Laqshya Pts-2 Gs P-2 Eng Synopsis Final

Spardha Lines State Wide Test Series – 2024
Laqshya – KAS Prelims Test Series

Test-2 –Paper-2- Date: 29.09.2024
1. The M.S. Swami Nathan Research Foundation (MSSRF) was established with
a focus on which of the following?
(A) Urban Development
(B) Industrial Research
(C) Sustainable Development
(D) Space Technology
Ans: C
Explanation:
M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF): Established in 1988, focusing
on sustainable agricultural practices, biodiversity conservation, and rural
development. It aims to create a sustainable development model that addresses food
security and environmental concerns.
● M.S. Swaminathan is often referred to as the "Father of the Green Revolution"
in India.
● He played a crucial role in developing high-yielding varieties of wheat and
rice, which significantly improved food security in the country.
● MS Swaminathan, the Father of India’s Green Revolution, helped India
become self-reliant in agriculture and modernised it. He will be conferred the
Bharat Ratna posthumously.
● Developed high-yielding wheat and rice varieties with Norman Borlaug,
revolutionising agriculture in India in the 1960s and '70s.
Hence Option C is the correct Answer.
2. Consider the following statements:

1. The first batch of cheetahs under the reintroduction program in India was
brought from Namibia.
2. The project primarily focuses on the Asiatic Cheetah.
3. The project also has a long-term objective to promote eco-tourism and wildlife
conservation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
Explanation:
India's Cheetah Reintroduction Project is an effort to bring back the cheetah, which
was declared extinct in India in 1952. The first group of cheetahs for the
reintroduction project arrived in India from Namibia in September 2022. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
● In the next phases, more cheetahs are expected to be brought from South Africa
to diversify the genetic pool and ensure the successful establishment of the
species in India.
● This phased introduction aims to establish a viable and self-sustaining cheetah
population in India.
● Kuno National Park was selected as the prime location for the reintroduction of
cheetahs due to its favourable habitat, with an ample prey base like chital,
nilgai, and wild boar, which can sustain the cheetah population.
● The project has broader goals, including promoting eco-tourism, enhancing
biodiversity, and bringing attention to the conservation of species and
ecosystems across India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● The project is primarily focused on the African cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus) and
not the Asiatic cheetah, as the latter is critically endangered and found mainly
in Iran. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● The introduction of African cheetahs is part of the government's plan to revive
the species in India, starting with selected areas like Kuno National Park in
Madhya Pradesh.
Hence Option D is the correct Answer.
3. Consider the following statements with reference to oil spills:
1. Oil spills can also occur on land, impacting soil, groundwater and vegetation.
2. Land-based oil spills are typically easier to clean up than marine spills due to
the stability of the environment.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
Explanation:
Oil spills can occur on land, leading to contamination of soil and groundwater and
damaging local ecosystems. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● They can be harder to clean up in some cases, especially if oil seeps deep into
the ground, contaminating water supplies or reaching tree roots. Land spills
often require extensive soil removal, bioremediation, and long-term
monitoring. Thus, the second statement is incorrect; land-based spills are not
necessarily easier to clean than marine ones. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
● The Deep water Horizon spill in 2010 was one of the largest oil spills in
history, releasing millions of barrels of oil into the Gulf of Mexico.
● Oil spills can affect both surface and deep-sea environments.
● In the Deep water Horizon incident, oil spread to deep-sea ecosystems,
affecting species like coral, fish, and even microorganisms at great depths.
4. With reference to Gharials, consider the following statements:
1. Gharials are excellent climbers and often move across land between water
bodies.
2. Male Gharials can be distinguished from females by a distinct bulbous growth
on the tip of their snouts called a "ghara."
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
Gharials, however, are highly aquatic and are not adapted for moving across land.
They have relatively weak legs, which makes movement on land cumbersome, and
they rarely leave the water except for basking or nesting. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.
● The National Chambal Sanctuary Project was initiated in 1979 to protect the
Gharial along with other endangered species like the Gangetic dolphin.
● Gharials are oviparous, meaning they lay eggs, but they do not lay their eggs in
water. Instead, female Gharials create nests in sandy riverbanks, where they lay
eggs that are incubated by the heat of the sun. These nests are at risk of being
predated by animals or disturbed by human activities.
● Male Gharials develop a characteristic "ghara", a bulbous growth at the tip of
their snout, used during mating displays and vocalisation to attract females.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
● Gharials have the longest and narrowest snout among living crocodilian
species, a unique adaptation for catching fish, their primary diet. The sharp
teeth along the snout help them catch slippery prey. Unlike other crocodilians,
Gharials are not known to attack humans.
5. Consider the following statements about the ecology and behaviour of

vultures in India:
1. Vultures are solitary feeders and do not interact with each other during feeding.
2. They have an excellent sense of smell, which helps them locate carcasses.
3. Vultures primarily feed on the carcasses of large mammals.
4. They are known for their nesting habits, which often involve building large
nests in trees.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3 and 4
(C) Only 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
Explanation:
Vultures are primarily scavengers that feed on the carcasses of large mammals, such
as cattle and deer, playing a critical role in the ecosystem. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
● They are not solitary feeders; they often feed in groups, which allows them to
access food more efficiently. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
● Contrary to popular belief, vultures have a poor sense of smell; instead, they
rely on their keen eyesight to spot potential food sources from great heights.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
● Vultures also have nesting habits that involve building large nests in trees or on
cliffs, providing them with safety and space to rear their young. Hence
statement 4 is correct.
● The decline of vulture populations in India has been primarily caused by the
use of diclofenac in livestock.
● The Vulture Action Plan was launched in 2006 to address the rapid decline of
vultures in India. It includes measures like captive breeding, habitat protection,
and public awareness campaigns.
6. When is the international day of zero waste celebrated?

