguration of ADB-funded Water Supply Project in Tripura by Chief Minister

Manik Saha:
Manik Saha, the Chief Minister of Tripura, has laid the foundation for a water supply
project in Udaipur, Tripura, funded by the Manila-based Asian Development Bank (ADB).
The project, valued at Rs 530 crores, is part of the Mukhyamantri Nagar Unnayan
Prakalpa (CM Urban Development Scheme) and aims to modernize the management of
drinking water supply across 12 cities in Tripura. So far, the project has secured Rs 330
crores in funding from ADB.

Project Overview
• Cities Benefiting: The initiative will ensure access to clean drinking water for
every urban household in 12 cities, including Khowai, Mohanpur, Ranirbazar,
Bishramganj, Melaghar, Udaipur, Amarpur, Belonia, Kumarghat, Dharmanagar,
Kailashahar, and Ambassa. Notably, 7 of these cities serve as district
headquarters: Udaipur, Belonia, Bishramganj, Khowai, Dharmanagar, Kailashahar,
and Ambassa.
Key Features
1. Water Supply: The project will provide pipeline-based clean drinking water to
every household in the designated cities, benefiting approximately 4 lakh
individuals from around 75,000 families. Implementation is expected to be
completed within three years.
2. Cluster Implementation: The project will be executed on a cluster basis across

multiple towns, ensuring each household receives a drinking water connection.
3. Infrastructure Development: In addition to water supply, the project will

involve the construction of:
◦ 18 kilometers (km) of roads

◦ 48 km of drainage systems
◦ 305 km of water pipelines
◦ 25 deep tubewells
◦ 18 iron removal plants
◦ 4 water treatment plants
◦ 19 water reservoirs
4. Urban Health Clinics: The initiative also includes establishing urban health
clinics in the 12 cities. In phase 2, an additional eight cities, including the Agartala
Municipal Corporation (AMC), will be covered.
Benefits
• Water Efficiency: The project aims to minimize water wastage and address
losses due to leaks and inefficiencies by implementing modern technologies.
• Leak Detection: Advanced technology will be employed to efficiently detect and

repair leaks, while modernizing water treatment plants, upgrading pipelines, and
introducing new storage facilities.
• Economic Impact: The project is expected to generate employment

opportunities during its implementation, providing an economic boost to the
region.
About Tripura
• Chief Minister: Manik Saha

• Governor: Indrasena Reddy Nallu
• Capital: Agartala
• National Parks: Clouded Leopard National Park, Bison National Park
• Wildlife Sanctuaries: Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary, Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary

2. What is the recent decision made by the Reserve Bank of India regarding The
Rajapur Sahakari Bank Ltd. and The Malad Sahakari Bank Ltd.?
Option 1: Amalgamation
Option 2: Acquisition
Option 3: Separation
Option 4: Expansion
Option 5: Closure
Answer: 1) Amalgamation
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has authorized the Scheme of Amalgamation
between The Rajapur Sahakari Bank Limited, based in Mumbai (Maharashtra), and The
Malad Sahakari Bank Limited, also located in Mumbai. This scheme will take effect on
September 23, 2024. The approval was granted under the powers conferred by Sub-
Section (4) of Section 44A, in conjunction with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation
(BR) Act, 1949. As part of the amalgamation, the branches of The Rajapur Sahakari
Bank Ltd. will operate as branches of The Malad Sahakari Bank Ltd.
Context:
Approval of Amalgamation of The Rajapur Sahakari Bank Ltd. with The Malad
Sahakari Bank Ltd. by RBI:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has authorized the Scheme of Amalgamation
between The Rajapur Sahakari Bank Limited, based in Mumbai (Maharashtra), and The
Malad Sahakari Bank Limited, also located in Mumbai. This scheme will take effect on
September 23, 2024. The approval was granted under the powers conferred by Sub-
Section (4) of Section 44A, in conjunction with Section 56 of the Banking Regulation
(BR) Act, 1949. As part of the amalgamation, the branches of The Rajapur Sahakari
Bank Ltd. will operate as branches of The Malad Sahakari Bank Ltd.
About the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• Governor: Shaktikanta Das

• Established: April 1, 1935
3. The Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA) has

secured a loan of ₹31,673.79 crores from the _____________ to accelerate the
development of nine critical infrastructure projects in the Mumbai Metropolitan
Region (MMR).

Option 2: IREDA
Option 3: Power Finance Corporation
Option 4: Punjab National Bank
Option 5: Bank of Baroda
Answer: 3) Power Finance Corporation
Explanation:
The Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA) has secured a loan
of ₹31,673.79 crores from the Power Finance Corporation (PFC), under the
Ministry of Power (MoP), to accelerate the development of nine critical infrastructure
projects in the Mumbai Metropolitan Region (MMR). This financial support is a major
milestone in advancing key initiatives that aim to improve connectivity, foster economic
growth, and enhance the overall quality of life for MMR residents.
Context:
Financing Initiative for Mumbai Infrastructure Projects:
The Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA) has secured a loan
of ₹31,673.79 crores from the Power Finance Corporation (PFC), under the Ministry of
Power (MoP), to accelerate the development of nine critical infrastructure projects in the
Mumbai Metropolitan Region (MMR). This financial support is a major milestone in
advancing key initiatives that aim to improve connectivity, foster economic growth, and
enhance the overall quality of life for MMR residents.
Loan Agreement Details:
• Funding Structure: 80% of the total project costs will be financed through the
loan, while the remaining 20% will be covered by government grants and
contributions from MMRDA.
• Key Project Allocation:
◦ A significant portion of the loan, ₹15,071 crores, will be directed towards
the Thane-Borivali Twin Tunnel Project, aimed at significantly reducing
travel time between these two cities.
◦ The remaining ₹16,602.79 crores will fund the development of eight other
major infrastructure projects, including:
▪ Construction of the Thane Coastal Road (Phase I)
▪ Extension of the Eastern Freeway from Ghatkopar to Thane
▪ Development of an elevated road from National Highway No. 4
(NH4) to Katai Naka
• Additional Projects: The loan will also support the construction of creek bridges
and access roads connecting Thane, Kharbao, Bhiwandi, and nearby areas, along
with the development of elevated roads on the Eastern Express
Highway and Kalyan Murbad Road.
About MMRDA:
• Metropolitan Commissioner: Dr. Sanjay Mukherjee


About Power Finance Corporation (PFC):
• Chairman and Managing Director: Parminder Chopra

4. What is the main objective of the Single Window IT (SWIT) platform launched
by PM Modi?
Option 1: To limit the regulatory requirements for entities setting up operations in IFSCs.
Option 2: To reduce malpractices in IT sector
Option 3: To provide a unified digital platform for different Government Agencies &
Regulators.
Answer: 3) To provide a unified digital platform for different Government Agencies &
Regulators.
Explanation:
The main goal of the Single Window IT (SWIT) platform launched by PM Modi is to offer a
unified digital platform that brings together various Government Agencies &
Regulators, simplifying processes for entities setting up operations in IFSCs and
enhancing transparency.
Context:
Launch of IFSC Single Window System by PM Modi and DEV IT:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Single Window IT (SWIT) platform,
developed by Dev Information Technology Limited (DEV IT) under the supervision of the
International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA), during an event in
Ahmedabad, Gujarat. This advanced online platform is designed to streamline
bureaucratic processes and enhance transparency for organizations looking
to establish operations in the IFSCs.
About SWIT:
1. Integrated Digital Platform: The SWIT system consolidates various

government agencies and regulators into a single digital platform. This includes
the Department of Commerce (Ministry of Commerce and Industry), Department
of Revenue (Ministry of Finance), Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI), and the Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority of India (IRDAI).
2. Streamlined Application Process: The SWIT system allows applicants to

submit applications, secure approvals, and meet regulatory requirements digitally
in a straightforward, seamless, and secure manner.

License and Registration Applications: With the introduction of the SWIT

3. system, applicants can now apply for licenses and registrations from the IFSCA in
accordance with the relevant regulations and frameworks through the SWIT
platform.
4. One-Stop Approval Mechanism: The platform has been developed to serve as

a comprehensive solution for entities seeking all necessary approvals to establish
business operations in the IFSC.
About Dev Information Technology Limited (DEV IT):
• Specialization: DEV IT focuses on digital transformation services, managed IT

services, cloud solutions, and custom software development tailored to meet
business needs.
• Founder & Chairman: Pranav Pandya
• Headquarters: Ahmedabad, Gujarat
5. According to the RBI report, what investment ratio is emphasized for low-
carbon energy compared to fossil fuels for the remainder of the decade?
Option 1: 1:1
Option 2: 1:2
Option 3: 1:3
Option 4: 1:4
Option 5: 1:5
Answer: 3) 1:3
Explanation:
The RBI report stresses that for every USD invested in fossil fuels, an average of USD
3 needs to be invested in low-carbon energy throughout the remainder of the
decade. This 1:3 investment ratio highlights the critical need to shift towards
sustainable energy sources to address climate challenges effectively.
Context:
Outlook on Ending Fossil Fuel Dominance in India's Electricity Generation by

2030: Report by RBI:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released a report predicting that the era of fossil
fuels as the primary source of electricity generation in India will conclude by 2030, with
renewable energy projected to account for over 50% of global electricity production.
This shift is deemed essential for achieving sustainability objectives and tackling
climate-related challenges.

Key Points:
1. The growth of cleaner energy sources will help address challenging sectors, such
as steelmaking and aviation, where low-carbon alternatives are still developing.
2. The RBI highlighted the necessity for greater investment in low-carbon energy;
for every US Dollar (USD) allocated to fossil fuels, an average of USD 3
should be invested in low-carbon energy for the remainder of the
decade.
3. Increasing renewable energy capacity threefold by 2030 is vital for meeting global
net-zero emission targets by mid-century.
4. Transitioning to a fully decarbonized global energy system by 2050 is projected to
cost approximately USD 215 trillion.
5. The report underscored the importance of balancing public policy measures with
market-driven competition to facilitate a successful energy transition.
6. What was the interest rate on 3-Year Post Office Time Deposits (POTD) for Q3
FY25?
Option 1: 7.5%
Option 2: 7.1%
Option 3: 6.9%
Option 4: 7.0%
Option 5: 6.7%
Answer: 2) 7.1%
Explanation:
The interest rate on 3-Year Post Office Time Deposits (POTD) for the 3rd Quarter of
financial Year 2024-25 (Q3 FY25) was 7.1%.
Context:
Ministry of Finance Does Not Change Interest Rates on Small Savings

Schemes for Q3 FY25:
The Department of Economic Affairs (DEA - Budget Division) under the Ministry of
Finance (MoF) has kept the interest rates on Small Savings Schemes (SSS) unchanged
for the third quarter of the financial year 2024-25 (Q3 FY25), covering the period from
October 1, 2024, to December 31, 2024. These rates remain consistent with those set
for the second quarter of FY25. This marks the third consecutive quarter in FY25 where
the interest rates on Small Savings Schemes have remained unchanged.
Key Highlights:
1. In December 2023, the Government of India (GoI) raised interest rates on select
small savings schemes, such as the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) and the 3-
Year Time Deposit, by 20 basis points (bps) for Q4 FY24.

2. The interest rate for the Public Provident Fund (PPF) has remained unchanged
since April 2020, when it was reduced from 7.9% to 7.1%.
Interest Rates on Small Savings Schemes for Q3 FY25 (October 1, 2024 -

December 31, 2024):
• Savings Deposit: 4.0%

• 1-Year Post Office Time Deposit (POTD): 6.9%
• 5-Year Post Office Recurring Deposit (PORD): 6.7%
• Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP): 7.5% (maturity in 115 months)
• Public Provident Fund (PPF): 7.1%
• Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY): 8.2%
• National Savings Certificate (NSC): 7.7%
• Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS): 8.2%
• Monthly Income Scheme (MIS): 7.4%
• Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC): 7.5%
About Small Savings Schemes (SSS):
• These are savings instruments managed by the Government of India to promote

regular savings among citizens.
• Small Savings Schemes are broadly classified into three categories: savings
deposits, social security schemes, and monthly income plans.
• The Government of India revises interest rates on these schemes quarterly,
following the methodology recommended by the Shyamala Gopinath Committee
in January 2023. The committee proposed that interest rates on these schemes
should be 25 to 100 basis points higher than yields on corresponding government
bonds.
• Certain schemes, such as NSC, SCSS, SSY, and PPF, provide tax benefits under
Section 80C of the Income Tax Act of 1961.
7. Who among the following has been appointed as the newly appointed
member for the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
Option 1: Saugata Bhattacharya

Option 2: Nagesh Kumar
Option 3: Ram Singh
Explanation:
The Government of India (GoI) has recently restructured the Reserve Bank of India's
(RBI) Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) by appointing three new external members:
Ram Singh, Saugata Bhattacharya, and Nagesh Kumar. These new members

replace Ashima Goyal, Shashanka Bhide, and Jayanth R. Varma, whose four-year terms
have concluded. External members of the MPC serve a term of four years, with no
option for reappointment.
Context:
India's Monetary Policy Committee Revamped with New External Members:
The Government of India (GoI) has recently restructured the Reserve Bank of India's
(RBI) Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) by appointing three new external members:
Ram Singh, Saugata Bhattacharya, and Nagesh Kumar. These new members
replace Ashima Goyal, Shashanka Bhide, and Jayanth R. Varma, whose four-year terms
have concluded. External members of the MPC serve a term of four years, with no
option for reappointment.
The reshuffling comes just ahead of the MPC’s upcoming bi-monthly meeting scheduled
for October 7-9, 2024. The committee also includes three internal members:
Shaktikanta Das, the RBI Governor; Michael Debabrata Patra, RBI Deputy Governor; and
Rajiv Ranjan, Executive Director of the Monetary Policy Department at RBI.
Profiles of New MPC Members:
1. Ram Singh:
◦ Prof. Ram Singh is an accomplished economist and Director of the Delhi

School of Economics at the University of Delhi.
◦ He has earned prestigious fellowships such as the Fulbright, Commonwealth,
and Erasmus Mundus, recognizing his contributions to economics.
2. Saugata Bhattacharya:
◦ Saugata Bhattacharya is a Senior Fellow at the Centre for Policy Research

(CPR), where he focuses on data analytics for the Government of Andhra
Pradesh.
◦ He has previously held key roles, including Chief Economist and Executive
Vice President at Axis Bank, and has worked at Infrastructure Development
Finance Company (IDFC).
3. Nagesh Kumar:
◦ Nagesh Kumar is the Director and Chief Executive of the Institute for Studies
in Industrial Development (ISID) in New Delhi.
◦ He has served in prominent roles at the United Nations Economic and Social
Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) from 2009 to 2021, including
as Chief Economist.
About the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
The MPC was established in 2016 under the RBI Act of 1934, based on
recommendations from the Urjit Patel Committee. Its primary objective is to maintain
price stability while fostering economic growth. The MPC consists of six members: three

from the RBI (the Governor, Deputy Governor, and one officer nominated by the central
board) and three external members appointed by the GoI.
The MPC aims to guide India’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Price Index
(CPI), to a target of 4%, with a tolerance range of 2% to 6%. This approach allows
for flexibility, acknowledging the potential for inflation fluctuations while striving to
maintain stability.
8. How much has the United States International Development Finance

Corporation (DFC) committed to support India's economic growth and
sustainability?
Option 1: USD 40 million

Option 3: USD 19.8 million
Answer: 4) USD 272 million
Explanation:
The correct answer is USD 272 million. The DFC has dedicated over USD 272 million
to bolster India's economic growth and sustainability through various investments
focusing on different sectors such as women's empowerment, agriculture,
environmental sustainability, healthcare, and microfinance. This commitment
underscores the strong partnership between the USA and India in promoting economic
development and addressing critical issues like climate change and gender equality.
Context:
DFC Dedicates USD 272 Million to Enhance Economic Growth in India:
The United States International Development Finance Corporation (DFC) has pledged
over USD 272 million to support India's economic growth and sustainability. This
commitment underscores the strengthening partnership between the United States and
India, particularly in advancing gender equality and sustainable development. It reflects
the DFC's role in enhancing economic opportunities for millions and contributes to
global efforts to combat climate change.
Key Investments:
i. Among the investments is a USD 40 million loan to APAC Financial Services Private
Limited in Mumbai, Maharashtra, aimed at expanding lending to low-income and
microenterprises.
ii. The DFC is prioritizing women's empowerment with a USD 50 million loan to InCred
Financial Services Ltd. in Mumbai, designed to facilitate lending to women-owned
businesses by leveraging technology to reach underserved entrepreneurs.

Additionally, USD 5 million will be allocated to Kaleidofin Capital Private Ltd. in

Chennai, Tamil Nadu, to enhance financial services for underbanked women.
iii. A USD 19.8 million investment has been designated for Aryatech Platforms Pvt.
Ltd. in Noida, Uttar Pradesh, to support agricultural trade by connecting small farmers
with buyers and improving financing in the agricultural sector.
iv. To promote environmental sustainability, the DFC has approved an USD 18 million
loan to Mufin Green Finance Ltd. in New Delhi, which will bolster India's expanding
electric vehicle sector. Furthermore, USD 10 million will be directed to Nepra Resource
Management Pvt. Ltd. to establish dry waste recovery and recycling plants, aiding in
emissions reduction and advancing the circular economy.
v. Climate-focused enterprises will benefit from a USD 50 million loan to Northern Arc
Investments International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) Trust in Gujarat, aimed at
financing projects in solar energy, green buildings, sustainable agriculture, and e-
mobility.
vi. The healthcare sector in India will also receive support through a USD 20 million
loan to Panacea Biotec Ltd. in New Delhi, which will facilitate the production of
additional doses of the hexavalent vaccine annually, improving healthcare access in the
country.
vii. Additionally, the DFC is investing USD 20 million in Satya MicroCapital Ltd. in New
Delhi to expand its microfinance portfolio, specifically targeting rural and semi-urban
women. Mumbai-based UGRO Capital Ltd. will also receive a USD 40 million loan to
support lending to small and medium-sized enterprises.
viii. The DFC has allocated nearly USD 300,000 for technical assistance to Lok Capital
IV LLC (the fund). This support aims to help portfolio companies enhance their impact in
areas such as climate adaptation, gender equity, and financial inclusion.
Note: Lok Capital IV LLC, a closed-end private equity fund with a target size of up
to USD 200 million, focuses on investing in businesses that leverage technology to
provide infrastructure and related services across financial services, climate, health,
and agriculture sectors, primarily in India.
About U.S. International Development Finance Corporation (DFC):
• Chief Executive Officer (CEO): Scott Nathan

• Headquarters: Washington, D.C., United States
• Founded: 2019
9. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved a loan of __________ to

facilitate sustainable and inclusive tourism development projects in Himachal
Pradesh (HP).


Answer: 1) USD 162 million
Explanation:
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved a loan of USD 162 million to
facilitate sustainable and inclusive tourism development projects in Himachal Pradesh
(HP). The initiative aims to enhance district-level tourism management and create
destination plans and tourist attractions within the state.
Context:
Asian Development Bank Loan for Tourism Development in Himachal Pradesh:
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved a loan of USD 162 million to
facilitate sustainable and inclusive tourism development projects in Himachal Pradesh
(HP). The initiative aims to enhance district-level tourism management and create
destination plans and tourist attractions within the state.
Key Highlights:
1. The project will focus on promoting heritage and cultural centers, restoring
castles, beautifying public spaces, and constructing convention centers and
facilities in the districts of Mandi, Hamirpur, Kullu, and Kangra.
2. By improving and maintaining heritage and cultural sites, constructing new
infrastructure, and bolstering the tourism industry, the project is set to
significantly enhance the state's tourism potential.
3. These improvements will incorporate environmentally sustainable solutions,
including solar lighting and electric vehicles, ensuring accessibility for the elderly,
women, children, and individuals with disabilities.
4. ADB will assist in strengthening the institutional capacity of the Himachal Pradesh
Tourism Development Board to formulate a comprehensive tourism strategy and
marketing plan.
About Himachal Pradesh (HP):
• Chief Minister: Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu

• Governor: Shiv Pratap Shukla
• National Parks: Inderkilla National Park, Khirganga National Park
• Wildlife Sanctuaries: Dhauladhar Wildlife Sanctuary, Kanwar Wildlife Sanctuary
10. As per the recent guidelines, Principal Commissioners of Income-Tax/

Commissioners of Income-Tax (Pr. CsIT/CsIT) are authorized to accept or reject
claims up to _________ for any given assessment year.
Option 1: Rs 2.5 crore

Option 2: Rs 3.5 crore
Option 3: Rs 5 crore

Answer: 4) Rs 1 crore
Explanation:
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), part of the Department of Revenue (DoR)
under the Ministry of Finance (MoF), has issued new guidelines for managing delays in
the submission of Income Tax Returns (ITR), including claims for refunds related to
carrying forward losses under Section 119 (2) (b) of the Income-Tax (IT) Act,
1961. These guidelines replace all previous instructions and are applicable to
applications submitted after October 1, 2024. The objective of these new guidelines is
to streamline the processing of delayed tax refund claims and loss carry-forward
applications.
Key Features:
Introduction of a 3-Tier System for Processing Applications Based on Claim

Amounts:
1. Principal Commissioners of Income-Tax/Commissioners of Income-Tax (Pr.

CsIT/CsIT) are authorized to accept or reject claims up to Rs 1 crore for any
given assessment year.
2. Chief Commissioners of Income-Tax (CCsIT) can accept or reject claims
ranging from Rs 1 crore to Rs 3 crore for any assessment year.
3. Principal Chief Commissioners of Income-Tax (Pr. CCsIT) hold the authority
to accept or reject claims exceeding Rs 3 crore for any assessment year.
4. Additionally, the Commissioner of Income-Tax, Central Processing Centre (CPC) in
Bengaluru is empowered to approve or deny petitions under Section 119(2)(b)
of the IT Act, 1961, which seek to condone delays in verifying income returns by
submitting the ITR-V to the CPC in Bengaluru.
Context:
CBDT Unveils New Guidelines for Processing Delayed Income Tax Returns and
Refund Claims:
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), part of the Department of Revenue (DoR)
under the Ministry of Finance (MoF), has issued new guidelines for managing delays in
the submission of Income Tax Returns (ITR), including claims for refunds related to
carrying forward losses under Section 119 (2) (b) of the Income-Tax (IT) Act,
1961. These guidelines replace all previous instructions and are applicable to
applications submitted after October 1, 2024. The objective of these new guidelines is
to streamline the processing of delayed tax refund claims and loss carry-forward
applications.
Key Features:

Introduction of a 3-Tier System for Processing Applications Based on Claim

Amounts:
1. Principal Commissioners of Income-Tax/Commissioners of Income-Tax (Pr.

CsIT/CsIT) are authorized to accept or reject claims up to Rs 1 crore for any
given assessment year.
2. Chief Commissioners of Income-Tax (CCsIT) can accept or reject claims
ranging from Rs 1 crore to Rs 3 crore for any assessment year.
3. Principal Chief Commissioners of Income-Tax (Pr. CCsIT) hold the authority
to accept or reject claims exceeding Rs 3 crore for any assessment year.
4. Additionally, the Commissioner of Income-Tax, Central Processing Centre (CPC) in
Bengaluru is empowered to approve or deny petitions under Section 119(2)(b)
of the IT Act, 1961, which seek to condone delays in verifying income returns by
submitting the ITR-V to the CPC in Bengaluru.
Examination of Applications:
• Authorities reviewing applications must confirm that the assessee was reasonably
prevented from filing the ITR by the due date and that the case demonstrates
genuine hardship.
• They are also authorized to instruct the jurisdictional Assessing Officer (AO) to
conduct necessary inquiries in accordance with the Act.
Time Limits:
1. The new guidelines establish a time limit for filing applications within 5 years from
the end of the assessment year for applications submitted on or after October 1,
2024.
2. Authorities are expected to process these applications within 6 months of receipt.
Special Cases:
• If refund claims result from a court order, the 5-year limit does not include the
time the case was pending in court.
• In such instances, taxpayers must submit applications within 6 months of the
court order date or the end of the Financial Year (FY), whichever is later.
Conditions Related to the Authority to Accept or Reject Delayed Applications

for Supplementary Refund Claims Based on Monetary Limits:
1. It is essential to confirm that the income of the assessee is not assessable in the
hands of another individual under any provisions of the Act.
2. No interest will be granted on belated refund claims.
3. Refunds must arise from excess tax deducted/collected at source and/or excess
advance tax payments and/or excess self-assessment tax payments as outlined in
the Act.
About the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):
• Chairman: Ravi Agrawal


11. Power Finance Corporation Limited (PFC) has secured its largest foreign
currency loan to date, amounting to ________.
Option 1: USD 2.265 billion

Answer: 3) USD 1.265 billion
Explanation:
Power Finance Corporation Limited (PFC), a Maharatna public sector company and one
of India’s leading non-banking financial companies (NBFC), under the Ministry of Power
(MoP), has secured its largest foreign currency loan to date, amounting to USD 1.265
billion. This transaction was carried out through a facility agreement with various
banks based in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in GIFT City,
Gandhinagar, Gujarat. PFC plans to use the funds to finance non-thermal power
projects, particularly in green and sustainable energy, aligning with India’s efforts to
reduce carbon emissions and boost renewable energy capacity.
Context:
Significant Financial Achievement by Power Finance Corporation Limited:
Power Finance Corporation Limited (PFC), a Maharatna public sector company and one
of India’s leading non-banking financial companies (NBFC), under the Ministry of Power
(MoP), has secured its largest foreign currency loan to date, amounting to USD 1.265
billion. This transaction was carried out through a facility agreement with various
banks based in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in GIFT City,
Gandhinagar, Gujarat. PFC plans to use the funds to finance non-thermal power
projects, particularly in green and sustainable energy, aligning with India’s efforts to
reduce carbon emissions and boost renewable energy capacity.
Key Highlights:
• Record Loan: The USD 1.265 billion loan marks the largest foreign currency
loan secured by an Indian Public Sector Unit (PSU). The loan is structured as a
floating-rate facility with an average interest rate of 4.21% per annum.
• Multiple Currencies: The loan is denominated in three major currencies—
United States Dollar (USD), Euro (EUR), and Japanese Yen (JPY), with
interest rates tied to global benchmarks: SOFR for USD, EURIBOR for EUR, and
TONA for JPY.
• Loan Term: The loan has a tenure of five years, providing PFC the flexibility to
manage its investments and projects effectively.
• Key Lenders: The loan was organized by prominent banks, including State Bank
of India (SBI), Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) Bank Limited, Axis Bank
Limited, MUFG Bank, Deutsche Bank, and SMBC. SBI acted as the lead lender and
arranged the overall loan.

• Impact: This milestone agreement will allow PFC to enhance its green energy
investments, diversify its funding sources, and increase its presence in global
financial markets. It supports India’s vision of sustainable economic development
and energy transition.
About Power Finance Corporation (PFC):
• Chairman & Managing Director (CMD): Parminder Chopra

• Headquarters: New Delhi, India
• Founded: 1986
About Ministry of Power (MoP):
• Union Minister: Manohar Lal Khattar (Constituency: Karnal, Haryana)

• Minister of State (MoS): Shripad Yesso Naik (Constituency: North Goa)
12. What is the revised cap limit per exporter under the extended Interest
Equalisation Scheme?
Answer: 2) Rs 50 lakh
Explanation:
The revised cap limit under the extended Interest Equalisation Scheme is Rs 50 lakh
per exporter, reduced from the earlier limit of Rs 10 crore per annum per IEC (Import
Export Code). This adjustment aims to ensure fair distribution of benefits and support
exporters, especially MSMEs, without exceeding the allocated fund limits.
Context:
Extension of Interest Equalisation Scheme and Revised Cap Limit:
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) has extended the Interest Equalisation
Scheme for pre- and post-shipment rupee export credit for an additional three months,
now running until December 31, 2024. This extension aims to promote India's export
activities, with the scheme previously set to expire on September 30, 2024.
Key Points:
• Interest Benefits for Exporters: The scheme provides financial relief by

offering interest rate reductions on export credit.

• Funding Limitations: The scheme is fund-limited, and individual exporter

benefits were previously capped at Rs 10 crore annually per Import Export Code
(IEC). This has now been reduced to Rs 50 lakh.
Specific Guidelines for MSMEs:
1. Cap on Benefits: For the fiscal year 2024-25, MSME exporters can receive a
maximum of Rs 50 lakh in benefits until December 2024.
2. Eligibility Restriction: MSME manufacturer-exporters who have already availed
benefits of Rs 50 lakh or more by September 30, 2024, will not be eligible for
further benefits during the extended period.
Background of the Scheme:
• Launched: The scheme was initiated on April 1, 2015, with an original validity of
five years, ending on March 31, 2020. Since then, it has been extended multiple
times, with additional fund allocations.
• Recent Allocation: On December 8, 2023, the Union Cabinet approved an
additional Rs 2,500 crore to continue the scheme until June 30, 2024.
13. Apart from green projects, the loan partnership between IFC and Axis Bank
also aims to develop the ______ finance market in India.
Option 1: Red
Option 2: Blue
Option 3: Yellow
Option 4: Brown
Option 5: Orange
Answer: 2) Blue
Explanation:
The partnership between IFC and Axis Bank aims to develop a blue finance market in
India. The term "blue loan" refers to a financial instrument used for investments
related to water and waste management, marine conservation, sustainable shipping,
and more, highlighting the focus on environmental sustainability beyond just green
projects.
Context:
Collaboration between IFC and Axis Bank for USD 500 Million Loan to Support
Green Projects in India:
The International Finance Corporation (IFC), the private sector lending arm of the
World Bank Group (WBG), has partnered with Axis Bank Limited, one of India's
leading private sector banks, to provide a loan of USD 500 million (approximately Rs
4,200 crore). This funding will support the development of a blue finance market and
scale up the financing of green projects in India. This is IFC's first blue investment in

India and the country's first blue transaction by a financial institution. The loan will
allow Axis Bank to expand its climate finance portfolio.
Significance:
• Urbanization and Growth: India’s rapid urbanization and economic growth

present a significant opportunity to enhance water and energy efficiency. The
water and wastewater treatment market, valued at USD 1.6 billion in 2022, is
projected to grow to USD 3 billion by 2029.
• Green Buildings: The green buildings sector offers an investment opportunity of
USD 1.4 trillion by 2030, primarily driven by the need for sustainable
infrastructure. Private sector investments will be essential to reduce reliance on
limited public funding.
Points to Note:
• ESG Policy: Axis Bank is among the first Indian banks to implement a board-
approved Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) lending policy aligned
with IFC performance standards.
• ESG Commitment: Axis Bank has committed to financing Rs 60,000 crore
(approximately USD 7.2 billion) in ESG-aligned sectors by 2030, having already
achieved Rs 30,000 crore (approximately USD 3.1 billion) by March 2024.
• Green Bonds: In 2016, Axis Bank issued India's first green USD bond and
followed it with the country’s first sustainable USD Additional Tier 1 (AT1) bond in
2021.
Key Terms:
• Blue Loan: A financial instrument designated for investments in water and

wastewater management, marine plastic pollution reduction, marine ecosystem
restoration, and sustainable shipping.
• Green Loan: A loan designed to fund environmentally sustainable and eco-
friendly projects.
• Brown Loan: A non-sustainable financial product supporting fossil fuel and
carbon-intensive activities.
About International Finance Corporation (IFC):
• Managing Director: Makhtar Diop

• Headquarters: Washington, D.C., USA
About Axis Bank Limited:
• Managing Director and CEO: Amitabh Chaudhary

• Tagline: Badhti Ka Naam Zindagi
14. What is the main purpose of the USD 25 million senior secured debt facility
raised by Vivriti Capital Limited from the Asian Development Bank (ADB)?
Option 1: To support general financing activities

Option 2: To enhance access to climate finance initiatives

Option 3: To invest in the stock market
Option 4: To establish a new manufacturing plant
Option 5: To expand its operations internationally
Answer: 2) To enhance access to climate finance initiatives
Explanation:
The main purpose of the USD 25 million senior secured debt facility raised by Vivriti
Capital Limited from the Asian Development Bank (ADB) is to enhance access to
climate finance initiatives. This finance will focus on green initiatives, particularly in
the Electric Vehicle (EV) sector, and aim to support financially underserved enterprises
in India to boost climate-friendly projects.
Context:
Funding Initiative by Vivriti Capital for Climate Bond:
Vivriti Capital Limited (VCL), a non-banking finance company (NBFC), has secured a
USD 25 million senior secured debt facility from the Asian Development Bank (ADB)
to support its climate finance initiatives. This four-year bond is the first of its kind
issued by an NBFC and will be utilized to expand VCL's green finance portfolio.
Key Highlights:
• Fund Allocation: At least 30% of the funds will be designated for financing
Electric Vehicles (EVs), including charging and battery swapping stations.
• Certification: The bond is certified by the Climate Bonds Initiative, aiming to
improve access to climate finance for financially underserved businesses, such as
micro, small, and medium-sized enterprises (MSMEs), mid-market corporations,
and retail clients in India.
Additional Context:
India has set ambitious goals in its updated nationally determined contributions, which
include reducing carbon emissions by one billion tons by 2030 and achieving net-zero
emissions by 2070.
15. What is the total project cost estimated for the development of Amaravati as
per recent news?
Option 1: Rs 39,000 crore


Answer: 2) Rs 49,000 crore
Explanation:
The total project cost estimated for the development of Amaravati is Rs 49,000 crore,
with Rs 15,000 crore being a soft loan from the World Bank. These funds will be utilized
for infrastructure development, residential and commercial layouts, and construction of
essential government buildings in the region.
Context:
Funding Approved for Amaravati Development:
The World Bank (WB), in collaboration with the Asian Development Bank (ADB), has
granted an in-principle loan of Rs 15,000 crore to Andhra Pradesh (AP) for the
development of Amaravati as its capital city. A formal letter confirming the loan has
been sent to India's Ministry of Finance (MoF), with final discussions scheduled for
November 8, 2024. The agreement is expected to be signed by November 15, 2024.
Key Points:
• Total Project Cost: The estimated cost for the capital development project is Rs
49,000 crore, with Rs 15,000 crore coming as a soft loan from the WB.
• Loan Terms: The loan offers a 15-year moratorium on repayment, with the
Central and state governments sharing the burden in a 90:10 ratio.
• Initial Funding: After the agreement is signed, the Andhra Pradesh Capital
Region Development Authority (APCRDA) will receive an initial installment of Rs
3,750 crore in November 2024.
• Infrastructure Focus: The funds will be used for infrastructure projects,
including developing residential and commercial layouts on land pooled from
farmers and constructing key government buildings such as the state assembly
and high court.
Other Projects in Andhra Pradesh:
• The Central Government will release Rs 12,500 crore for the Polavaram
Irrigation Project.
• Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) is set to invest Rs 85,000 crore in
a new refinery in the state.
• The "Swarna Andhra Pradesh 2047" vision aims to transform the state into a USD
2.5 trillion economy, with a target per capita income of USD 40,000.
About the Asian Development Bank (ADB):
• President: Masatsugu Asakawa

• Headquarters: Mandaluyong, Philippines
• Establishment: 1966
• Members: 69 (49 from the region)

16. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved the appointment of Partha
Pratim Sengupta as the Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer
(CEO) of __________ for a period of three years.
Option 1: Axis Bank Limited

Option 2: HDFC Bank Limited
Option 3: Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited
Option 4: Bandhan Bank Limited
Answer: 4) Bandhan Bank Limited
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved the appointment of Partha Pratim
Sengupta as the Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of
Bandhan Bank Limited for a period of three years, effective from the date he
assumes office, no later than November 10, 2024. Sengupta will succeed Ratan Kesh,
who has been serving as the interim MD and CEO following Chandra Sekhar Ghosh’s
resignation on July 9, 2024.
Context:
RBI Approval: Partha Pratim Sengupta's Appointment as Managing Director

and CEO of Bandhan Bank Limited:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved the appointment of Partha Pratim
Sengupta as the Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of
Bandhan Bank Limited for a period of three years, effective from the date he
assumes office, no later than November 10, 2024. Sengupta will succeed Ratan Kesh,
who has been serving as the interim MD and CEO following Chandra Sekhar Ghosh’s
resignation on July 9, 2024.
About Partha Pratim Sengupta:
• Career Beginnings: Partha Sengupta started his career at the State Bank of
India (SBI).
• Notable Roles:
◦ Chief General Manager of SBI Kolkata Circle (2016-2018), managing
operations in West Bengal, Sikkim, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
◦ Deputy Managing Director and Chief Credit Officer of SBI in 2018, where he
chaired the Corporate Centre Credit Committee, playing a key role in
shaping the bank’s credit policies.
◦ MD & CEO of Indian Overseas Bank (IOB) from July 2020 to December 2022.
• Expertise: Sengupta has extensive experience in both retail and corporate
banking across various regions.
About Bandhan Bank Limited:
• Headquarters: Kolkata, West Bengal

• Tagline: Aapka Bhala Sabki Bhalai

17. What was the primary focus of the Reserve Bank of India's Monetary Policy
Committee during its 51st meeting held in October 2024?
Option 1: To reduce the policy repo rate due to high inflation levels
Option 2: To realign monetary policy stance towards supporting growth while managing
inflation
Option 3: To forecast a significant increase in India’s GDP growth rate
Option 4: To increase consumer confidence by lowering interest rates
Option 5: To address the widening Current Account Deficit (CAD) in India
Answer: 2) To realign monetary policy stance towards supporting growth while

managing inflation
Explanation:
The Monetary Policy Committee focused on shifting its stance to neutral from
withdrawal of accommodation, emphasizing the importance of balancing inflation
targets with the need to support economic growth.
Context:
Monetary Policy Update by the Reserve Bank of India:
Monetary Policy Committee Meeting Overview
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
convened from October 7 to October 9, 2024.
• - Real GDP Growth Projections:

• - FY25 Growth: 7.2% (overall)
• - Quarterly Projections:
• - Q2: 7.0%
• - Q3: 7.4%
• - Q4: 7.4%
• - Q1:2025-26: 7.3%
• - Repo Rate:
• - Remains at 6.50% for 10 consecutive times (vote: 5:1).
• - Nagesh Kumar voted for a 25 basis point reduction.
• - Monetary Policy Stance:
• - Adjusted to neutral from withdrawal of accommodation to focus on
sustainable inflation alignment and growth support.
• - Next MPC Meeting:
• - Scheduled for December 4-6, 2024.
• - MPC Reconstitution:
• - Economists Ram Singh, Saugata Bhattacharya, and Nagesh Kumar
appointed to the panel.

