MT 104: Cytogenetics 1st Exam - Topic 1 & 2

1. Which of the following is the basic fundamental unit of a human body?

a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Cell
d. Chromosome
Ans: C

2. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Nucleus

a. It complexed with an array of acidic and basic proteins
b. During interphase, fibers coil and condense into chromosomes
c. During interphase, fibers are uncoiled and dispersed into chromosomes
d. It is a membrane bound structure only found in eukaryotes
Ans: B

3. AB and Rh antigens found on the surface of RBCs are located on which cellular
structure?
a. Glycocalyx
b. Cell wall
c. Plasma membrane
d. Nuclear membrane
Ans: A

4. This organelle is responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis

a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Nucleus
d. Nucleolus
Ans: D

5. This cellular component in prokaryotes contains the genetic material or DNA.

a. Nucleus
b. Nucleolus
c. Nucleoid
d. Nuclein
Ans: C

6. All of these organelles contain a distinct form of DNA, except:

a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Chloroplast
 d. Ribosome
Ans: D

7. These cytoplasmic bodies are associated with the organization of spindle fibers that
function in mitosis and meiosis
a. centromere
b. centrosome
c. chromosome
d. chromatid
Ans: B

8. Which of the following is incorrect regarding chromosomes?

a. The location of the constricted region establishes the general appearance of
each chromosome.
b. The genetic information contained in a haploid set of chromosomes constitute the
genome of the species
c. All 23 chromosomes exist in homologous pairs
d. The shorter arm shown above the constricted region is called the p arm
Ans: C

9. Which of the following statements best describes the process of karyokinesis?

a. Karyokinesis involves the replication and accurate partitioning of genetic material
into daughter cells.
b. Karyokinesis is a simple process that involves the division of the cytoplasm into
two parts.
c. Karyokinesis is a straightforward process that does not require precision.
d. Karyokinesis primarily involves the replication of organelles within the cell.

Ans: A

10. In the Designations based on centromere location, If Metacentric: Middle ; Acrocentric:

__?
a. Between middle and end
b. At end
c. Close to end
d. Middle
Ans: C

11. This refers to the phase in the cell cycle where growth and DNA replication occur.
a. Interphase
b. M phase
c. Prophase
d. G0 phase
Ans: A
 12. Which part of the cell cycle was shown to show much variability in time spent?
a. S phase
b. M phase
c. G1 phase
d. G2 phase
Ans: C

13. -16 In correct order, indicate the series of events that occur in Mitosis
a. Chromosomes condense; centrioles move apart
b. Centrioles reach the opposite poles and spindle fibers form
c. Daughter chromosomes arrive at poles; cytokinesis occurs
d. Centromeres split and daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles
Ans: A
14. B
15. D
16. C

17. It is said that half of mitosis is spent in this stage of cellular division
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
Ans: A

18. Chromosomal migration is made possible by binding of spindle fibers to what structure
found on the sister chromatids?
a. Cohesin
b. Kinetochore
c. Shugoshin
d. Microtubule
Ans: B

19. What enzyme degrades Cohesin, thereby allowing the sister chromatids to disjoin?
a. Cohesinase
b. Cohesase
c. Separanase
d. Separase
Ans: D

20. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the events of prophase 1

a. Each synapsed pair of homologs is initially called a bivalent
b. the point where nonsister chromatids have undergone genetic exchange is called
a chiasmata
 c. During the final period of prophase I, the nucleolus and nuclear envelope
breakdown
d. All are correct
Ans: D

21. Which of the following is essential if each gamete or spore is to receive only one
chromatid from each original tetrad?
a. Meiosis I
b. Meiosis II
c. Mitosis I
d. Mitosis II
Ans: B

22. Which of the following best describes the products of meiosis?

a. 2 diploid daughter cells
b. 4 diploid daughter cells
c. 4 haploid daughter cells
d. 6 haploid daughter cells
Ans: C

23. During which phase of meiosis does crossing over usually occur?
a. Prophase I
b. Metaphase I
c. Prophase II
d. Metaphase II
Ans: A

24. True or false: Spermatogenesis is a continuous process that creates daughter cells with
equal parts of the cytoplasm
a. True
b. False
Ans: A

25. True or false: Meiotic division of all oocytes begins in the embryonic ovary but arrests in
prophase II, and resumes in each oocyte prior to ovulation
a. True
b. False
Ans: B

26. When does an unequal division of cytoplasm occur?

a. During meiosis in the apical meristem
b. During the division of Sertoli cells into spermatozoa
c. During binary fission of eukaryotic cells
d. During meiosis in the human ovary
 Ans: D

27. How many autosomes are there in a human sperm?

a. 28
b. 22
c. 23
d. 46
Ans: B

28. Where does protein synthesis take place?

a. in the ribosomes in the nucleus of the cell
b. on the ribosomes in the cytoplasm of the cell
c. in the chromosomes in the nucleus of the cell
d. on the chromosomes in the cytoplasm of the cell
Ans: B