(A) March 1
(B) April 5
(C) March 30
(D) April 22
Ans: C
Explanation:
On December 14, 2022, the United Nations General Assembly passed a resolution to
have an International Day of Zero Waste celebrated every year on March 30th.
This day aims to raise awareness about reducing waste and promoting zero-waste
initiatives to achieve sustainable development. Hence Option C is the correct
Answer.
● The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and UN Human
Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) established the day in response to the
worsening impacts of waste on human health, the economy and the
environment.
India’s initiatives in Waste management:

● The Government of India has undertaken multiple large-scale national
initiatives such as ‘Swachh Bharat Mission’, ‘National Water Mission’ and
‘Waste to Wealth Mission ‘as a part of its commitment to effective waste &
pollution management in India.
● To promote and support the goals of the Swachh Bharat Unnati Bharat
Abhiyan, the Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules 2016, Plastic Waste
Management (PWM) Rules, 2016 and the E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016
have been notified.
● In February 2022, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, inaugurated Asia’s
biggest municipal solid waste based GOBARdhan plant in Indore aiming to
generate 19,000 kg bio-CNG gas.
● Under Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0, the biomethanation plants linked to
the GOBARdhan and SATAT schemes will produce Bio-CNG as a renewable
energy.
7. Which of the following is NOT considered an air pollutant?

(A) Particulate Matter (PM)
(B) Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2)
(C) Sulphur Dioxide (SO2)
(D) Sodium Chloride (NaCl)
Ans: D
Explanation:
Air pollutants are substances in the air that can have harmful effects on human health
and the environment. They can be classified into several categories, including primary
and secondary pollutants.
Primary Air Pollutants:
● Particulate Matter (PM)
● Nitrogen Oxides (NOx)
● Sulphur Dioxide (SO2)
● Carbon Monoxide (CO)
● Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
Secondary Air Pollutants:

● Ozone (O3)
● Smog
● Acid Rain
Other Notable Pollutants:

● Ammonia (NH3)
● Heavy Metals such as lead, mercury, and cadmium
8. Regarding plastic pollution, consider the following statements:

1. Plastics take hundreds of years to decompose, leading to long-term
environmental hazards.
2. Biodegradable plastics break down as easily as organic waste, reducing
pollution.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Explanation:
Plastic pollution is a major environmental issue because traditional plastics can take
hundreds of years to decompose, leading to significant accumulation in landfills and
oceans, where they harm wildlife and ecosystems. Hence statement 1 is correct.
While there are biodegradable plastics designed to break down more quickly than
conventional plastics, they often require specific conditions (like industrial
composting facilities) to decompose effectively and may not break down as easily as
organic waste in natural environments. Hence statement 2 is correct.
9. Consider the following statements about the impact of urbanisation on

environmental pollution:
1. Urbanisation often leads to increased waste generation and higher levels of air
and water pollution.
2. Urban areas typically have better waste management systems than rural areas,
reducing pollution.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Explanation:
Urbanisation usually results in increased waste generation, as higher population
densities lead to greater consumption and, consequently, more waste. This increase
often correlates with higher levels of air and water pollution due to industrial
activities, traffic emissions, and inadequate waste disposal. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
Although urban areas may have more advanced waste management systems compared
to rural areas, many urban centres still struggle with pollution due to the sheer volume
of waste generated and challenges in managing it effectively. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
10. With reference to greenhouse gas emissions, consider the following

statements:
1. Methane (CH₄) is a more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide (CO₂) in
terms of its heat-trapping ability.
2. Reducing methane emissions has a minimal impact on climate change
compared to reducing CO₂ emissions.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Explanation:
Methane (CH₄) is indeed a much more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide
(CO₂), being over 25 times more effective at trapping heat in the atmosphere over a
100-year period. Hence statement 1 is correct.
This makes it a significant contributor to climate change. Reducing methane emissions
can have a substantial impact on mitigating climate change, as it can help lower short-
term warming effects, while CO₂ reduction is essential for long-term climate
stabilisation. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Paris Agreement aimed to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius above
pre-industrial levels.
Nitrous Oxide (N2O) has a global warming potential approximately 298 times that of
CO2 over 100 years and can persist in the atmosphere for over 100 years.
Both 3 and 4 are Correct
11. Regarding the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), consider the

following statements:
1. The CBD aims to conserve biological diversity, promote sustainable use of its
components, and ensure fair sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.
2. The CBD is a legally binding treaty for all countries that ratified it, imposing
penalties for non-compliance.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was established to address the
conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the
equitable sharing of benefits derived from genetic resources. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
The CBD is not a legally binding treaty in the sense of imposing penalties; rather, it
encourages countries to develop their own strategies for implementation. Hence
statement 2 is incorrect.
Hence Option A is the correct Answer.
12. With regarding the role of keystone species, consider the following
statements:
1. Keystone species play a critical role in maintaining the structure of an
ecosystem.
2. The removal of a keystone species has little effect on the ecosystem's
biodiversity.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
Keystone species are vital to the integrity of their ecosystems; their presence and
activities significantly influence the community structure and diversity of other
species. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The removal of a keystone species can lead to dramatic changes, often resulting in a
loss of biodiversity and altered ecosystem functions, highlighting their importance in
ecological stability. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

13. Consider the following statements regarding secondary succession:
1. It occurs in environments where soil remains intact, such as after a forest fire.
2. It is typically faster than primary succession due to the presence of existing
soil.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Explanation:
Secondary succession takes place in environments where soil remains intact, such as
after disturbances like forest fires, hurricanes, or human activities. Hence statement 1
is correct.
Because the soil and some organisms are already present, secondary succession
generally proceeds faster than primary succession. Existing seeds, root systems, and
soil nutrients aid the recovery process. Hence statement 2 is correct.
14. Regarding the pyramid of numbers, consider the following statements:

1. The pyramid of numbers represents the number of individual organisms at each
trophic level.
2. This type of pyramid can sometimes be inverted, particularly in certain aquatic
ecosystems.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Explanation:
The pyramid of numbers illustrates the number of individual organisms present at
each trophic level within an ecosystem. Hence statement 1 is correct.
In certain ecosystems, especially in aquatic environments, this pyramid can appear
inverted, where fewer larger organisms (like fish) may be present than the numerous
smaller organisms (like zooplankton) that they consume. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
15. What is the main goal of Google’s Project Navlekha?