RBI Policy Rates:
• - Rates:
• - Policy Repo Rate: 6.5% - Fixed Reverse Repo Rate: 3.35%
• - Standing Deposit Facility Rate: 6.25%
• - Marginal Standing Facility Rate: 6.75%
• - Bank Rate: 6.75%
• - Cash Reserve Ratio: 4.50%
• - Statutory Liquidity Ratio: 18%
Inflation Forecast:
• - Maintained at 4.5% with quarterly projections:

• - Q2: 4.1% - Q3: 4.8%
• - Q4: 4.2%
• - Q1:2025-26: 4.3%
• - Headline Inflation:
• - Dropped to 3.6% and 3.7% in July and August from 5.1% in June.
Current Account Deficit (CAD):
• - Widened to 1.1% of GDP in Q1 FY25.
UPI Changes:
• - Increased transaction limits:

• - UPI 123Pay from Rs 5,000 to Rs 10,000.
• - UPI Lite wallet increased from Rs 2,000 to Rs 5,000.
• - Per transaction limit of UPI Lite raised to Rs 1,000 from Rs 500.
Climate Risk Framework:
• - Proposal for RB-CRIS for climate-related risk monitoring.

• - Will include web-based directory and data portal for climate-related data.
Pre-Payment Penalties:
• - RBI disallows pre-payment penalties for floating rate term loans sanctioned to
Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs).
NEFT and RTGS Updates:
• - New look-up facility for verifying beneficiary account names.
Guidance Note for Money Laundering Risks:
• - Issued for regulated entities to help assess risks related to ML and TF.
Accessibility Initiatives:
• - RBI to ensure payment systems are accessible to persons with disabilities.
Scholarship Scheme for Faculty:
• - Program for economics or finance faculty in UGC and AICTE institutions to

promote research.

About RBI:
• - Established: April 1, 1935

• - Governor: Shaktikanta Das- Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra
18. Which of the following statements about the White Label ATM License
granted to Electronic Payment and Services Limited (EPS) is INCORRECT?
Option 1: EPS aims to deploy 9,000 WLAs across India within three years.
Option 2: The White Label ATM License (WLA) is issued under the Payment and Settlement
Systems (PSS) Act, 2007.
Option 3: EPS has become the first company to receive the WLA after a gap of 15 years.
Option 4: The license issued by the RBI for WLA operation is valid for one year.
Option 5: The minimum net worth required for non-bank entities to apply for a WLA is Rs
100 crore.
Answer: 3) EPS has become the first company to receive the WLA after a gap of 15
years.
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has granted a White Label Automated Teller
Machine (ATM) License (WLA) to Electronic Payment and Services Limited
(EPS), a Mumbai-based company. The license was issued after a gap of 10 years,
under the Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007, aimed at enhancing
ATM networks particularly in rural and semi-urban areas of India.
Context:
Overview of White Label ATMs in India:
Granting of License
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has granted a White Label Automated Teller
Machine (ATM) License (WLA) to Electronic Payment and Services Limited
(EPS), a Mumbai-based company. The license was issued after a gap of 10 years,
under the Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007, aimed at enhancing
ATM networks particularly in rural and semi-urban areas of India.
Key Points:
• - EPS is now the 5th company to receive the WLA license.

• - White-label ATMs are ATMs owned and managed by non-bank entities,
allowing any bank's customers to access them.

EPS's Deployment Goals
• - EPS plans to deploy 9,000 WLAs within the first 3 years, under the brand name
EPS Bancs.
• - In the initial phase, 2,000 ATMs are planned for deployment by March 2025.
• - Currently, EPS manages over 10,300 ATMs for various banks in India.
Guidelines for Acquiring WLA License
1. Applicants must state their intended operations in the Memorandum of

Association (MOA).
2. Applicants must have a minimum net worth of Rs 100 crore based on the last
audited balance sheet.
3. The license is valid for 1 year; details on proposed WLAs must be provided at the
time of application.
4. As of 2019, certain conditions for WLA operators were relaxed, allowing them to
source cash more flexibly.
Current Market Operators
• - There are currently 4 companies operating WLAs in India:

• - Hitachi Payment Services Private Limited
• - Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited (TCPSL)
• - India1 Payments Limited (BTI Payments Private Limited)
• - Vakrangee Limited
• - As of 31st July 2024, these operators together had about 34,000 ATMs in
India.
• - TCPSL was the first to establish an WLA called Indicash in Chandrapada,
Thane district, Maharashtra, on 27th June, 2013.
About EPS
• - Founded in 2011, EPS is supported by investors such as Apis Partners and the
Dutch Entrepreneurial Development Bank (FMO).
• - Chairman and Managing Director (CMD): Mani Mamallan
About RBI
• - Governor: Shaktikanta Das, the 25th Governor

• - Establishment Date: 1 April, 1935
19. What is the revised Asset Monetisation target for FY25 set by NITI Aayog?

Option 2: Rs 1.9 trillion
Option 3: Rs 6 trillion
Option 5: Rs 3.9 trillion

Answer: 2) Rs 1.9 trillion
Explanation:
NITI Aayog has raised the Asset Monetisation target for FY25 by Rs 23,000 crore to Rs
1.9 trillion, making option 2 the correct answer.
Context:
Overview of NITI Aayog's Asset Monetisation Targets:
Overview of NITI Aayog's Asset Monetisation Targets
1. Revised Targets
• - NITI Aayog has increased the Asset Monetisation (AM) target for Financial
Year 2024-25 (FY25) by Rs 23,000 crore to Rs 1.9 trillion.
• - This adjustment aims to contribute towards achieving the overall target of Rs
6 trillion specified in the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) covering
FY22 to FY25.
2. Estimated Revenue from Key Sectors
• - Highways monetisation expected to raise Rs 54,000 crore for the

Government of India (GoI) in FY25.
• - Coal block monetisation anticipated to generate Rs 55,000 crore.
3. Concept of Asset Monetisation
• - Defined as the process of unlocking economic value of underutilized public

assets to create alternative revenue sources.
• - Initially proposed by Vijay Kelkar in 2012.
4. Core Group of Secretaries on Asset Monetisation (CGAM)
• - Constituted by the GoI to monitor transaction progress and address

structural issues in sectors under NMP.
5. Financial Analysis of Combined Assets
• - Estimated that combined assets from railways, power, petroleum, and

natural gas are projected to generate nearly Rs 46,000 crore.
6. Performance of Union Ministries
• - Some ministries haven’t met original NMP targets in the prior three fiscal years
but achieved revised targets.
• - Notable sectors struggling include: railways, telecommunications, and civil
aviation.

7. Detailed Performance of Specific Ministries
• - Ministry of Railways (MoR) has monetised Rs 20,417 crore, achieving only

30% of its revised target.
• - Warehousing sector has achieved 38% of its target with Rs 8,000 crore.
• - Civil Aviation achieved 14% of its Rs 2,600 crore target.
• - Ministry of Coal (MoC) has exceeded its initial target for monetisation.
8. National Monetisation Pipeline Overview
• - Announced in Union Budget 2021-22 by Nirmala Sitharaman.

• - Developed by NITI Aayog in collaboration with Infrastructure Ministries.
9. Government Achievements
• - To date, GoI has monetised assets worth Rs 3.9 trillion against the projected
target of Rs 4.3 trillion for the first three years ending FY24.
10. FY24 Monetisation Details
• - For FY24, official data indicates asset monetisation of Rs 1.56 lakh crore,
slightly lower than the Rs 1.8 lakh crore target.
11. Key Information about NITI Aayog
• - Chairperson: Narendra Modi (PM of India)

• - CEO: B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
• - Headquarters: New Delhi, Delhi
• - Established: 2015.
20. Which of the following statements best summarizes the reasons behind
India's foreign exchange reserves surpassing $700 billion in September 2024?
Option 1: India received USD 30 billion in foreign inflows, primarily due to investments
following its inclusion in a J.P. Morgan index.
Option 2: The increase in reserves was solely due to a rise in gold prices, which enhanced
the value of India's gold reserves significantly.
Option 3: The Reserve Bank of India set new policies that directly increased foreign
investments into the country, leading to higher reserves.
Option 4: The increase in reserves is attributed only to the growth in the Foreign Currency
Assets (FCA) component without any external factors.
Answer: 1) India received USD 30 billion in foreign inflows, primarily due to

investments following its inclusion in a J.P. Morgan index.
Explanation:
This option effectively encapsulates the main reason cited in the text for the increase in
India's foreign exchange reserves, indicating the direct correlation between foreign
investments and the overall rise in reserves.

Context:
India's Record Foreign Exchange Reserves:
According to the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) data, India's foreign exchange
reserves surpassed $700 billion for the first time ever in September 2024. This
milestone places India as the fourth country worldwide to achieve such reserves,
joining China, Japan, and Switzerland.
Key Statistics i. The reserves recorded an increase of USD 12.59 billion, reaching an
all-time high of USD 704.885 billion for the week ending September 27, 2024.
ii. A significant part of these reserves, known as Foreign Currency Assets (FCA), rose
by USD 10.46 billion to USD 616.154 billion. Furthermore, Gold reserves upticked
by USD 2.184 billion to USD 65.796 billion according to the RBI.
iii. The FCA is maintained as a diversified multi-currency portfolio, which includes major
currencies such as US Dollar (USD), Euro, Pound Sterling, and Japanese Yen, all
valued in USD.
Factors Contributing to the Increase
The notable increase in reserves can be attributed to multiple factors, notably the USD
30 billion in foreign inflows received this year. This surge is primarily linked to
investments in local bonds following India's inclusion in a significant J.P. Morgan
index.
21. What is significant about the new Line of Credit extended by the
Government of India to Mauritius?
Option 1: It is India's first ever rupee-denominated Line of Credit for project financing to
any country.
Option 2: It is a dollar-denominated credit for infrastructure project financing.
Option 3: It is exclusively for agricultural development projects in Mauritius.
Option 4: It involves collaboration with multiple countries for funding.
Answer: 1) It is India's first ever rupee-denominated Line of Credit for project financing
to any country.
Explanation:
This new Line of Credit (LoC) is significant because it marks a departure from traditional
dollar-denominated loans, making it the first time India has offered a rupee-
denominated LoC for project financing to any nation. This supports the
internationalization of the Indian currency.
Context:

India Extends First Rupee-Denominated Line of Credit to Mauritius:
The Government of India (GoI) has announced a new Line of Credit (LoC)
amounting to Rs 487.60 crore for the Government of Mauritius. This funding is
designated for a water pipeline replacement project.
Significance:
• This is India's first-ever rupee-denominated LoC for project financing under the
Indian Development and Economic Assistance Scheme (IDEAS).
• The formal offer was extended by Union Minister Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
to Maneesh Gobin, Mauritian Attorney General and Minister of Agro-Industry and
Food Security.
Project Details:
• The project will replace approximately 100 km of outdated water pipelines in

Mauritius.
• Aims to enhance water supply infrastructure and provide reliable access to
clean water for residents.
Financing Terms:
• The LoC will be financed by the State Bank of India (SBI) at concessional terms*.
About LoC:
• This rupee-denominated LoC is a shift from the conventional dollar-denominated

loans.
• It promotes the internationalization of the Indian currency, facilitating bilateral
trade through repayments in rupees.
About IDEAS:
• The IDEAS initiative aims to offer concessional loans for infrastructure and social
welfare projects across Asia, Africa, the CIS region, and Latin America.
• Since 2003-04, LoCs have been provided through the Export-Import Bank of
India (Exim Bank).
Mauritius Profile:
• Prime Minister: Pravind Jugnauth

• Capital: Port Louis
• Currency: Mauritian Rupee
22. What is the main purpose of the interlinking of India's UPI with UAE's AANI?
Option 1: To facilitate seamless cross-border transactions between India and UAE.

Option 2: To create a new digital currency for India and UAE.
Option 3: To develop a joint venture in the food sector.
Option 4: To explore investment opportunities in the technology sector.

Answer: 1) To facilitate seamless cross-border transactions between India and UAE.
Explanation:
The main purpose of linking India's Unified Payment Interface with UAE's AANI is to
enable seamless cross-border transactions for over 3 million Indians residing in
the UAE.
Context:
India-UAE Payment Integration Agreement:
The Government of India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) are collaborating to
interlink India's Unified Payment Interface (UPI) with UAE's instant payments
platform AANI.
Benefits
• This initiative aims to facilitate seamless cross-border transactions for over 3

million Indians living in the UAE, empowering them to utilize the capabilities of
both UPI and AANI.
Discussion Details
• This subject was a key focus during the 12th Meeting of the India-UAE High Level
Joint Task Force on Investments (HLJTFI) held in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• The meeting was co-chaired by Union Minister Piyush Goyal and His
Highness Sheikh Hamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan.
Collaboration on Card Payment Service
• The representatives signed a collaboration agreement to establish a card payment

service leveraging resources from India's National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI).
• This collaboration will help establish a domestic card scheme named JAYWAN in
the UAE, based on India's RuPay card stack.
Investment in Food Parks
• Additionally, the UAE has committed to investing about USD 2 billion to set up
food parks across India over the next two to two-and-a-half years*.
23. What monetary penalty was imposed by the RBI on SG Finserve Limited for
non-compliance?
Option 1: Rs 15.00 lakh


Answer: 3) Rs 28.30 lakh
Explanation:
The RBI imposed a monetary penalty of Rs 28.30 lakh specifically for non-compliance
with conditions outlined in their Certificate of Registration.
Context:
RBI Imposes Penalty on SG Finserve Limited:
RBI has imposed a monetary penalty of Rs 28.30 lakh on SG Finserve Limited

(formerly M/s Moongipa Securities Limited).
The penalty is for non-compliance with certain conditions tied to their Certificate of
Registration (CoR).
Legal Basis
The penalty stems from provisions under:
• * Section 45IA (5) of the RBI Act, 1934.

• * Specifically, it is enforced under clause (a) of sub-section (1) of Section 58G, in
conjunction with sub-section (6) of Section 58B of the RBI Act*, 1934.
24. What is the reason for the monetary penalty imposed on Arunachal Pradesh
Rural Bank by RBI?
Option 1: For exceeding its loan sanctioning limit.

Option 2: For non-compliance with RBI's directions on Prudential Norms.
Option 3: For failing to keep customer data secure.
Option 4: For providing false information to RBI.
Option 5: For not having enough capital reserves.
Answer: 2) For non-compliance with RBI's directions on Prudential Norms.
Explanation:
The RBI imposed the penalty specifically due to non-compliance with directions
regarding Strengthening of Prudential Norms related to asset classification and
KYC policies.
Context:
RBI Penalizes Arunachal Pradesh Rural Bank:
RBI Imposes Monetary Penalty on Arunachal Pradesh Rural Bank

Penalty Amount: Rs 14 Lakh

Reason for Penalty: The penalty was imposed for non-compliance with certain directions
issued by the RBI, specifically regarding:
• Strengthening of Prudential Norms

• Provisioning Asset Classification
• Exposure Limit
• Know Your Customer (KYC)
Impact on Customers: This penalty will not affect the bank's customers.
Legal Basis: The penalty was issued under the provisions of:
* Section 47A(1)(c) * Sections 46(4)(i) and 51(1) of the Banking Regulation (BR)
Act, 1949.
25. What is the primary focus of India's financial pledge to the WHO between
2025 and 2028?
Option 1: Fund thematic initiatives

Option 2: Improve digital health initiatives
Option 3: Support WHO's new regional office premises
Option 4: Establish a Centre of Excellence for Traditional Medicine
Option 5: Cover the overall WHO funding gap
Answer: 1) Establish a Centre of Excellence for Traditional Medicine
Explanation:
India's pledge of over USD 300 million primarily focuses on supporting the
establishment of the Centre of Excellence (CoE) for Traditional Medicine in
Jamnagar, Gujarat.
Context:
India's Financial Support to WHO:
India, being the 6th largest contributor globally to the World Health Organization
(WHO), has pledged over USD 300 million to support the core programmes from
2025 to 2028.
Allocation Breakdown:
• * USD 250 million will be specifically dedicated to the Centre of Excellence

(CoE) for Traditional Medicine in Jamnagar, Gujarat.
• * Additionally, the WHO has received contributions pledges totaling over USD 2.2
billion for addressing a USD 7.1 billion funding gap for core programmes, which
aim to save 40 million lives over the next 4 years.

Other allocations include:
• * USD 38 million for new premises for the WHO's regional office.
• * USD 10 million for initiatives in digital health.
• * USD 4.6 million allocated for thematic funding.
Regional Contributions:
• * Countries in the WHO's South-East Asia Region have collectively committed

over USD 345 million.
• * Additional pledges are anticipated from countries like Indonesia and Bhutan.
26. Which country was reported as the largest source of Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) in India according to the RBI's Census for 2023-24?
Option 1: Mauritius
Option 2: United Kingdom (UK)
Option 3: United States of America (USA)
Option 4: Singapore
Option 5: None of the above
Answer: 3) United States of America (USA)
Explanation:
The report clearly states that the United States of America was the largest source of
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India as per the RBI's Census for 2023-24.
Context:
Foreign Direct Investment in India 2023-24:
Overview of FDI in India 2023-24
According to the annual Census on Foreign Liabilities and Assets of Indian Direct
Investment Entities for 2023-24 conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
Largest FDI Source: The United States of America (USA) continued to be the largest
source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India. Other sources included Mauritius,
Singapore, and the United Kingdom (UK)*.
• Census Coverage: The latest census covered a total of 41,653 entities, with
37,407 reporting FDI and/or Overseas Direct Investment (ODI) in their
balance sheets as of March 2024.
* Entities Comparison: Among these, 29,926 were also reported in the last
census round while 7,481 were newly reported. More than 75% of the companies
reporting inward direct investment were subsidiaries of foreign companies.
Key Findings: 1. Non-Financial Companies (NFC) constituted approximately 90%

of total FDI equity at face value.

2. Total FDI in India increased by 23.3% at market-value in rupee terms for FY24,
driven by valuation gains and fresh FDI inflows; in contrast, ODI growth was only 3.4%.
3. Over 97% of responding entities were unlisted as of end-March 2024.
4. Unlisted entities registered a growth of 17.5% in FDI at market value, while growth
for listed entities was 29.8%.
5. The ratio of outward to inward Direct Investment (DI) stock decreased from
19.3% in March 2023 to 16.1% in March 2024.
6. Foreign subsidiaries contributed significantly to external trade, accounting for 35.4%
in exports and 31.5% in imports. Sales of foreign subsidiaries increased by 13.2% and
purchases by 10.6% in rupee terms.
7. The manufacturing sector accounted for over 50% of total FDI equity capital at
market value and about 40% at face value.
Related News: On August 29, 2024, the RBI launched a Scheme for Trading and
Settlement of Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) in the International Financial
Services Centre (IFSC) in India.
The scheme aims to facilitate investments in SGrBs issued by the Government of India
(GoI)* to eligible foreign investors.
About the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

Governor: Shaktikanta Das (25th Governor of RBI)
Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra
Established*: 1 April, 1935
27. What are the main updates made by the CBDT regarding TDS and TCS rules
for salaried employees?
Option 1: Simplifying the process for TDS and TCS claims to ease cash flow issues.
Option 2: Increasing compliance requirements for refund claims to enhance government
revenue.
Option 3: Eliminating the need for salaried employees to report TDS altogether.
Option 4: Creating a new TCS rate for foreign currency purchases without any reporting
requirements.
Option 5: Allowing employees to completely avoid tax deductions from their salaries and
savings.
Answer: 1) Simplifying the process for TDS and TCS claims to ease cash flow issues.
Explanation:
The updates focus on simplifying the claiming process for TDS and TCS to address
cash flow issues faced by employees, contrary to what the other options state.
Context:
CBDT Updates on Income Tax Rules for Employees:

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has made significant updates to Income-Tax
(IT) rules aimed at simplifying the claiming process for salaried employees regarding
Tax Collected at Source (TCS) and Tax Deducted at Source (TDS). This change is
in alignment with the guidelines set in the Union Budget 2024-25. The amendments
aim to address cash flow challenges faced by employees and to reduce compliance
requirements related to refund claims.
1. Amendment Summary
• * Revised TDS Deductions: The sub-section (2B) of Section 192 of the IT

Act, 1961 has been updated to streamline TDS deductions for salaried
employees.
• * Introduction of Form No. 12BAA: A new form has been implemented to
assist employees in reporting necessary details to their employers regarding
payments made under Section 192(1), effective from October 1, 2024. This
form covers TDS and TCS beyond salaries, including fixed deposits, insurance
commissions, and dividends.
• * TCS Credits for Minors: An amendment to sub-section (4) of Section 206C
allows parents to claim TCS credits for their minor child’s income included as part
of the parents' taxable income.
• * Updated TCS Claim Procedure: Notification No. 114/2024 amends Rule 37-I
to enable TCS credits to be claimed by individuals other than the collectee.
Definitions of Key Terms
• TCS: A tax that a seller collects from a buyer at the sale time.
• TDS: A tax collection method implemented by the Indian government at the
income source.
About CBDT
• Chairman: Ravi Agrawal

• Establishment Year: 1963
28. What was the primary goal of the Government of India's divestment in
Cochin Shipyard Limited?
Option 1: To sell the company's assets to private investors.

Option 2: To increase the government stake other CPSEs.
Option 3: To attract more investment into the company and improve operational efficiency.
Option 4: To raise funds for other government projects.
Answer: 2) To attract more investment into the company and improve operational
efficiency.
Explanation:
The divestment aimed at attracting more investment and improving the operational
efficiency of Cochin Shipyard Limited.

Context:
Cochin Shipyard Limited Divestment by the Government of India:
The Government of India (GoI) divested 5% of its stake in Cochin Shipyard

Limited (CSL) through an Offer for Sale (OFS) priced at Rs 1,540 per share.
The total value of the stake is estimated to be around Rs 2,026 crore. The purpose of
this stake sale was to attract more investment into the company and to improve its
operational efficiency. This divestment also fits into GoI's broader plan of enhancing
revenue through the disinvestment of various Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
Disinvestment Process: The GoI sold up to 6,577,020 equity shares, representing a

2.50% stake, as a Base Offer on October 16, 2024 for non-retail investors and on
October 17, 2024 for retail investors.
An additional 6,577,020 shares (equivalent to another 2.50% stake) are available
as an Oversubscription Option, totaling 5% of the company's total issued and paid-
up equity share capital.
Key Points:
• In FY25 (2024-2025), the government has raised Rs 31.61 billion through various
divestments, including Rs 23.46 billion from its stake in the General Insurance
Corporation of India (GIC Re).
• The Indian government held 72.86% stake in Cochin Shipyard as of June 30,
2024.
About Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL): CSL is categorized as a Category I

Miniratna Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) under the Ministry of Ports,
Shipping, and Waterways (MoPS&W).
• Chairman and Managing Director (CMD): Madhu S Nair

• Headquarters: Kochi, Kerala
29. What has Piramal Payment Services Limited (PPSL) recently received
approval for from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
Option 1: To launch a new mobile app for banking.

Option 2: To become a full-fledged banking institution.
Option 3: To offer traditional banking services in rural areas.
Option 4: To set up a Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) service called Piramal Pay.
Option 5: To partner with international banks for loan services.
Answer: 4) To set up a Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) service called Piramal Pay.
Explanation:
Piramal Payment Services Limited (PPSL) received approval from RBI specifically to
establish a Prepaid Payment Instrument service.

Context:
Approval of Piramal Pay by RBI:
Piramal Payment Services Limited (PPSL), a subsidiary of Piramal Capital & Housing
Finance Ltd, has achieved a significant milestone.
Approval from RBI
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has granted approval to PPSL to establish a Prepaid
Payment Instrument (PPI) service.
• The service is named Piramal Pay.

• This authorization falls under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Significance
• With this approval, PPSL is now among the Payment System Operators authorized
by RBI to operate within India.
• The design of Piramal Pay focuses on providing seamless, secure, and
convenient financial transactions for both individuals and businesses.
Reports and Indices

1. What is the projected median age of India by 2023/24, based on the ERD
report by SBI?
Option 1: 24-25 years

Option 5: 32 years
Answer: 3) 28-29 years
Explanation:
According to the ERD report by the State Bank of India, the projected median age of
India is expected to increase from 24 years in 2021 to 28-29 years by 2023/24,
indicating a significant shift towards an older demographic profile. This trend aligns with
the broader theme of a growing working-age population and changes in the overall
population composition as highlighted in the report.
Context:
SBI's ERD Report: Trends in India's Population Growth:

According to a report from the Economic Research Department (ERD) of the State
Bank of India (SBI) titled Precursor to Census 2024: The Fine Prints of a Rapidly
Changing Nation, India's average annual exponential population growth rate is on a
decline, projected to decrease from 2.20% in 1971 to 1% in 2024. This trend
suggests that India’s population is expected to be between 138 to 142 crore in 2024,
indicating a slower growth rate over the next decade. The report also anticipates that
the median age in India will rise from 24 years in 2021 to between 28 and 29 years
in 2023/24, highlighting India's status as one of the youngest nations globally, still
below the global median age.
Key Points:
1. The first census was conducted during the British colonial era in 1872.
2. The last decadal census took place in 2011, with the 2021 census delayed due
to the COVID-19 pandemic.
Key Findings:
Working Age Population:
• The report indicates that the working-age population in India has been on the rise
since 1971 and is expected to reach 64.4% in the upcoming 2024 Census, with
further growth projected to 65.2% by 2031.
• The proportion of individuals aged 15 to 29 years in the working-age population
increased from 55.4% in 1991 to 56.9% in 2001, and further to 60.7% in
2021.
• According to the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
(OECD), approximately 67% of India’s population falls within the working-age
group, and it is projected that nearly 25% of the incremental global workforce
over the next decade will emerge from India, with the working-age population
potentially exceeding 100 crore by 2030.
Population Growth:
• The proportion of children aged 0 to 14 years is projected to be 24.3% in 2024,

down from 30.9% in 2011, reflecting a continued reversal trend that began
in 1971.
• The report notes a steady increase in the share of elderly individuals since 1951,
projected to reach 10.7% in 2024, further rising to 13.1% by 2031. It estimates
that the elderly population will surpass 15 crore in 2024, comprising 7.7 crore
females and 7.3 crore males, marking an increase of 4.6 crore from 2011 to
2024. The elderly population grew by over 2.7 crore between 2001 and 2011.
• The proportion of individuals aged 60 years and older in India has been rising,
from 7.3% in 1991 to 10.7% expected in the 2024 census.
Southern States’ Contribution to Population Growth:
• The report estimates that the contribution of southern states to incremental

population growth will decline in the 2021 Census compared to the 2011
Census, primarily due to low growth rates in states like Tamil Nadu
(TN), Andhra Pradesh (AP), and Telangana.
• In contrast, northern states, particularly Uttar Pradesh (UP) and Bihar, are
expected to account for approximately 33% of the total incremental population.

• The combined population share of the northern and eastern regions is

approximately 52%, up from 51% in 2011, while both the eastern and southern
regions show a decline compared to figures from over a decade ago.
State-wise Elderly Population Share:
• According to the Technical Group on Population Projections for India and

States 2011-2036, there were about 13.8 crore elderly individuals in India
in 2021, consisting of 6.7 crore males and 7.1 crore females.
• Kerala has the highest share of elderly individuals at 16.5%, followed by Tamil
Nadu (13.6%), Himachal Pradesh (HP) (13.1%), Punjab (12.6%),
and Andhra Pradesh (12.4%).
• States with the lowest share of elderly individuals include Bihar (7.7%), Uttar
Pradesh (8.1%), and Assam (8.2%).
• The report indicates that West Bengal, Maharashtra, and Uttar
Pradesh together account for 26% of the incremental growth in the elderly
population over the 13-year period ending in 2024.
Rapid Urbanization in India:
• The report highlights rapid urbanization in India, noting that the urban population
was 31% in 2011 and is expected to rise to 35% to 37% in the 2024 Census.
The share of the population living in urban agglomerates with over 1 million
residents increased from 14.3% in 2014 to 16.6% in 2023.
• Delhi and Chandigarh are the most urbanized regions, with urban populations
of 99.7% and 100%, respectively, followed by Daman and Diu
(96.1%) and Puducherry (70.4%).
• Among the northeastern states, Mizoram has the highest urban population
at 55.2%, followed by Sikkim (almost 51%).
• The states with the lowest urban populations include Himachal Pradesh
(10.3%), Bihar (12.4%), Assam (15.7%), and Odisha (19.0%).
• Among major states, Tamil Nadu remains the most urbanized, with 54% of its
population living in urban areas, followed by Maharashtra (48.8%).
• The report notes that due to the rapid rise in urbanization, the number of million-
plus cities is increasing; there were only 18 million-plus cities in 1991, which
rose to 52 in 2011. The 2024 Census is expected to record around 75 to
80 cities with populations exceeding one million.
2. What is the projected Consumer inflation for India in FY24 as per the ADB
report?
Option 1: 4.7%
Option 2: 6.7%
Option 3: 8%
Option 4: 1%
Option 5: 7.2%
Answer: 1) 4.7%
Explanation:

The projected Consumer inflation for India in FY24 is 4.7% as per the ADB report.
Despite higher agriculture output expectations, the anticipated rise in inflation is driven
by elevated food prices.
Context:
ADB Projects India's Economic Growth Rates for FY24 and FY25:
According to the September update of the Asian Development Outlook (ADO) released
by the Asian Development Bank (ADB), India's growth forecast for the Financial Year
2024 (FY24) is projected at 7%, with an increase to 7.2% for FY25. The report notes
that while Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth slowed to 6.7% in the first quarter
(April-June) of FY24, it is expected to pick up pace in the following quarters due to
improved agricultural performance and significant advancements in industry and
services.
Key Highlights of the Report:
1. Government Debt:
◦ The report indicates that government debt is expected to decline from

58.2% of GDP in FY24 to 56.8% in FY25. The general government deficit,
which encompasses state governments, is projected to fall below 8% of GDP
in FY24.
2. Current Account Deficit (CAD):
◦ ADB forecasts India's CAD to be 1% of GDP in FY24 and 1.2% in FY25, a

decrease from the previous estimate of 1.7% for both years. This
improvement is attributed to better export performance, lower imports, and
robust remittance inflows.
3. Consumer Inflation:
◦ Consumer inflation is anticipated to rise to 4.7% in FY24, driven by high

food prices, despite expectations for increased agricultural output.
4. Fiscal Consolidation:
◦ Fiscal consolidation measures are expected to reduce the fiscal deficit to

pre-COVID-19 levels, reflecting increased revenue collection and controlled
current expenditures.
About the Asian Development Bank (ADB):
• President: Masatsugu Asakawa

• Headquarters: Mandaluyong City, Metro Manila, Philippines
• Members: 68 members (49 from Asia and the Pacific, 19 from outside the region)

3. What is India's rank on the Asia Power Index 2024?
Option 1: 2nd
Option 2: 3rd
Option 3: 4th
Option 4: 5th
Option 5: 6th
Answer: 2) 3rd
Explanation:
India is ranked 3rd on the Asia Power Index 2024, as per the data released by
Lowy Institute. Despite improvements in various measures of power, India secured the
3rd position, surpassing Japan due to robust post-COVID economic growth.
Context:
India's Position in Asia Power Index 2024 and Top Countries:
According to the Asia Power Index 2024 Edition released by the Lowy Institute in
Sydney, Australia, India has achieved a rank of 3rd with a score of 39.1 out of
100, surpassing Japan due to robust post-COVID-19 economic growth. The United
States leads the 2024 index with a score of 81.7, followed by China in second place with
a score of 72.7. Papua New Guinea ranks last at 27th with a score of 4.2. India’s
comprehensive power ranking improved by one position in 2024, with a score increase
of 2.8 points (+8%). This edition marks the first time India has raised its power score
since 2018-2019, although it still falls below those earlier levels.
About the Asia Power Index:
1. Overview: The Asia Power Index has been measuring resources and influence to
assess state power in Asia annually since 2018. It includes 8 measures of power,
30 thematic sub-measures, and 131 indicators.
2. Scope: The index ranks 27 countries and territories based on their resources and
usage, covering regions as far west as Pakistan, north to Russia, and into the
Pacific, including Australia, New Zealand, and the USA.
3. Comprehensive Assessment: The 2024 edition, based on six years of data, is
the most extensive evaluation of power distribution in Asia to date.
Top 5 Countries in the Asia Power Index 2024:
Rank Country Score/100

1 USA 81.7
2 China 72.7
3 India 39.1
4 Japan 38.9
5 Australia 31.9

Key Classifications:
• Countries scoring over 70 points are considered superpowers.