29. Hybridization experiments of Gregor Mendel were started in what year?

a. 1843
b. 1851
c. 1856
d. 1884
Ans: C

30. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Pisum sativum?

a. Easy to grow and hybridiza artificially
b. Inability to self fertilize in nature
c. Easy to cross-breed experimentally
d. Grows into maturity in only a single season
Ans: B

31. In monohybrid crosses, the first filial generation would most likely show which trait?
a. Seed shape: wrinkled
b. Pod shape: constricted
c. Flower color: violet
d. Flower position terminal
Ans: C

32. Mendel coined this word as the basic units of heredity and are passed unchanged from
generation to generation
a. Unit factor
b. Gene factor
c. Phenotype
d. Trait
Ans: A
33. Which postulate is being referred to in the following statement? ”During the formation of
gametes, the paired unit factors separate, or segregate, randomly so that each gamete
receives one or the other with equal likelihood”
a. Unit factors in pairs
b. Dominance/ Recessiveness
c. Segregation
d. Independent assortment
Ans: C

34. In terms of seed color, what are the possible genetic combinations created from mating a
homozygous green pea to a homozygous yellow pea?
a. yellow, yellow, green, green
b. green, green, green, yellow
c. green, green, green, green
d. yellow, yellow, yellow, green
Ans: D

35. In a testcross experiment, crossing a homozygous dwarf with an unknown genotype

yielded ½ tall and ½ dwarf offsprings. What is the most probable genotype of the one in
question?
a. Homozygous tall
b. Heterozygous tall
c. Homozygous dwarf
d. none of the above
Ans: B

36. What does the notation Tt mean in cytogenetics?

a. Two dominant alleles
b. Two recessive alleles
c. at least one recessive allele
d. 1 dominant and 1 recessive allele
Ans: D

37. What is the phenotypic ratio assigned to dihybrid crosses?

a. 3:1
b. 1:1
c. 9:3:3:1
d. 4:4:4:4
Ans: C

38. Your answer to the question above is evident in which filial generation?
a. F1
b. F2
 c. F3
d. F4
Ans: B

39. In a fruit fly experiment, grey body, normal winged (homozygous dominant) fruit flies
were mated with black body, short winged (homozygous recessive) fruit flies. The F1
dihybrid females were then used in a test cross. If the genes are always linked and no
crossing over occurs, what would be the predicted ratio in the F2 generation?
a. 9:3:3:1
b. 1:1:1:1
c. 3:1
d. 1:1
Ans: D

40. Which of the following statements refer to Mendel’s law of independent assortment?
a. Allele pairs separate during gamete formation and recombine during fertilization.
b. Allele pairs for different genes separate independently during gamete formation.
c. Unlinked alleles are assorted with a 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio in a dihybrid cross.
d. Allele pairs for the same gene are assorted independently during gamete
formation.
Ans: B

41. In fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) grey body is dominant to black body and long
wings are dominant to vestigial wings. Two flies heterozygous for both genes were
crossed. What proportion of the offspring would be expected to have black bodies and
long wings?
a. 1/ 2
b. 3/16
c. 1/ 4
d. 1/16
Ans: B

42. What causes genetic variety in the formation of gametes during meiosis?
a. Crossing over in prophase I and random orientation of homologous
chromosomes in metaphase I
b. Crossing over in metaphase I and random orientation of homologous
chromosomes in metaphase II
c. Linkage of genes in prophase I and crossing over in metaphase I
d. Linkage of genes in metaphase I and random orientation of homologous
chromosomes in metaphase II
Ans: A
43. The pedigree shown displays what type of inheritance pattern?

a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Sex-linked
d. none of the above
Ans: B

44. In pedigree conventions, what does a circle with a dot in the middle indicate?
a. Heterozygous carrier
b. Proband
c. Affected individual
d. Deceased individual
Ans: A

45. This is also known as the physical expression of a trait

a. zelotype
 b. genotype
c. phenotype
d. heterotype
Ans: C

46. The alternative forms of a gene are called?

a. Alleles
b. Traits
c. Characters
d. masks
Ans: A

47. What is probability?

a. the actual results from a series of events
b. the likelihood that an event will occur
c. the way the results of one event would affect another
d. number of times a coin lands heads up
Ans: B

48. What is a suspected heterozygous individual crossed with in a test cross?

a. Homozygous dominant
b. Homozygous recessive
c. Heterozygous dominant
d. Heterozygous recessive
Ans: B

49. In a pedigree chart, if two unaffected individuals have a child with the trait, what is the
most likely mode of inheritance for this trait?
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Sex-linked
d. none of the above
Ans: B

50. Suppose that in barley plants, the allele for tall stalks is dominant over short stalks and
the allele for wide leaves is dominant over thin leaves. What would be the best way to
determine the genotype of a barley plant with a tall stalk and wide leaves?
a. Perform a testcross with a barley plant that has a tall stalk and thin leaves
b. Perform a testcross with a known heterozygous barley plant
c. Perform a testcross with a barley plant with short stalk and thin leaves
d. Perform a testcross with a barley plant with tall stalk and wide leaves
Ans: C