(A) To create content in English
(B) To provide free internet access to rural areas
(C) To train publishers to write in Sanskrit
(D) To help regional language publishers convert print content into digital formats
Ans: D
Explanation:
Project Navlekha, launched by Google in 2018, is an initiative aimed at helping
Indian publishers easily convert their print content into digital formats in local
languages. Hence Option D is the correct Answer.
● The name "Navlekha" means "new writing" in Sanskrit, symbolising a fresh
approach to content creation and digitization in India’s regional languages.
● Project Navlekha uses OCR technology to convert printed text in Indian
languages into digital content.
● This project addresses the challenges that non-English language publications
face in transitioning to the digital world, especially when dealing with
languages that do not have easy-to-use digital fonts or publishing platforms.
● Project Navlekha does not require continuous internet access during the initial
setup process, making it accessible even in areas with limited connectivity.
● The project seeks to increase the amount of regional language content available
online, bridging the digital divide for non-English speakers.
16. Which of the following primary technologies are integral to Web 4.0?
1. Cloud computing
2. Block chain
3. Internet of Things (IoT)
4. Machine Learning (ML)
Select the correct codes are given below:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3, and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2, 3, and 4
Ans: B
Explanation:
Web 4.0 often referred to as the Symbiotic Web, Web 4.0 represents the evolution
of the web towards enhanced connectivity, integration of intelligent systems, and
personalised interactions with users.
The key technologies integral to Web 4.0 include:
● Artificial Intelligence (AI): AI plays a crucial role in Web 4.0 for automating
processes, personalising user experiences, and enabling smart interactions
between humans and machines.
● Internet of Things (IoT): Web 4.0 connects multiple devices and objects
through IoT, allowing seamless communication and data sharing between
them.
● Cloud Computing: Cloud infrastructure supports the vast amount of data
storage, processing, and computational power required for Web 4.0
applications, facilitating access to resources from anywhere.
● Big Data and Data Analytics: the ability to process and analyse massive
amounts of data in real time is essential to understanding user behaviour and
providing predictive and personalised services.
● Machine Learning (ML): A subset of AI, machine learning helps systems
improve over time based on data, enabling smarter and more adaptive web
experiences.
● Ubiquitous Computing: Web 4.0 aims for a pervasive computing environment
where devices around the user can interact intelligently and continuously,
blending physical and digital spaces.
Block chain is related but is not the primary driver of Web 4.0.
17. In the context of Big Data, 'Veracity' refers to:

(A) The quality, accuracy, and trustworthiness of data.
(B) The speed at which data is processed.
(C) The ability to visualise data insights.
(D) The structured format of the data being processed.
Ans: A
Explanation:
Big Data refers to vast volumes of structured, semi-structured, and unstructured data
that are too large or complex for traditional data processing tools to handle. The term
encompasses a wide range of technologies and techniques designed to store, process,
and analyse large datasets.
Key Characteristics of Big Data:
● Volume: The size of the data being generated and stored, typically measured in
terabytes, petabytes, or more.
● Velocity: The speed at which data is generated and processed.
● Variety: The different types of data, including structured (e.g., relational
databases), semi-structured, and unstructured (e.g., images, videos).
● Veracity: The quality, accuracy and trustworthiness of the data.
● Value: The actionable insights and benefits derived from analysing large
datasets.

18. What is the primary objective of the Draft National Deep Tech Startup Policy
(NDTSP) 2023?
(A) To focus exclusively on the development of e-commerce platforms.
(B) To foster innovation in deep technologies and position India as a global leader
in advanced tech sectors.
(C) To regulate traditional manufacturing industries.
(D) To provide subsidies for non-technical small businesses.
Ans: B
Explanation:
The Draft National Deep Tech Startup Policy (NDTSP) 2023 aims to foster innovation
in deep technologies and position India as a global leader in advanced tech sectors.
● Deep tech refers to advanced technological innovations with high research and
development (R&D) intensity, long-term development cycles, and the potential
for significant societal impact.
● The policy aims to build a robust ecosystem by providing financial support,
fostering talent development, promoting public-private partnerships,
encouraging R&D, and streamlining regulatory processes.
● NDTSP 2023 also seeks to enhance India's global competitiveness by
facilitating international collaborations and ensuring alignment with sustainable
development goals (SDGs).
Key focus areas include:

● Artificial Intelligence (AI),
● Quantum Technologies,
● Biotechnology,
● Nanotechnology,
● Advanced Materials, and Space Technologies.
Hence Option B is the correct Answer.
19. What role does Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) play in the National
Quantum Mission?
(A) It is used to secure classical computing networks.
(B) It allows the development of faster computing chips.
(C) It is used for secure communication, preventing hacking through quantum
cryptography.
(D) It is designed to improve quantum material production.
Ans: C
Explanation:
The National Quantum Mission (NQM) is a landmark initiative by the Government
of India aimed at advancing the country’s capabilities in quantum technologies.
Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) is crucial for secure communication as it

leverages quantum cryptography to protect against hacking by ensuring that any
attempt to intercept the data would be detectable.
● Launched with a focus on quantum computing, quantum communication,

quantum cryptography, quantum sensing, and quantum materials, this
mission seeks to leverage quantum mechanics for technological advancements
that will have applications in cyber security, healthcare, finance, and beyond.
● The mission's goal is to build India’s infrastructure for quantum research and
development, support high-quality talent, and create partnerships with global
stakeholders.
● It also emphasises creating a quantum ecosystem by providing platforms for
innovation, training, and commercialization of quantum technologies.
20. Consider the following statements about the National Quantum Mission
(NQM):
1. The mission focuses on developing high-performance quantum computers.
2. NQM emphasises fostering international collaboration in quantum research.
3. The mission is primarily concerned with traditional computing technologies.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Ans: B
Explanation:
The National Quantum Mission (NQM), launched by the Government of India, is
designed to promote research, innovation, and application of quantum technologies
across various sectors.
● The mission focuses on developing high-performance quantum computers.
● NQM emphasises fostering international collaboration in quantum research.
● The mission focuses on advancing quantum computing, communication,
cryptography, sensing, and material science.
● NQM focuses on quantum technologies like quantum computing and fostering
international collaborations. It does not focus on traditional computing
technologies. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
● It aims to develop a quantum ecosystem that will boost India's scientific
capabilities and make it a global leader in quantum technologies.
21. Consider the following statements regarding nuclear fusion:

1. Nuclear fusion involves combining light atomic nuclei to form heavier nuclei,
releasing energy in the process.
2. Fusion reactions produce long-lived radioactive waste similar to nuclear
fission.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
Nuclear fusion involves combining light nuclei, typically isotopes of hydrogen (like
deuterium and tritium), to form a heavier nucleus (helium), releasing a large amount
of energy. This is the process that powers the Sun. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Unlike nuclear fission, fusion produces much less long-lived radioactive waste,
making it a potentially safer and cleaner source of energy. Hence statement 2 is
incorrect.
22. Consider the following statements about Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD)

1. It was the first disease for which the World Organisation for Animal Health
established official status recognition.
2. It is a severe, highly contagious bacterial disease of livestock that has a
significant economic impact.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans B
Explanation:
The Union government recently decided to establish foot-and-mouth disease-free
zones in eight States - Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Uttarakhand, Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
● It was the first disease for which the World Organisation for Animal Health
(WOAH, founded as OIE) established official status recognition. Vaccines for
FMD are available but must be matched to the specific type and subtype of
virus causing the outbreak. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
● It is a severe, highly contagious viral disease of livestock that has a significant
economic impact. The disease affects cattle, swine, sheep, goats, and other
cloven-hoofed ruminants. It does not affect horses, dogs, or cats. Intensively
reared animals are more susceptible to the disease than traditional breeds.
23. What is the main advantage of mRNA vaccines over traditional vaccines?
(A) They are made using DNA from the virus.
(B) They take longer to develop but are more effective.
(C) They use the virus's spike protein to create an immune response.
(D) They can be developed and produced faster and are easier to modify.
Ans: D
Explanation:
mRNA vaccines offer several advantages over traditional vaccines. They are faster to
develop and can be easily modified in response to new virus variants. These
vaccines work by introducing a piece of mRNA that encodes for a viral protein (such
as the spike protein of SARS-CoV-2), which the immune system recognizes and
responds to. This flexibility and speed were key in the rapid development of COVID-
19 vaccines.

24. The Bohr model of the atom describes:
(A) Electrons orbiting the nucleus in fixed energy levels
(B) Protons and neutrons in constant motion inside the nucleus
(C) Electrons scattered throughout a positive cloud
(D) Electrons and protons revolving together around the nucleus
Ans: A
Explanation:
The Bohr model, proposed by Niels Bohr, describes electrons orbiting the nucleus of
an atom in fixed energy levels or shells. The model explains that electrons can only
occupy certain allowed orbits and release or absorb energy when they jump between
these levels.
25. What does the pH scale measure?

(A) The temperature of a substance
(B) The electrical conductivity of a liquid
(C) The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution
(D) The density of a solution
Ans: C
Explanation:
The pH scale measures the acidity or basicity of a solution by quantifying the
hydrogen ion (H⁺) concentration. A pH of 7 is neutral, below 7 is acidic, and above
7 is basic (alkaline). For instance, lemon juice is acidic, while soap solution is basic.
26. Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis Program:

1. The Artemis Program aims to return humans to the Moon by 2024 and
establish a sustainable presence by 2030.
2. NASAs Artemis missions are part of the broader goal of sending humans to
Mars.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Explanation:
The Artemis Program, led by NASA, aims to return humans to the Moon, with the
first manned mission planned for 2024 (Artemis III). Hence statement 1 is correct.
The program also includes the goal of establishing a sustainable lunar base by the end
of the 2020s. The Moon is seen as a stepping stone for future manned missions to
Mars, making the program part of NASAs broader goal of deep space exploration.