• Those with scores above 10 are regarded as middle powers.
• Countries scoring below 10 are classified as minor powers.
India's Ranking under 8 Thematic Measures:
Indicator Rank Score

Economic Capability 4 26.1
Military Capability 4 45.2
Resilience 5 56.5
Future Resources 3 55.9
Economic Relationships 10 17.5
Defence Networks 9 19
Diplomatic Influence 4 70.2
Cultural Influence 4 38.7
Key Points:
1. India recorded the most significant gains in future resources (+8.2) in 2024.
2. The largest decline occurred in defense networks (-2.5).
3. Improvements were noted in resilience (+5.2), diplomatic influence (+4.5),
economic capability (+4.2), economic relationships (+2.1), and military capability
(+1.1).
4. Cultural influence remained stable.
5. India's lowest-ranking measure is economic relationships, indicating it is outside
the regional economic integration agenda.
6. Although India saw score improvements across resource measures in 2024, it did
not gain a ranking in any category.
7. It fell one rank in economic relationships and defense networks to 10th and 9th,
respectively.
8. India’s large population and GDP growth reinforce its position as the world’s third-
largest economy in terms of Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).
9. Participation in dialogues and leadership within the Quad enhances India’s role in
regional security, despite its absence from formal military alliances.
• Uttarakhand became the first state globally to launch a Gross Environmental

Product (GEP) index to evaluate overall ecosystem development.
• The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
announced the New World Soil Health Index at an International Conference on
Soils in Agadir, Morocco, aiming to establish global soil quality assessment
standards.
About the Lowy Institute:
• Chairman of the Board: Sir Frank Lowy AC

• Headquarters: Sydney, Australia

4. According to the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) report,

titled the 17th edition of the Global Innovation Index (GII 2024): Unlocking the
Promise of Social Entrepreneurship, India has secured the 39th position out
of 133 economies with a score of _______.
Option 1: 48.3
Option 2: 58.3
Option 3: 38.3
Option 4: 88.3
Option 5: 138.3
Answer: 3) 38.3
Explanation:
According to the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) report, titled the 17th
edition of the Global Innovation Index (GII 2024): Unlocking the Promise of Social
Entrepreneurship, India has secured the 39th position out of 133 economies with a
score of 38.3. This marks an improvement from the 40th rank and score of 38.1 in GII
2023. Switzerland has topped the index for the 14th consecutive year, followed by
Sweden in 2nd place and the United States in 3rd.
Context:
India's Position in Global Innovation Index 2024; Switzerland Leads for 14th
Year:
According to the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) report, titled the 17th
edition of the Global Innovation Index (GII 2024): Unlocking the Promise of Social
Entrepreneurship, India has secured the 39th position out of 133 economies with a
score of 38.3. This marks an improvement from the 40th rank and score of 38.1 in GII
2023. Switzerland has topped the index for the 14th consecutive year, followed by
Sweden in 2nd place and the United States in 3rd.
Overview of the Global Innovation Index (GII)
• Annual Publication: The GII has been co-published since 2007 by

WIPO, INSEAD (Paris, France), and Cornell University (New York, USA).
• Ranking Criteria: It evaluates global economies based on 80 indicators and
utilizes seven criteria: Institutions, Human Capital and Research, Infrastructure,
Market Sophistication, Business Sophistication, Knowledge and Technology
Outputs, and Creative Outputs.
• Sub-Indices: The GII consists of two sub-indices: the Innovation Input Sub-
Index (five pillars) and the Innovation Output Sub-Index (two pillars).
• Purpose: It serves as a vital resource for policymakers and business leaders,
tracking global innovation trends to foster human ingenuity and address
challenges such as climate change.

Highlights of GII 2024
• China's Position: China is ranked 11th, being the only middle-income economy
in the GII top 30.
• Overperformers: India, the Republic of Moldova, and Vietnam have all been
recognized as innovation overperformers for the 14th consecutive year.
• Ranking Improvements: Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Brazil, Indonesia, Mauritius, and
Pakistan have made the most significant gains in the GII rankings.
• Continued Overperformance: Indonesia, Pakistan, and Uzbekistan have
maintained their overperformer status for the third year, while Brazil has done so
for the fourth consecutive year.
• European Dominance: Europe hosts the highest number of innovation leaders
among the top 25, with a total of 15, including seven in the top 10.
• Significant Progress: Middle-income countries such as China, India, Indonesia,
Iran, the Philippines, Turkey, Vietnam, and Morocco have made notable progress in
the GII rankings since 2013.
Top 5 Countries in GII 2024
Ranking Country Score

1 Switzerland 67.5
2 Sweden 64.5
3 USA 62.4
4 Singapore 61.2
5 United Kingdom 61.0
39 India 38.3
The lowest-ranked economies are Angola, Niger, and Mali, occupying

the 133rd, 132nd, and 131st positions, respectively.
India's Scorecard
Indicator Score Rank

Institutions 51.5 54
Human Capital 34.8 51
Infrastructure 39.0 72
Market Sophistication 52.3 23
Business Sophistication 28.1 58
Knowledge and Technology Outputs 38.8 22
Creative Outputs 32.1 43
Key Points
• India remains the leading innovation economy in the Central and Southern
Asian region.
• It ranks 1st in the lower-middle-income group and has outperformed in innovation
for the 14th consecutive year.
• India is also 4th in the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
Science & Technology (S&T) Cluster Ranking. Major cities
like Mumbai (56th), Delhi (63rd), Bengaluru (82nd), and Chennai (84th)

feature among the World's Top 100 S&T clusters, with Tokyo-
Yokohama (Japan) at the top.
• India ranks 7th globally in intangible asset intensity and 8th for the global
rank of its unicorn companies.
• India has improved its rank and score in Infrastructure and Creative
Outputs compared to GII 2023, but saw declines in Human Capital &
Research, Market Sophistication, and Business Sophistication indicators.
• The score under the Institutions parameter decreased from 53.9 to 51.5, with a
slight rank improvement from 56 to 54.
• India's rank in Knowledge and Technology Outputs remained at 22, although
its score dropped from 39.7 to 38.8.
• India's rise in the GII highlights its progress and potential as a global innovation
hub, supported by initiatives like Start-Up India, Digital India, and the Atal
Innovation Mission (AIM) that promote entrepreneurship, research, and
technological advancement.
Recent Related News
1. The Discipline Science and Processes (DSP) Mutual Fund has launched
India's first-ever Nifty Top 10 Equal Weight Index Fund and
corresponding Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs), allowing investors equal
exposure to the top 10 companies on the Nifty Index.
2. According to the Brand Finance Food & Drink 2024 report, Anand Milk Union
Limited (AMUL) has been recognized as the world's strongest food and dairy
brand with an AAA+ rating for the fourth consecutive year. AMUL's brand
value has increased by 11% to USD 3.3 billion, with a Brand Strength Index
(BSI) score of 91 out of 100.
About WIPO
The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is a global forum for

Intellectual Property (IP) services, policy, information, and cooperation, comprising 193
member states as of October 1, 2024.
• Director General: Daren Tang

• Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
• Establishment: 1967
5. According to the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) for the Financial Year
2022-2023, what was the percentage increase in total employment in
manufacturing industries compared to the previous year?
Option 1: 6.3%
Option 2: 7.5%
Option 3: 21.5%
Option 4: 24.4%
Option 5: 16.33%

Answer: 2) 7.5%
Explanation:
The total employment in manufacturing industries rose by 7.5% in the Financial Year
2022-2023 compared to the previous year. This increase led to a total employment
figure of 1.85 crore in FY23 from 1.72 crore in FY22.
Context:
Analysis of Employment Trends in Manufacturing Sector:
The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has revealed a 7.5% increase in total
employment within manufacturing industries for the Financial Year 2022-2023
(FY23), rising to 1.85 crore from 1.72 crore in FY 2021-22 (FY22). The survey's fieldwork
was carried out between November 2023 and June 2024, covering the period from April
2022 to March 2023.
Key Highlights Related to Manufacturing Industries:
1. Employment in manufacturing has surpassed pre-pandemic levels (2018-19) by

22.14 lakh.
2. Average compensation per person rose by 6.3% compared to FY22.
3. Total employment grew from 1,72,15,350 in FY22 to 1,84,94,962 in FY23, with
figures for previous years being 1,60,89,700 (FY21), 1,66,24,291 (FY20), and
1,62,80,211 (FY19).
4. Gross Value Added (GVA) at current prices increased by 7.3% compared to FY22.
5. Input costs surged by 24.4%, while output grew by 21.5% in FY23.
6. Major growth industries included basic metals, refined petroleum, food products,
chemicals, and motor vehicles, which collectively contributed 58% of total output.
7. The top five states by GVA in FY23 were Maharashtra (1st), Gujarat (2nd), Tamil
Nadu (3rd), Karnataka (4th), and Uttar Pradesh (5th), together accounting for 54%
of total manufacturing GVA.
8. These states employed 55% of the manufacturing workforce in FY23, with Tamil
Nadu leading, followed by Maharashtra, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Karnataka.
9. Fixed capital investment increased to ₹41,21,794.58 crore in FY23 from
₹37,26,354.44 crore in FY22, while invested capital rose to ₹61,39,212.55 crore in
FY23 from ₹55,44,931.75 crore in FY22.
Top 5 States by GVA:
1. Maharashtra (16.33%)
2. Gujarat (14.78%)
3. Tamil Nadu (TN) (10.33%)
4. Karnataka (7.04%)
5. Uttar Pradesh (UP) (6.09%)
About ASI: The ASI aims to provide insights into the dynamics of manufacturing
industries, focusing on changes in composition, growth, and structure concerning
output, value added, employment, and capital formation. It serves as an essential

resource for National Accounts Statistics at both national and state levels. Since FY11,
the survey has been conducted annually under the Collection of Statistics (COS) Act,
2008, and its 2011 rules, except in Jammu & Kashmir, where it follows the J&K
Collection of Statistics Act, 2010, and its 2012 rules.
About the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI):
• Minister of State (Independent Charge): Rao Inderjit Singh (Constituency:

Gurugram, Haryana)
6. Who is the founder of Mamaearth and features among the top young
entrepreneurs in the 2024 Hurun India under 35s list?
Option 1: Isha Ambani

Option 2: Parita Parekh
Option 3: Ghazal Alagh
Option 4: Ankush Sachdeva
Option 5: Neetish Sharda
Answer: 3) Ghazal Alagh
Explanation:
Ghazal Alagh is the founder of Mamaearth and is among the top young
entrepreneurs in the 2024 Hurun India under 35s list. Mamaearth's success and Alagh's
leadership are recognized in the list for their contributions to the entrepreneurial
landscape.
Context:
Top Young Entrepreneurs in Hurun India Under-35 List: Isha Ambani, Parita
Parekh, Ghazal Alagh, and More:
The latest inaugural edition of the 2024 Hurun India Under 35s, released by Hurun
India, highlights notable young entrepreneurs, including Isha Ambani, the non-Executive
Director of Reliance Retail Limited; Parita Parekh, co-founder of Toddle, an online
platform for educators; and Ghazal Alagh, founder of Mamaearth. Ankush
Sachdeva, the 31-year-old Chief Executive Officer of ShareChat and Moj, India’s leading
social media apps, tops the list and is also the youngest entrepreneur featured. Neetish
Sharda (31), the founder of Smartworks, ranks second, followed by Akshit Jain, Director
of Goldmedal Electricals Private Limited, and Chaitanya Rathi, co-founder of Bijnis, who
occupy the third and fourth spots, respectively.
About the 2024 Hurun India Under 35s:
1. The list showcases 150 remarkable self-made entrepreneurs in India who are
under the age of 35.

2. Entrepreneurs included have a minimum business valuation of USD 50 million for

first-generation leaders and USD 100 million for next-generation leaders.
3. According to the report, 82% (123) of the featured entrepreneurs are first-
generation leaders, with an average age of 33.
4. The entrepreneurs come from 41 cities across the country, with Bengaluru and
Mumbai having the highest representation at 29 and 26 business leaders,
respectively.
5. The report indicates that the majority of young entrepreneurs hail from the Indian
Institute of Technology (IIT), with IIT Madras leading with 13 entrants, followed by
IIT Bombay with 11, and both IIT Delhi and IIT Kharagpur with 10 each.
Top 5 Young Entrepreneurs Under 35:
Rank Name Age Company Name Industry

Ankush Media & Entertainment
1 31 ShareChat
Sachdeva (M&E)
2 Neetish Sarda 31 Smartworks Real Estate
3 Akshit Jain 31 Goldmedal Electricals Consumer Goods
4 Chaitanya Rathi 31 Bijnis E-Commerce
BG Shirke Construction
5 Jay Vijay Shirke 31 Real Estate
Technology
Key Highlights:
• Other notable names on the list include Aakash Ambani (32nd), Chairman of
Reliance Jio Infocomm Limited; Alakh Pandey, founder of the ed-tech company
Physics Wallah (23rd); and Roman Saini (38th), founder of the ed-tech company
Unacademy.
• Rahul Raj of Flobiz secured the 6th spot among the top 10 entrepreneurs under
35, followed by Rajan Bajaj (7th, Slice), Raghav Gupta (8th, Jakson Infra), Rishi Raj
Rathore (9th, Arzooo), and Hemesh Singh (10th, Unacademy).
• The Financial Services sector leads the list with 21 companies, followed by
Software & Services (14), and both Education & Training and Media &
Entertainment sectors share third place with 12 companies each.
• Service provider companies dominate the list, accounting for 59% of startups,
while manufacturing companies represent 41%.
Women Entrepreneurs in India:
• The list includes 7 young women entrepreneurs, 4 of whom are continuing their
family business legacy, such as Aneri Patel (33), Director of Ganesh Housing
Corporation; Aneesha Tiwari (33), Director of USV Private Limited; and Anjali
Merchant (34), Director of Encore Healthcare Private Limited.
• Parita Parekh (32) and Isha Ambani (32) are noted as the youngest women
entrepreneurs on the list.
• Ghazal Alagh, aged 35, is recognized for her successful leadership of Mamaearth,
which has become publicly listed.
• Saloni Anand (34) is acknowledged for her innovative haircare solutions in India
through her company, Traya Health Private Limited.
About Hurun Report Inc. (Hurun Report):

Hurun Report is a leading research, luxury publishing, and events group established in
1998 in London, UK. Hurun India was launched in 2012. The Chief Executive Officer
(CEO) is Rupert Hoogewerf, and Anas Rahman Junaid serves as the Managing Director
(MD) and Chief Researcher for Hurun India, headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
7. What is the percentage coverage of India for social protection benefits

according to the ILO report for Asia and the Pacific?
Option 1: 48.4%
Option 2: 65.6%
Option 3: 10.2%
Option 4: 81.9%
Answer: 1) 48.4%
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 1) 48.4%. India's coverage for social protection benefits is
at 48.4%, which indicates the percentage of the population covered by at least one
social protection benefit according to the ILO report for Asia and the Pacific.
Context:
Challenges in Extending Unemployment Benefits in Asia-Pacific: ILO Report:
The International Labour Organization's (ILO) "World Social Protection Report

2024-26: Regional Companion Report for Asia and the Pacific" highlights key
challenges in expanding unemployment benefits in the Asia-Pacific region. While the
region has, for the first time, achieved 53.6% population coverage by at least one
social protection benefit, it spends only 11.8% of its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) on
social protection, which is below the global average of 19.3%.
Key Findings:
1. Around 2.1 billion people remain without social protection, facing lifecycle and
socio-economic risks, with uneven progress across the region.
2. Social protection systems need strengthening to tackle the impacts of climate
change.
3. Since 2015, coverage rates have improved across various regions, with the
highest increases observed in:
◦ Eastern Asia: 15.2 percentage points (63.3% to 78.5%)
◦ Southeastern Asia: 13.4 percentage points (32.5% to 45.9%)
◦ Southern Asia: 16.7 percentage points (18.7% to 35.4%)
◦ Pacific Islands: 6.8 percentage points (65.7% to 72.5%)
4. Coverage varies significantly among populous countries: 48.4% in India, 75.6%
in China, and 20.2% in Bangladesh.

5. A gender gap persists in effective social protection coverage, with women

receiving 6.8 percentage points less than men. In Southern Asia, the gap
increases to 11.1 percentage points.
India's Scenario: In India, 51.9% of children are covered under child food programs,
contributing to higher coverage in southern Asia. However, unemployment insurance
legally covers only 11.5% of the working-age population, and extending coverage to
informal sector workers remains a significant challenge.
8. Which country claimed the top spot in the IMD World Talent Ranking 2024?
Option 1: Singapore
Option 2: Luxembourg
Option 3: Sweden
Option 4: Switzerland
Option 5: Denmark
Answer: 4) Switzerland
Explanation:
Switzerland ranked as the most competitive country in the IMD World Talent Ranking
2024 with an overall score of 100. The country excelled in various factors contributing
to talent competitiveness, making it the top performer for the 11th consecutive year.
Context:
Insight into IMD World Talent Ranking 2024: Switzerland Tops, India's Position
Falls to 58th:
According to the World Talent Ranking (WTR) 2024 report from the Switzerland-based
Institute for Management Development (IMD), Switzerland has once again ranked as
the most competitive country globally for the 11th consecutive year, achieving a
perfect score of 100. Switzerland excelled in investment, development, and appeal
factors, and also ranked high in quality of life, health infrastructure, and educational
attainment.
India's position in the 2024 IMD WTR dropped two spots from 56th in 2023 to 58th
in 2024, with an overall score of 40.7.
Key Findings of the World Talent Ranking 2024:
1. This is the 11th edition of the IMD WTR, covering 67 economies. The report is
published by the IMD World Competitiveness Center (WCC).
2. The ranking assesses nations based on their ability to develop, retain, and attract
highly skilled domestic and international talent.
3. Talent competitiveness is categorized into three main factors:
◦ Investment and Development: Measures the resources allocated to
develop a local workforce.

◦ Appeal: Evaluates how well a country attracts and retains foreign and local
talent.
◦ Readiness: Assesses the quality of skills and competencies available in the
talent pool.
4. The report warned that the widespread adoption of Artificial Intelligence (AI) could
negatively impact talent attraction, retention, and quality of life in certain
economies, potentially harming their long-term talent competitiveness.
Top 5 Countries in the 2024 Ranking:
1. Switzerland - 100
2. Singapore - 85.65
3. Luxembourg - 81.69
4. Sweden - 81.02
5. Denmark - 78.49
India is ranked 58th with a score of 40.47.
Additional Insights:
• Singapore made it into the top three for the first time since the WTR began in
2014, rising from 18th place in 2014 to 2nd in 2024. This improvement is due to
its highly skilled labor force, minimal discrimination, and strong financial
expertise. Singapore moved up six places from 8th position in 2023.
• Luxembourg saw a slight drop, moving from 2nd in 2023 to 3rd in 2024.
• Sweden improved significantly, jumping from 10th in 2023 to 4th in 2024,
and Denmark advanced from 7th to 5th.
• Among the top 10 countries in 2024, eight are from Europe, with Switzerland
leading. The other two are from Asia: Singapore and Hong Kong SAR, which is
ranked 9th.
• The United States fell from 6th to 21st place, mainly due to its lower scores in
appeal (14th) and readiness (32nd), influenced by factors such as cost of living
and personal income tax rates.
• Three new countries entered the 2024 WTR: Ghana (64th), Nigeria (60th),
and Puerto Rico (45th).
• The bottom-ranked countries include the Slovak
Republic (59th), Colombia (60th), Mexico (61st), Mongolia (62nd),
and Venezuela (63rd).
India-Specific Findings:
• India's overall rank in the WTR has dropped from 52nd in 2022 to 58th in 2024.
• India's performance in the appeal category remained stable at 53rd position in
2024.
• However, its rankings in the readiness and investment & development categories
fell significantly. In readiness, India dropped from 18th (2022) to 35th (2024), and
in investment and development, it declined from 61st (2022) to 66th (2024).
• India ranked 12th among Asia-Pacific countries in the 2024 IMD WTR.
About IMD: The International Institute for Management Development is headquartered

in Lausanne, Switzerland, and its president is David Bach.

9. What was the percentage growth in cumulative coal production for the
financial year 2024-2025 (FY 24-25) compared to FY 23-24?
Option 1: 2.49%
Option 2: 4.35%
Option 3: 5.54%
Option 4: 5.85%
Option 5: 1.07%
Answer: 5) 5.85%
Explanation:
The correct answer is 5) 5.85%. The cumulative coal production for FY 24-25 was
453.01 MT, which represents a growth of 5.85% compared to the 427.97 MT recorded
during the same period in FY 23-24.
Context:
Growth in Coal Production in India for FY 2024-25:
Increase in Coal Production (September 2024)
• September 2024 Production: The Ministry of Coal reported coal production of

68.94 million tons (MT), a 2.49% increase from the 67.26 MT produced in
September 2023.
• Cumulative Production (FY 2024-25): As of September 2024, cumulative
production reached 453.01 MT (provisional), marking a 5.85% growth
compared to 427.97 MT during the same period in FY 2023-24.
Growth in Coal Dispatch
• September 2024 Dispatch: Coal dispatch rose by 4.35% in September 2024,

reaching 73.37 MT compared to 70.31 MT in September 2023.
• Cumulative Dispatch (FY 2024-25): By September 2024, cumulative coal
dispatch stood at 487.87 MT (provisional), reflecting a 5.54% increase from
462.27 MT in the same period of FY 2023-24.
Coal Stock and Energy Security
• Stock Growth: Coal stocks at Domestic Coal-Based (DCB) power plants grew
significantly, reaching 33.46 MT (provisional) by 29th September 2024, a 51.07%
rise from 22.15 MT on 29th September 2023.
• Ministry's Focus: The Ministry of Coal remains committed to increasing
production and optimizing dispatch to meet India's growing energy demands,
strengthening energy security and promoting self-sufficiency in coal supply.

10. In the Global Hunger Index 2024, India has been ranked at which position
among 127 countries?
Option 1: 84th
Option 2: 105th
Option 3: 56th
Option 4: 68th
Option 5: 111th
Answer: 2) 105th
Explanation:
India has been ranked at 105th position in the Global Hunger Index 2024 among
127 countries with an overall score of 27.3, according to the report. This marks an
improvement by 6 places from its 111th rank in 2023. The report categorizes India
among 42 countries placed under the serious category for hunger levels. Additionally,
the South Asian countries neighboring India such as Bangladesh, Nepal, and Sri Lanka
have demonstrated better GHI scores, being listed under the moderate category.
Context:
India's Position in Global Hunger Index 2024 and Implications:
Global Hunger Index 2024: India's Position and Key Findings
• India's Ranking: In the 2024 edition of the Global Hunger Index (GHI), titled How
Gender Justice Can Advance Climate Resilience and Zero Hunger, India ranked
105th out of 127 countries with a GHI score of 27.3. This marks an improvement
from its 111th position in 2023.
• Serious Hunger Levels: India remains among 42 countries classified under the
"serious" hunger category, along with Pakistan (109th) and Afghanistan (116th).
In contrast, South Asian neighbors such as Bangladesh (84th), Nepal (68th), and
Sri Lanka (56th) showed better performance and were categorized under
"moderate" hunger levels.
About the Global Hunger Index (GHI)
• Purpose: The GHI is a tool used by international agencies to measure hunger

levels across 127 countries. It tracks hunger based on indicators like
undernourishment and child mortality.
• Publishers: It is published by Concern Worldwide (Ireland) and Welthungerhilfe
(Germany) to trigger global action against hunger.
Key Highlights of the Report
• Global Hunger Stagnation: Since 2016, progress in reducing hunger has

stagnated, making it unlikely that the UN's Zero Hunger by 2030 goal will be met.
• Global Impact: Around 733 million people face hunger daily, and 2.8 billion are
unable to afford a healthy diet. African nations, especially those impacted by wars
(e.g., Gaza, Sudan), experience alarming levels of hunger.

GHI Methodology
• Indicators: GHI scores are based on four indicators:

1. Undernourishment: Share of the population with insufficient caloric intake.
2. Child Stunting: Percentage of children under 5 with low height for their
age.
3. Child Wasting: Percentage of children under 5 with low weight for their
height.
4. Child Mortality: Percentage of children dying before age 5.
• Scoring: GHI scores are calculated on a 100-point scale, with 0 indicating no
hunger and 100 indicating severe hunger. The score distribution is:
◦ Undernourishment (1/3),
◦ Child Stunting (1/6),
◦ Child Wasting (1/6),
◦ Child Mortality (1/3).
Global Hunger Trends
• 2024 Global Score: The global GHI score for 2024 is 18.3, considered
"moderate" and only slightly lower than 18.8 in 2016. This global figure masks
significant regional differences.
• Countries with Low Hunger: Twenty-two countries (e.g., China, Croatia, UAE)
had GHI scores under 5, ranking collectively from 1st to 22nd.
• Severe Hunger: Hunger remains serious or alarming in 42 countries, with the
worst-affected nations including Somalia (127th), Yemen (126th), and Chad
(125th).
India-Specific Findings
• Child Wasting: India has the world's highest child wasting rate (18.7%), a severe
indicator of child malnutrition.
• Progress in Child Mortality: Child mortality in India has significantly improved,
dropping from 9.2% in 2000 to 2.9% in 2024.
• Undernourishment & Stunting: While undernourishment has declined from
18.3% (2000) to 13.7% (2024), child stunting, though reduced from 51.0% (2000)
to 35.5% (2024), remains alarmingly high.
Regional Insights
• Africa South of the Sahara: This region has the highest hunger levels, with
undernourishment and child mortality rates rising due to conflicts and economic
challenges.
• South Asia: Hunger remains serious, largely driven by undernutrition, poor diet
quality, and the effects of natural disasters.
• Latin America: Although hunger levels are low, the region has seen a worsening
trend due to rising food inflation and other economic pressures.
• West Asia and North Africa: Hunger is moderate, but progress has stagnated
due to conflicts and climate change impacts.
• Europe and Central Asia: This region is on track to achieve low hunger by 2030,
despite some challenges.

About Welthungerhilfe (WHH)
• Overview: WHH is one of Germany's largest private aid organizations,

established in 1962, with its headquarters in Bonn. It operates without political or
religious affiliations and is led by President Marlehn Thieme.
11. What is the primary conclusion drawn from the 2024 Living Planet Report
released by WWF regarding wildlife populations?
Option 1: The overall wildlife population has increased significantly since 1970.
Option 2: The Living Planet Index suggests no serious concerns for wildlife conservation
efforts.
Option 3: Urgent action is needed as wildlife populations have decreased by an average of
73% in 50 years.
Option 4: Marine ecosystems have shown the greatest resilience among wildlife
populations.
Option 5: The decline in biodiversity can be completely reversed if efforts are made in the
next decade.
Answer: 3) Urgent action is needed as wildlife populations have decreased by an

average of 73% in 50 years.
Explanation:
The report explicitly states that the average size of monitored wildlife populations has
decreased by 73% since 1970, underlining the critical nature of the situation that
necessitates immediate and significant action to address the alarming rates of decline.
Context:
2024 Living Planet Report: A System in Peril:
The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) has published its 15th biennial assessment,
the 2024 Living Planet Report: A System in Peril.
Key Findings:
• - The average size of wildlife populations monitored has decreased by 73% from
1970-2020.
• - The Living Planet Index (LPI), in collaboration with the Zoological Society
of London (ZSL), tracks nearly 35,000 populations of 5,495 species.
• - Urgent action is needed in the coming 5 years to combat climate and nature
crises as we reach critical tipping points that endanger humanity.
Regional Declines:
1. Steepest declines:
• - Latin America and the Caribbean: 95% decline.

• - Africa: 76% decline.
• - Asia-Pacific: 60% decline.

2. Significant impacts due to pollution particularly in the Asia and Pacific regions.
3. Freshwater ecosystems have seen the highest decline at 85%, while terrestrial
and marine ecosystems have declined by 69% and 56%, respectively.
Major Threats to Wildlife:
• - Habitat loss and degradation from food systems.

• - Over-exploitation, invasive species, and disease.
India's Wildlife Status:
• - Significant declines of vulture species since 2002:

• - White-rumped vulture: 67% decline.
• - Indian vulture: 48% decline.
• - Slender-billed vulture: 89% decline.
• - Despite declines, some populations have stabilized due to government
initiatives, habitat management, and community engagement.
• - India has the largest population of wild tigers globally at 3,682 as per the All-
India Tiger Estimation 2022.
• - The first Snow Leopard Population Assessment estimates about 718 across
70% of their potential range.
Significance of Declines:
• - Declines indicate extinction risk and ecosystem health.

• - Potential tipping points threaten global food security and livelihoods.
• - The International Labour Organisation (ILO) noted the Global Youth

Unemployment Rate decreased to 13% in 2023, a 15-year low.
• - The World Economic Forum (WEF) reported that India lost 33.9 million
hectares of crops due to excess rain and 35 million hectares due to drought
from 2015 to 2021.
About WWF:
• - President/CEO: Carter Roberts

• - Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland
12. What significant changes regarding Indian and South Korean government
bonds were announced by FTSE Russell for 2025?
Option 1: Indian bonds will be included in the FTSE Russell Government Indexes, attracting
USD 18.5 billion in foreign investment.
Option 2: South Korean government bonds will be included in the FTSE Russell Government
Indexes starting in November 2025, constituting 2.22% of the World Government Bond
Index.
Option 3: Both Indian and South Korean bonds will see reclassification changes, with Indian
bonds becoming 9.35% of the EMGBI and South Korean bonds representing 2.22% of the
WGBI.

Option 4: The inclusion of Indian government securities to FTSE's EMGBI will take place
after five years on the watch list, marking India's entry into emerging markets.
Option 5: The Indian bonds have already attracted approximately USD 48.5 billion in
foreign inflows since their announcement in September 2023 affecting the index heavily.
Answer: 3) Both Indian and South Korean bonds will see reclassification changes, with
Indian bonds becoming 9.35% of the EMGBI and South Korean bonds representing
2.22% of the WGBI.
Explanation:
This option correctly summarizes the key changes announced by FTSE Russell regarding
the inclusion of Indian and South Korean government bonds, highlighting their
respective percentages in the indexes they will join.
Context:
Inclusion of Indian and South Korean Bonds in FTSE Russell Indexes in 2025:
Inclusion of Indian and South Korean Bonds in FTSE Russell

IndexesAnnouncement by FTSE Russell:
• - FTSE Russell, based in London, UK, announced that Indian government bonds
and South Korean government bonds will join FTSE Russell Government
Indexes in 2025.
• - The decision aims to attract billions of dollars of foreign investment into these
local bond markets.
Market Accessibility for Indian Bonds:
• - The Market Accessibility Level for India will be changed from 0 to 1.

• - Indian sovereign bonds will be included in the Emerging Markets Government
Bond Index (EMGBI) starting from September 2025.
• - FTSE Russell is the third index provider to include Indian bonds, following JP
Morgan's GBI-EM in June 2024 and Bloomberg starting from January 31,
2025.
Inclusion of South Korean Bonds:
• - Additionally, South Korean government bonds will be added to the World

Government Bond Index (WGBI) after being on a watch list for two years.
• - These bonds will make up 2.22% of the WGBI based on market value and are set
for inclusion starting November 2025.
Key Points about Indian Bonds:
• - Indian government securities will be included in FTSE's EMGBI after being on

the watch list for three years.
• - Indian bonds will represent 9.35% of the index, making India the second-largest
component after China.

• - Since the inclusion announcement in September 2023, Indian bonds attracted

around USD 18.5 billion in foreign inflows.
• - The GBI-EM index inclusion will be phased over 10 months, with 1% weight
added each month until March 31, 2025.
Important Terms:
• - FTSE WGBI: A benchmark measuring investment-grade sovereign bonds from

more than 20 countries.
• - FTSE EMGBI: A benchmark measuring local currency government bonds from
16 countries.
About FTSE Russell:
• - FTSE Russell is a global index provider founded in 2015 and headquartered in

London, UK.
• - CEO: Fiona Bassett.
13. The World Bank's Poverty, Prosperity, and Planet Report 2024 indicates that
129 million Indians live on less than _______ daily.
Option 1: Rs 150
Option 2: Rs 100
Option 3: Rs 200
Option 4: Rs 180
Option 5: Rs 270
Answer: 4) Rs 180
Explanation:
Extreme Poverty in India
• The World Bank's Poverty, Prosperity, and Planet Report 2024 indicates that 129
million Indians live on less than Rs 180 (USD 2.15) daily.
• This marks a substantial decrease from 431 million in 1990; however, India's
challenges persist due to population growth and a high poverty threshold
applicable to middle-income countries.
Context:
Understanding Extreme Poverty in India: Insights from the 2024 World Bank
Report:
Understanding Extreme Poverty in India: Insights from the 2024 World Bank
Report

Extreme Poverty in India
• The World Bank's Poverty, Prosperity, and Planet Report 2024 indicates that 129
million Indians live on less than Rs 180 (USD 2.15) daily.
• This marks a substantial decrease from 431 million in 1990; however, India's
challenges persist due to population growth and a high poverty threshold
applicable to middle-income countries.
Key Points on India's Poverty Scenario 1. Individuals are classified as extremely

poor if they earn less than Rs 180 (USD 2.15) daily.
2. The increased poverty threshold of USD 6.85 (around Rs 576) for middle-income
countries signifies that more people fall below this threshold compared to 1990.
3. Less than 1% of the population aged 15 and above has no formal education,
directly linking education levels to poverty rates.
4. Projections suggest extreme poverty in India could decline to below 3% by the end of
the decade, reducing India's share of global extreme poverty.
5. A notable decrease of 38 million individuals in poverty occurred in 2021,
attributed to GDP per capita growth.
6. The extreme poverty rate in South Asia is heavily influenced by India's statistics,
with similar trends in education.
Global Context on Extreme Poverty
• Approximately 700 million people globally (or 8.5%) live on less than USD 2.15 per
day.
• Nearly 3.5 billion people (around 44%) live below the upper middle-income
poverty threshold of USD 6.85, with no significant change since the 1990s, as
population growth has offset improvements.
• Sub-Saharan Africa, comprising 16% of the global population, is highlighted as
harboring 67% of those in extreme poverty, particularly in fragile or conflicted
regions.
• Future projections suggest that by 2030, an estimated 622 million people (or
7.3%) will be living in extreme poverty, with only 69 million expected to escape
it from 2024 to 2030.
14. According to the Renewable Energy and Jobs Annual Review 2024 released
by the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) in collaboration with the
International Labour Organisation (ILO), _________ of photovoltaic (PV) capacity
were added globally in 2023.
Option 1: 347 GigaWatts (GW)

Answer: 1) 347 GigaWatts (GW)
Explanation:

According to the Renewable Energy and Jobs Annual Review 2024 released by the
International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) in collaboration with the
International Labour Organisation (ILO), 347 GigaWatts (GW) of photovoltaic
(PV) capacity were added globally in 2023. This represents an increase of 74%
compared to 2022, establishing 2023 as a record-breaking year for solar power
generation.
Context:
Overview of Renewable Energy and Job Growth in 2024:
Overview of Renewable Energy and Jobs Annual Review 2024
According to the Renewable Energy and Jobs Annual Review 2024 released by the
International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) in collaboration with the
International Labour Organisation (ILO), 347 GigaWatts (GW) of photovoltaic
(PV) capacity were added globally in 2023. This represents an increase of 74%
compared to 2022, establishing 2023 as a record-breaking year for solar power
generation.
Key Highlights: China's Dominance:
• * China accounted for 63% (or 216.9 GW) of new PV capacity in 2023.
• * The combined contribution of the USA, Germany, Brazil, India, Spain, Italy, the
Netherlands, Japan, and Australia to new capacities was 83.4 GW*.
• Employment Growth: * The renewable energy sector saw an increase in jobs
from 13.7 million in 2022 to 16.2 million in 2023.
About the Renewable Energy and Jobs Annual Review 2024: This is the 11th
edition released annually by IRENA, and the 4th edition developed in partnership with
ILO.
The report examines employment trends within the renewable energy sector, evaluates
the global landscape of renewable energy technologies, and analyzes socio-economic
impacts such as job creation and opportunities for women.
Key Findings: Top Job Creators: China generated 7.4 million jobs, followed by the EU at
1.8 million, Brazil at 1.56 million, and the USA and India both nearing 1 million jobs
each.
Regional Job Growth: Germany, Spain, Italy, and the Netherlands contributed over 54
GW in solar PV in 2023, a 25% increase from 2022, while the USA added 25 GW,
increasing 30% compared to the previous year.
Southeast Asia's Role: Solar PV factories in this region are becoming import-export
hubs, with India being the 3rd largest manufacturer* after China and Southeast Asian
countries.
Global Employment in 2023: 7.1 million jobs were created in solar PV, which
accounted for 44% of the global renewable energy workforce. China held nearly 65% of
global PV employment in 2023.
Field Comparisons: Following solar PV, Liquid Biofuels created 2.8 million jobs,
followed by Hydropower and Wind Power sectors.

India's Renewable Energy Landscape: In 2023, India created 1.02 million jobs in
renewable energy, with hydropower generating around 4.53 lakh jobs.
India was ranked 5th for new solar installations, adding 9.7 GW and reaching a
cumulative solar energy capacity of 72.7 GW by year-end.
About IRENA and ILO: IRENA is headquartered in Abu Dhabi, UAE, established in
2011.
ILO is based in Geneva, Switzerland, and was established in 1919 with 187 member
nations.
15. Which of the following statements accurately reflects India's position in 6G

technology patent filings?
Option 1: India ranks 6th globally in 6G patent filings with 188 patents.
Option 2: India is the leading country in 6G patent filings with 6,001 patents.
Option 3: India has surpassed China in 6G patent contributions.
Option 4: India has more 6G patents than the USA, UK, and Germany combined.
Option 5: India is not among the top 10 countries in 6G patent filings.
Answer: 1) India ranks 6th globally in 6G patent filings with 188 patents.
Explanation:
This statement is correct as the news specifically states that India ranks 6th with 188
patents related to 6G technology according to official data.
Context:
India's Position in 6G Technology Patents:
According to recent studies, India ranks as one of the top 6 countries worldwide in
filing patents related to 6G technology, showcasing its potential influence in the 6G
standard-setting process. This development aligns with Prime Minister Narendra
Modi's vision for India to be a leading contributor to 6G technology by 2030.
Key Points: Patent Filings Ranking:
• * As per MaxVal, a global Intellectual Property (IP) management firm, India is

ranked 6th with 188 6G-related patents.
• * Top countries in patent filings:
• * China: 6,001 patents
• * USA: 3,909 patents
• * South Korea: 1,417 patents
• * Japan: 584 patents
• * European Union*: 214 patents
• * India surpasses major economies: UK (151), Germany (84), Sweden (74), and
France (73).

• Alternative Ranking: * A separate analysis by U Switch in April 2023 showed

India at 4th position with 265 6G patents. The leading countries were China
(4,604), the USA (2,229), and South Korea (760).
Government Initiatives in 6G Technology:
• The Government of India is actively evaluating 470 proposals on Accelerated

Research for the 6G Ecosystem under Bharat 6G Vision.
• The Department of Telecommunications has financed two next-generation
test beds to foster 6G research.
• India aims to achieve a share of 10% of all 6G patents while contributing 1/6th to
international standards in the next three years.
• Various initiatives promoting 6G technology include the Bharat 6G Alliance
and commissioning of research test beds.
Upcoming Event: The World Telecommunications Standardisation Assembly (WTSA

2024) will take place in Delhi from 14 to 24 October 2024, making India the 1st Asian
country* to host this event.
16. What did the Periodic Labour Force Survey of July 2023 - June 2024 indicate
about unemployment rates among religious minorities in India?
Option 1: Unemployment remained unchanged for all communities.

Option 2: Unemployment rates among Sikhs and Muslims decreased.
Option 3: Sikhs had the highest unemployment rate among religious minorities.
Option 4: The national average unemployment rate increased significantly.
Option 5: All religious groups improved their employment rates over the past year.
Answer: 3) Sikhs had the highest unemployment rate among religious minorities.
Explanation:
The survey highlighted that Sikhs saw an increase in their unemployment rate,
making them the religious minority with the highest joblessness in 2023-24.
Context:
Unemployment Trends Among Religious Minorities in India:
The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation (MoSPI), released findings from the Periodic Labour
Force Survey (PLFS) covering July 2023 to June 2024. This survey provided critical
insights into employment trends, particularly among India's religious minorities.
Unemployment Insights
• The overall unemployment rate nationally remained steady at 3.2%, unchanged

for the first time in five years.

• However, minorities, especially Sikhs and Muslims, experienced significant

increases in joblessness.
• Unemployment was notably higher in urban areas* compared to rural regions for
all minorities during 2023-24.
Key Findings:
1. Sikhs faced the highest unemployment rate among religious minorities, rising from
5.1% in 2022-23 to 5.8% in 2023-24.
2. The unemployment rate among Muslims increased from 2.4% to 3.2% during the
same period.
3. Christians saw a rise in rate from 4.5% to 4.7%.
4. In contrast, Hindus experienced a slight decline of 0.1% compared to the previous
year.
5. All religious segments showed a decline in unemployment rates compared to pre-
Covid numbers from 2019-20.
Labour Force Participation Rates (LFPR)
• The LFPR has positively shifted across various communities since 2017-18,
although Muslims and Sikhs lag behind the national average.
• LFPR increased more than 8% for most groups; however, Muslims and Sikhs'
improvements were modest.
• LFPR for Muslims increased from 31.2% to 38.2%; for Sikhs, it rose from 36.2% to
44.5%. Christians also increased from 39.2% to 47.4%.
• Overall, LFPR in India rose from 36.9% in 2017-18 to 45.1% in 2023-24.
Employment Quality & Literacy Rates
• In the last five years, the share of regular salaried employees showed a decline
across all communities, with Muslims seeing the largest drop from 21.5% in
2019-20 to 18% in 2023-24.
• Meanwhile, Muslim literacy rates increased from 75% in 2019-20 to 77.6% in
2023-24, but they remained the lowest compared to Hindus, Sikhs, and
Christians.
• The literacy rate overall rose from 77.6% in 2019-20 to 79.7% in 2023-24.
About MoSPI
The current Minister of State (MoS) (Independent Charge) is Rao Inderjit Singh from
Gurugram, Haryana.
17. What significant trends regarding UPI transactions were reported for the
first half of 2024?
Option 1: UPI transactions grew by 40% YoY, while average ticket size grew by 10%.
Option 2: UPI transactions decreased by 40% YoY, but average ticket size increased by 5%.
Option 3: UPI transactions remained unchanged YoY, and PoS deployments declined by
17%.
Option 4: UPI transactions grew by 52% YoY, and the average ticket size decreased by 8%.
Option 5: UPI transactions increased sharply in January, but declined in June 2024.

Answer: 4) UPI transactions grew by 52% YoY, and the average ticket size decreased
by 8%.
Explanation:
The report specifically states that UPI transactions increased by 52% year-on-year
in the first half of 2024, while the average ticket size decreased by 8%, confirming
the significant trends reported.
Context:
Key Insights from the India Digital Payments Report for 1H 2024:
According to the Worldlines report titled India Digital Payments Report for 1H 2024,
the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) continues to be the leading payment method
in India:
Transaction Growth:
• * UPI transactions grew by 52% Year-on-Year (YoY), from 51.9 billion in 1H

2023 to 78.97 billion in 1H 2024.
• * This growth is particularly notable in Person-to-Merchant (P2M) transactions,
solidifying UPI's status for micro-transactions.
• * The value of UPI transactions increased by 40%, from Rs 83.16 trillion in 1H
2023 to Rs 116.63 trillion in 1H 2024.
• * The number of transactions surged from 8.03 billion in January 2023 to 13.9
billion in June 2024, with transaction value reaching Rs 20.07 trillion in June
2024.
Point of Sales (PoS) Development:
• * The deployment of PoS terminals increased by 17%, reaching 8.96 million from
5.06 million in January 2023.
• * Private Sector Banks held a 80.6% market share, followed by Public Sector
Banks at 18.6%.
• * Major deployers included Axis Bank, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, SBI, and
others, accounting for 95% of all terminals.
• * Moreover, UPI Quick-Response (QR) codes grew by 39%, increasing from
244.23 million in January 2023 to 340 million in June 2024.
Average Ticket Size (ATS):
• * The ATS for all UPI transactions reduced by 8%, from Rs 1,603 to Rs 1,478.
• * P2P transactions slightly increased by 1%, while P2M transactions declined by
4%.
Market Share of UPI Players:
• * As of June 2024, PhonePe, Google Pay, and Paytm dominated the market,
controlling 94.83% of transaction volume and 92.21% of transaction value.

Growth in Cards Circulation:
• * The number of cards in circulation grew by 11%, totaling 1.451 billion cards,
which includes credit cards (103.8 million), debit cards (979.71 million),
and prepaid cards (367.5 million).
• * The top issuers of credit cards were HDFC Bank, SBI, and ICICI Bank.
In-Store and Online Transactions:
• * Grocery stores, restaurants, and clothing stores made up 53% of the overall
transaction value, while 81% of overall transaction volume came from e-
commerce and other services.
• * Mobile transactions alone saw a 46% increase in volume.
• * The volume of Net Banking transactions rose by 9%, indicating overall growth in
digital transactions.
Top States:
• * States with the highest transactions at physical points include Maharashtra,

Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Delhi.
About Worldline:
Worldline SA is a leading payment technology service provider, with headquarters in La
Defense, France, established in 1972. The CEO is Marc-Henri Desportes, and the
CEO for India is Ramesh Narasimhan.
18. What is the primary finding of the ICMR-NCDIR study regarding cancer
incidence in India?
Option 1: There will be a 12.8% decrease in cancer cases by 2025.

Option 2: India has the lowest cancer rates among BRICS nations.
Option 3: Oral cancer is less prevalent in India than other BRICS countries.
Option 4: Cancer cases in India are projected to increase due to higher life expectancy.
Option 5: Breast cancer is the least common cancer in BRICS nations.
Answer: 4) Cancer cases in India are projected to increase due to higher life
expectancy.
Explanation:
The study indicates a 12.8% increase in cancer cases in India by 2025, attributing
this rise to increased life expectancy, which is a trend seen in all BRICS countries.
Context:
Projected Cancer Trends in BRICS Countries:
According to a recent study by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) -

National Centre for Disease Informatics and Research (NCDIR) based in

Bengaluru, Karnataka, cancer cases and deaths are set to rise in India and South
Africa from 2022 to 2045. The study focused on the examination of cancer cases,
deaths, and quality of life in BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South
Africa).
Key Findings:
• A 12.8% increase in cancer cases is projected in India by 2025 compared to

2020.
• This increase correlates with the rise in life expectancy from 2000 to 2022
across all BRICS nations.
• Oral cancer, particularly lip and mouth cancers, are the most widespread forms
among men in India, primarily due to high tobacco consumption, both smoked and
smokeless.
• Common cancers among men in BRICS include prostate, lung, and colorectum
cancers.
• BRICS nations account for 33.6% of global new breast cancer cases and 36.9% of
breast cancer deaths.
• Breast cancer is predominant among women in all BRICS countries, with
Cervical Cancer being the second most common type of cancer in India and
South Africa.
Cancer-related Deaths in BRICS Countries:
• South Africa has the highest cancer death rate for both genders in BRICS.
• Russia experienced the highest cancer death rate in men, while South Africa had
the most significant cancers among women.
• Lung Cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths across BRICS, excluding India,
which sees breast cancer* as the primary cause.
About the ICMR-NCDIR:
• Director: Dr. Prashant Mathur

• Headquarters: Bengaluru, Karnataka Established*: 2011
19. What was the primary focus of the NCPCR report regarding child marriage in
India for 2023-24?
Option 1: An increase in child marriages across all states and UTs.

Option 2: The vulnerability of more than 11.5 lakh children to child marriage, primarily due
to school dropouts.
Option 3: The success of the awareness campaigns against child marriage.
Option 4: The role of Union Territories in preventing child marriage.
Option 5: The establishment of new laws to replace the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act.
Answer: 2) The vulnerability of more than 11.5 lakh children to child marriage,
primarily due to school dropouts.
Explanation:

The report highlights that over 11.5 lakh children, mostly girls, are vulnerable to
child marriage and that many of these children are school dropouts, indicating a
correlation between education and vulnerability.
Context:
NCPCR Report on Vulnerability to Child Marriage in India (2023-24):
Overview
According to the latest report from the National Commission for Protection of Child
Rights (NCPCR), over 11.5 lakh children across 27 states and 7 Union Territories
(UTs) in India were identified as vulnerable to child marriage for the year 2023-24.
Vulnerability Factors
Most of the vulnerable children are girls who have been school dropouts or have been
irregular or absent from school for extended periods, often without informing the
authorities.
The report indicates significant efforts by the NCPCR in conjunction with the
Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA), 2006, in collaboration with Child
Marriage Prohibition officers (CMPOs), district authorities, and other stakeholders.
Government Initiatives
The government has implemented various measures to combat child marriages,

including:
• * Family counseling
• * School reintegration efforts
• * Coordination with law enforcement agencies
Key Findings1. State Statistics:
• * Uttar Pradesh (UP) has the highest number of vulnerable children at over 5
lakh, followed by Assam with 1.5 lakh, and Madhya Pradesh (MP) with nearly
1 lakh.
• * Some UTs like Lakshadweep and Andaman & Nicobar Islands reported zero
vulnerable children.
• * Notably, some districts skipped the data collection exercise, and states like Goa
and Ladakh did not share their data.
Outreach Success:
• * Over 1.2 crore people were reached through various awareness campaigns
against child marriage, with UP, Tamil Nadu (TN), and Andhra Pradesh (AP)
leading the fight.
Strong Responses:
• * States such as UP, MP, and Odisha have demonstrated effective responses to
the child marriage issue.

Future Campaigns
• Launched in March 2024, a child marriage awareness campaign mapped over 6

lakh schools and reached approximately 3 lakh villages and blocks across 34
states/UTs.
• States were instructed to enhance prevention measures against child marriage
based on collected data.
Preventive Measures
The NCPCR urged states to implement measures like:

* Mapping schools to identify children absent for 30 consecutive days
* Monitoring school dropouts in coordination with school authorities
* The education departments must prepare and share lists with the District Magistrate
(DM) and CMPO* to pinpoint vulnerable children for counseling and inquiry.
Recent Related News
The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD), led by Union Minister
Annpurna Devi Yadav, launched Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2024 at Mahatma Mandir,
Gandhinagar, Gujarat, to combat malnutrition while observing Poshan Maah in
September.
About NCPCR
The NCPCR is a statutory body established by the Commissions for Protection of Child
Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005, under the Ministry of Women and Child Development
(MoW&CD).
• Chairperson: Priyank Kanoongo

20. What is one of the main themes discussed in the World Energy Outlook (WEO
2024) report?
Option 1: The impact of technological advancements on global energy supply.

Option 2: The increasing risks in the Middle East affecting energy security.
Option 3: The historical trends in energy consumption over the last century.
Option 4: The effects of renewable energy on reducing air pollution.
Option 5: The role of nuclear energy in future energy development.
Answer: 2) The increasing risks in the Middle East affecting energy security.
Explanation:
This option directly addresses the main theme outlined in the report, which discusses
enhanced geopolitical tensions and their impact on energy security.
Context:

Overview of World Energy Outlook (WEO 2024) Report:
India's Economic Growth Projection
• The IEA’s flagship report, World Energy Outlook 2024 (WEO 2024), projects that
India will become the world’s third-largest economy by 2028.
About World Energy Outlook (WEO)
• Annual Publication: The WEO has been published annually since 1998,
providing comprehensive energy analysis and forecasting.
• Content Focus: It examines major trends in energy demand and supply,
assessing their impacts on energy security, emissions, and economic growth.
• 2024 Focus: This year’s report emphasizes heightened risks in the Middle East,
increased global geopolitical tensions, and critical energy security concerns during
the clean energy transition.
• Future Projections: The report suggests a shifting energy market landscape with
persistent geopolitical risks, but abundant fuel and technology supplies in the
coming years.
WEO 2024 Key Themes
1. Energy Security amid increased Middle East risks.

2. Accelerated Clean Energy Transitions prospects.
3. Uncertainty as a persistent factor.
Future Global Energy Scenarios
1. Stated Policies Scenario (STEPS): Based on existing government policies.

2. Accelerated Policy Scenario (APS): Envisions more ambitious policies to meet
climate and other targets.
3. Net Zero Emissions by 2050 (NZE): Aims for global CO₂ emissions to reach net
zero by 2050, aligning with the Paris Agreement.
WEO 2024 Highlights
• Global Energy System Stability: The report indicates that regional conflicts
and geopolitical tensions strain the global energy system.
• Supply Trends: A potential surplus of oil and natural gas in the latter half of this
decade could lower prices and support clean energy investments.
• Abundant Resources: The IEA expects an ample supply of resources, including
oil, LNG, solar PV, and batteries, in the coming years.
• "Age of Electricity": Driven by growing global power demand, particularly in
China. Solar power generation in China could surpass the total electricity demand
in the U.S. by the early 2030s. Electric vehicles (EVs) are projected to comprise
50% of new car sales by 2030.
• Climate Change Warning: Current policies could lead to a global temperature
increase of 2.4°C by century’s end, exceeding the Paris Agreement target of
1.5°C.
• Investment in Clean Energy: Record-high investments in solar and wind. Over
560 GW of renewable capacity was added globally in 2023.

Global Electricity Demand Projections
• Rising Demand: Electricity demand is expected to double by 2050, driven mainly

by China’s energy transition.
• Regional Contributions: China, India, and Southeast Asia are projected to
account for 85% of demand growth through 2026.
• Renewables’ Role: Low-emission sources (solar, wind, hydro, nuclear) are
expected to power almost 50% of global electricity by 2026, with renewables set
to overtake coal by early 2025.
• Nuclear Power: Projected to hit an all-time high in 2025, with growth in India,
China, Japan, Europe, and Korea.
India's Rising Energy Demand
• Energy Demand Surge: India’s demand growth is projected to outpace all other
nations over the next decade, driven by rising demand across all sectors.
• Economic Growth: With output growth at 7.8%, India is set to become the
world’s third-largest economy by 2028.
• Energy Infrastructure Expansion:
◦ Vehicle Growth: Over 12,000 cars are projected to be added to India’s
roads daily until 2035.
◦ Construction Growth: Built-up space is set to increase by over 1 billion
square meters annually, surpassing South Africa’s total built space.
◦ Industrial Demand: Iron and steel production is set to increase by 70%
and cement output by nearly 55% by 2035.
◦ Cooling Demand: Air conditioner demand is expected to grow 4.5 times by
2035, surpassing Mexico’s total electricity demand.
• Total Energy Demand: Projected to rise by nearly 35% by 2035, with electricity
generation capacity set to triple to 1,400 GW, predominantly coal-based.
• Coal Capacity: About 60 GW of additional coal-fired capacity is expected by
2030, with coal generation to rise by 15%.
India's Net Zero Path
• APS Scenario: In alignment with India’s 2070 net-zero goal, clean power
generation in 2035 is projected to be 20% higher than in the STEPS scenario, with
India having the third-largest battery storage capacity by 2030.
• Electric Mobility: Rapid growth in electric vehicles is expected to peak India’s oil
consumption in the 2030s.
• Carbon Emissions: India's CO₂ emissions are projected to be 25% below the
STEPS scenario by 2035.
About the International Energy Agency (IEA)
• Executive Director: Fatih Birol

• Headquarters: Paris, France
• Founded: November 18, 1974

Appointments and Resignation

1. Who has assumed the chairmanship of ASOSAI for the term of 2024-2027?
Option 1: Girish Chandra Murmu

Option 2: General Chanathap Indamra
Option 3: Tran Sy Thanh
Option 4: Droupadi Murmu
Option 5: Einer Gorrissen
Answer: 1) Girish Chandra Murmu
Explanation:
Girish Chandra Murmu, the 14th CAG of India, has taken over the chairmanship of
ASOSAI for the term of 2024-2027. This appointment was confirmed during the
56th meeting of the Governing Board of ASOSAI. The 16th Assembly of ASOSAI was
hosted by the CAG of India, Girish Chandra Murmu, in New Delhi.
Context:
New Chairman of Asian Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (ASOSAI)

for 2024-2027 Term:
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, which serves as the Supreme Audit
Institution (SAI) of the country, has taken over the chairmanship of the Asian
Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (ASOSAI) for the 2024-2027 term. Girish
Chandra Murmu has held the position of the 14th CAG of India since August 2020. The
16th Assembly of ASOSAI, hosted by the CAG of India, took place in New Delhi from
September 21 to 27, 2024.
Previous Chair
General Chanathap Indamra, President of the State Audit Commission of the

Kingdom of Thailand, served as the Chairman of ASOSAI from 2021 to 2024.
Background
1. The 56th meeting of the ASOSAI Governing Board, held on September 6, 2024, in
Hanoi, Vietnam, elected Girish Chandra Murmu as the host of the 16th assembly
and Chairman of ASOSAI for the 2024-2027 term.
2. This meeting was chaired by Tran Sy Thanh, the Vietnamese Auditor General and
ASOSAI Chair for 2018-2021.
3. The election was approved during the 15th Assembly of ASOSAI on September 7,
2021.
60th ASOSAI Governing Board Meeting
On September 23, 2024, the 60th ASOSAI Governing Board Meeting took place in New
Delhi, where Saudi Arabia, represented by the General Court of Audit (GCA), was
elected as the chair for the 2027-2030 term and designated as the host for the 17th

ASOSAI General Assembly. The meeting approved several strategic and financial
reports, including:
• The mid-term report on ASOSAI's Strategic Plan 2022-2027.

• The results of the Bangkok Declaration 2021.
• Introduced new collaborations, research projects, and regulatory reforms.
16th ASOSAI Assembly
The 16th Assembly of ASOSAI was inaugurated by Droupadi Murmu, the President of
India, on September 24, 2024. The assembly attracted around 200 delegates from 42
countries, including heads of 22 Supreme Audit Institutions (SAIs).
Highlights of the Assembly
1. The assembly featured a series of working-level meetings, including:
◦ The 5th ASOSAI Grant Committee meeting.

◦ Discussions on strategic plans and capacity development activities.
2. The assembly reviewed the mid-term progress of ASOSAI's Strategic Plan

(2022-2027) and proposed the formation of three new working groups:
◦ Working Group on State-Owned Enterprises (led by SAI Malaysia).

◦ Working Group on IT Audit and Data Analytics (led by SAI India).
◦ Working Group on Regional and Municipal Audit (led by SAI Russia).
3. The ASOSAI Capacity Development Committee and Task Force meetings were also
held during the assembly.
4. On the sidelines, the CAG of India held a bilateral meeting with H.E. Datuk Wan
Suraya Wan Mohd Radzi, Auditor General of Malaysia, to discuss potential
collaboration in public sector auditing.
5. Additionally, the CAG met with Einer Gorrissen, Director General of the
International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Development
Initiative (IDI), to explore cooperation in Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
and emerging technologies like data analytics and Artificial Intelligence (AI) in
government audits.
About ASOSAI
ASOSAI was founded in 1979 in New Delhi with 11 members and is a regional group
under the International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), currently
comprising 48 Supreme Audit Institutions (SAIs). Its Secretariat is located in Beijing,
China.
2. Who has been appointed as the next CMD of NALCO?
Option 1: Brijendra Pratap Singh

Option 2: Sridhar Patra
Option 3: Ravi Kumar
Option 4: Asha Sharma

Option 5: Amit Verma
Answer: 1) Brijendra Pratap Singh
Explanation:
Brijendra Pratap Singh has been appointed as the next Chairman-cum-Managing

Director of NALCO, as confirmed by the Public Enterprise Selection Board. He will be
taking over from the current CMD, Sridhar Patra, starting November 1, 2024. This
decision is subject to the necessary approvals and clearances.
Context:
Announcement: Brijendra Pratap Singh Appointed as Next Chairman-cum-

Managing Director of NALCO:
The Public Enterprise Selection Board (PESB), a crucial entity established by the
Government of India (GoI), has appointed Brijendra Pratap Singh as the new
Chairman-cum-Managing Director (CMD) of the National Aluminium Company Limited
(NALCO). NALCO is a Navratna Schedule A Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE)
operating under the Ministry of Mines (MoM). Brijendra Pratap Singh is slated to assume
his role on November 1, 2024, succeeding the current CMD, Sridhar Patra, who will
retire on October 31, 2024, after serving in the position since 2019. His appointment is
contingent upon obtaining the necessary clearances and final approval from the
Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
About Brijendra Pratap Singh:
• He is currently the Director in charge of the IISCO Steel Plant (ISP) in Burnpur,
West Bengal, and the Durgapur Steel Plant (DSP) under the Steel Authority of
India Limited (SAIL), a CPSE under the Ministry of Steel (MoS).
• Singh began his career with SAIL in 1989 at the Iron Ore Mine of the Bhilai Steel
Plant (BSP) in Chhattisgarh.
• He was promoted to Executive Director (ED) of Operations at BSP in 2019 and
later re-designated as ED (Works). In 2020, he also took on the role of ED (Works)
at Durgapur Steel Plant.
About the National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO):
• NALCO was incorporated under the Companies Act of 1956 and is recognized as
one of the largest integrated Bauxite-Alumina-Aluminium complexes in Asia.
• Current CMD: Sridhar Patra
• Headquarters: Bhubaneswar, Odisha
3. Who is the 16th Prime Minister of Sri Lanka?
Option 1: Harini Amarasuriya

Option 2: Dinesh Gunawardene

Option 3: Sirimavo Bandaranaike

Option 4: Anura Kumar Dissanayake
Option 5: Chandrika Kumaratunga
Answer: 1) Harini Amarasuriya
Explanation:
Harini Amarasuriya was officially sworn-in as the 16th Prime Minister of Sri Lanka,
succeeding Dinesh Gunawardene. She is an academic and human rights activist and
became the 3rd woman to hold the position of Prime Minister in Sri Lanka after
Sirimavo Bandaranaike and Chandrika Kumaratunga.
Context:
Inauguration of Harini Amarasuriya as the 16th Prime Minister of Sri Lanka:
Harini Amarasuriya, aged 54 and leader of the National Peoples Power (NPP), has
officially been sworn in as the 16th Prime Minister of Sri Lanka. She succeeds Dinesh
Gunawardene, who resigned following the results of the recent presidential election.
Amarasuriya took her oath of office from Anura Kumar Dissanayake, the President of Sri
Lanka, at the Presidential Secretariat in Colombo. With this appointment, she becomes
the third woman to hold the position of Prime Minister, following Sirimavo
Bandaranaike and Chandrika Kumaratunga.
About Harini Amarasuriya:
• An academic and rights activist, Amarasuriya previously served as a university

lecturer in the Department of Social Studies at the Open University of Sri Lanka.
• She began her career as a public activist in 2011, participating in protests
demanding free education during the Rajapaksha administration.
• In the 2019 presidential election, she campaigned for Anura Dissanayake of the
Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna (JVP).
• She first became a Member of Parliament (MP) in 2020 after being nominated by
the NPP, an alliance led by the JVP.
Appointment of New Cabinet Members:
• President Anura Kumar Dissanayake has appointed a new cabinet consisting of

four members, including himself. The other three cabinet members are NPP
parliamentarians: Harini Amarasuriya, Vijitha Herath, and Laxman Nipunarachchi.
• This cabinet will function as a caretaker government until the next parliamentary
election, scheduled for November 14, 2024.
About Sri Lanka:
• President: Anura Kumara Dissanayake

• Prime Minister (PM): Harini Amarasuriya
• Capital: Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte (legislative capital), Colombo (judicial and
executive capital)
• Currency: Sri Lankan Rupee (SLR)

4. Who won the leadership election of Japan's Liberal Democratic Party in Tokyo?
Option 1: Shigeru Ishiba

Option 2: Sanae Takaichi
Option 3: Fumio Kishida
Option 4: Tonio Kishida
Answer: 1) Shigeru Ishiba
Explanation:
Shigeru Ishiba emerged victorious in the leadership election of Japan's Liberal

Democratic Party held in Tokyo, defeating Sanae Takaichi. This was a significant win that
positions him to assume the role of Japan's next Prime Minister.
Context:
Shigeru Ishiba's Election as the Next Prime Minister of Japan:
Former Defence Minister Shigeru Ishiba, aged 67, is set to become Japan's next Prime
Minister after being elected as the leader of the Liberal Democratic Party (LDP), which
holds a parliamentary majority. Ishiba will assume office on October 1, 2024,
succeeding the current Prime Minister, Fumio Kishida. In the LDP leadership election
held in Tokyo, Ishiba secured 215 votes, defeating Sanae Takaichi, who garnered 194
votes. A total of nine candidates, including two women, participated in the election.
About Shigeru Ishiba
• Shigeru Ishiba is known as an idealistic reformer, having worked in banking before

entering politics.
• He first won a parliamentary seat in 1986 with the LDP. This year marked his fifth
attempt to become the party’s leader. The LDP is the largest party in Japan and
has governed the country for most of the past 70 years.
• Ishiba served as Japan’s Minister of Defense from 2007 to 2008, and as the
Minister of Agriculture, Forestry, and Fisheries from 2008 to 2009. He was also the
Secretary-General of the LDP from 2012 to 2014.
• He previously held the roles of chairman of the LDP’s Policy Research Council from
2009 to 2011, and Secretary-General from 2012 to 2014.
About Japan
• Prime Minister: Fumio Kishida (incumbent)

• Capital: Tokyo
• Currency: Japanese Yen (JPY)

5. Who has been sworn in as the acting Governor of Mizoram?
Option 1: Indra Sena Reddy Nallu

Option 2: Dr. Hari Babu Kambhampati
Option 3: Nelson Sailo
Option 4: Manik Saha
Answer: 1) Indra Sena Reddy Nallu
Explanation:
Indra Sena Reddy Nallu, the Governor of Tripura, has been sworn in as the acting
Governor of Mizoram. This was due to the medical leave taken by the current Governor
of Mizoram, Dr. Hari Babu Kambhampati. The oath ceremony was conducted in Aizawl,
Mizoram, and not by Lalduhoma, Manik Saha, or Justice Nelson Sailo, making option 1
the correct answer.
Context:
Swearing-In of Tripura Governor Indra Sena Reddy Nallu as Acting Governor of

Mizoram:
Indra Sena Reddy Nallu (73), the Governor of Tripura, has been sworn in as the
acting Governor of Mizoram at the Durbar Hall in Raj Bhavan, Aizawl. The oath was
administered by Justice Nelson Sailo of the Gauhati High Court. He has been appointed
to this additional role by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, due to Dr. Hari Babu
Kambhampati, the current Governor of Mizoram, taking medical leave for a lung
infection.
Key Attendees
The ceremony was attended by the Chief Minister of Mizoram, Lalduhoma; Speaker
Lalbiakzama; Home Minister Pu K.Sapdanga; other Cabinet Ministers; Chief Secretary;
and various special invitees.
About Indra Sena Reddy Nallu
• Political Background: Indra Sena Reddy Nallu is a prominent politician and a

leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), currently serving as the 20th Governor
of Tripura.
• Legislative Experience: He has been a Member of the Legislative Assembly
(MLA) in undivided Andhra Pradesh, having served in 1983, 1985, and 1999.
• BJP Leadership: Nallu has held several significant positions in the BJP, including
state president in 2003 and later national general secretary in 2014.
Points to Note
• Article 153 of the Constitution of India mandates that each state has a Governor.
According to Article 155, the Governor is appointed by the President through a
warrant under his or her hand and seal.