27. With reference to SpaceX’s Starship, consider the following statements:
1. Starship is a fully reusable spacecraft designed for missions to Mars and
beyond.
2. Starship’s reusable rocket booster is known as Falcon Heavy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
Starship, developed by SpaceX, is a fully reusable spacecraft intended for missions to
Mars, the Moon, and deep space exploration. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Super Heavy rocket booster, not Falcon Heavy, will launch the Starship into orbit.
Falcon Heavy is a different rocket system used for satellite launches and other
missions, but it is not part of the Starship system. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
28. Consider the following statements about planetary defence against asteroids:
1. NASAs DART mission successfully tested a technique to deflect an asteroids
path.
2. The aim of planetary defence is to develop systems that can destroy incoming
asteroids before they reach Earth.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
NASAs Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) mission was launched to test a
technique to deflect an asteroid by impacting it with a spacecraft. The goal is to
change the asteroid's trajectory rather than destroy it. Hence statement 1 is correct.
While planetary defence focuses on preventing asteroid impacts on Earth, current
strategies are more about deflecting or redirecting the asteroids, not destroying them.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
29. Consider the following statements about Small Modular Reactors (SMRs):
1. SMRs are designed to be more cost-effective and flexible than traditional
nuclear reactors.
2. SMRs can be mass-produced and transported to sites, allowing for faster
deployment of nuclear energy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Explanation:
Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) represent a new trend in nuclear energy, focusing on
cost-effectiveness, flexibility, and safety. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Unlike traditional large reactors, SMRs can be mass-produced and transported to
remote or smaller sites, enabling faster deployment. Their modular design also
enhances safety features and allows for a more distributed approach to nuclear energy
production. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Directions (Qn. 30-35): Read the following passages and answer the questions that
follow:
PASSAGE-1
Whenever a major airplane accident occurs, there is a dramatic increase in
the number of airplane mishaps reported in the media, a phenomenon that may last for
as long as a few months after the accident. Airline officials assert that the publicity
given the gruesomeness of major airplane accidents focuses media attention on the
airline industry, and the increase in the number of reported accidents is caused by an
increase in the number of news sources covering airline accidents, not by an increase
in the number of accidents.
30. Which of the following is true, would seriously weaken the assertions of the
airline officials?
(A) Airline accidents tend to occur far more often during certain peak travel
months
(B) The publicity surrounding airline accidents is largely limited to the country in
which the crash occurred
(C) News organisations do not have any guidelines to help them decide how severe
an accident is
(D) Airplane accidents receive coverage by news sources only when the
news sources find it advantageous to do so
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
The airline officials asserts that the increase of the number of reported
accidents is caused by an increase in the number of new sources covering airline
accidents and not by an increase number of accidents. The above assertion weakens if
(A) is true. There might be a situation when in some peak travel months lot of
accidents have occurred and the media has reported the same because of which the
number of reported accidents have increased
PASSAGE-2
Various studies have shown that our forested and hilly regions, in general,
are as where bloodthirsty as reflected in the variety of flora is high are places where
poverty appears to be high. And these same areas are also the ones where educational
performance seems to be poor. Therefore, it may be surmised that, even disregarding
poverty status, richness in bloodthirstily goes hand in hand with educational
backwardness.
31. Which one of the following statements, if true, can be said to best provide
supporting evidence for the surmise mentioned in the passage
(A) In regions where there is little variety in flora, educational performance
is seen to be as good as in regions with high variety in flora, when poverty
levels are high.
(B) Regions which show high biodiversity also exhibit poor educational
performance, at low levels of poverty.
(C) Regions which show high bloodthirsty reveal high levels of poverty and poor
educational performance.
(D) In regions where there is low bloodthirstily, at all levels of poverty,
educational performance is seen to be good.
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
Is the only correct choice, which can be inferred from the passage that high
blood thirstiness goes hand in hand with poverty and poor educational performance.
PASSAGE-3
At the turn of the 20th century, a major educational curriculum redesign was
initiated following the change of political regime at the centre. The subsequent
development of college programme came under wide public scrutiny and debate.
Issue of equity, inclusion and exclusion, learner medley religious identity and
communalism gained considerable importance in the curriculum debates that
followed. The curriculum failed to address the quality of education that students of
under privileged and marginalized groups experience. Several critics described the
revised curriculum as a retrogressive step in education that sought to impose the
religious agenda in the garb of a national identify. The subsequent change of national
government in 2004 led to the curriculum review in 2005, underlining a new political
interest in the role of education in national development, its role in social
transformation and mobilization directed specifically at questions of caste and gender
asymmetry and minority empowerment. Deeper than these politically driven
minority initiatives, the professional need for curriculum review emerges from the
long ossification of a national education system that continues to view faculty as
"dispensers of information" and students as "passive recipients" of an
"education" sought to be delivered in four-walled classrooms with little scope to
develop critical thinking and understanding.
32. Development of text books generated public debate on many issues except.
I. Making the curriculum student-centred.
II. Using teaching community as an agency to bring change.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) None of these
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
The passage explicitly talks about the issue of equity, inclusion and exclusion,
religious identity in major educational curriculum. This causes a generated public
debate. But the passage does not talk about the debate which includes the making
curriculum student-centred and using teaching community as an agency to bring
change.
33. What hampers the critical thinking ability of college going students?
(A) Lack of political will to develop these abilities
(B) Lack of proper tests of critical thinking ability
(C) Absence of focus while designing curriculum framework
(D) Ignoring the role of faculty and the students
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
The passage clearly mentions the absence of focus among students which
ultimately hampers the critical thinking ability of students.
34. Revamping of the text material was the main focus in

(A) Early eighties
(B) Late nineties
(C) 21st century
(D) Evolving curriculum framework
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
In the passage it is cleared that the main focus in 21st century is the revamping
of the text material in curriculum frame work.
35. Which of the following has been identified by the author as one of the factors
to facilitate social transformation?
(A) A committed political ideology
(B) Support of the well-framed curriculum
(C) A strong administration system
(D) Carefully planned
Answer: B
SOLUTION:
Education always plays a prominent role in national development, its role in

social transformation and mobilisation. So, the support of well-framed curriculum is
one of the factors to facilitate the desired transformation.
36. In an examination, 52% candidates failed in English and 42% failed in

Mathematics. If 17% candidates failed in both English and Mathematics,
what percentage of candidates passed in both the subjects?
(A) 18%
(B) 21%
(C) 23%
(D) 25%
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
Total number of candidates = 100%

Percentage of candidates passed in both the subjects
= {100 (25 + 17 + 35)} % = 23%
Direction (Qn. 37): Examine the information given below and answer the question
that follow:
There are two married couples in a family of six person’s A, B, C, D, E and F.

Each person in the family has different profession among Engineer, Officer, Professor,
Chemist, Accountant and Technician. A is an engineer who is married to a lady
Professor. B, the officer, is the daughter-in-law of A. C is a Technician and the brother
of D. C is also the son of E, who is a Chemist.
37. How is E related to the accountant?

(A) Father
(B) Son
(C) Daughter
(D) Cannot be determined
Answer: A
SOLUTION:
From the given information, the relation chart is as follows.
E is the father of the accountant, D.
38. In a chess competition involving some boys and girls of a school, every student
had to play exactly one game with every other student. It was found that in 45
games both the players were girls and in 190 games both were boys. The
number of games in which one player was a boy and the other was a girl is
(A) 200
(B) 216
(C) 235
(D) 256
Answer: A
SOLUTION:
Let number of girls = x and the number of boys = y

45 games in which both the players were girls
⇒ xC2 = 45
= x(x - 1) 90
∴ X = 10
190 games, where both the players were boys.

y
C2 = 190 ⇒ y(y – 1) = 380
∴ y = 20
Hence the total number of games in which one player
Was a boy and the other was a girl = 10 × 20 = 200
39. There are 6 tasks and 6 persons. Task 1 cannot be assigned either to person 1
or to person 2; task 2 must be assigned to either person 3 or person 4. Every
person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the assignment be
done?
(A) 144
(B) 180
(C) 192
(D) 360
Answer: A
SOLUTION:
Task 1 cannot be assigned to either person 1 or 2 i.e.