• To be eligible for appointment as a state Governor, a person must be a citizen of

India and at least 35 years old (as per Article 157).
About Mizoram
• Chief Minister: Lalduhoma

• Capital: Aizawl
• National Parks: Murlen National Park, Phawngpui National Park
• Wildlife Sanctuaries: Lengteng Wildlife Sanctuary, Ngengpui Wildlife Sanctuary
About Tripura
• Chief Minister: Manik Saha

• Governor: Indra Sena Reddy Nallu
• Capital: Agartala
• National Parks: Bison National Park, Sepahijala Zoological Park
• Wildlife Sanctuaries: Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary, Gomti Wildlife Sanctuary
6. As per recent news, ___________, Tamil Nadu's Minister of Youth Welfare and
Sports Development, was sworn in as the Deputy Chief Minister (Dy CM) of Tamil
Nadu.
Option 1: Muruswamy Stalin

Option 2: Ramdasa Stalin
Option 3: Udhayanidhi Stalin
Option 4: Tamil Selvan Stalin
Answer: 3) Udhayanidhi Stalin
Explanation:
Udhayanidhi Stalin, Tamil Nadu's Minister of Youth Welfare and Sports Development,
was sworn in as the Deputy Chief Minister (Dy CM) of Tamil Nadu. This position
had remained vacant since 2021. He was administered the oath of office by Governor
R.N. Ravi, becoming the youngest individual in Tamil Nadu's history to assume the role
of Dy CM. Alongside him, four other legislators from the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(DMK) were also sworn in as cabinet ministers.
Context:
Udhayanidhi Stalin Sworn in as Tamil Nadu's Youngest Deputy Chief Minister:
Udhayanidhi Stalin, Tamil Nadu's Minister of Youth Welfare and Sports Development,
was sworn in as the Deputy Chief Minister (Dy CM) of Tamil Nadu. This position
had remained vacant since 2021. He was administered the oath of office by Governor
R.N. Ravi, becoming the youngest individual in Tamil Nadu's history to assume the role
of Dy CM. Alongside him, four other legislators from the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam

(DMK) were also sworn in as cabinet ministers. The newly appointed cabinet ministers
are:
• V. Senthilbalaji: Ministry of Electricity, Prohibition and Excise

• Govi Chezhiaan: Ministry of Higher Education
• R. Rajendran: Ministry of Tourism
• S.M. Nasar: Ministry of Minorities Welfare and Non-Resident Tamils Welfare
Background on Udhayanidhi Stalin:
• Udhayanidhi, the son of Chief Minister MK Stalin, entered politics in 2019 as the
secretary of the DMK's youth wing.
• In 2021, he was elected as a Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) for the
Chepauk-Tiruvallikeni constituency and was sworn in as Minister of Youth Welfare
and Sports Development in 2022.
• Prior to his political career, Udhayanidhi was active in the Tamil film industry as a
producer and actor, beginning his career as a film distributor and later founding
Red Giant Movies, a film production company.
7. Who has been given additional charge as Chairman and Managing Director of
RINL?
Option 1: Atul Bhatt

Option 2: Ajit Kumar Saxena
Option 3: Ratan Kumar
Option 4: Vikas Sharma
Option 5: Rahul Mehta
Answer: 2) Ajit Kumar Saxena
Explanation:
Ajit Kumar Saxena has been appointed to the position of Chairman and Managing
Director of Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL), replacing Atul Bhatt. This appointment
is effective immediately, and Saxena will be taking on the new role alongside his
current position as the CMD of MOIL Limited. Bhatt, the former CMD of RINL, has been
on personal leave and is set to retire on November 30, 2024.
Context:
Ajit Kumar Saxena Assumes Additional Role as Chairman and Managing

Director of RINL:
Ajit Kumar Saxena has been appointed to take on the additional position of Chairman
and Managing Director (CMD) at Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL), located in
Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. This company is a Central Public Sector Undertaking
(CPSU) under the Ministry of Steel (MoS). The appointment is effective immediately.
Currently, Saxena holds the position of CMD at MOIL Limited, formerly known as

Manganese Ore (India) Limited, which is a Miniratna Central Public Sector Enterprise
(CPSE) under the MoS. Saxena is taking over the responsibilities from Atul Bhatt, the
previous CMD of RINL, who has been on personal leave since September 9, 2024, and
will retire on November 30, 2024.
8. Who is the new Chairman of the SNB Governing Board?
Option 1: Thomas Jordan

Option 2: Martin Schlegel
Option 3: Antoine Martin
Option 4: Petra Tschudin
Answer: 2) Martin Schlegel
Explanation:
Martin Schlegel has taken over as the new Chairman of the Governing Board of the
Swiss National Bank (SNB). He succeeded Thomas Jordan and also assumed the role
of Head of Department I at the SNB office in Zurich, Switzerland. His previous position
as Vice Chairman of the Governing Board and Head of Department II, along with his
tenure at SNB since 2003, prepared him for this new leadership role. The Federal
Council's decision to appoint Schlegel as Chairman confirms his elevated position within
the organization.
Context:
Change in Leadership at Swiss National Bank (SNB) Governing Board:
Martin Schlegel assumed the role of Chairman of the Governing Board at the Swiss
National Bank (SNB), succeeding Thomas Jordan. He also became the Head of
Department I at SNB's Zurich, Switzerland office. Schlegel, who had been the Vice
Chairman of the Governing Board and led Department II since 2022, joined SNB in 2003.
He previously served as an Alternate Member of the Governing Board from 2018 to
2022. The appointment of Martin Schlegel as the new Chairman of the Governing Board
was made by the Federal Council during its meeting on June 26, 2024. Additionally,
Antoine Martin, a Governing Board Member and Head of Department III, was named as
the Vice Chairman of the Governing Board and Head of Department II in Berne,
Switzerland. Petra Tschudin, previously an Alternate Member of the Governing Board,
was appointed as the new Governing Board Member and Head of Department III in
Zurich.
9. What organizational changes at Sony Pictures Entertainment are set to occur

on January 2, 2025?
Option 1: Tony Vinciquerra will become the executive Chairman of Sony Group Corporation.

Option 2: Ravi Ahuja will step down as Chairman of Global Television Studios.
Option 3: Tony Vinciquerra will remain as CEO and report to Hiroki Totoki.
Option 4: Ravi Ahuja will assume the role of President and CEO of SPE.
Option 5: Sony Pictures Entertainment will be restructured under the Sony Group
Corporation.
Answer: 4) Ravi Ahuja will assume the role of President and CEO of SPE.
Explanation:
Ravi Ahuja will take over as the President and CEO of Sony Pictures Entertainment
from January 2, 2025, which directly answers the question about upcoming
organizational changes.
Context:
Leadership Changes at Sony Pictures Entertainment:
Leadership Changes at Sony Pictures Entertainment
- Parent Company: Sony Pictures Entertainment (SPE), a subsidiary of Sony Group

Corporation, based in Tokyo, Japan.
CEO Transition:
• - Tony Vinciquerra will step down as CEO of SPE on January 2, 2025.

• - He will continue as non-executive Chairman until December 2025.
New CEO:
• - Ravi Ahuja, currently Chairman of Global Television Studios and COO of SPE,
will become President and CEO effective January 2, 2025.
• - Ahuja is based in Los Angeles, California (USA).
Reporting Structure:
• - Ravi Ahuja will report to Kenichiro Yoshida and Hiroki Totoki, both executives
of Sony Group Corporation.
10. Former Indian cricket captain ____________ has been appointed as the Brand
Ambassador of Garuda Aerospace, a prominent drone startup based in Chennai,
Tamil Nadu.
Option 1: Saurav Ganguly

Option 2: Rahul Dravid
Option 3: Mahendra Singh Dhoni
Option 4: Kapil Dev

Answer: 3) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
Explanation:
MS Dhoni as Brand Ambassador
• - Former Indian cricket captain Mahendra Singh Dhoni has been appointed as
the Brand Ambassador of Garuda Aerospace, a prominent drone startup
based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• - He has also increased his stake in the company.
Context:
MS Dhoni's Role in Advancing Drone Technology in India:
MS Dhoni as Brand Ambassador
• - Former Indian cricket captain Mahendra Singh Dhoni has been appointed as
the Brand Ambassador of Garuda Aerospace, a prominent drone startup
based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• - He has also increased his stake in the company.
Association Timeline
• - Dhoni commenced his relationship with Garuda Aerospace in 2022.

• - This was following the flagging off of 100 drones by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi in 100 locations.
Overview of Garuda Aerospace
• - Garuda Aerospace is a drone solutions provider focusing on innovative

techniques to fulfill India's increasing demand for Unmanned Aerial Vehicles
(UAVs).
• - The company has formed significant international partnerships with
organizations including Thales (France), Agrowing (Israel), and Spirit
Aeronautics (Greece).
Strategic Goals and Achievements
• - These collaborations aim at technology transfer and local manufacturing,

which helps to curb costs and generate job opportunities for the youth of India.
• - Garuda Aerospace is the first-ever drone startup to obtain dual Directorate
General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) certifications for Manufacturing and
Training.
Vision for the Future
• - The company's vision is to transform India into a Drone Hub by 2030.

11. What notable first does Omar Abdullah achieve with his recent swearing-in
as Chief Minister of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir?
Option 1: He is the first leader to govern after the reinstallation of statehood.

Option 2: He is the first CM of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir post abrogation of
Article 370.
Option 3: He is the first CM to come from the Kashmir Valley since the 2010 elections.
Option 4: He is the first CM of Jammu & Kashmir to be under the age of 35.
Answer: 2) He is the first CM of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir post
abrogation of Article 370.
Explanation:
Omar Abdullah's swearing-in as the Chief Minister represents a significant political

change following the abrogation of Article 370, which previously granted special status
to Jammu & Kashmir. His term marks the first government in this newly
established Union Territory.
Context:
Omar Abdullah Becomes Chief Minister of Jammu & Kashmir:
Omar Abdullah's Swearing-In as Chief Minister
Omar Abdullah, aged 54, and serving as the Vice President of Jammu & Kashmir
National Conference (JKNC), was sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Jammu &
Kashmir (UT) at a ceremony held at Sher-i-Kashmir International Convention
Centre in Srinagar. This marks Abdullah's second term, making him the first CM of
the UT since the abrogation of Article 370 by the Indian government in 2019.
Deputy Chief Minister

Surinder Kumar Choudhary took the oath as the Deputy CM for the Union Territory.
The oath of office was administered by Manoj Sinha, the Lieutenant Governor of
Jammu & Kashmir, during the ceremony, alongside five Council Ministers.
Notable Attendees
Key figures at the event included:
• Rahul Gandhi: Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

• Mallikarjun Kharge: President of Indian National Congress
• Mehbooba Mufti: President of Peoples Democratic Party (PDP) and former CM of
J&K
Council Ministers
Abdullah was accompanied by five Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs):
1. Satish Sharma from Chamb constituency (Jammu)
2. Sakina Masood from D.H. Pora constituency (South Kashmir)
3. Javid Dar from Rafiabad constituency (North Kashmir)

4. Surinder Kumar Choudhary from Nowshera (Jammu)

5. Javed Ahmad Rana from Mendhar constituency (Jammu)
2024 Assembly Elections
In the 2024 J&K Assembly Elections, the JKNC-INC alliance won 48 out of 90 assembly
seats, with JKNC emerging as the largest party holding 42 seats (35 from Kashmir and 7
from Jammu), while INC secured 6 seats. Supporting them were 5 independent MLAs
and 1 AAP MLA. Abdullah successfully contested from Ganderbal and Budgam
constituencies.
About Omar Abdullah
• Political Career: Began in 1998 as the youngest Member of Parliament from

Srinagar.
• Minister of State for External Affairs from 2001-2002.
• Became President of JKNC in 2002, succeeding his father Farooq Abdullah.
• Served as the 11th CM of J&K from 2009 to 2015.
Details About Jammu & Kashmir
• Capital: Jammu (winter) and Srinagar (summer).

• Chief Minister: Omar Abdullah
• Lieutenant Governor: Manoj Sinha
12. What are the specific roles and contributions expected from Mary Kom and
Sunil Chhetri as Brand Ambassadors for Utkarsh Small Finance Bank?
Option 1: They will primarily focus on bank management and strategic decisions.
Option 2: Their primary responsibility is to lead the bank's operations in foreign countries.
Option 3: They are expected to only represent the bank in international sporting events to
gain global recognition.
Option 4: Their role includes promoting financial literacy and participating in product
launches and social media campaigns.
Answer: 4) Their role includes promoting financial literacy and participating in product
launches and social media campaigns.
Explanation:
Mary Kom and Sunil Chhetri, as Brand Ambassadors, are specifically mentioned to focus
on initiatives such as financial literacy campaigns and product launches for
Utkarsh SFB. This aligns with the bank's goal of using their influence for inclusion and
resilience.
Context:
Appointment of Brand Ambassadors at Utkarsh Small Finance Bank:

Utkarsh Small Finance Bank Appoints Brand Ambassadors
Utkarsh Small Finance Bank (SFB) has selected Mary Kom, an Olympic boxer, and
Sunil Chhetri, the former captain of the Indian football team, as its Brand
Ambassadors.
Roles and Responsibilities of Brand Ambassadors:
• * i. The ambassadors will contribute to Utkarsh SFB’s initiatives including:

• * Financial Literacy Campaigns * Product Launches
• * Branch Inaugurations
• * Social Media Campaigns aimed at inclusion and resilience.
• * ii. A multi-channel campaign featuring ad films and social media content will
focus on stories of financial empowerment and real success, with Mary Kom
and Sunil Chhetri leading these narratives.
About Mary Kom:

* i. Mangte Chungneijang Mary Kom, hailing from Manipur, is the only woman to
have achieved the title of World Amateur Boxing Champion six times, and has won
eight World Championship medals.
* ii. She served as a Member of Parliament (Rajya Sabha, Nominated) from 2016 to
2022.
* iii. She was the only Indian female boxer to qualify for the 2012 London Summer
Olympics, where she claimed a bronze medal in the flyweight (51 kg) category.
* iv. In 2014, she became the first Indian female boxer to win a gold medal at the
Asian Games in Incheon, South Korea, and also at the 2018 Commonwealth
Games.
Awards & Honours:

* i. Recognized with Padma Shri (2006), Padma Bhushan (2013), and Padma
Vibhushan (2020) by the Government of India for her achievements in sports.
* ii. Recipient of the Arjuna Award in 2003 and the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in
2009.
About Sunil Chhetri:

* i. Sunil Chhetri from Telangana has played for the Indian National Football Team,
known as the Blue Tigers, from 2005 to 2024, captaining the team from 2012 to
2024.
* ii. He scored 94 goals in 151 internationals.
* iii. He contributed to the Indian team's titles in the SAFF Championship in 2011,
2015, 2021, and 2023.
* iv. Chhetri was the third Indian footballer to join a foreign league, signing with Kansas
City Wizards in 2011.
Awards:
* i. Honoured with Arjuna Award in 2011, Padma Shri in 2019, and Major Dhyan
Chand Khel Ratna in 2021, being the first footballer to achieve the Khel Ratna.
* ii. Named AIFF Player of the Year in multiple seasons.
About Utkarsh Small Finance Bank * Managing Director & CEO: Govind Singh
* Headquarters: Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh
* Founded: April 2016
* Tagline: Aap Ki Umeed ka Khata

13. What was a significant outcome of the 2023 presidential election in Tunisia
regarding voter participation?
Option 1: A record high voter turnout of 75% was achieved, reflecting strong public
engagement.
Option 2: Voter turnout was at an all-time low of 28.8%, the lowest since the Jasmine
Revolution in 2011.
Option 3: Voter turnout was approximately 50% as citizens demonstrated moderate
interest in the election.
Option 4: The election saw more than 60% of eligible voters participating, indicating a
positive trend in voter engagement.
Option 5: Voter turnout was around 35%, suggesting a decline in public confidence in the
electoral process.
Answer: 2) Voter turnout was at an all-time low of 28.8%, the lowest since the Jasmine
Revolution in 2011.
Explanation:
This answer is correct as the 2023 election had a low voter turnout of 28.8%, marking
it as the lowest since the Jasmine Revolution.
Context:
Overview of Tunisia's 2023 Presidential Election Results:
2023 Presidential Election Results in Tunisia
Election Outcome: President Kais Saied secured re-election with 90.69% of the votes,
marking his second term after first being elected in 2019.
Background: This election followed the death of Beji Caid Essebsi, Tunisia's first
president elected by universal suffrage post-revolution.
Political Context: Saied suspended parliament in July 2021 and made constitutional
amendments increasing presidential power.
Competitors:
i. Ayachi Zammel, a businessman, received only 7.4% of the votes.
ii. Zouhair Maghzaoui finished third with nearly 2% of the votes.
Voter Turnout: The election was characterized by a low voter turnout at 28.8%, the
lowest since the 2011 Jasmine Revolution* that led to the ousting of Zine El Abidine Ben
Ali.
About Kais Saied:
Historical Significance: Kais Saied is notable as the first Tunisian president born post-
independence from France in 1956.
Professional Background: He served as the Director of the Department of Public
Law at the Sousse Faculty of Law from 1994 to 1999 and was president of the

Tunisian Association of Constitutional Law until 2019.

Membership: Active member of the Scientific Council of the International Academy of
Constitutional Law since 1997.
Academic Contributions: He has authored numerous works in law, focusing on
constitutional law.
Awards: In 2023, Saied received the Medal of Arab Tourism, among other honors
including the Grand Collar of the State of Palestine (2021) and National Order of
Merit Athir (Algeria, 2020).
About Tunisia:
Prime Minister: Kamel Maddouri
Capital: Tunis
Currency: Tunisian Dinar*
14. What is the duration of M. Rajeshwar Rao's re-appointment as Deputy

Governor of the Reserve Bank of India approved by the Appointments
Committee of the Cabinet?
Option 1: One year with effect from 9th October 2024

Option 2: Two years with effect from 9th October 2024
Option 3: Three years with effect from 9th October 2024
Option 4: Five years from 9th October 2023
Answer: 1) One year with effect from 9th October 2024
Explanation:
The ACC approved Rao's re-appointment as Deputy Governor for a period of one year
starting on 9th October 2024.
Context:
Approval of RBI Deputy Governor's Re-appointment:
Approval of Re-appointment
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), led by Prime Minister

Narendra Modi, has made the following decision:
• M. Rajeshwar Rao has been re-appointed as Deputy Governor of Reserve

Bank of India (RBI).
Duration: One year, effective from 9th October 2024*, or until further orders.
Background Information

Career at RBI: Rao joined the RBI in 1984.

Promotions:
• * Elevated as RBI Executive Director in November 2016.

• * Appointed as Deputy Governor in October 2020 for a tenure of 3 years.
• * In September 2023, he was again re-appointed as Deputy Governor for 1
year, effective from October 2023.
15. Who has recently sworn in as the CM of Haryana?
Option 1: Nayab Singh Saini

Option 2: Nayab Singh Sonowal
Option 3: Tayab Singh Saini
Option 4: Manohar Lal Khattar
Answer: 1) Nayab Singh Saini
Explanation:
Nayab Singh Saini took the oath as the Chief Minister (CM) of Haryana during a
swearing-in ceremony held in Panchkula, Haryana.
This event signifies his second term as the CM of Haryana, having previously served
from March 2024 to October 2024 after Manohar Lal Khattar's resignation ahead
of the 2024 Lok Sabha elections.
Context:
Nayab Singh Saini Sworn in as Chief Minister of Haryana:
Nayab Singh Saini Sworn in as the CM of Haryana
Nayab Singh Saini took the oath as the Chief Minister (CM) of Haryana during a
swearing-in ceremony held in Panchkula, Haryana.
This event signifies his second term as the CM of Haryana, having previously served
from March 2024 to October 2024 after Manohar Lal Khattar's resignation ahead
of the 2024 Lok Sabha elections.
Alongside Saini, a total of 13 legislators were inducted into the state cabinet, which
included two women. The oath was administered by Haryana Governor Bandaru
Dattatreya.
Key Attendance: Among those present were Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi
and several leaders from the National Democratic Alliance (NDA).
Election Highlights:
i. The Haryana Assembly elections occurred on October 5, 2024, where the BJP
won 48 out of 90 seats, marking their third consecutive victory in the Haryana
State Assembly elections.

ii. Nayab Singh Saini won the Ladwa constituency (Kurukshetra district), defeating
the Congress candidate Mewa Singh Singroha by a margin of 16,054 votes.
About Nayab Singh Saini:

i. Background: Nayab Singh Saini hails from Ambala, Haryana, and has served in
various capacities within the BJP, including as the general secretary of the BJP's
youth wing in Ambala and as district president.
ii. He has held the position of president of the Haryana state unit of BJP and
served as an MLA from 2014 to 2019.
ii. During his previous term, he also functioned as Minister of State for Labour &
Employment and Mines in the Government of Haryana. From 2019 to 2024, he was a
Member of Parliament (MP) representing Kurukshetra.
Details of Haryana's Cabinet Ministers:

i. Haryana's cabinet can comprise a maximum of 14 ministers, including the CM. The
13 cabinet ministers include:
• * Anil Vij
• * Arvind Kumar Sharma
• * Shyam Singh Rana
• * Ranbir Singh Gangwa
• * Krishan Bedi
• * Krishan Lal Panwar
• * Rao Narbir Singh
• * Mahipal Dhanda
• * Vipul Goel
• * Shruti Choudhry
• * Arti Singh Rao
• * Rajesh Nagar
• * Gaurav Gautam
ii. Shruti Choudhry, daughter of Kiran Choudhry, a MP in Rajya Sabha, and Arti
Rao, daughter of Minister of State Rao Inderjit Singh, are among the first-time
legislators.
About Haryana:
• Governor: Bandaru Dattatreya

• CM: Nayab Singh Saini
• Wildlife Sanctuaries: Abubshahar Wildlife Sanctuary, Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary
16. Who has taken over as the 26th Director General of the Indian Coast Guard?
Option 1: Rakesh Pal

Option 2: Paramesh Sivamani
Option 3: Samar Vishwast
Option 4: Rakesh Sharma

Answer: 2) Paramesh Sivamani
Explanation:
Paramesh Sivamani was appointed as the 26th Director General of the Indian Coast
Guard (ICG) after serving in an additional capacity following the death of the previous
DG, Rakesh Pal.
Context:
Appointment of New DG of Indian Coast Guard:
Paramesh Sivamani has taken over as the 26th Director General (DG) of the Indian
Coast Guard (ICG). He has been serving as the DG (additional charge) since August
2024, following the death of the former DG, Rakesh Pal.
Professional History
Before his new role, Paramesh was the Additional DG of ICG since September 2022.
Experience and Achievements i. Paramesh Sivamani has commanded all major

vessels of the ICG, including the Advanced Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV) Samar
and OPV Vishwast. He has also led both the Eastern and Western Coast Guard
Regions.
ii. He is recognized as a specialist in Navigation & Direction, a critical area for
enhancing maritime safety.
iii. His honors include the Tatrakshak Medal (2014), Presidents Tatrakshak Medal
(2019), DG Coast Guard Commendation (2012), and Flag Officer Commanding-
in-Chief (East) Commendation (2009).
About the Indian Coast Guard (ICG)
The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) was established by the Coast Guard Act, 1978 and
commenced operations on February 1, 1977. The headquarters are located in New
Delhi, Delhi.
17. Who was appointed as the 8th President of Indonesia?
Option 1: Gibran Rakabuming

Option 2: Joko Widodo
Option 3: Prabowo Subianto
Option 4: Pabitra Margherita
Answer: 3) Prabowo Subianto
Explanation:

Prabowo Subianto was specifically mentioned as the 8th President of Indonesia,

succeeding Joko Widodo.
Context:
Prabowo Subianto's Appointment as President of Indonesia:
Former general Prabowo Subianto Djojohadikusumo (73) of the Great Indonesia

Movement Party (Gerindra Party) was appointed as the 8th President of
Indonesia for the term 2024-2029. He succeeded Joko Widodo, who served as
president from 2014 to 2024.
Vice President
Gibran Rakabuming, son of Joko Widodo, was appointed as the Vice President of
Indonesia.
Previous Roles
Prabowo Subianto previously served as the Defence Minister of Indonesia from
2019 to 2024.
Key Attendees at Swearing-in Ceremony

The swearing-in ceremony held in Jakarta, Indonesia was attended by key figures
including Union Minister of State (MoS) Pabitra Margherita, members from the
Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India, and leaders and officials from
around 40 countries.
2024 General Elections

The 2024 General Elections in Indonesia, held on 14th February 2024, were
intended to elect the president, vice president, and members of the Peoples
Consultative Assembly (MPR). Prabowo Subianto secured a decisive victory, winning
around 59% of the votes in the first round of the presidential election.
About Prabowo Subianto

Prabowo Subianto is a retired general who has held various military positions,
including commander of the Army Strategic Reserve Command (Kostrad). He
received honors including the Collar of the Order of Zayed from the United Arab
Emirates in 2024 and the Distinguished Service Order (Military) from Singapore
in 2023. His national honors include the Star of the Republic of Indonesia (1st
Class), Star of Mahaputera (1st Class), and Star of Mahaputera (2nd Class),
among others.
18. Who has been appointed as the new chairman of the Sir Ratan Tata Trusts?
Option 1: Numan Tata

Option 2: Noel Naval Tata
Option 3: Shapoorji Pallonji
Option 4: Cyrus Mistri

Answer: 2) Noel Naval Tata
Explanation:
Noel Naval Tata has been selected unanimously by the Board members of Sir Ratan
Tata Trusts to succeed his half-brother, Ratan Tata, who passed away.
Context:
Appointment of New Chairman of Tata Trusts:
Noel Naval Tata, half-brother of Ratan Tata, has been unanimously selected by the
Board members of Sir Ratan Tata Trusts as the chairman. He will replace Ratan Tata,
who passed away at the age of 86 on October 9, 2024.
Current Positions of Noel Naval Tata
• Chairman of Trent Limited

• Chairman of Tata International Ltd
• Chairman of Voltas Ltd
• Chairman of Tata Investment Corporation Ltd
• Vice Chairman of Tata Steel Ltd
• Vice Chairman of Titan Company Ltd
Overview of Tata Trusts Ownership
• Tata Trusts owns 66% of Tata Sons.

• 12.87% is owned by various Tata Group companies.
• The Shapoorji Pallonji family owns 18.4%.
About Noel Naval Tata 1. Noel Naval Tata began his career at Tata International
and became Managing Director of Trent in 1999.
2. He increased revenue at Tata International from USD 500 million to over USD 3
billion.
3. As Chairman of Trent Limited since 2014, he expanded operations, including
brands like Westside and Zudio.
4. He holds positions on several boards including Voltas and Titan Company.
5. He has been on the boards of Sir Ratan Tata Trust and Sir Dorabji Tata Trust
since 2019.
19. Who has been chosen as the brand ambassador for BOBCARD LIMITED?
Option 1: Virat Kohli

Option 2: Shreyanka Patil
Option 3: Rohit Sharma
Option 4: Sourav Ganguly
Option 5: MS Dhoni

Answer: 2) Shreyanka Patil
Explanation:
Shreyanka Patil is specifically mentioned in the text as the brand ambassador for
BOBCARD LIMITED.
Context:
BOBCARD LIMITED Appoints New Brand Ambassador:
BOBCARD LIMITED, a subsidiary of Bank of Baroda (BoB), has appointed

Shreyanka Patil, the Indian cricketer, as its new brand ambassador.
Key Points:
• Campaign Representation: Shreyanka Patil will represent BOBCARD in upcoming

campaigns and initiatives.
• Vision and Goals: The company aims to promote its vision of Reimagining
Credit for Everyone in India through innovative and accessible credit card
solutions.
• Target Audience: BOBCARD sees this collaboration as a way to engage a new
generation of credit users, encouraging responsible financial habits* and informed
decision-making.
20. What notable decision did the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC)
make regarding Mritunjay Kumar Narayan?
Option 1: He was appointed as the new Minister of State for Home Affairs.
Option 2: His tenure as Registrar General was extended until August 2026.
Option 3: He was replaced by Praveen Vashista as Special Secretary of MHA.
Option 4: His role in public administration was terminated.
Option 5: He will oversee the 2024 general elections.
Answer: 2) His tenure as Registrar General was extended until August 2026.
Explanation:
The news specifically states that the ACC approved the extension of Mritunjay Kumar
Narayan's tenure as Registrar General beyond 6th December 2024, for a period up
to 4th August 2026.
Context:
Extension of Tenure for Registrar General and New Appointments in MHA:

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has approved the extension of
Mritunjay Kumar Narayan's tenure as Registrar General beyond 6th December
2024, for a period up to 4th August 2026, or until further orders.
Background of Mritunjay Kumar Narayan:
• * He is a 1995-batch IAS officer from the Uttar Pradesh (UP) cadre.

• * He took charge as Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India in
November 2022.
• * With over 25 years of experience, he has served in various capacities within
the Uttar Pradesh State Government and the Government of India (GoI).
• * His expertise includes public administration, policy development, taxation,
health, law and order, internal security, and policing.
• * He will be crucial in the upcoming Census of India exercises, which have seen
several delays since 2021.
Appointment of Praveen Vashista:
• * The ACC has also appointed Praveen Vashista, a senior Indian Police
Service (IPS) officer, as Special Secretary (Internal Security) in the Ministry
of Home Affairs (MHA).
• * He is set to succeed Sivagami Sundari Nanda, who will retire on 31st
December 2024.
• * His tenure will last until 31st July 2026, or until further orders.
Background of Praveen Vashista:
• * He is a 1991-batch IPS officer from the Bihar cadre and currently holds the
position of Additional Secretary in the MHA.
• * In his new role, he will manage vital aspects such as law enforcement, internal
threats, border security, and coordination among security agencies.
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA):
• * Union Minister: Amit Shah (Gandhinagar, Gujarat)

• * Minister of State (MoS): Nityanand Rai (Ujiarpur, Bihar)
21. Who has been appointed as the chairman of the World Steel Association for
the term 2024-25?
Option 1: TV Narendran, CEO of Tata Steel

Option 2: Leon Topalian, CEO of Nucor Corporation
Option 3: Sajjan Jindal, Chairman of JSW Group
Option 4: Rakesh Mishra, Chairman of Nippon Group
Answer: 1) TV Narendran, CEO of Tata Steel
Explanation:

TV Narendran was specifically mentioned as being elected as the chairman of the

World Steel Association for the term 2024-25.
Context:
Appointment of New Chairman of World Steel Association:
Thachat Viswanath (TV) Narendran, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) and
Managing Director (MD) of Tata Steel, has been elected as the chairman of the
World Steel Association (Worldsteel) for the term 2024-25. He will take over from
Leon Topalian, the CEO of Nucor Corporation, who served as chairman during the
term 2023-24. Notably, TV Narendran is the 2nd Indian to hold this position, following
Sajjan Jindal, chairman of JSW Group, who served from 2021-22.
Key Responsibilities as Chairman
1. Oversee critical decisions and initiatives impacting the global steel sector.
2. Serve on the 17-member Executive Committee with other industry leaders.
About TV Narendran
• Joined Tata Steel in 1988, working in the International Trading Division.

• Appointed as MD for India and South East Asia in 2013.
• Currently serves as Senior Vice President of All India Management Association
(AIMA).
• Served as President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Indian
Institute of Metals from 2021-2022.
• Co-chaired the Mining & Metals Governors Council at the World Economic Forum
from 2016-2018.
About World Steel Association (Worldsteel)
• Represents over 160 steel producers and industry associations.

• Accounts for nearly 85% of the world's steel production.
• Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium
22. Who has been appointed as the Chairman & Managing Director of the Indian
Railway Finance Corporation?
Option 1: Ravi Sharma

Option 2: Shelly Verma
Option 3: Manoj Kumar Dubey
Option 4: Anil Gupta
Option 5: Rajesh Kumar
Answer: 3) Manoj Kumar Dubey
Explanation:

Manoj Kumar Dubey has been specifically mentioned in the news as the newly
appointed Chairman & Managing Director of IRFC, effective from October 10, 2024.
Context:
Appointment of CMD and CEO of IRFC:
Manoj Kumar Dubey has been appointed as the Chairman & Managing Director
(CMD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Indian Railway Finance
Corporation (IRFC) effective from October 10, 2024 for a duration of 5 years. He
will succeed Shelly Verma.
Background: i. Manoj Kumar Dubey is a 1993-batch officer of the Indian Railway

Accounts Service (IRAS).
ii. Before this new role, he served as the Director (Finance) and Chief Financial
Officer (CFO) at the Container Corporation Of India Limited (CONCOR).
Achievements
• He is a recipient of the National Award for Outstanding Service at the

Ministry of Railways (MoR) level, awarded in 2011.
Company Overview
Note: The IRFC is based in New Delhi and is designated as a Schedule A Miniratna
Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) under the MoR. It was incorporated in 1986.
23. Who was appointed as the new Under-Secretary-General for Humanitarian

Affairs by the UN Secretary-General?
Option 1: Tom Fletcher from the United Kingdom

Option 2: Martin Griffiths from the UK
Option 3: Joyce Msuya from the UK
Option 4: Antonio Guterres from Argentina
Answer: 1) Tom Fletcher from the United Kingdom
Explanation:
Tom Fletcher was appointed by UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres, succeeding

Martin Griffiths.
Context:
Appointment of New Under-Secretary-General for Humanitarian Affairs:

Appointment Announcement
United Nations (UN) Secretary-General Antonio Guterres has appointed Tom

Fletcher from the United Kingdom as the new Under-Secretary-General for
Humanitarian Affairs and Emergency Relief Coordinator within the Office for the
Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (OCHA)
Successor Details
• Tom Fletcher will replace Martin Griffiths, who resigned from the position in July
2024 due to health issues.
• Joyce Msuya, currently serving as Assistant Secretary-General for
Humanitarian Affairs and Deputy Emergency Relief Coordinator, will act as
the Under-Secretary-General until Tom Fletcher starts his role.
Background on Tom Fletcher
Present Role: Principal of Hertford College, Oxford (2020-present)

Current Role: Vice Chair of Oxford University's Conference of Colleges (2022-
present)
Former Roles:
* UK Ambassador to Lebanon (2011-2015)
* Foreign and Development Policy Adviser to UK Prime Ministers (2007-2011)
* Mediator for Northern Ireland during his tenure as adviser.
* Head of the Middle East Peace Process at the Foreign and Commonwealth Office (FCO)
in London (1997-1998)
* Second Secretary in Nairobi, Kenya (1998-2002)
* Chief of Staff for Africa, Caribbean, and Commonwealth at FCO (2002-2004)
* First Secretary in Paris, France (2004-2007)
Transition
Joyce Msuya will ensure continuity within humanitarian operations while awaiting the
official induction of Tom Fletcher into his new position.
24. Who has been appointed as the new chief secretary of Punjab?
Option 1: Anurag Verma

Option 2: KAP Sinha
Option 3: Raj Kishore Sinha
Option 4: Devaki Raman
Answer: 2) KAP Sinha
Explanation:
Appointment of Key Government Official

The government of Punjab has made a significant appointment:

1. New Chief Secretary: KAP Sinha, a 1992-batch Indian Administrative Service
(IAS) officer, will take over as the chief secretary of Punjab.
• * He is replacing Anurag Verma.

• * This marks him as the 43rd chief secretary of the state.
• * Additional Responsibilities: KAP Sinha will also hold the additional charge
of:
• * Principal Secretary
• * Personnel
• * Vigilance
• * General Administration
Context:
Appointment of Chief Secretary of Punjab:
Appointment of Key Government Official
The government of Punjab has made a significant appointment:

1. New Chief Secretary: KAP Sinha, a 1992-batch Indian Administrative Service
(IAS) officer, will take over as the chief secretary of Punjab.
• * He is replacing Anurag Verma.

• * This marks him as the 43rd chief secretary of the state.
• * Additional Responsibilities: KAP Sinha will also hold the additional charge
of:
• * Principal Secretary
• * Personnel
• * Vigilance
• * General Administration
Background Information:
Before this appointment, KAP Sinha was serving as the special chief secretary* in
several departments:
• * Revenue
• * Rehabilitation and Disaster Management
• * Agriculture and Farmer Welfare
• * Horticulture
• * Soil and Water Conservation
Previous Chief Secretary: Anurag Verma, who is a 1993-batch IAS officer, served
as chief secretary since 26th June 2023 and will now oversee the roles that KAP Sinha
held previously.