There are 4 options.
Task 2 can be assigned to 3 or 4
So, there are only 2 options for task 2.
So required no. of ways = 2 options for task 2 × 3 options
For task 1 × 4 options for task 3 × 3 options for task 4 ×
2 options for task 5 × 1 option for task 6.
= 2 × 3 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 144
Direction (Qn. 40): Examine the information given below and answer the questions
that follow:
I. Kush, Ganesh and Hari are intelligent.
II. Kush, Ram and Jivan are hard working.
III. Ram, Hari and Jivan are honest.
IV. Kush, Ganesh and Jivan are ambitious.
40. Which of the following persons is neither hardworking nor ambitious?

(A) Kush
(B) Ganesh
(C) Hari
(D) Ram
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
Name/Qualities Kush Ganesh Hari Ram Jivan
Intelligent ✓ ✓ ✓ - -
Hardworking - - ✓ ✓
Honest - - ✓ ✓ ✓
Ambitious ✓ ✓ - - ✓
Hari is neither hardworking nor ambitious.
41. A vessel is filled with liquid, 4 parts of which are water and 7 parts syrup.
How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that
the mixture may be half water and half syrup?
(A) 14/33
(B) 33/14
(C) 3/14
(D) 1/11
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
Suppose the vessel initially contains 11 L of liquid.

Let, x L of this liquid be replaced with water.
Quantity of water in new mixture =
Quantity of syrup in new mixture =
⇒ =3
So, part of the mixture replaced =

42. A person selling an article for ₹96 finds that his loss per cent is one-fourth of
the amount of rupees that he paid for the article. What can be the cost price?
(A) Only ₹ 160
(B) Only ₹ 240
(C) Either ₹ 160 or ₹ 240
(D) Neither ₹ 160 nor ₹ 240
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
Let the cost price of an article = ₹ x

Selling price of an article = ₹ 96
According to the question,
× ⇒ 400x – 96 × 400 = x 2
⇒ x2 – 400x + 38400 = 0
⇒ x 2 – 160x – 240x + 38400 = 0
⇒ x(x – 160x) – 240(x – 160) = 0
⇒ (x – 160) (x – 240) = 0
∴ x= 160 or 240
Hence, the cost price of an article is ₹ 160 or ₹ 240
43. In an examination, 70% of the students passed in the Paper-I, and 60% of the
students passed in the Paper-II. 15% of the students failed in both the papers
while 270 students passed in both the papers. What is the total number of
students?
(A) 600
(B) 580
(C) 560
(D) 540
Answer: A
SOLUTION:
% of students failed in paper I = 100 70 = 30%

% of students failed in paper II = 100 60 = 40%
Total % of students who failed = 30 + 40 15 = 55%
Total % of students who passed in both papers 100 55
= 45%
Let, total number of students be x.
Now, 45% of x = 270
= 270
x = 600
Directions (Qs. 44 & 45): Read the following passage and answer the questions that
follow the passage. Your answers to these questions should be based on the passage
only.
PASSAGE
Successfully adjusting to one's environment leads to happiness. War at a
universal level destroys the weaker people, who are the most unable to adjust to their
environment. Thus, war at the universal level puts weaklings out of their misery and
allows more space for their predators to enjoy life in a better manner. As those actions
need to be modified, which maximize the level of happiness of the greatest number,
war at a universal level should take place.
44. What response would the author of the above discussion come up with, in the
case of the / objection that the weaklings far exceed strong people?
I. He would respond with the statement that the person making the objection is a
weakling.
II. He would respond by saying that weaklings will be miserable no matter what
happens.
III. He would respond with the statement that the strong would be frustrated if the
weaklings are destroyed.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Only III
(D) II and III
Answer: D
SOLUTION:
In the case of the objection that the weaklings far exceed strong people, the
author comes up with the response that the weaklings will be miserable no matter
what happens and that the strong would be frustrated if the weaklings are destroyed.
45. The author's discussion would be greatly influenced if he agreed to which of

the following?
I. Technology could change the environment.
II. War at the universal level would be an integral part of the environment.
III. It is possible for the strong to survive without suppressing the weak.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Only III
(D) I and III
Answer: A
SOLUTION:
The role of technology is not talked about in the passage. So, if the effect of
technology on environment is taken into account then the author's discussion would be
greatly influenced.
46. Many patients suffering from malaria were administered anti- malarial drug
for a week. Some of them did not respond to the traditional drug and their
condition deteriorated after four days.
Which of the following would weaken the findings mentioned in the above
statement?
(A) Those patients who responded to the traditional drugs and recovered
were needed to be given additional doses as they reported relapse of symptoms.
(B) The mosquitoes carrying malaria are found to be resistant to traditional
malarial drugs.
(C) Majority of the patients suffering from malaria responded well to the traditional
malarial drugs and recovered from the illness.
(D) Many drug companies have stopped manufacturing traditional malarial
drugs.
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
Since majority of the patients have responded well to the drug one wonders
how some of them have witnessed deterioration in their condition.
47. Monetary loss can be made good but any loss to the country’s culture
can never be filled. A minister of country X
If the above statement is true, then which of the following has been assumed
in the statement?
(A) People hanker after money ignoring cultural values.
(B) One can’t bear monetary loss.
(C) Traditional culture in country X is degrading day by day.
(D) Preserving culture is our utmost duty.
Answer: D
48. When income tax rates are reduced, there is an increase in taxable income,
and an increase in taxable income results in increased total income tax
revenues for the government.
Which of the following is analogous to the argument above in terms of its
logical features?
(A) If the city municipal corporation increases taxes on property by 1%, it
will raise tax revenues, which can further be used for garbage disposal
management.
(B) The Leader of the opposition at the Parliament argued that a restriction on
the import of Chinese manufacturing products will increase the sales of
Indian manufacturing products.
(C) An advertisement using more than 25 words of text will not be read, and when
an advertisement is not read, the product is not sold. Therefore, the fewer
words an advertisement has, the more effective it will be in promoting its
product.
(D) The balance of payment of a country will improve if the country reduces
its imports and increases exports.
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
Option (D) is not analogous from any angle. Point of Chinese manufacturing is
also not logical in option (B).
Option (C) exhibits the analogous relationship. If number of words is high, the text
will not be read and when an advertisement text is not read, the product is not sold.
Hence, the correct answer is Option (C). Note the relationship is inverse in nature
49. A supplement of Vitamin A and Zinc may boost children’s resistance to