Science and Technology

1. Which Indian city is home to the S.N. Bose Centre that focuses on advanced
research in physics, cosmology, and earth sciences?
Option 1: Kolkata
Option 2: New Delhi
Option 3: Pune
Option 4: Mumbai
Option 5: Jaipur
Answer: 1) Kolkata
Explanation:
The S.N. Bose Centre, which specializes in advanced research in physics, cosmology,
and earth sciences, is based in Kolkata, West Bengal. The center is one of the
locations where the PARAM Rudra Supercomputer has been deployed under the
National Supercomputing Mission.
Context:
Inauguration of 3 PARAM Rudra Supercomputers by PM Narendra Modi:
Prime Minister Modi Unveils Three PARAM Rudra Supercomputers
Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated three PARAM Rudra Supercomputers,

valued at ₹130 crore, to the nation via video conferencing. Developed under the
National Supercomputing Mission (NSM), these supercomputers have been installed in
New Delhi, Pune, and Kolkata to advance scientific research. This initiative aligns with
the Prime Minister's commitment to achieving self-reliance in supercomputing
technology.
Key Functions of the Supercomputers:
• The Giant Metro Radio Telescope (GMRT) in Pune will utilize the supercomputer to
investigate Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs) and other astronomical phenomena.
• The Inter University Accelerator Centre (IUAC) in New Delhi will enhance research
in material science and atomic physics.
• The S.N. Bose Centre in Kolkata will facilitate advanced research in physics,
cosmology, and earth sciences.
Funding Announcement: The Government of India has also announced a research

fund of ₹1 lakh crore in the Union Budget for the Financial Year 2024-25 (FY25).
About the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM):
• Launched in 2015 as a collaboration between the Department of Electronics and

Information Technology (DeitY) and the Department of Science and Technology
(DST), the NSM aims to connect over 70 high-performance computing facilities
across national academic and research institutions.

• It is being executed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-

DAC) and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, with an estimated cost
of ₹4,500 crore over seven years.
PM Inaugurates HPC System for Weather and Climate Research
Prime Minister Modi inaugurated a High-Performance Computing (HPC) system designed

for weather and climate research, developed by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
with an investment of ₹850 crore. This initiative enhances India's computational
capabilities in meteorology, aiming to improve the accuracy and reliability of weather
forecasts and better respond to climate change.
About the HPC System:
• The new systems are located at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM)
in Pune and the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting
(NCMRWF) in Noida. The IITM system has a capacity of 11.77 Peta Floating Point
Operations Per Second (FLOPS) and 33 petabytes (PB) of storage, while the
NCMRWF system has a capacity of 8.24 Peta FLOPS and 24 PB of storage.
• Named Arka and Arunika, after celestial bodies associated with the sun, these
state-of-the-art systems replace previous systems named Aditya, Bhaskara,
Pratyush, and Mihir.
Significance of the HPC System:
• The new HPC system will boost MoES's computing power from 6.8 Peta FLOPS
to 22 Peta FLOPS.
• It will facilitate the development of advanced models utilizing technologies such
as Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML), improving services for
various stakeholders.
• The enhanced data assimilation capabilities will refine the physics and dynamics
of global weather prediction models, achieving resolutions of 1 kilometer or less
for regional models. This will significantly enhance the accuracy and lead time of
predictions related to tropical cyclones, heavy rainfall, thunderstorms, hailstorms,
heatwaves, droughts, and other extreme weather events.
About the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES):
• Union Minister: PM Narendra Modi (Constituency: Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh)

• Minister of State (Independent Charge): Dr. Jitendra Singh (Constituency:
Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir)
2. As per recent news, China successfully launched six new satellites Jilin-1
Kuanfu 02B (01-06) into space from the _____________ in north China's Shanxi
Province.
Option 1: Kaiyuan Satellite Launch Center

Option 2: Taiyuan Satellite Launch Center
Option 3: Taiwan Satellite Launch Center
Option 4: Beijing Satellite Launch Center

Answer: 2) Taiyuan Satellite Launch Center
Explanation:
China successfully launched six new satellites Jilin-1 Kuanfu 02B (01-06) into
space from the Taiyuan Satellite Launch Center in north China's Shanxi Province. The
Jilin-1 Kuanfu (wideband) 02B satellites numbers 1-6 were launched aboard a Long
March-2D carrier rocket. This marked the 536th flight mission of the Long March carrier
rocket series. The satellite features a high resolution and wide-field-of-view telephoto
range imager for high-resolution land observation.
Context:
China's Successful Launch of Six New Satellites:
China successfully launched six new satellites Jilin-1 Kuanfu 02B (01-06) into
space from the Taiyuan Satellite Launch Center in north China's Shanxi Province. The
Jilin-1 Kuanfu (wideband) 02B satellites numbers 1-6 were launched aboard a Long
March-2D carrier rocket. This marked the 536th flight mission of the Long March carrier
rocket series. The satellite features a high resolution and wide-field-of-view telephoto
range imager for high-resolution land observation.
3. Where did the Chandrayaan-3 mission land on the Moon?
Option 1: Within a buried crater

Option 2: Near the Moon's equator
Option 3: Inside a lava tube
Option 4: On a mountain peak
Option 5: Close to the North Pole
Answer: 1) Within a buried crater
Explanation:
The Chandrayaan-3 mission landed within a buried impact crater on the Moon, as
revealed by the joint study conducted by scientists from the Physical Research
Laboratory (PRL) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The landing site
was identified through an analysis of images obtained by the mission's cameras,
confirming that it was situated within a heavily degraded crater structure. This
significant finding places the mission in a unique geological setting on the lunar surface,
marking it as one of the oldest craters on the Moon.
Context:
Exploration Findings: Chandrayaan-3 Landed in Lunar Crater & Earth Gains

Temporary Mini-Moon:

Scientists from the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) and the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO) have announced that India's Lunar Mission, Chandrayaan-3, which
includes the Vikram lander and the Pragyan rover, has successfully landed within a
buried impact crater that measures 160 kilometers (km) in diameter and is 4.4
km deep. This crater is believed to be one of the oldest on the Moon, predating the
South Pole-Aitken (SPA) basin, which is the largest and one of the most ancient impact
basins in the Solar System.
Key Points:
1. The study titled Chandrayaan-3 Landing Site Evolution by South Pole-Aitken Basin
and Other Impact Craters was published in the peer-reviewed journal Icarus.
2. It was based on an analysis of images captured by the navigation cameras on the
Chandrayaan-3 Pragyan rover and the optical high-resolution camera on the
Chandrayaan-2 orbiter.
3. The lunar mission landed in a high-latitude region near the Moon's south pole,
approximately 350 km from the rim of the SPA basin.
4. Geomorphological and topographical analyses indicate that this semi-circular
structure is either a heavily degraded crater or a buried impact crater, with the
Shiv Shakti station marked as a yellow star within it.
Earth Gains a Temporary Mini-Moon:
Earth has temporarily acquired a mini-moon, an asteroid named 2024 PT5, which will
orbit our planet from September 29, 2024, to November 25, 2024. This asteroid will
follow a horseshoe-shaped path for about 55 days before escaping Earth’s gravitational
influence without completing a full revolution. Measuring around 10 meters in diameter,
2024 PT5 is not visible to the naked eye and originates from the Arjuna asteroid belt, a
collection of space rocks with similar orbits to Earth.
1. The discovery of 2024 PT5 was made possible through the National Aeronautics
and Space Administration (NASA)-funded Asteroid Terrestrial-impact Last Alert
System (ATLAS).
2. This Near-Earth Object (NEO) marks the fifth mini-moon detected by Earth; the
first, 1991 VG, was identified in 1991.
3. Findings regarding this mini-moon were published in the journal Research Notes of
the American Astronomical Society.
4. Astronomers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) in Bengaluru,

Karnataka, have found that the Sun's outer layer, known as the chromosphere,
rotates at varying speeds from its equator to its poles, taking _____ days at the
equator and _____ days at the poles.
Option 1: 35, 45
Option 2: 25, 35
Option 3: 15, 25
Option 4: 10, 15

Answer: 2) 25, 35
Explanation:
Astronomers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) in Bengaluru, Karnataka, have

found that the Sun's outer layer, known as the chromosphere, rotates at varying
speeds from its equator to its poles, taking 25 days at the equator and 35 days at
the poles. This discovery was made utilizing a century’s worth of daily records from
the Kodaikanal Solar Observatory in Kodaikanal, Tamil Nadu (TN).
Context:
Study Reveals Different Rotational Speeds of the Sun's Chromosphere Across

Latitudes:
Astronomers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) in Bengaluru, Karnataka, have

found that the Sun's outer layer, known as the chromosphere, rotates at varying
speeds from its equator to its poles, taking 25 days at the equator and 35 days at the
poles. This discovery was made utilizing a century’s worth of daily records from the
Kodaikanal Solar Observatory in Kodaikanal, Tamil Nadu (TN).
i. This study is the first instance of using chromospheric network cells to map the Sun's
rotation across different latitudes.
ii. The analysis indicated that the Sun rotates fastest at the equator, at a rate of
13.98 degrees per day, with a gradual slowdown toward the poles, reaching 10.5
degrees per day at 80 degrees latitude.
iii. The findings, published in the Astrophysical Journal, offer crucial insights into the
Sun's magnetic field and its activity cycles.
5. As per recent news, the National Space Commission, India’s leading authority
on space missions, has approved the ___________.
Option 1: Solar Polar Exploration Mission

Option 2: Jupiter Polar Exploration Mission
Option 3: Lunar Polar Exploration Mission
Option 4: Mars Polar Exploration Mission
Option 5: Saturn Polar Exploration Mission
Answer: 3) Lunar Polar Exploration Mission
Explanation:
The National Space Commission, India’s leading authority on space missions, has
approved the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (Lupex). This mission is a
collaboration between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and
Japan’s Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and forms part of India’s
broader lunar objectives, which include sending an astronaut to the Moon and ensuring
a safe return.

Context:
Approval of the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (Lupex):
The National Space Commission, India’s leading authority on space missions, has
approved the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (Lupex). This mission is a
collaboration between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and
Japan’s Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and forms part of India’s
broader lunar objectives, which include sending an astronaut to the Moon and ensuring
a safe return.
Key Points:
• Mission Duration: Lupex aims for a lunar surface mission lasting up to 100
days, significantly longer than the 20 days achieved by Chandrayaan-3.
• Lander and Rover Development: JAXA will be responsible for developing the
rover and rocket, while ISRO will focus on creating the lander system. The Lupex
rover will weigh approximately 350 kg, substantially larger than the 26
kg Pragyan rover from Chandrayaan-3.
• Lunar South Pole Target: The mission will land at the Moon’s south pole to
investigate water and other resources, and analyze how water interacts with lunar
regolith.
• Future Developments: ISRO’s Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) will

develop a new lander engine, which is intended for potential future human
landings on the Moon.
• Cabinet Approval: Following the Union Cabinet’s clearance of Chandrayaan-4,

Lupex is set to seek cabinet approval shortly, allowing ISRO to commence
preparations.
6. When did ISRO's upper stage of PSLV-C37 re-enter Earth's atmosphere?

Answer: 1) October 6, 2024
Explanation:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully achieved the re-entry of
the upper stage of its Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle C-37 (PSLV C-37) into Earth's
atmosphere on October 6, 2024. This marks a key milestone in ISRO's efforts to

realize a Debris-Free Space Mission (DFSM) by 2030 through proactive debris mitigation
measures.
Context:
Successful Re-Entry of PSLV-C37 Upper Stage by ISRO:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully achieved the re-entry of
the upper stage of its Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle C-37 (PSLV C-37) into Earth's
atmosphere on October 6, 2024. This marks a key milestone in ISRO's efforts to
realize a Debris-Free Space Mission (DFSM) by 2030 through proactive debris mitigation
measures.
Space Debris Context:
Space debris includes non-functional human-made objects in orbit, such as defunct

satellites, spent rocket stages, and fragments from collisions.
Key Highlights:
• The re-entry occurred over the North Atlantic Ocean after the orbital altitude
decayed to 134-148 km.
• The re-entry within eight years aligns with the Inter-Agency Space Debris
Coordination Committee (IADC) guidelines, which recommend limiting the post-
mission lifespan of defunct objects in Low-Earth Orbit (LEO) to 25 years.
• ISRO aims to reduce the orbital lifetime of PSLV upper stages to five years or less
using controlled de-orbiting techniques, with future missions incorporating
planned controlled re-entries.
Background:
• PSLV-C37 was launched on February 15, 2017, setting a record by deploying 104
satellites, including the primary payload Cartosat-2D and 103 co-passenger
satellites.
• After mission completion, the upper stage remained in an orbit of approximately
470-494 km and was continuously monitored by ISRO and the US Space
Command (USSPACECOM).
7. Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty, Secretary of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
and Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), inaugurated the Major
Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory in _________.
Option 1: Hanle, Ladakh

Option 2: Haridwar, Uttarakhand
Option 3: Hanle, Sikkim
Option 4: Gangtok, West Bengal

Answer: 1) Hanle, Ladakh
Explanation:
Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty, Secretary of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and
Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), inaugurated the Major Atmospheric
Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory in Hanle, Ladakh. The project aims to
promote international collaborations, enhancing India’s role in global space research.
This inauguration was part of the DAE's 75th anniversary celebrations, where Dr.
Mohanty also unveiled commemorative plaques. The event included a pictorial
compilation of the MACE project’s progress and a film highlighting the telescope's
scientific and technological achievements.
Context:
Inauguration of MACE Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh: A Major Milestone in

India's Cosmic-Ray Research:
Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty, Secretary of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and
Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), inaugurated the Major Atmospheric
Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory in Hanle, Ladakh. The project aims to
promote international collaborations, enhancing India’s role in global space research.
This inauguration was part of the DAE's 75th anniversary celebrations, where Dr.
Mohanty also unveiled commemorative plaques. The event included a pictorial
compilation of the MACE project’s progress and a film highlighting the telescope's
scientific and technological achievements.
Key Attendees:
• A.R. Sule, Additional Secretary, DAE

• Hussain Mufti, Chief Conservator of Forests, Union Territory of Ladakh
• Annapurni Subramaniam, Director, Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA)
• S.M. Yusuf, Director, Physics Group, Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
About the Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE):
1. MACE Telescope:
MACE is the largest Cherenkov telescope in Asia and the highest in the world,
located at an altitude of approximately 4,300 meters.
2. Indigenous Development:
It was developed by BARC in Mumbai, with assistance from Hyderabad-based
Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL) and other Indian partners.
3. Significance:
The launch marks a major milestone for Indian astrophysics and cosmic-ray
research. MACE will detect high-energy gamma rays, enabling the study of
powerful cosmic phenomena such as supernovae, black holes, and gamma-ray
bursts.

Inspiration for Future Scientists:

4. MACE is expected to inspire the next generation of Indian scientists to explore
new areas in astrophysics.
About the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE):
• Parent Office: The DAE is under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO).
• Prime Minister: Narendra Modi holds the DAE portfolio.
• Minister of State: Dr. Jitendra Singh
• Secretary: Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty
8. What significant characteristics of Barnard b, the newly discovered exoplanet,

can be derived from its discovery details?
Option 1: It has a diameter of approximately 6,000 miles and a surface temperature of

around 125°C.
Option 2: It is located over a million light-years away from Barnard's star.
Option 3: It orbits Barnard's star in 100 Earth days and has less than 50% of Earth's mass.
Option 4: Barnard b is the largest known exoplanet and is located within the habitable
zone.
Answer: 1) It has a diameter of approximately 6,000 miles and a surface temperature

of around 125°C.
Explanation:
Characteristics of Barnard b
• - Known as Barnard b, it has an estimated diameter of about 6,000 miles (or

approximately 9,700 kilometers), which is about three-quarters the size of
Earth.
• - Barnard b orbits Barnard's star at a distance twenty times closer than
Mercury is to the Sun, completing one orbit in 3.15 Earth days.
• - It is estimated to have a surface temperature of around 125°C.
• - Barnard b is categorized as one of the lowest-mass exoplanets known, with a
mass less than that of Earth.
Context:
Discovery of Exoplanet Barnard b:
Discovery of Barnard b
• - Astronomers found an exoplanet orbiting Barnard's star, the closest single

star to our Sun.

• - The discovery was made using the European Southern Observatory's Very
Large Telescope (VLT).
• - This finding was published in the journal Astronomy & Astrophysics (A&A).
Characteristics of Barnard b
• - Known as Barnard b, it has an estimated diameter of about 6,000 miles (or

approximately 9,700 kilometers), which is about three-quarters the size of
Earth.
• - Barnard b orbits Barnard's star at a distance twenty times closer than
Mercury is to the Sun, completing one orbit in 3.15 Earth days.
• - It is estimated to have a surface temperature of around 125°C.
• - Barnard b is categorized as one of the lowest-mass exoplanets known, with a
mass less than that of Earth.
Potential Planets Around Barnard's Star
• - Alongside Barnard b, there are three other potential planets that range from
20% to 30% of Earth's mass, all appearing to be rocky and smaller than
Earth.
9. What significant event took place during the 5th test flight of SpaceX's
Starship?
Option 1: The Starship landed successfully in the Gulf of Mannar.

Option 3: The Starship achieved an altitude of 3000 miles.
Option 4: The Starship was launched from Kennedy Space Center.
Option 5: The Super Heavy booster was captured by the launch and catch tower.
Answer: 5) The Super Heavy booster was captured by the launch and catch tower.
Explanation:
During the 5th test flight of SpaceX's Starship, one of the notable achievements was
that following a successful liftoff, ascent, and stage separation, the Super Heavy
booster was indeed captured by the launch and catch tower at Starbase, which
showcases the advanced technology of SpaceX's reusability process.
Context:
Highlights of SpaceX's Starship 5th Test Flight:
Space Exploration Technologies Corporation (SpaceX) successfully launched the 5th test
flight of the Starship, a 2-stage fully reusable super heavy-lift launch vehicle, from
Starbase near Boca Chica, Texas, USA.

Key Achievements During The Test Flight:
• The empty Starship blasted off from Texas at a height of around 400 feet (121
meters).
• Following its trajectory like the previous 4 Starships, the rocket arched over the
Gulf of Mexico.
• The Starship launched by the booster reached an altitude of over 130 miles (212
kilometers).
• After a successful liftoff, ascent, stage separation, boost back burn, and coast, the
71m Super Heavy booster performed its landing burn and was captured by the
chopstick arms of the launch and catch tower at Starbase.
• The Starship spacecraft made a controlled landing in the Indian Ocean.
Specifications of Starship and Super Heavy:
• The Starship can carry up to 150 metric tonnes when fully reusable and 250
metric tonnes when expendable.
• Super Heavy is powered by 33 Raptor engines that use sub-cooled liquid
methane (CH4) and liquid oxygen (LOX).
• The Starship is equipped with six engines: three Raptor engines and three Raptor
Vacuum (RVac) engines*, specifically designed for operation in outer space.
About Space Exploration Technologies Corporation (SpaceX):
• CEO: Elon Musk

• Headquarters: Hawthorne, California, USA
• Founded: 14 March 2002
10. Which of the following is correct about the Prime Minister Early Career
Research Grant (PMECRG) launched under ANRF?
Option 1: Supports early career researchers.

Option 2: Designed with a flexible budget to promote innovation in scientific research.
Option 3: Fosters a robust research culture for groundbreaking discoveries.
Option 4: Encourages contributions to India's global leadership in science and technology.
Answer: 5) All of these
Explanation:
Prime Minister Early Career Research Grant (PMECRG):
• * Supports early career researchers.

• * Designed with a flexible budget to promote innovation in scientific research.
• * Encourages contributions to India's global leadership in science and technology.
• * Fosters a robust research culture for groundbreaking discoveries.
Context:

Overview of ANRF Initiatives for Research and Development:
Overview of The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Initiatives
1. Key Initiatives
The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) has introduced two major
programs:
• Prime Minister Early Career Research Grant (PMECRG)

• Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas - Electric Vehicle (MAHA-
EV) Mission.
2. Objectives
• Aim: To bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application in
India.
• Fostering innovation and scientific excellence is paramount.
• Launched at the first Governing Board (GB) meeting on September 10, 2024,
chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• The initiatives are foundational to India's research ecosystem, supporting the
vision for a Viksit Bharat (Developed India) by 2047.
3. Details of Initiatives
Prime Minister Early Career Research Grant (PMECRG):
• * Supports early career researchers.

• * Designed with a flexible budget to promote innovation in scientific research.
• * Encourages contributions to India's global leadership in science and technology.
• * Fosters a robust research culture for groundbreaking discoveries.
Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas - Electric Vehicle (MAHA-EV):
• * Focuses on developing Electric Vehicle (EV) technologies to reduce import

dependency.
• * Aligned with the Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) initiative.
• * Focus areas include:
• * Tropical EV Batteries and Battery Cells
• * Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD)
• * Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure
4. Key Points
• Promotes multi-institutional and multidisciplinary collaboration.

• Positions India as a global hub for EV component development.
• Contributes to a greener and more sustainable future.
5. About ANRF
• Established under the ANRF 2023 Act within the Department of Science &
Technology (DST), Ministry of Science and Technology (MoST).
• Incorporates the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), formed by an
act of Parliament in 2008.

11. What is the primary objective of NASA's Europa Clipper mission?
Option 1: To study the atmosphere of Jupiter.

Option 2: To determine if Europa can support life.
Option 3: To explore the surface of Mars.
Option 4: To launch the Artemis program.
Option 5: To test new spacecraft technologies.
Answer: 2) To determine if Europa can support life.
Explanation:
The primary objective of the Europa Clipper mission is explicitly stated as determining
whether the icy shell of Europa and its ocean underneath could support life.
Context:
NASA's Europa Clipper Mission Overview:
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has launched its Europa
Clipper spacecraft as part of its Europa mission aimed at studying Jupiter and its moon
Europa, one of the 95 known moons of Jupiter.
Launch Details
• The spacecraft was launched aboard a Space Exploration Technologies

Corporation (SpaceX) Falcon Heavy rocket.
• It lifted off from Launch Complex 39A at NASA's Kennedy Space Center in
Florida, USA.
Mission Significance
• This mission is NASA's 1st dedicated to studying an ocean world beyond Earth.
• The main goal is to assess whether Europa's icy shell and the ocean
underneath can support life.
Europa Mission Features
• The Europa mission is part of NASA’s Artemis program, which intends to send
astronauts back to the Moon and later to Mars.
• The total cost of the mission is USD 5.2 billion.
• Management is by Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL), which is managed by Caltech,
in partnership with Johns Hopkins Applied Physics Laboratory (APL).
Mission Timeline: 1. The Europa Clipper spacecraft will travel 1.8 billion miles (2.9
billion km) and is set to enter Jupiter's orbit by April 2030.
2. Scientific operations will start in 2031, with the mission concluding in 2034 through
a planned crash into Ganymede, Jupiter's largest moon.
3. The spacecraft will perform nearly 50 flybys of Europa at altitudes as low as 16
miles (25 km) above its surface.
About the Europa Clipper Spacecraft

It is the largest spacecraft NASA has ever built for a planetary mission, mainly due to its
massive solar arrays.
These solar arrays gather enough light to meet power needs while operating in the
Jupiter system, which is over 5 times farther from the Sun than Earth.
The spacecraft is equipped with 9 instruments, including:
* Sensitive electronics stored in a vault with zinc (Zn) and aluminum (Al) walls for
radiation protection.
* Cameras and spectrometers for high-resolution images and surface composition
maps.
* An ice-penetrating radar for subsurface water detection.
* A magnetometer and gravity measurements to explore its ocean and deep interior.
* Thermal instruments to map temperature variations on Europa's surface.
* Other instruments will analyze surface composition for potential salts and organic
molecules*.
Points to Note
Other missions related to Jupiter include NASA's Juno mission, which has been in orbit
since 2016, and ESA’s Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE), launched in April 2023*.
Recent Related News
ESA announced the Rapid Apophis Mission for Space Safety (Ramses) to study asteroid
Apophis, expected to pass Earth on April 13, 2029*.
About NASA
• Administrator: Bill Nelson

• Headquarters: Washington DC, USA
Organizations and MoU

1. What is the main focus of the collaboration between ARIES and BEL as per
recent news?
Option 1: Enhancing environmental awareness

Option 2: Developing advanced medical technologies
Option 3: Boosting space situational awareness
Option 4: Improving transportation systems
Option 5: Enhancing agricultural productivity
Answer: 3) Boosting space situational awareness
Explanation:
The main focus of the collaboration between ARIES and BEL is to enhance Space
Situational Awareness (SSA), particularly through the development of advanced
image processing techniques, data analytics software, and new instruments for

monitoring space objects like near-Earth objects and artificial satellites. This
collaboration aims to ensure the safety of satellites and their users, indicating that the
correct answer is option 3) Boosting space situational awareness.
Context:
Collaboration Between ARIES and BEL to Boost Space Situational Awareness:
The Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES), an autonomous

institution located in Nainital, Uttarakhand, has entered into a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), a Navratna Public Sector
Undertaking (PSU) under the Ministry of Defence (MoD). This collaboration aims to
advance space technologies, with a particular emphasis on Space Situational
Awareness (SSA).
Signatories
The MoU was signed by Professor Dipankar Banerjee, Director of ARIES, and Rashmi
Kathuria, General Manager (SCCS) and Unit Head of BEL, at BEL's Ghaziabad facility in
Uttar Pradesh. The signing ceremony was attended by senior officials from both ARIES
and BEL.
Partnership Objectives
Under this partnership, the two organizations will work together to:
• Develop advanced image processing techniques and data analytics software.

• Create new instruments to monitor space objects, specifically near-Earth objects
and artificial satellites, ensuring the safety of satellites and their users.
Contributions
• ARIES: Will leverage its cutting-edge telescopes, including the 4m International

Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT), to provide critical observational data to BEL.
• BEL: Will apply its expertise in advanced image processing and data analytics to
establish a robust framework for improved SSA.
Capacity Building
The MoU also includes provisions for conducting various training workshops aimed at
enhancing skills in SSA. Additionally, ARIES will share its expertise in space weather as
part of the collaboration.
2. What is the focus of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between KVIC

and NIFT under CoEK-2.0?
Option 1: Enhancing market reach

Option 2: Environmental sustainability
Option 3: Digital marketing strategies
Option 4: Financial investments

Option 5: Historical preservation
Answer: 1) Enhancing market reach
Explanation:
The main aim of the MoU between KVIC and NIFT under CoEK-2.0 is to enhance the
market reach and marketability of Brand Khadi both within India and on a
global scale. Through design innovation and capacity building initiatives, the
collaboration seeks to boost the visibility and desirability of Khadi products.
Context:
Collaboration Between KVIC and NIFT to Boost Khadi Brand's Marketability:
The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), part of the Ministry of Micro, Small,
and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME), and the National Institute of Fashion Technology
(NIFT) have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) under the Centre of
Excellence for Khadi-2.0 (CoEK-2.0) in Rajghat, New Delhi. This collaboration aims to
improve the reach and marketability of Brand Khadi both domestically and
internationally.
The MoU was signed by Vatsalya Saxena, Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of KVIC, and
Tanu Kashyap, Director General (DG) of NIFT, in the presence of Manoj Kumar, Chairman
of KVIC; S.C.L. Das, Secretary of MoMSME; and Vipul Goel, Joint Secretary of MoMSME.
The agreement emphasizes design innovation and capacity building, with NIFT set to
provide training to Khadi institutions, assist in designing Khadi garments, renovate
Khadi Bhavans, and develop new high-quality Khadi products.
As part of the CoEK initiative, NIFT will establish a Khadi hub center in New Delhi and
spoke centers in Bengaluru (Karnataka), Gandhinagar (Gujarat), Kolkata (West Bengal),
Guwahati (Assam), Panchkula (Haryana), Hyderabad (Telangana), and Bhubaneswar
(Odisha). KVIC will invest ₹25.17 crore through CoEK over the next three years to
enhance the quality and brand strength of Khadi.
3. What type of agreement did BEL sign with Reliasat Inc. of Canada as per
recent news?
Option 1: Joint Venture

Option 2: Licensing Agreement
Option 3: Teaming Agreement
Option 4: Merger Agreement
Option 5: Acquisition Agreement
Answer: 3) Teaming Agreement
Explanation:

The agreement signed between BEL and Reliasat Inc. is a Teaming Agreement, aimed
at fostering collaboration between both companies in the field of space products.
This type of agreement signifies a partnership or alliance between the two parties to
collectively utilize their strengths and capabilities within the specified domain, in this
case, space technology. It allows them to work together towards achieving common
objectives and leveraging their combined expertise for mutual benefit.
Context:
Collaboration Agreement Between BEL and Reliasat Inc. for Space Products:
Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), classified as a Navratna Public Sector Undertaking

(PSU) under the Ministry of Defence (MoD), has officially entered into a Teaming
Agreement with Reliasat Inc. from Canada to work jointly in the field of space
products. This significant agreement took place at BEL's Corporate Office situated in
Bengaluru, Karnataka. The signing of the agreement was carried out by Mr. K V Suresh
Kumar, the Director (Marketing) at BEL, and Gurvinder Chohan, the Chief Executive
Officer (CEO) of Reliasat Inc. The main objective of this collaboration is to combine the
expertise and resources of both entities specifically in the space sector.
4. Which non-governmental entity/entities has/have signed Technology Transfer

Agreement/s with ISRO, IN-SPACe, and NSIL?
Option 1: Anabond Limited

Option 2: Salvo Industries Private Limited
Option 3: Micropack Pvt. Ltd.
Option 4: Astra Microwave Products Ltd
Option 5: All of the above
Answer: 5) All of the above
Explanation:
ISRO, IN-SPACe, and NSIL signed Technology Transfer Agreements with Anabond
Limited, Salvo Industries Private Limited, Micropack Pvt. Ltd., and Astra
Microwave Products Ltd. Therefore, the correct answer is option 5) All of the above,
as all the mentioned non-governmental entities have signed these agreements. This
initiative aims to enhance innovation and commercial applications in various sectors by
granting private players access to advanced technologies from ISRO.
Context:
ISRO, IN-SPACe, and NSIL Sign Technology Transfer Agreements:
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), Indian National Space Promotion and
Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe), and NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) have signed 5

Technology Transfer Agreements (TTAs) with Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs). With

this, the total number of agreements signed after space reforms becomes 75.
i. The TTAs were signed with Anabond Limited, Salvo Industries Private Limited,
Micropack Pvt. Ltd., and Astra Microwave Products Ltd at IN-SPACe in Bengaluru,
Karnataka.
ii. These agreements are part of the government initiative to grant private players
access to ISRO's advanced technologies, fostering innovation and commercial
applications across various sectors.
iii. ISRO, IN-SPACe, and NSIL aim to enable greater participation, foster new ventures,
and strengthen India's position in the global space ecosystem.
5. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) has approved the merger of
AIX Connect (previously known as AirAsia) with ___________, effective October 1,
2024.
Option 1: Vistara Pvt. Ltd.

Option 2: Air Asia Hub Ltd.
Option 3: Indigo Pvt. Ltd.
Option 4: Spice Jet Airways
Option 5: Air India Express
Answer: 5) Air India Express
Explanation:
The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) has approved the merger of AIX
Connect (previously known as AirAsia) with Air India Express (AIX), effective
October 1, 2024. This strategic initiative aims to establish a single low-cost carrier
operating under the name Air India Express, identified by the airline code IX.
Context:
DGCA Approves Merger of AIX Connect with Air India Express; Introduces
Digital Licenses for Air Traffic Controllers:
The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) has approved the merger of AIX
Connect (previously known as AirAsia) with Air India Express (AIX), effective
October 1, 2024. This strategic initiative aims to establish a single low-cost carrier
operating under the name Air India Express, identified by the airline code IX.
Key Points:
1. The merger was first announced in 2022 and received approval from the National
Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) on June 12, 2024.
2. All aircraft from AIX Connect have been transferred to the Air Operator Certificate
of Air India Express, ensuring seamless operations.

3. The approval process included thorough assessments of organizational structures

and personnel to facilitate a smooth transition and maintain operational safety.
4. The merger has garnered support from the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MOCA), the
Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS), and other key stakeholders.
5. Following this merger, Vistara will also be integrated into Air India on November
12, 2024.
DGCA to Introduce Paperless Licenses for Air Traffic Controllers
The DGCA will roll out a digital Personnel License for Air Traffic Controllers (ATCOs) to
enhance operational efficiency.
Key Points:
1. The new electronic license will replace the traditional paper versions.
2. ATCOs will be able to easily access and manage their licenses on mobile devices
such as phones and tablets.
3. This initiative aims to streamline processes and improve the overall effectiveness
of air traffic control operations.
6. What is the primary focus of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)

signed between MoLE and Amazon?
Option 1: Enhancing food accessibility in India

Option 2: Supporting healthcare development in India
Option 3: Improving job access in India
Option 4: Promoting tourism in India
Option 5: Enhancing educational opportunities in India
Answer: 3) Improving job access in India
Explanation:
The main focus of the MoU signed between MoLE and Amazon is to enhance
employment accessibility in India. The collaboration aims to leverage the NCS
portal to provide better job opportunities and facilitate recruitment processes for job
seekers and employers.
Context:
Collaboration Between MoLE and Amazon to Improve Job Access in India:
The Ministry of Labour & Employment (MoLE) has signed a Memorandum of

Understanding (MoU) with Amazon in New Delhi to improve employment
accessibility in India.
Key Highlights:
• Duration: The MoU is for a period of 2 years.

• Key Attendees: The signing took place in the presence of Union Minister Dr.
Mansukh Mandaviya and Minister of State (MoS) Shobha Karandlaje from MoLE.
Objectives and Features:
1. National Career Service (NCS) Portal:
◦ The MoU emphasizes a joint effort to enhance the NCS portal, transforming
it into a comprehensive platform for employment opportunities across
various sectors.
◦ The portal will feature a user-friendly interface utilizing advanced
technologies such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), benefiting job seekers,
employers, and stakeholders alike.
2. Job Postings and Hiring:
◦ Amazon, along with its third-party staffing agencies, will regularly post job
vacancies on the NCS portal and conduct hiring through this platform.
3. Job Fairs:
◦ In addition to online postings, job fairs will be organized at Model Career

Centres (MCCs) under this partnership to further support job-seeking efforts.
This collaboration marks a significant step in boosting employment opportunities and

leveraging technology for better job accessibility in India.
7. What is the financial support amount p.a provided annually by REC Limited to
fund projects in Rajasthan according to the MoU signed with the Government of
Rajasthan?

Answer: 5) Rs 50,000 crore
Explanation:
REC Limited will provide ₹50,000 crore annually (increased from ₹20,000 crore) over
the next six years (up to 2030) to finance both power and non-power infrastructure
projects. An earlier MoU, signed on 10th March 2024, had committed to funding
₹20,000 crore per year until 2030.
Context:
REC Limited Signs Financial Agreement of Rs 3 Lakh Crore with Government

of Rajasthan for Infrastructure Projects:

REC Limited (formerly Rural Electrification Corporation Private Limited), a Maharatna

Central Public Sector Unit (CPSU) under the Ministry of Power (MoP), has signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Government of Rajasthan (GoR) to
provide financial assistance of ₹3 lakh crore for infrastructure projects across
the state. The MoU was signed by Rahul Dwivedi, Executive Director (PMD and I&L) of
REC Ltd., and Debasish Prusty, Secretary to GoR, in the presence of Bhajan Lal Sharma,
Chief Minister of Rajasthan, and Colonel Rajyavardhan Rathore, Minister for Industries
and Commerce, GoR, during the Rising Rajasthan Investors meet.
Key Points of the MoU:
i. REC Limited will provide ₹50,000 crore annually (increased from ₹20,000 crore) over
the next six years (up to 2030) to finance both power and non-power infrastructure
projects. An earlier MoU, signed on 10th March 2024, had committed to funding
₹20,000 crore per year until 2030.
ii. The projects covered under the MoU will span sectors such as power, metros, roads,
highways, airports, information technology (IT), steel, oil refineries, ports, waterways,
fibre optics, telecommunications, health, tourism, and more.
iii. This agreement highlights REC’s strong commitment to the development of key
infrastructure sectors, both in power and non-power, in Rajasthan.
About REC Limited:
• Chairman and Managing Director (CMD): Vivek Kumar Dewangan

About Rajasthan:
• Chief Minister: Bhajan Lal Sharma

• Governor: Haribhau Bagde
• National Parks: Ranthambore National Park, Keoladeo National Park
8. What is the primary focus of the partnership between Tata Electronics Private
Limited and Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation?
Option 1: Developing display technology

Option 2: Creating AI-enabled greenfield fab
Option 3: Manufacturing automotive components
Option 4: Establishing a data storage facility
Option 5: Producing wireless communication devices
Answer: 2) Creating AI-enabled greenfield fab
Explanation:
The main objective of the partnership is to build India's first Artificial Intelligence-
enabled greenfield fab in Dholera, Gujarat, by leveraging the expertise and
support provided by Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation. This facility

will develop high-performance chips for various applications in sectors such as AI,
automotive, computing, data storage, and wireless communication, addressing the
growing market demand.
Context:
Partnership Agreement for India's First AI-Enabled Semiconductor Fab:
Tata Electronics Private Limited (TEPL) has finalized a Definitive Agreement with Taiwan-
based Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC). Under this
agreement, PSMC will provide design and construction support for India's first
Artificial Intelligence (AI)-enabled greenfield semiconductor fabrication
facility in Dholera, Gujarat.
i. PSMC will license a comprehensive range of technologies and offer engineering

support to ensure the successful transfer of these technologies to the Gujarat facility.
ii. The fab will involve a total investment of up to Rs 91,000

crores (approximately USD 11 billion) and is expected to generate over 20,000
direct and indirect skilled jobs.
iii. This new semiconductor fab will focus on manufacturing chips for various
applications, including Power Management Integrated Circuits (ICs), Display Drivers,
Microcontroller Units (MCUs), and high-performance computing logic. It aims to meet
the increasing demand in sectors such as AI, automotive, computing and data storage,
and wireless communication.
Note: TEPL is a greenfield venture of the Tata Group specializing in the manufacturing
of precision components.
9. The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has partnered

with the Military College of Telecommunications Engineering (MCTE) in __________,
to promote innovation and advance technology for defense applications.
Option 1: Ahmednagar, Maharashtra

Option 2: Indore, Madhya Pradesh
Option 3: Kolkata, West Bengal
Option 4: Kurnool, Karnataka
Answer: 2) Indore, Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has partnered with the
Military College of Telecommunications Engineering (MCTE) in Indore, Madhya
Pradesh, to promote innovation and advance technology for defense applications. As
part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative, MeitY's Research and Development (R&D)

organizations have provided MCTE with indigenously developed products for military
use.
Context:
Collaboration between MeitY and MCTE for Advancing Defense Technology:
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has partnered with the
Military College of Telecommunications Engineering (MCTE) in Indore, Madhya
Pradesh, to promote innovation and advance technology for defense applications. As
part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative, MeitY's Research and Development (R&D)
organizations have provided MCTE with indigenously developed products for military
use.
Key Objectives of the Partnership:
1. Collaborative R&D: This partnership aims to enhance collaborative efforts in

joint R&D across various fields, including Artificial Intelligence (AI), quantum
technology, chip design, Fifth Generation (5G) technologies and beyond, as well
as strategic electronics and communications.
2. Technology Adoption: It seeks to accelerate the adoption of advanced
technologies to address the evolving needs and challenges faced by the Indian
Army (IA).
3. Support for MSMEs: Additionally, this initiative will create a platform for Micro,
Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) by fostering an incubation ecosystem
that encourages the cross-pollination of ideas and technologies.
10. What was the main focus of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
signed between India and the USA at the bilateral commercial dialogue?
Option 1: Strengthening supply chains in India for textiles and apparel

Option 2: Enhancing critical minerals supply chain cooperation between India and the USA
Option 3: Initiating a joint venture in the agriculture sector
Option 4: Developing bilateral military training programs
Option 5: Promoting cultural exchanges between India and the USA
Answer: 2) Enhancing critical minerals supply chain cooperation between India and the
USA
Explanation:
The main focus of the MoU signed between India and the USA was to enhance and
diversify the critical minerals supply chain cooperation, particularly regarding
minerals like lithium, cobalt, and other essential elements used in electric vehicles and
clean energy applications. This collaboration aims to benefit both countries in
exploration, extraction, processing, recycling, and related activities in the critical
minerals sector.

Context:
Collaboration Between India and USA on Critical Minerals Supply Chains:
India and the U.S. signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) during a bilateral
commercial dialogue in Washington D.C. to expand and diversify the critical
minerals supply chain. The MoU focuses on cooperation to strengthen supply chains
for lithium, cobalt, and other critical minerals, primarily used in electric vehicles and
clean energy applications. This collaboration will leverage complementary strengths
and promote mutual development in critical minerals exploration, extraction,
processing, recycling, and related activities.
Other Initiatives:
• Innovation Handshake Agenda: A new initiative was launched to accelerate

innovation in energy security, technology, and sustainability.
• Global Diversity Export Initiative Trade Mission: Scheduled for early March
2025, this U.S. Department of Commerce-led mission aims to expand
opportunities in the Indian market for U.S. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs)
owned, operated, or led by members of underserved communities.
• Startup and SME Expansion: Plans to enhance startup and SME resources in
Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• Tourism Collaboration: India and the U.S. are working to boost travel and
tourism ties.
• Pharmaceutical Cooperation: Both countries are planning collaboration to
improve the Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (API) industry, production
capacities, and emergency response capabilities.
About the U.S.:
• President: Joe Biden

• Capital: Washington, D.C.
• Currency: United States Dollar (USD)
11. What is the recent collaboration between Nagaland and Wales for?
Option 1: Strengthening diplomatic relations

Option 2: Promoting trade agreements
Option 3: Enhancing cultural ties
Option 4: Initiating political discussions
Option 5: Improving military alliances
Answer: 3) Enhancing cultural ties
Explanation:
The recent collaboration between Nagaland and Wales aims to enhance cultural ties
between the two regions. The partnership involves promoting cultural exchange,

fostering people-to-people contact, and providing new opportunities for the youth. This
alliance is part of the festivities surrounding the 25th Hornbill Festival and marks the
conclusion of the year-long celebration of Wales in India 2024.
Context:
Collaboration between Nagaland and Wales for 25th Hornbill Festival:
The Government of Nagaland has established a partnership with Wales, a constituent

country of the United Kingdom (UK), as one of the Country Partners for the 25th Hornbill
Festival. During an official visit to Wales, Nagaland Chief Minister (CM) Neiphiu Rio inked
an agreement with representatives from the Welsh Government, the British Council, and
Wales Arts International in Cardiff, Wales. This collaboration signifies the culmination of
the year-long Wales in India 2024 celebration. The partnership aims to reinforce the
relationship between the two regions, promote cultural exchange, and create new
opportunities for the youth. Notably, the Hornbill Festival, celebrated annually
from December 1st to 10th in 2024 in Nagaland, serves as a tribute to Naga heritage
and culture, earning the moniker 'Festival of Festivals'.
12. What is the primary objective of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)

signed between the Department of Posts and Amazon Seller Services?
Option 1: To completely integrate the IT systems of both organizations.

Option 2: To establish a protocol for handling customer complaints more effectively.
Option 3: To leverage the Department of Posts' network for Amazon's logistics and
business growth.
Option 4: To prohibit the use of any other logistics providers for Amazon shipments.
Option 5: To reduce delivery times across international borders.
Answer: 3) To leverage the Department of Posts' network for Amazon's logistics and
business growth.
Explanation:
The MoU specifically aims to explore opportunities in logistics and business growth,
allowing Amazon to utilize the vast postal network of the DoP for parcel delivery
throughout India.
Context:
MoU Between Department of Posts and Amazon:

MoU Signing Overview
• - The Department of Posts (DoP) partnered with Amazon Seller Services

Private Limited under the Ministry of Communications through a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU).
• - This agreement aims to enhance logistics and e-commerce in India.
Signatories:
• - Kushal Vashist (General Manager, Parcel Directorate, DoP)

• - Venkatesh Tiwari (Director, Operations, Amazon Seller Services)
• - Witnessed by: Vandita Kaul (Secretary, Posts, New Delhi).
Goals of the MoU1. Collaborative Opportunities
• - Explore logistics and business growth prospects.

• - Allow Amazon to use DoP's extensive postal network for parcel delivery
throughout India.
Key Areas of Cooperation
• - Synchronization of logistics operations.

• - Knowledge-sharing and capacity-sharing initiatives.
Review Process
• - Conduct quarterly reviews to assess partnership development and identify

additional opportunities for collaboration.
13. What is the primary goal of the partnership between Adani Group and
Google?
Option 1: To create a new software platform for renewable energy.

Option 2: To build new data centers in India with emphasis on AI.
Option 3: To promote nuclear-based energy sources in India.
Option 4: To enhance sustainability efforts and contribute to the growth of clean energy in
India.
Option 5: To launch a campaign for fossil fuel energy production in Gujarat.
Answer: 2) To enhance sustainability efforts and contribute to the growth of clean

energy in India.
Explanation:
The partnership between Adani Group and Google is specifically aimed at enhancing
sustainability and boosting the clean energy sector in India, particularly through
the use of renewable energy from a solar-wind hybrid project.
Context:

Partnership for Sustainable Energy Growth:
Ahmedabad (Gujarat) based Adani Group and the United States of America (USA)
based Google have announced a partnership aimed at enhancing sustainability
efforts and contributing to the growth of clean energy in India.
Project Details
• Adani will supply renewable energy from a new solar-wind hybrid project.
• This project is part of the world's largest renewable energy plant located in
Khavda, Gujarat.
• The project is set to begin its commercial operations in 2025.
Strategic Alignment
• This initiative aligns with the group's strategy to decarbonize industries.

• There will be a focus on the merchant and Commercial and Industrial (C&I)
segments.
Collaboration Benefits
• This collaboration will assist Google in achieving its 24/7 carbon-free energy goal.
• It ensures that cloud services and operations in India are powered by
sustainable energy.
14. What is the primary focus of the partnership between SKYBER Aerospace
and Sibia Technologies?
Option 1: To develop electric vehicles for urban use.

Option 2: To market and sell unmanned aerial vehicles across the Middle East and Africa.
Option 3: To create a new defense company based in India.
Option 4: To collaborate on agricultural technology innovations.
Option 5: To enhance commercial air travel services.
Answer: 2) To market and sell unmanned aerial vehicles across the Middle East and
Africa.
Explanation:
The partnership specifically aims to market and sell made-in-India Unmanned

Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) in the MEA region.
Context:
Strategic Partnership in Unmanned Aerial Vehicles:
SKYBER Aerospace Private Limited, a company specializing in advanced air mobility, has
recently established a strategic partnership with Sibia Technologies, which is based in

Dubai, UAE. This collaboration aims to market and sell unmanned aerial vehicles
(UAVs) produced in India throughout the Middle East and Africa (MEA).
Market Opportunity
The MEA region is anticipated to have a market size of USD 5.3 billion by 2029,
signifying substantial potential for government and commercial sectors.
Details of the Partnership Supply and Responsibilities:
• * SKYBER will provide high-performance customized military UAV systems to

enhance the defense frameworks in the MEA region.
• * Sibia is responsible for managing local sales, marketing, customer relations, and
logistics.
Targeted Sectors:
• * The partnership focuses on both military and commercial sectors, with specific
attention to industries such as oil and gas, construction, and agriculture.
Significant demand is expected from UAE, Saudi Arabia, and Qatar.
UAV Features:
• * The UAVs will incorporate advanced data security, AI-driven navigation, and
autonomous capabilities. Future updates may include high-precision sensors.
Environmental Durability:
• The systems will be engineered to withstand extreme weather conditions

typical of the MEA, ensuring reliability in various climates.
• Local Support and Training:
• Sibia will offer operator training and maintain compliance with local regulations,
ensuring seamless operations through easily accessible spare parts and support
services.
About SKYBER Aerospace Private Limited
• Co-Founder & CEO: Joseph George

• Headquarters: Bengaluru, Karnataka
• Establishment Year: 2023
15. What was the purpose of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed
between RITES Limited and Etihad Rail?
Option 1: To explore collaboration in developing railways and associated infrastructure

services in the Saudi Arabia.
services in the Bangladesh.
services in the UAE.

Answer: 3) To explore collaboration in developing railways and associated

infrastructure services in the UAE.
Explanation:
The MoU specifically aims to collaborate on the development of railways and associated
infrastructure in the UAE, which includes project management, consulting, and other
rail services, rather than any other unrelated aims.
Context:
RITES Limited and Etihad Rail Partnership:
RITES Limited and Etihad Rail MoUGurugram (Haryana) based RITES Limited,
formerly Rail India Technical and Economic Service Limited, has signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Etihad Rail, the developer and
operator of the United Arab Emirates (UAE) National Rail Network.
Purpose and Significance of the MoU
The signing was aimed at exploring collaboration and leveraging capabilities for
developing railways and associated infrastructure services in the UAE and wider region.
The MoU was signed by Rahul Mithal, Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of RITES
Ltd., and Shadi Malak, Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Etihad Rail, during the Global
Rail Transport Infrastructure Exhibition & Conference in Abu Dhabi, UAE.
Partnership Objectives
The partnership seeks to improve modern and efficient rail services in the UAE by
utilizing the strengths of both organizations.
It aims to explore collaborative opportunities including:
• * Rolling stock supply

• * Project management and consulting for railway projects
• * Services like rolling stock repair and operation and maintenance of railway
infrastructure.
Focus Areas
The MoU will involve workforce development, knowledge transfer, and expertise
sharing.
Emphasizing innovation, both parties will explore cutting-edge information
technology (IT) solutions in:
• * Train operations
• * Passenger management
• * Providing technical input on maintenance procedures.

16. What is the main purpose of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)

signed between the IEA and IIT Delhi?
Option 1: To promote nuclear energy technology in developed countries.

Option 2: To develop oil production strategies in the Gulf region.
Option 3: To enhance coal usage in energy production in emerging economies.
Option 4: To analyze and strengthen energy technology innovation for emission reduction.
Option 5: To focus on space technology for energy generation.
Answer: 4) To analyze and strengthen energy technology innovation for emission

reduction.
Explanation:
The MoU specifically emphasizes collaboration in policy analysis to promote energy

innovation, which is aimed at reducing emissions and facilitating clean energy
transitions.
Context:
Collaboration Between IEA and IIT Delhi on Energy Innovation:
The International Energy Agency (IEA) and the Indian Institute of Technology
(IIT) Delhi have established a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU).
Objective
The purpose of this MoU is to explore the role of energy technology innovation in
reducing emissions and facilitating clean energy transitions.
Key Areas of Collaboration
• Policy Analysis: Focus on promoting energy innovation.

• Exchange of Information: Sharing insights on energy technology trends,
particularly in emerging and developing economies.
Signatories
• Fatih Birol: Executive Director of the IEA, signed at the IEA headquarters in Paris,
France.
• Prof. Rangan Banerjee: Director of IIT Delhi, signed remotely.
• Ambuj Sagar*: Deputy Director for strategy and planning, IIT Delhi.
Additional details:
• In the presence of Jawed Ashraf, Ambassador of India to the Republic of France

and the Principality of Monaco.
Joint Report
In October 2024, the IEA and IIT Delhi released a report titled Clean Energy
Innovation Policies in Emerging and Developing Economies. This report focuses

on the economic opportunities and the role of policy in promoting the new energy
economy in these regions.
17. What is the primary focus of Google's recent AI collaborations in India?
Option 1: To improve transportation systems in urban areas

Option 2: To create social media platforms for farmers to discuss their experience
Option 3: To develop new software for business applications
Option 4: To advance educational tools for schools
Option 5: To enhance healthcare, sustainability, and agriculture sectors
Answer: 5) To enhance healthcare, sustainability, and agriculture sectors
Explanation:
Google's AI-led initiatives is specifically aimed at improving healthcare (such as diabetic

retinopathy screenings), sustainability (urban waste management), and agriculture
(improving farming practices). Thus, option 5 is the correct answer.
Context:
Google's AI Initiatives in India:
Google has launched a series of Artificial Intelligence (AI) - driven collaborations

aimed at improving India's healthcare, sustainability, and agriculture sectors. This
initiative was introduced during a roundtable event in Bengaluru, Karnataka, marking
the fifth anniversary of Google's Research Lab in the region. The partnerships are
targeted at using AI technologies to address pressing challenges in these essential
areas.
Collaborations: 1. Forus Health (Bengaluru, Karnataka)
• * Focus: Diabetic retinopathy screening.

• * Objective: Conduct AI-assisted screenings to prevent blindness in diabetic
patients.
1. AuroLab (Madurai, Tamil Nadu) * Focus: AI-driven healthcare solutions.

* Objective: Support diabetic retinopathy screenings in resource-constrained
communities.
2. Perceptra (Thailand) * Focus: Diabetic retinopathy screening.

* Objective: Collaborate on AI-assisted screenings alongside Indian partners.
3. Saahas Zero Waste/SZW (Bengaluru) * Focus: Urban waste management.

* Objective: Implement the CircularNet model for sorting plastic waste and
increasing recycling rates.

Key Points:
• Google aims to conduct 6 million AI-assisted diabetic retinopathy screenings free

of charge to patients over the next decade.
• Through its CircularNet model, the company intends to enhance urban waste
management by automating the sorting of plastic waste, thereby boosting
recycling efforts and alleviating pressure on landfills.
• Google is also making its Agricultural Landscape Understanding (ALU) API
available to developers, which will furnish tools for more effective farming
practices based on satellite imagery and Machine Learning (ML).
Sports News
1. Team India has clinched the Gold medal in both the Open and Women’s
sections of the 45th International Chess Federation (FIDE) Chess Olympiad held
in __________.
Option 1: Rome, Italy

Option 2: Moscow, Russia
Option 3: Berlin, Germany
Option 4: Budapest, Hungary
Option 5: Paris, France
Answer: 4) Budapest, Hungary
Explanation:
Team India has clinched the Gold medal in both the Open and Women’s sections of the
45th International Chess Federation (FIDE) Chess Olympiad held in Budapest,
Hungary. This achievement marks the first time India has won gold in both categories,
making it the third country to do so, following China in 2018 and the Soviet Union,
which achieved a streak of double golds between 1980 and 1986.
Context:
India Wins Gold at 45th FIDE Chess Olympiad:
Team India has clinched the Gold medal in both the Open and Women’s sections of the
45th International Chess Federation (FIDE) Chess Olympiad held in Budapest, Hungary.
This achievement marks the first time India has won gold in both categories, making it
the third country to do so, following China in 2018 and the Soviet Union, which achieved
a streak of double golds between 1980 and 1986.
Team India Composition:
• Open Section:
◦ Captain: Grandmaster (GM) Srinath Narayanan

◦ Players: GM Gukesh D, GM Praggnanandhaa R, GM Erigaisi Arjun, GM Vidit

Santosh Gujrathi, GM Harikrishna Pentala
• Women’s Section:
◦ Captain: GM Abhijit Kunte
◦ Players: GM Dronavalli Harika, GM Vaishali Rameshbabu, International
Master (IM) Divya Deshmukh, IM Vantika Agrawal, IM Tania Sachdev
Winners of the 45th FIDE Chess Olympiad:
• Open Section:
◦ India received gold medals and the Hamilton-Russell Cup, originally created
in 1927 and named after British attorney Frederick Gustavus Hamilton-
Russell.
◦ The USA team won silver, while Uzbekistan took home bronze.
◦ India won gold medals and the Vera Menchik Cup.

◦ Kazakhstan secured silver, and the USA team won bronze.
Note: Awards were presented by five-time world chess champion Viswanathan Anand
(India) and Grandmaster Judit Polgar (Hungary).
Final Standings:
• Open Section:
◦ 1st: India (21 points)

◦ 2nd: USA (17 points)
◦ 3rd: Uzbekistan (17 points)
◦ 1st: India (19 points)

◦ 2nd: Kazakhstan (18 points)
◦ 3rd: USA (17 points)
Other Awards:
• Gaprindashvili Cup:
◦ Team India also won the Gaprindashvili Cup, awarded for the best combined
result in both sections, presented by FIDE President Arkady Dvorkovich and
Nona Gaprindashvili (Georgia), the first woman to become a grandmaster
and a former women’s world champion.
• Board Prize:
◦ In the Open section, Gukesh D (Board 1) and Arjun Erigaisi (Board 3) were
recognized as the best players on their boards.
◦ In the Women’s section, Divya Deshmukh (Board 3) and Vantika Agrawal
(Board 4) received the same accolade.

Key Points:
• With this tournament win, Arjun Erigaisi achieved 3rd rank and Gukesh climbed to
5th rank in FIDE ratings.
• The All-India Chess Federation (AICF) announced a prize of ₹3.2 crore for the
Olympiad-winning Indian teams, with each player from the winning teams
receiving ₹25 lakh.
About the Chess Olympiad:
• The Chess Olympiad is a biennial tournament organized by FIDE.

• The first unofficial edition was held in Paris in 1924.
• The 45th edition featured a total of 1,884 participants: 975 in the Open and 909 in
the Women’s event, with 197 registered teams from 195 nations in the Open
section and 183 from 181 nations in the Women’s section.
FIDE 100 Awards:
• Introduced as part of FIDE's centenary celebrations, the FIDE 100 Awards

recognize individuals and organizations that have significantly contributed to the
development and promotion of chess globally, awarded in 19 categories.
About the International Chess Federation (FIDE):
• President: Arkady Dvorkovich

• Headquarters: Lausanne, Switzerland
• Founded: 1924
2. Team Europe, captained by Swedish tennis legend Bjorn Borg, claimed victory
at the Laver Cup 2024 by defeating ________, led by American tennis star John
McEnroe.
Option 1: Team Asia

Option 2: Team World
Option 3: Team World XI
Option 4: Team Asia XI
Option 5: Team US XI
Answer: 2) Team World
Explanation:
Team Europe, captained by Swedish tennis legend Bjorn Borg, claimed victory at the
Laver Cup 2024 by defeating Team World, led by American tennis star John McEnroe.
This victory marks Team Europe's fifth title, having previously won in 2017, 2018, 2019,
and 2021. The 2024 edition of the Laver Cup, the seventh in this annual men's tennis
tournament featuring teams from Europe and the rest of the world, took place at the
Uber Arena in Berlin, Germany, from September 20 to 22, 2024.

Context:
Recap of Laver Cup 2024 Finale Between Team Europe and Team World:
Team Europe, captained by Swedish tennis legend Bjorn Borg, claimed victory at the
Laver Cup 2024 by defeating Team World, led by American tennis star John McEnroe.
This victory marks Team Europe's fifth title, having previously won in 2017, 2018, 2019,
and 2021. The 2024 edition of the Laver Cup, the seventh in this annual men's tennis
tournament featuring teams from Europe and the rest of the world, took place at the
Uber Arena in Berlin, Germany, from September 20 to 22, 2024.
Background:
• Team World, under John McEnroe, had secured the Laver Cup title for two
consecutive years in 2022 and 2023.
Laver Cup 2024 Highlights:
1. Prize Money: The total prize pool for Laver Cup 2024 was USD 2.25 million,
shared among the 12 main players from both teams. Each member of the winning
team received USD 250,000, while members of the losing team earned USD
125,000.
2. Team Composition:
◦ Team Europe: Alexander Zverev (Germany), Carlos Alcaraz (Spain), Daniil

Medvedev (Russia), Casper Ruud (Norway), Grigor Dimitrov (Bulgaria), and
Stefanos Tsitsipas (Greece).
◦ Team World: Taylor Fritz (USA), Frances Tiafoe (USA), Ben Shelton (USA),
Alejandro Tabilo (Chile), Francisco Cerundolo (Argentina), and Thanasi
Kokkinakis (Australia).
3. Match Highlights:
◦ Carlos Alcaraz achieved a thrilling 13-11 victory over Taylor Fritz in straight
sets during a singles match on the final day.
◦ Stefanos Tsitsipas also contributed to Team Europe's success by defeating
Thanasi Kokkinakis in singles.
◦ In doubles, Carlos Alcaraz and Casper Ruud triumphed against Ben Shelton
and Frances Tiafoe.
About the Laver Cup:
• Named after Australian tennis great Rod Laver, who won 11 Grand Slams from
1960 to 1969, including four Wimbledon titles, the Laver Cup is an annual men's
tennis team tournament.
• Launched in 2017, it features two teams: Team Europe and Team World, akin to
the Ryder Cup in golf.
• The competition lasts three days, with the first team to reach 13 points out of a
total of 24 points declared the winner.
Looking Ahead:
• The Laver Cup 2025 is set to take place in San Francisco, USA, at the Chase
Center in September.

• Starting in 2025, Yannick Noah and Andre Agassi will take over as captains for
Team Europe and Team World, respectively.
3. Who won the Intercontinental Cup 2024 football title?
Option 1: India
Option 2: Mauritius
Option 3: Syria
Option 4: Kenya
Option 5: Lebanon
Answer: 3) Syria
Explanation:
Syria emerged as the champions of the Intercontinental Cup 2024 by defeating the
defending champions India 3-0 in the final group match. They displayed an
impressive performance throughout the tournament, defeating both Mauritius and India
while securing the highest points to claim their maiden title. This victory marked a
significant achievement for the Syrian national football team, establishing their prowess
in the international football arena.
Context:
Syria Emerges Victorious with a 3-0 Win over India in the Intercontinental Cup
2024 Final:
Syria clinched their first Intercontinental Cup 2024 football title by defeating the
defending champions, India, with a score of 3-0 in the final group match held at the
Ganti Mohana Chandra (GMC) Balayogi Athletic Stadium (formerly known as Gachibowli
Athletic Stadium) in Hyderabad, Telangana. This marks the fourth edition of the
Intercontinental Cup, organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF). The
tournament featured a tri-nation series among the football teams of India, Syria, and
Mauritius.
Key Highlights:
• The 2024 tournament followed a round-robin format, with each team playing
against the others once, and the team with the most points declared the winner.
• Syria secured 6 points by defeating Mauritius 2-0 and India 3-0, finishing the
series with two victories.
• Both India and Mauritius ended the tournament without scoring any goals.
• India previously won the inaugural tournament in 2018, defeating Kenya 2-0, and
again in 2023, beating Lebanon 2-0.

4. What is the key feature of the FIFA World Cup 2026?
Option 1: Hosted in Brazil

Option 2: Featuring 52 teams
Option 3: Sponsored by Doritos
Option 4: Hosted across three countries
Answer: 4) Hosted across three countries
Explanation:
The key feature of the FIFA World Cup 2026 is that it will be hosted across three
countries: Canada, Mexico, and the United States of America. This marks the first
time in the history of the tournament that it will be hosted jointly across multiple
nations.
Context:
Lays Designated as Official Sponsor for FIFA World Cup 2026 & FIFA Womens
World Cup 2027:
Lays, a global snack brand owned by Frito-Lay, Inc., has been named the official
sponsor for the FIFA World Cup 2026 and the FIFA Women’s World Cup 2027.
This sponsorship expands on Frito-Lay's successful role as a Regional Supporter for the
FIFA World Cup Qatar 2022 and a Tournament Supporter for the FIFA Women’s World
Cup 2023.
Key Highlights:
• The FIFA World Cup 2026 will be the first edition to feature 48 teams and will
be hosted across three countries: Canada, Mexico, and the United
States.
• The FIFA Women’s World Cup 2027 is set to take place in Brazil.
• The sponsorship aims to engage fans with exclusive experiences, merchandise,
and consumer activations.
• Lays will introduce a "Fan of the Match" recognition at every match during both
tournaments, offering fans unique experiences.
• The partnership encompasses not only Lays but also other Frito-Lay brands such
as Doritos, Cheetos, Tostitos, Ruffles, Cracker Jack, PopCorners, Quaker, and
Gamesa.
Note: Frito-Lay, Inc., based in Texas, is a packaged snack food company and a
subsidiary of PepsiCo.
5. Who won the mens doubles title at the Hangzhou Open 2024?
Option 1: Constantin Frantzen and Hendrik Jebens

Option 2: Zhang Zhizhen and Vijay Sundar

Option 3: Jeevan Nedunchezhiyan and Vijay Sundar Prashanth

Option 4: Marin Cilic and Hendrik Jebens
Answer: 3) Jeevan Nedunchezhiyan and Vijay Sundar Prashanth
Explanation:
Jeevan Nedunchezhiyan and Vijay Sundar Prashanth, representing India, secured

the mens doubles title at the Hangzhou Open 2024 by defeating their German
counterparts in the final match. This victory marked their first ATP Tour title together as
a pair and also Vijay Sundar's inaugural ATP title, while Jeevan achieved his 2nd career
title.
Context:
Tennis: Indian Players Jeevan Nedunchezhiyan and Vijay Sundar Prashanth

Triumph at Hangzhou Open 2024:
Indian tennis players Jeevan Nedunchezhiyan and Vijay Sundar Prashanth

clinched the men's doubles title at the ATP 250 Hangzhou Open 2024, defeating
Germany's Constantin Frantzen and Hendrik Jebens in the final. In the men's singles
category, Marin Cilic of Croatia triumphed over China's Zhang Zhizhen, securing his first
tour-level title since 2021.
The Hangzhou Open 2024 was held from September 18 to 24, 2024, at the Hangzhou
Olympic Sports Expo Center in Hangzhou, China.
Key Points:
• This is the duo's first ATP Tour title together.

• It marks Vijay Sundar's first-ever ATP title and Jeevan’s second career title.
Jeevan’s first ATP doubles title was at the 2017 Chennai Open (Tamil Nadu) with
partner Rohan Bopanna.
• Marin Cilic became the lowest-ranked tournament winner in ATP Tour history,
securing victory while ranked No. 77.
Results:
• Men's Singles:
Winner: Marin Cilic (Croatia)
Runner-up: Zhang Zhizhen (China)
• Men's Doubles:
Winners: Jeevan Nedunchezhiyan and Vijay Sundar Prashanth (India)
Runners-up: Constantin Frantzen and Hendrik Jebens (Germany)
About ATP Hangzhou Open 2024:
• This was the inaugural edition of the Hangzhou Open, part of the ATP Tour 250
series for the 2024 ATP Tour.
• The tournament was played on outdoor hard courts.

About Association of Tennis Professionals (ATP):
• Chairman: Andrea Gaudenzi

• Headquarters: London, United Kingdom
• Founded: September 1972
6. In the inaugural Asia Pacific Padel Cup 2024, which team won the bronze
medal by defeating Malaysia?
Option 1: India
Option 2: Indonesia
Option 3: Philippines
Option 4: Singapore
Option 5: Thailand
Answer: 1) India
Explanation:
In the first edition of the Asia Pacific Padel Cup (APPC) 2024, India secured the
bronze medal by defeating Malaysia. The Indian team put up a strong performance,
winning key matches to claim the third position in the tournament held in Bali,
Indonesia.
Context:
India Secures Bronze Medal in the Inaugural Asia Pacific Padel Cup in Bali,
Indonesia:
The Indian team secured the bronze medal at the first-ever Asia Pacific Padel Cup
(APPC) 2024 by defeating Malaysia. The tournament was held from September 19th to
22nd, 2024, at Amare Padel Club Umalas in Bali, Indonesia. This marked India’s debut in
an international padel tournament and also the first padel competition between nations
in the Asia Pacific region. Indonesia claimed the gold medal, while the Philippines took
home the silver.
Key Highlights:
• Aryan Goveas and Rahul Motwani started India's bronze medal campaign with a
4-6, 6-4, 7-5 victory over Malaysia.
• Tulsi Mehta and Vaibhavi Deshmukh followed with a 6-2, 7-6 (1) win, while Jenai
Billimoria and Johan Fernandes secured a 6-0, 6-1 victory, making it 2-0 for India.
• The Indian team was led by Spanish head coach Victor Perez, supported by coach
Imran Yusoof and manager Rithik Sinha.
About Padel:
• Padel is a racquet sport that originated in Mexico, played on an enclosed court

slightly smaller than a doubles tennis court.