Malaria (Observation from one experiment conducted last year in a village
X).
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the statement?
(A) No adult in village X has fallen sick because of Malaria.
(B) Last three years there is hardly any case of child affected by Malaria from
village X.
(C) The experiment with Vitamin A and Zinc is being duplicated in other nearby
cities adjacent to village X.
(D) Vitamin A and Zinc are readily available in village X.
Answer: B
SOLUTION:
Children are not being affected by malaria.
This implies they are already resistant to the disease.
Why then should we need the supplements?
50. Pipe A can fill a tank in 10 min and pipe B can empty it in 15 min. If both the
pipes are opened in an empty tank, the time taken to make it full is
(A) 20min
(B) 25min
(C) 30min
(D) None of these
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
Part filled by pipe A in 1 min =
Part empty by pipe B in 1 min =
∴ Total tank filled in minutes =
51. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to
be placed in these smaller square such that each of the three rows gets at least
one ball (one ball in one square only). In how many different ways can this be
done?
(A) 27
(B) 36
(C) 54
(D) 81
Answer: D
SOLUTION:
Total number of ways in which 9 balls occupy any of the 6 squares = 9C6 = 84
Number of ways in which one row is not filled = 3
∴ Number of ways in which at least one ball occupies each row = 84 – 3 = 81
52. There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has ‘H’ engraved on its one
face and ‘T’ engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a table
and each one of them has H face as the upper face.
In one attempt, exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned
upside down. What is the minimum total number of attempts in which the T
faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces?
(A) 4
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) Not possible
Answer: A
SOLUTION:
On the first attempt four coins are overturned. Now, six coins are left.
In the next turn, four more are overturned. Now only two would be left. We
take one more from the left over two coins and any three from the previously
turned ones.
Finally, the leftover coin and the three coins from the presiding step which
have already been turned twice can be overturned. Thus, in four attempts, one
can complete the process.
53. Each of two women and three men is to occupy one chair out of eight chairs,
each of which numbered from 1 to 8. First, women are to occupy any two
chairs from those numbered 1 to 4; and then the three men would occupy
any, three chairs out of the remaining six chairs. What is the maximum
number of different ways in which this can be done?
(A) 40
(B) 132
(C) 1440
(D) 3660
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
2 Women can occupy 2 chairs out of the first four chairs in 4P2 ways.
3 men can be arranged in the remaining 6 chairs in 6P3 ways.
Hence, total no. of ways = 4P2 × 6P3 = 1440
54. Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number '1' marked on
one side and number '2' marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed
in such a manner that the number '1' is on the upper side. In one try, exactly
four (neither more nor less) cards are turned upside down. In how many least
number of tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six
cards show number '2' on the upper side?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) This cannot be achieved
Answer: A
SOLUTION:
55. Assume that
1. The hour and minute hands of a clock move without jerking.
2. The clock shows a time between 8 o'clock and 9 o'clock.
3. The two hands of the clock are one above the other.
After how many minutes (nearest integer) will the two hands be again lying one
above the other?
(A) 60
(B) 62
(C) 65
(D) 67
Answer: C
SOLUTION:
Two hands of clock are on one above Between 8 to 9.

12 to 8 ⇒ 40 min
40 min ⇒ × 40 = min past 8.
Two hands of clock are on one above Between 9 to 10.

12 to 9 ⇒ 45 min
45 min ⇒ × 45 = min past 9.
So two hands be lying one above the other =

60 - +
= 65.4
56. Examine the following statement

A large majority of the work force in India is unorganised. Most of them
earn either the minimum or uncertain wages while others are engaged in
sundry jobs.
Two conclusions numbered I and II, are given below. You have to assume
everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions
together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable
doubt from the information given in the statement.
I. The workers in the organised sector get better facilities and stay longer in their
jobs.
II. Some workers in the unorganised sector of the work force have a regular and
fixed income.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Either I or II follows
(D) Both I and II follow
Answer: B
SOLUTION:
The workers in the organized sector are not being talked about in the statement.
So, I does not follow. It is mentioned that some workers in the unorganized sector are
engaged in sundry jobs.
This means that they have fixed income. So, II follows.
57. Examine the following arguments all graduates are students. All students are
laborious. Some laborious are successful. Some successful persons are honest.
Which of the following conclusions follow(s) the above argument?
Conclusions
I. Some laborious are graduates.
II. Some honest are laborious.
III. Some successful persons are students.
(A) Only I follows
(B) I and II follow
(C) I and III follow
(D) All follow
Answer: A
SOLUTION:
All graduates are students + All students are laborious

= A + A = A = All graduates are laborious, which on conversion gives
Some laborious are graduates. So, Conclusion I follows.
But, the last two statements of the arguments are of I type and do not lead to any
results.
So, only Conclusion I follows.
58. In the outskirts of a city, two crops corn and potatoes are to be grown. The
curve given below represents Price earned city on another axis.
Which of the following statement / statements is / are correct.
(A) Potatoes are more profitably grown between O and A

(B) Corn is more profitably grown between A and B
(C) Potatoes are less beneficial, if grown between A and B
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
SOLUTION:
From the graph, it is clear that profit earned per hectare for potatoes is more from O to
A and it is more for corn from A to B.
So, growing of potatoes is more profitable from O to A and growing of corn is more
profitable from A to B.
Similarly, growing of corn is less profitable between O and A and growing of potatoes
are less profitable between A and B.
Direction (Qn. 59): Examine the information and answer the question that follow.
Foods Percentage Percentage of Percentage Cost per 100 g

of Protein Carbohydrate of Fat (in ₹)
Food A 10 20 30 1.80
Food B 20 15 10 3.00
Food C 20 10 40 2.75
59. If you purchase x gram of Food A, y of Food B and z of Food C, the cost will
be
(A) paisa
(B) ₹
(C) ₹ (1.8x + 3z + 2.75y)
(D) (3y+ 1.8z + 2.75z) paisa
Answer: A
SOLUTION:
The cost of Food A is ₹ 1.80 hundred grams or 1.8 paisa a gram.