• The racquets are solid, while the balls resemble tennis balls but have slightly less
pressure.
• Each match is played in doubles, with the ball served at or below waist height.
About the Asia Pacific Padel Cup (APPC):
• The 2024 APPC was the inaugural edition of the tournament, starting with a
round-robin phase, followed by playoffs to determine final rankings.
• Each country was represented by five teams (three male and two female teams).
• Participating nations included India, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Hong
Kong (China), Thailand, and Singapore.
7. Who has been announced as the host city for the 2026 Commonwealth
Games?
Option 1: Victoria
Option 2: Hamilton
Option 3: New Delhi
Option 4: Glasgow
Option 5: Ontario
Answer: 4) Glasgow
Explanation:
Glasgow has been named as the host city for the 2026 Commonwealth Games
following Victoria's withdrawal. The city previously hosted the games in 2014, and the
Commonwealth Games Federation has pledged financial support for the event. This
selection marks the second time Glasgow will host the Commonwealth Games within a
12-year period, solidifying its position as a key host city for international sporting
events.
Context:
Glasgow Named Host City for 2026 Commonwealth Games:
Glasgow, the capital of Scotland, has been selected as the host city for the 2026
Commonwealth Games, the 23rd edition of the Commonwealth Games (CWG),
after the Australian state of Victoria decided to withdraw from hosting the games due to
projected exceeding expenditures. This will be the second time Glasgow hosts the event
in a span of 12 years, with the previous hosting taking place in 2014. The
Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF) has committed to providing financial support
of 100 million pounds, and the United Kingdom (UK) government has also agreed to
offer financial assistance.
About CWG: i. The Commonwealth Games is a quadrennial international multisport

event featuring athletes from the Commonwealth nations. The inaugural CWG was in
1930 in Hamilton, Ontario, Canada.

ii. India has hosted the CWG only once in 2010 in New Delhi, Delhi.
8. What role has Dwayne Bravo taken on with Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR)?
Option 1: Head Coach

Option 2: Chairman
Option 3: Mentor
Option 4: Bowling Coach
Answer: 3) Mentor
Explanation:
Dwayne Bravo has been appointed as the mentor for Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR),
succeeding Gautam Gambhir in this role. While Gambhir transitioned to the position of
head coach, Bravo's new responsibility with KKR involves mentoring the team and
contributing his expertise to various KKR franchises globally.
Context:
Retirement Announcement and Mentorship Role for Dwayne Bravo in Cricket:
West Indies cricketer Dwayne Bravo, a 40-year-old two-time Men’s Twenty20 (T20)
World Cup champion, has announced his retirement from all forms of cricket. Bravo
retired from international cricket in 2021, marking the end of a remarkable 21-year
career in the sport. His final game was cut short due to an injury during the 2024
Caribbean Premier League (CPL).
Dwayne Bravo Joins KKR as Mentor, Succeeding Gautam Gambhir:
The Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR), an Indian Premier League (IPL) franchise, has
appointed Dwayne Bravo as their new mentor, replacing Gautam Gambhir. Gambhir,
who had been with KKR since 2014, has taken on the role of head coach for the India
national cricket team for a three-year term, until 2027. Bravo, who previously served as
the bowling coach for Chennai Super Kings (CSK), will also support KKR's other global
franchises, including teams in the Caribbean Premier League (CPL), Major League
Cricket (MLC), and the International League Twenty20 (ILT20).
About Dwayne Bravo:
• Debut and Captaincy: Dwayne John Bravo made his One Day International (ODI)
debut in 2004 and his T20 International (T20I) debut in 2006. He was the West
Indies limited-overs captain from 2013 to 2014.
• Domestic Cricket: Bravo has represented Trinidad and Tobago in domestic
cricket since 2002.
• Key Achievements: He played a pivotal role in West Indies’ victories in the 2004
ICC Champions Trophy and the ICC T20 World Cups in 2012 and 2016. Bravo’s T20

career includes 582 matches, 631 wickets, and nearly 7,000 runs, with more
championship wins than any other cricketer.
IPL Career:
• IPL Titles: As part of the CSK team, Bravo won four IPL titles – in 2011, 2018, and
2021 as a player, and in 2023 as a coach. He also played for Mumbai Indians
(2008-2010) and Gujarat Lions (2016).
• Wicket Records: Bravo is the third-highest wicket-taker in IPL history, with 183
wickets, and the first player to win two Purple Caps, in 2013 and 2015.
9. During the 2024 Test series between India and Bangladesh, who won the
Player of the Series award?
Option 1: Rohit Sharma

Option 2: Najmul Hossain Shanto
Option 3: Yashasvi Jaiswal
Option 4: Ravindra Jadeja
Option 5: Ravichandran Ashwin
Answer: 5) Ravichandran Ashwin
Explanation:
During the 2024 Test series between India and Bangladesh, Ravichandran Ashwin
was awarded the Player of the Series for his outstanding performance with both the bat
and ball. He received a cash prize of Rs 2.5 Lakh and a trophy, marking his 11th Player-
of-the-Series award in Test cricket, matching Muttiah Muralitharan. Ashwin also broke
the record for the most Test wickets in Asia during this series, showcasing his
exceptional skills as a cricketer.
Context:
Recap of the Bangladesh Cricket Team's Tour of India for the 2024 Test Series:
The Bangladesh cricket team, led by captain Najmul Hossain Shanto, is touring India
in September and October 2024 to face the Indian team. The tour consists of two Test
matches and three Twenty20 Internationals (T20Is). The Indian Men's Cricket team,
captained by Rohit Sharma, triumphed in the two-match Test series against Bangladesh,
winning 2-0. This victory marks India's 180th win in Test history, securing their position
in fourth place on the list of most Test wins, following Australia (414), England (397),
and West Indies (183).
Test Series Results:
1. First Test Match:
◦ Date: 19th September 2024

◦ Venue: MA Chidambaram Stadium, Chennai, Tamil Nadu

◦ Result: India won by 280 runs

◦ Player of the Match: Ravichandran Ashwin (India)
2. Second Test Match:
◦ Date: 27th September 2024

◦ Venue: Green Park Stadium, Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
◦ Result: India won by 7 wickets
◦ Player of the Match: Yashasvi Jaiswal (India)
The Test series is part of the 2023-2025 International Cricket Council (ICC) World Test
Championship. Each player received a cash prize of ₹1 lakh along with a trophy.
Player of the Series:
• Ravichandran Ashwin was named Player of the Series for his outstanding
performance with both bat and ball in the two-match Test series against
Bangladesh. He received a cash prize of ₹2.5 lakh and a trophy, marking his 11th
Player of the Series award in Test cricket, tying with Muttiah Muralitharan of Sri
Lanka for the most such awards.
Ashwin's Record:
• In the second Test against Bangladesh, Ashwin claimed the wicket of Najmul
Hossain Shanto, bringing his total to 420 wickets in Asia. He has taken a total of
523 wickets in 102 Test matches, surpassing Anil Kumble's previous record of 419
wickets in Asia. Muttiah Muralitharan holds the overall record for the most Test
wickets in Asia, with 612 of his 800 total wickets.
• During the Test series, Ashwin also became the first player in the 147-year history
of Test cricket to achieve over 20 fifty-plus scores and 30 five-wicket hauls.
Ravindra Jadeja Milestone:
• Ravindra Jadeja became the seventh Indian bowler to take 300 Test wickets
during the match against Bangladesh. He achieved this milestone in his 74th
match, making him the second fastest to reach 300 wickets and 3,000 runs in Test
cricket, behind England's Ian Botham. Jadeja's career statistics include 2,756 runs
and 220 wickets in One-Day Internationals (ODIs), and 515 runs with 54 wickets in
T20 Internationals (T20Is).
Virat Kohli's Achievement:
• Virat Kohli became the fastest batsman to reach 27,000 international runs,
breaking Sachin Tendulkar's previous record during the second Test against
Bangladesh in Kanpur. Kohli accomplished this milestone in just 594 innings,
making him the only player in cricket history to surpass 27,000 international runs
in under 600 innings. Tendulkar had achieved this feat in 623 innings, while
former Sri Lankan captain Kumar Sangakkara reached it in 648 innings, and
Australian skipper Ricky Ponting in 650 innings.

10. How many runs did Mumbai score in their first innings during the 2024-25
Irani Cup final?
Option 1: 416 runs

Option 2: 329 runs
Option 3: 865 runs
Option 4: 537 runs
Option 5: 601 runs
Answer: 4) 537 runs
Explanation:
Mumbai scored a total of 537 runs in their first innings during the 2024-25 Irani Cup
final, which played a significant role in their victory over the Rest of India team. This
substantial score helped them establish a strong position in the match and ultimately
secure the title.
Context:
Summary of the 2024-25 Irani Cup: Mumbai's Victory and Achievements:
The Mumbai cricket team, led by captain Ajinkya Rahane, secured victory in
the 2024-25 Irani Cup, the 61st edition of India’s premier first-class cricket
tournament. They triumphed over the Rest of India team, captained by Ruturaj
Gaikwad, by virtue of their first-innings lead. This victory marks Mumbai's 15th Irani
Cup title and their first win since 1997.
Tournament Details:
• Date and Venue: The 2024-25 Irani Cup took place from October 1 to 5, 2024,
at the Bharat Ratna Atal Bihari Vajpayee Ekana Stadium in Lucknow, Uttar
Pradesh.
• Prizes: The Mumbai team received a cash prize of Rs 50 lakhs from the Board
of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), along with an additional Rs 1
crore from the Mumbai Cricket Association (MCA).
About the Irani Cup:
• The Irani Cup, officially known as the IDFC First Bank Irani Trophy for
sponsorship reasons, is an annual tournament organized by the BCCI.
• The tournament is contested between the Ranji Trophy champions and the
multi-state Rest of India team, which features players from various state teams.
• The inaugural edition was held in March 1960 to commemorate the 25th
anniversary of the Ranji Trophy.
Highlights of the 2024-25 Irani Cup:
• Mumbai clinched the tournament title on the final day by securing a first-innings
lead over Rest of India.

• A key contribution came from Tanush Kotian, whose century played a crucial
role in Mumbai's success.
• Mumbai scored 537 runs in their first innings and declared at 329/8 in 78 overs,
while restricting Rest of India to a total of 416 runs.
• Sarfaraz Khan from Mumbai was named the Player of the Match.
11. Chief Minister Nitish Kumar of Bihar unveiled the logo and mascot,
named _______, for the Women's Asian Champions Trophy 2024.
Option 1: Ladli
Option 2: Balika
Option 3: Gudiya
Option 4: Hridoy
Answer: 3) Gudiya
Explanation:
Chief Minister Nitish Kumar of Bihar unveiled the logo and mascot, named Gudiya,
for the Women's Asian Champions Trophy 2024, which is set to take place
from November 11 to 20, 2024, in Rajgir, Bihar. The Bihar cabinet has allocated Rs
10 crore to Hockey India for hosting the championship.
Context:
Logo and Mascot for Women's Asian Champions Trophy-2024 Unveiled by

Bihar's CM Nitish Kumar:
Chief Minister Nitish Kumar of Bihar unveiled the logo and mascot, named Gudiya,
for the Women's Asian Champions Trophy 2024, which is set to take place
from November 11 to 20, 2024, in Rajgir, Bihar. The Bihar cabinet has allocated Rs
10 crore to Hockey India for hosting the championship.
About the Mascot Gudiya
• Meaning:
"Gudiya" is a term of endearment for young girls in Bihar.
• Inspiration:
The mascot is inspired by the house sparrow, an endangered species and the
state bird of Bihar, symbolizing resilience, strength, and natural heritage.
• Symbolism:
Gudiya holds a hockey stick, representing the sport, while the goalkeeping glove
and nearby hockey ball signify strategy and teamwork, highlighting the
government's commitment to women's empowerment.

About the Logo
• Design Elements:
The logo features the Bodhi tree alongside a hockey stick.
• Symbolism:
The Bodhi tree represents knowledge, power, harmony, tolerance, and
development, connecting people to Bihar's rich spiritual and cultural history, while
the hockey stick signifies India's national sport.
About the Women's Asian Champions Trophy 2024
• Overview:
The 2024 Women's Asian Champions Trophy marks the 8th edition of this
biennial field hockey tournament, featuring the six best Asian women's national
teams.
• Organization:
The event is organized by Hockey India and the Bihar Government with
support from the Asian Hockey Federation (AHF).
• Venue and Dates:

The tournament will be held at the newly developed Rajgir Hockey Stadium in
Rajgir, Bihar, from November 11 to 20, 2024.
• Participating Countries:
Teams include India (host and defending champion), China, Thailand, Malaysia,
South Korea, and Japan. India previously won the championship
in 2016 and 2023.
12. Who was named the Player of the Tournament in the 2024 SAFF U-17
Championship?
Option 1: Mohammedd Arbash

Option 2: Aheibam Suraj Singh
Option 3: Abdul Khan
Option 4: Mustafa Ahmed
Option 5: Harish Rao
Answer: 1) Mohammedd Arbash
Explanation:
Mohammedd Arbash from India was recognized as the Player of the Tournament in
the 2024 SAFF U-17 Championship for his outstanding performance throughout the
competition. This award signifies his exceptional skills and contribution to the team's
success, highlighting his talent and impact on the field during the tournament.
Context:

Recap: India Clinches SAFF U-17 Championship 2024 in Bhutan:
India's Under-17 men's football team, known as the Blue Colts, secured the 2024
South Asian Football Federation (SAFF) U-17 Championship title by
defeating Bangladesh 2-0 in the final held at Changlimithang Stadium in Thimphu,
Bhutan. This victory marks India’s sixth SAFF championship title, following previous
wins in 2013, 2017, 2019, 2022, and 2023.
Championship Details
• Edition:
The 2024 SAFF U-17 Championship is the ninth edition of this international
competition for men's U-17 national teams.
Notable Achievements
• Player of the Tournament:

Mohammedd Arbash from India was awarded Player of the Tournament.
• Goalkeeper of the Tournament:

Aheibam Suraj Singh from India received the title of Goalkeeper of the
Tournament.
Participating Teams
Seven teams participated in the 2024 Men's SAFF U-17 Championships:
• India
• Bangladesh
• Maldives
• Nepal
• Sri Lanka
• Pakistan
13. What was Dipa Karmakar's historical accomplishment at the 2016 Summer
Olympics in Rio de Janeiro?
Option 1: She won a gold medal in the vault event.

Option 2: She secured the gold medal in the balance beam competition.
Option 3: She became the first Indian female gymnast to compete in the Olympics.
Option 4: She attained the gold medal in the floor exercise.
Answer: 3) She became the first Indian female gymnast to compete in the Olympics.
Explanation:
In 2016, at the Summer Olympics in Rio de Janeiro, Dipa Karmakar made history by
becoming the first Indian female gymnast to compete in the Olympics. While
she did not win a medal, her achievement was significant as it broke barriers and

paved the way for future Indian gymnasts to participate on the world's biggest sporting
stage.
Context:
Renowned Indian Gymnast Dipa Karmakar Declares Retirement:
Dipa Karmakar, India’s first female gymnast to compete in the Olympics, has
announced her retirement from professional competition at the age of 31, after a 25-
year-long career in gymnastics.
About Dipa Karmakar:
• 2014 Commonwealth Games: Karmakar won a bronze medal in Glasgow, UK,

becoming the first Indian female gymnast to medal at the Commonwealth Games.
• Asian Championships & World Championships: She earned a bronze at the
Asian Championships and placed 5th at the 2015 World Championships in
Glasgow—both firsts for an Indian gymnast.
• 2016 Rio Olympics: Dipa made history as the first Indian female gymnast to
compete in the Olympics, finishing 4th in the vault. She also became the first
Indian gymnast in 52 years to compete at the Olympics and the 5th woman in
gymnastics history to successfully perform the Produnova vault.
• Artistic Gymnastics World Cup: In 2018, Dipa won gold at the World Cup in
Turkiye, becoming the first Indian gymnast to secure a global gold medal. She also
earned a bronze in Cottbus, Germany, the same year.
• Asian Championships: Dipa claimed gold at the 2021 Asian Gymnastics
Championships in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, and followed it with another gold in the
vault at the 2024 Asian Women’s Artistic Gymnastics Championships, making her
the first Indian to win at the continental level.
Awards:
• Padma Shri (Sports): 2017

• Arjuna Award (Gymnastics): 2015
• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: 2016
14. How many bronze medals did India win at the ITTF Asian Table Tennis
Championships 2024?
Option 1: 1
Option 2: 2
Option 3: 3
Option 4: 4
Option 5: 5
Answer: 3) 3
Explanation:

India won a total of 3 bronze medals at the ITTF Asian Table Tennis Championships
2024. These medals were achieved in the Women's doubles, Women's team, and Men's
team events. The bronze medals signify India's commendable performance in the
championship across different categories.
Context:
Recap of India's Performance at ITTF Asian Table Tennis Championships 2024:
The Indian table tennis contingent secured three bronze medals and placed seventh
in the medal tally at the 27th edition of the International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF)
Asian Table Tennis Championships 2024, held from October 7 to 13 at the Beeline Arena
in Astana, Kazakhstan. Japan led the medal count with a total of eight medals (three
gold, two silver, and three bronze), followed by China with five medals (two gold, two
silver, and one bronze), and North Korea with three medals (one gold, one silver, and
one bronze).
List of Indian Medal Winners:
• Ayhika Mukherjee and Sutirtha Mukherjee: Women's Doubles - Bronze

• Manika Batra, Ayhika Mukherjee, and Sutirtha Mukherjee: Women's Team -
Bronze
• Achanta Sharath Kamal, Manav Thakkar, and Harmeet Desai: Men's Team -
Bronze
Highlights:
• Ayhika Mukherjee & Sutirtha Mukherjee: The pair, ranked 15th in women's
doubles, earned bronze in the Women's Doubles category, marking India's first
medal in this event at the Asian Table Tennis Championships. They were defeated
by Japan's Miwa Harimoto and Miyuu Kihara (ranked 33rd) in the semifinals,
making them the first Indian women's doubles team to win a medal at this
competition. Notably, Gool Nasikwala won gold in the inaugural 1952 tournament
alongside Japan's Yoshiko Tanaka.
• In 2023, Ayhika and Sutirtha became the first Indians to win the women's doubles
title at the WTT Contender Tunis in Tunisia and previously secured a bronze medal
in women's doubles at the 2023 Asian Games in Hangzhou, China.
India’s Performance in Team Events:
• The Indian women's team, comprising Sreeja Akula, Manika Batra, Sutirtha
Mukherjee, Ayhika Mukherjee, and Diya Chitale, clinched bronze in the women's
team event after losing 1-3 to Japan in the semifinals. This marks India’s first
medal in the women's team event since the Asian Table Tennis Union (ATTU)
began organizing the competition in 1972.
• The Indian men's team, featuring Sharath Kamal, Manav Thakkar, Sathiyan
Gnanasekaran, Harmeet Desai, and Manush Shah, also secured bronze in the
men's team event, marking their third consecutive bronze medal in this category.

About the ITTF Asian Table Tennis Championships:
• The Asian Table Tennis Championships is a biennial tournament recognized as a

continental championship by the International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF). The
event was organized by the Table Tennis Federation of Asia from 1952 to 1972,
and since 1972, it has been managed by the Asian Table Tennis Union (ATTU).
About the International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF):
• President: Petra Sorling

• Headquarters: Lausanne, Switzerland
• Founded: 1926
15. The Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI), in collaboration with the
International Kho Kho Federation, has announced that India will host the
inaugural Kho Kho World Cup in _______.
Option 1: 2026
Option 2: 2027
Option 3: 2028
Option 4: 2025
Option 5: 2030
Answer: 4) 2025
Explanation:
The Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI), in collaboration with the International Kho Kho
Federation, has announced that India will host the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup
in 2025. This tournament will feature 16 men's and women's teams representing 24
countries across six continents.
Context:
India to Host Inaugural Kho Kho World Cup in 2025, Featuring Teams from 24
Countries:
The Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI), in collaboration with the International Kho Kho
Federation, has announced that India will host the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup
in 2025. This tournament will feature 16 men's and women's teams representing 24
countries across six continents.
• Objective: The Kho Kho World Cup 2025 aims to elevate this indigenous Indian
sport to an international platform, fostering unity among nations, promoting
cultural exchange, and showcasing the beauty and intensity of Kho Kho globally.
• Format: The tournament will consist of a week-long series of matches,

showcasing top-tier athletes from around the world as they demonstrate their
skills, agility, and teamwork.

Future Aspirations: The KKFI aims to secure Kho Kho's inclusion in the 2032
• Olympic Games.
16. What significant achievement did Rafael Nadal accomplish by the age of 24,
making him unique in tennis history?
Option 1: He completed the Career Golden Slam and won Olympic gold in both singles and
doubles.
Option 2: He became the world No. 1 for the first time in 2008.
Option 3: He became the world No. 1 for the first time in 2007.
Option 4: He won the most French Open titles by the age of 24.
Answer: 1) He completed the Career Golden Slam and won Olympic gold in both
singles and doubles.
Explanation:
Rafael Nadal is the only male player to have achieved the Career Golden Slam, which
includes winning all four Grand Slam tournaments and the Olympic gold medal in
singles. He did this by winning his first Olympic gold in singles in 2008 and the
Grand Slam titles, thus distinguishing himself in tennis history.
Context:
Rafael Nadal's Retirement Announcement and Career Highlights:
Rafael Nadal's Retirement Announcement
Rafael Nadal, the renowned Spanish tennis player, aged 38, has declared that he will
retire from professional tennis at the conclusion of 2024. His final appearance will be
at the Davis Cup 2024, set for November 2024 in Malaga, Spain.
Overview of Rafael Nadal's Career
1. Nadal began his professional journey in 2001 at the young age of 15.
2. He has an impressive portfolio, having won 92 Singles career titles, including 22
Grand Slams, 11 doubles, and 6 team titles.
3. He first reached world No. 1 in 2008, notable for defeating Roger Federer in the
Wimbledon final of that year.
4. At 24, he achieved the Career Golden Slam, becoming the youngest male to do so.
5. He also holds the distinction of being the only player to not only accomplish the
Career Golden Slam but also to win Olympic gold in both singles and doubles.
6. In 2010, he completed the Surface Slam by winning major titles across three
different surfaces in one year.
7. He dominates the Monte-Carlo and Barcelona ATP tour events with 11 and 12
titles, respectively.
Olympic Achievements

1. He secured the gold medal in Men's Singles at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
2. He partnered with Marc Lopez to win his second gold medal in men's doubles at
the 2016 Rio Olympics.
Major Titles
4 Davis Cups (2004, 2009, 2011, 2019).

22 Grand Slam Singles titles, with significant victories listed:
* Australian Open: 2009, 2022
* French Open: (2005-2008, 2010-2014, 2017-2020, 2022)
* Wimbledon: 2008, 2010
* US Open: 2010, 2013, 2017, 2019
Note: As of 2024, Nadal holds the record for the most French Open titles, achieving a
total of 14.
Awards and Honors
1. ITF World Champion: 2008, 2010, 2017, 2019, 2022.

2. ATP Player of the Year: 2008, 2010, 2013, 2017, 2019.
3. Laureus World Sports Award for Breakthrough of the Year in 2006.
4. Laureus World Sports Award for Sportsman of the Year: 2011, 2021.
5. Laureus World Sports Award for Comeback of the Year in 2014.
6. BBC Sports Personality World Sport Star of the Year in 2010.
7. Stefan Edberg Sportsmanship Award: 2010, 2018-2021.
17. What was India's final position in the medal tally of the ISSF World Cup Final
2024?
Option 1: 1st place with 8 medals

Option 2: 9th place with 4 medals
Option 5: 3rd place with 6 medals
Answer: 2) 9th place with 4 medals
Explanation:
India finished 9th on the medal tally with a total of 4 medals, which included 2
Silver and 2 Bronze.
Context:
India's Performance in ISSF World Cup Final 2024:
India finished 9th on the medal tally of the ISSF World Cup Final Rifle / Pistol /
Shotgun 2024 with a total of 4 medals (2 Silver and 2 Bronze).

Medal Tally Overview:

1. China - 8 medals (5 Gold, 3 Bronze)
2. Italy - 5 medals (1 Gold, 3 Silver, 1 Bronze)
3. Germany - 3 medals (1 Gold, 2 Silver)
4. France - 4 medals (1 Gold, 1 Silver, 2 Bronze)
5. Hungary - 2 medals (1 Gold, 1 Silver)
9. India - 4 medals (0 Gold, 2 Silver, 2 Bronze)
Event Details:
The ISSF World Cup took place from 13th to 18th October 2024 at the Dr Karni
Singh Range, New Delhi, hosting the event for the 2nd time, previously held in
2017.
Indian Medal Winners:

Sonam Maskar - Won silver in Women's 10m Air Rifle
Vivaan Kapoor - Won silver in Men’s Trap
Akhil Sheoran - Won bronze in 50m Rifle 3 Positions
Anantjeet Singh Naruka - Won bronze in Men’s Skeet
Event Highlights:
Sonam Maskar secured silver, making it her third medal at the ISSF World Cup, while
the 2024 Paris Olympic medalist, Yuting Huang of China, took gold. Vivaan Kapoor
won silver in Men’s Trap with 44 points, and Akhil Sheoran claimed bronze in the
50m Rifle 3 Position final. Meanwhile, Anantjeet Singh Naruka earned bronze in
Men’s Skeet with 43 points.
About ISSF World Cup:

The ISSF World Cup, established in 1986 in Mexico City, is an Olympic shooting event
organized by the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF). The event has
been held every alternate year since 2017.
Prize Money Distribution:
• Gold: 5000 Euro

• Silver: 4000 Euro
• Bronze: 2000 Euro
About ISSF:
The ISSF, founded in 1907 and headquartered in Munich, Germany, is the global
governing body for Olympic shooting events, led by President Luciano Rossi*.
18. What significant achievement did New Zealand's Women's Cricket team
accomplish in the ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024?
Option 1: They won the tournament by defeating South Africa by 32 runs.

Option 2: They finished in fourth place.
Option 3: They hosted the tournament in their home country.
Option 4: They lost to Australia in the final.
Option 5: They won the tournament by defeating South Africa by 61 runs.

Answer: 1) They won the tournament by defeating South Africa by 32 runs.
Explanation:
New Zealand Women's Cricket team secured their first ICC Women's T20 World Cup title
by defeating South Africa in the finals.
Context:
New Zealand's Historic Win at the ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024:
In a historic match, New Zealand's Women's Cricket team won their first-ever
International Cricket Council (ICC) Women's Twenty20 (T20) World Cup title.
They achieved this by defeating South Africa's Women's cricket team by 32 runs
in the finals held at Dubai International Cricket Stadium, United Arab Emirates
(UAE).
Match Details: New Zealand scored 158-5 while South Africa was restricted to 126-9 in
their 20 overs.
This title marks New Zealand's first victory since their One Day International (ODI)
World Cup win in 2000.
Tournament Information: The tournament was the 7th edition of the 9th ICC
Women's T20 Cricket World Cup, running from October 3 to 20, 2024, in Dubai and
Sharjah.
The New Zealand team, known as the Kiwis, was captained by Sophie Devine, while
the South Africa team, referred to as the Proteas, was led by Laura Wolvaardt.
Cash Prize & Awards: Winning Team (New Zealand): USD 2.34 million (Rs 19.6 crore)
Runners-up (South Africa): USD 1.17 million (Rs 9.8 crore)
Player of the Tournament (POT): Amelia Kerr (New Zealand)
Player of the Match (Finals): Amelia Kerr
Key Highlights: 1. Amelia Kerr made history as the 1st player to win both the POT
and POM in the Women's T20 World Cup, scoring 43 off 38 balls in the finals.
• * She amassed 135 runs in 6 innings with an average of 27 and took 15

wickets in the tournament.
• * This record surpassed Anya Shrubsole of England and Megan Schutt of
Australia, who previously held a record of 13 wickets.
2. Suzie Bates became the most-capped player in international matches with 334
appearances, breaking Mithali Raj's record of 333.
Overview of ICC Women's T20 World Cup: The ICC Women's T20 World Cup is
organized biennially and is the premier championship for women's T20 International
cricket.
• The inaugural tournament was held in England in 2009.

• As of 2024, Australia stands as the most successful team with 6 titles (2010,
2012, 2014, 2018, 2020, 2023).
• The 10th edition is set to be hosted by England in 2026.

19. Who were inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame as the Class of 2024?
Option 1: Shane Warne, Brian Lara, Jacques Kallis

Option 2: Sachin Tendulkar, Virat Kohli, Ricky Ponting
Option 3: Neetu David, Abraham de Villiers, Sir Alastair Cook
Option 4: Kapil Dev, Imran Khan, Wasim Akram
Option 5: Muttiah Muralitharan, Glenn McGrath, Brian Lara
Answer: 3) Neetu David, Abraham de Villiers, Sir Alastair Cook
Explanation:
The news states that Neetu David, Abraham de Villiers, and Sir Alastair Cook
were inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame as the Class of 2024, making option 1 the
correct answer.
Context:
Induction of Cricket Legends into ICC Hall of Fame 2024:
Induction of Cricket Legends into ICC Hall of Fame 2024
• Members Inducted:
* Neetu Lawrence David, former Indian spinner
* Abraham Benjamin de Villiers, legendary South African cricketer
* Sir Alastair Nathan Cook, former captain of the England cricket team
These players were inducted into the International Cricket Council (ICC) Hall of
Fame as the Class of 2024. With this, Cook, David, and de Villiers became the 113th,
114th, and 115th inductees, respectively.
• Ceremony Venue: The event will take place in Dubai, UAE, coinciding with the
conclusion of the Women’s T20 World Cup 2024.
About Neetu Lawrence David:
• She is the 2nd woman from India and 10th Indian overall to be inducted into the
ICC Hall of Fame, following Diana Fram Edulji's 2023 induction.
• David made her international debut at age 17 in a Test match against New
Zealand in 1995.
• She played over 100 matches (10 Tests and 97 ODIs) for the Indian women's
cricket team from 1995 to 2008.
• David is the 2nd highest wicket-taker for India in women's ODI cricket, with
141 wickets and was the 1st female Indian cricketer to take 100 ODI
wickets.
• In 1995, she achieved fame for her bowling performance against England, taking
8 wickets for 53 runs.
• David retired in 2008 with a bowling average of 16.34, the best among bowlers
(male or female) with at least 100 ODI wickets.

About Abraham Benjamin de Villiers:
• Known as Mr. 360 for his versatile batting, he is the 8th South African cricketer to
be inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame.
• De Villiers retired from cricket in 2021, having scored more than 20,000
international runs across all formats in a 14-year career.
• He holds several records in ODIs, including the fastest 50 (16 balls) and the
fastest century* (31 balls).
About Sir Alastair Nathan Cook:
• With 12,472 runs in 161 Test matches, Cook is noted as one of the greatest
opening batsmen in Test history and the 33rd English player inducted into the ICC
Hall of Fame.
• He played a pivotal role in England’s significant victories, including the 2010-11
Ashes and the 2012 Test series in India.
• Cook ranks among the top 6 highest run-scorers in cricket history and retired in
2018* as England's all-time leading run scorer.
About ICC:
• * Chairman: Greg Barclay

• * CEO: Geoffrey John Allardice
• * Headquarters: Dubai, UAE
• * Established: 1909
20. Who won the WR Chess Masters Cup 2024?
Option 1: Arjun Erigaisi

Option 2: Maxime Vachier-Lagrave
Option 3: Nodirbek Abdusattorov
Option 4: Alireza Firouzja
Option 5: Viswanathan Anand
Answer: 1) Arjun Erigaisi
Explanation:
Arjun Erigaisi won the WR Chess Masters Cup 2024 by defeating Maxime Vachier-
Lagrave in the finals.
Context:
Arjun Erigaisi Wins WR Chess Masters Cup 2024:
Arjun Erigaisi, an Indian Chess Grandmaster (GM), secured victory in the WR Chess
Masters Cup 2024 by defeating French GM Maxime Vachier-Lagrave. The
tournament took place from October 14th to 18th, 2024, at the Langham Hotel,
London, UK.

Tournament Rankings:
1st: Arjun Erigaisi (India) - 2797 points
2nd: Nodirbek Abdusattorov (Uzbekistan) - 2783 points
3rd: Alireza Firouzja (France) - 2767 points
4th: Viswanathan Anand (India) - 2751 points
5th: Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa (India) - 2746 points
Tournament Format:
The WR Chess Masters Cup is a 16-player single-elimination knockout tournament, with
matches comprising two games.
Prize Money:
• 1st: Arjun Erigaisi - €20,000

• 2nd: Nodirbek Abdusattorov - €10,000
• 3rd: Alireza Firouzja - €5,000
Match Highlights:
1. In the final, Maxime Vachier-Lagrave had 10 minutes with white pieces, while Arjun
had the black pieces with draw odds after bidding 6 minutes and 58 seconds. In
Armageddon, the white pieces have more time, but if the game draws, black wins.
2. To reach the final, Arjun defeated Bodhana Sivanandan (England), Vidit Gujrathi
(India), and Praggnanandhaa Rameshbabu (India).
3. With this victory, Arjun achieved a live rating of 2797 and a live ranking of 4.
About Arjun Erigaisi:
• Hailing from Telangana, he obtained his International Master title in 2017 and
became a Grandmaster in 2018 at age 14.
• He was part of the Indian team that won gold at the 45th Chess Olympiad in
Budapest in September 2024 and also secured an individual gold medal on board
three.
• He previously won silver on board three at the 44th Chess Olympiad held in
Chennai, Tamil Nadu in 2022.
• Arjun is the 2nd Indian after Viswanathan Anand to exceed 2800 Elo rating
after defeating Russian GM Dmitry Andreikin in the 5th round of the European
Chess Club Cup, achieving a live rating of 2802.1.
Conclusion:
Arjun Erigaisi is now the 16th player worldwide to surpass the 2800 Elo rating and
has made a significant mark in the chess world.
21. Who won the 2024 Formula 1 United States Grand Prix?
Option 1: Max Verstappen (Netherlands)

Option 2: Carlos Sainz (Spain)
Option 3: Charles Leclerc (Monaco)
Option 4: Kimi Raikkonen (Finland)
Option 5: Lando Norris (United Kingdom)

Answer: 3) Charles Leclerc (Monaco)
Explanation:
Charles Leclerc won the 2024 Formula 1 United States Grand Prix, marking his third
title of the season.
Context:
2024 Formula 1 United States Grand Prix Highlights:
2024 Formula 1 United States Grand Prix Highlights
• Date: 20th October 2024

• * Location: Circuit of The Americas, Austin, Texas, USA
Race Results:
1. Charles Leclerc (Monaco) - Ferrari
2. Carlos Sainz (Spain) - Ferrari
3. Max Verstappen (Netherlands) - Red Bull Racing Honda RBPT
Key Facts:
• This victory is Leclerc's 3rd title of the 2024 season (previous wins: Italy GP,
Monaco GP).
• It marks Ferrari's first US GP victory since 2018, previously won by Kimi
Raikkonen.
• The 2024 US GP was the 19th round* of the Formula One World Championship.
Current Drivers Standings:

Max Verstappen leads the standings, followed by Lando Norris in 2nd, and Charles
Leclerc* in 3rd.
About Charles Leclerc:
• Achievements: 8 race wins, 26 pole positions, 9 fastest laps, 40 podiums.

• Formula One debut: 2018, joined Ferrari in 2019._
• Notable title: Won his first GP title at the Bahrain Grand Prix in 2022*.
About the US Grand Prix:
• Inscription: Established in 1908 as the American Grand Prize at Savannah,

Georgia.
• Total held: 52 times at 10 different locations.
• Since 2012, hosted annually at the Circuit of the Americas in Austin, Texas.

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Personalized PDF material just for Boya!!!

Questions & Answers from Oct. 01, 2024

Curated for: Boya

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Questions & Answers from Oct. 01, 2024 to

Option 1: To promote recycling initiatives.

Answer: 3) To combat global warming and encourage tree planting.

Launch of Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam App by Union Minister Jyotiraditya M. Scindia:

Union Minister Jyotiraditya M. Scindia, representing the Ministry of Communications

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Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam Campaign:

2. What is the primary goal of the Jal Hi AMRIT scheme?

Option 1: Encouraging the reuse of plastics

Answer: 2) Promoting effective water management

Introduction of a New Government Scheme - Jal Hi AMRIT:

About Jal Hi AMRIT:

1. The government is prioritizing the recycling and processing of water, focusing on

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Option 1: Gramothan Yojana

Answer: 2) Chief Minister (CM) Udyamshala Yojana

Renaming of Key Schemes by Uttarakhand CM to Enhance Rural

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1. The Rural Enterprise Acceleration Project (REAP) has been

• Chief Minister: Pushkar Singh Dhami

4. Which of the following is correct about the PM Internship Scheme?

Answer: 5) Only 2) and 3)

The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) is partnering with the Ministry of

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Key Features of the PM Internship Scheme

Collaboration for the Prime Minister's Internship Scheme 2024:

The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) is partnering with the Ministry of

Key Features of the PM Internship Scheme

◦ The scheme targets high school graduates and holders of undergraduate

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• Start Date: Internships will commence on December 2, 2024.

Objectives of the Scheme

Eligibility for Companies

To participate in the PM Internship Scheme, companies must:

• Maintain a consistent CSR expenditure over the past three years.

Recent Related Developments

Union Minister of State (MoS) Jayant Chaudhary has launched an

5. What is the main objective of the CM-SATH Scheme launched in Tripura?

Option 1: To offer free textbooks to students

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Answer: 3) To support meritorious students for higher education

Launch of CM-SATH Scheme in Tripura to Support Talented Students for

Option 1: To increase domestic oil production to 200 million tonnes.

Answer: 4) Both 2) and 3)

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Key Highlights of the Mission:

Key Highlights of the Mission:

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5. Support will be provided to FPOs, cooperatives, and industry players to establish

7. What is the unique health identification assigned to every individual under

Option 1: ABHA Number

Answer: 1) ABHA Number

A Comprehensive Overview of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission's 3-Year