So, x gram of A + y gram of B + z gram of C will cost
= (1.8x + 3y + 2.75z) paisa
Direction (Q. 60): Examine the information carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D is the
neighbour of A but not of H. B is the neighbour of F and fourth to the left of D. E is
the neighbour of H and third to the right of F. C is neither the neighbour of A nor of
G.
60. Which of the following is correct?

(A) D is to be immediate left of G.
(B) A is between C and D.
(C) F is fourth to the right of D.
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
SOLUTION:
As it is given that B is the neighbour of F and fourth to the left of D. So, the
arrangement is.
Now, E is third to the right of F. This information rejects the Case I. Also, it is given
that E is the neighbour of H and third to the right of F, so the following two
possibilities are there
Now, from the information that D is the neighbour of A but not of H. Hence, Case II
(a) can be rejected. So, the following two possibilities are there
Also, it is given that, C is neither the neighbor of A nor of G, so Case III (a) can be
rejected. Hence, the final seating arrangement will be as follows.
61. Consider the following statements regarding the Mekedatu Project:
1. The Mekedatu Project is a multipurpose project involving the construction of a
balancing reservoir near Kanakapura in Ramanagara district, Karnataka.
2. One of the primary objectives of the project is to generate 400 MW of
hydroelectric power and provide 4.75 TMC of drinking water to Bengaluru and
neighbouring areas.
3. The project is located at the confluence of the rivers Krishna and Arkavathi.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only statement 1 is correct.
(B) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(C) Only statement 3 is correct.
(D) All statements are correct.
Correct Answer: (B) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Mekedatu Project involves the construction of a

balancing reservoir near Kanakapura in Ramanagara district, Karnataka.
 Statement 2 is correct: The project aims to provide 4.75 TMC of drinking
water and generate 400 MW of hydroelectric power.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The project is located at the confluence of the rivers
Cauvery and Arkavathi, not Krishna.
62. Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat-Arogya

Karnataka (AB-ArK) Health Cards:
1. The AB-ArK initiative is part of the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan
Arogya Yojana in the state of Karnataka.
2. The scheme provides free healthcare services to all residents of Karnataka,
regardless of their income or household status.
3. An Eligible Patient is a resident of Karnataka who belongs to an Eligible
Household as defined under the National Food Security Act, 2013.
4. A General Patient is a resident of Karnataka who does not belong to an Eligible
Household, and their treatment will be on a co-payment basis.
(A) Only statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
(C) Only statements 2 and 4 are correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Only statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The AB-ArK initiative is part of the Ayushman

Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana in Karnataka.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme distinguishes between Eligible Patients
and General Patients, and not all residents receive free healthcare.
 Statement 3 is correct: An Eligible Patient is a resident of Karnataka who
belongs to an Eligible Household under the National Food Security Act,
2013.
 Statement 4 is correct: A General Patient does not belong to an Eligible
Household, and the treatment cost will be on a co-payment basis.
63. Where Punjab’s first Human Milk Bank (Comprehensive Lactation

Management Centre) was recently inaugurated?
(A) Patiala
(B) Amritsar
(C) Ludhiana
(D) Mohali
Correct Answer: (D) Mohali
Explanation: Punjab's first Human Milk Bank was inaugurated at Dr. B R

Ambedkar State Institute of Medical Sciences (AIMS), Mohali, with support from
the Rotary Club of Chandigarh.
64. Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Detox Initiative
launched by the Government of Karnataka:
1. The Digital Detox Initiative is a collaboration between the Government of
Karnataka, the All-India Game Developers Forum (AIGDF), and the National
Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences (NIMHANS).
2. The initiative focuses on reducing screen time, addressing digital addiction, and
encouraging mindful use of technology, especially in relation to gaming and
social media.
3. AIGDF is a for-profit organization under the All-India Gaming Federation
(AIGF), involved in promoting the use of technology for recreational purposes.
4. The initiative includes the establishment of Digital Detox Centers across
Karnataka, providing personalized guidance, counselling, and practical tools to
manage screen time.
(A) Only statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
(C) Only statement 3 is correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Only statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The initiative is a collaboration between the

Government of Karnataka, AIGDF, and NIMHANS.
 Statement 2 is correct: The initiative aims to reduce screen time and address
digital addiction, focusing on gaming and social media.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: AIGDF is a not-for-profit organization, not for-
profit.
 Statement 4 is correct: The initiative includes setting up Digital Detox
Centers across Karnataka.
65. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka State economy's
growth in 2023-24:
1. The overall state economy is estimated to grow at 6.6% in 2023-24 at constant
prices.
2. The services sector registered a growth rate of 8.7%, making it the highest
growing sector in the state.
3. The industrial sector experienced a growth of 7.5%.
4. The agriculture sector showed a positive growth rate of 1.8% due to favourable
weather conditions.
(A) Only Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
(B) Only Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct.
(C) Only Statement 1, Statement 2, and Statement 3 are correct.
(D) All of the above statements are correct.
Correct Answer: C) Only Statement 1, Statement 2, and Statement 3 are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. The state economy is indeed estimated to grow at 6.6%

at constant prices in 2023-24.
 Statement 2: Correct. The services sector registered the highest growth rate,
standing at 8.7%.
 Statement 3: Correct. The industrial sector showed growth of 7.5%.
 Statement 4: Incorrect. The agriculture sector actually showed negative
growth of -1.8% due to severe drought, not positive growth.
66. Consider the following statements regarding the Agriculture Development

Authority as per the Karnataka Budget 2024-25:
1. The Agriculture Development Authority will be created under the
chairmanship of the Chief Minister to facilitate effective implementation of
policies related to agriculture and allied activities.
2. The Authority aims to achieve better coordination between the Departments of
Agriculture, Horticulture, Sericulture, Fisheries, Cooperation, and Animal
Husbandry.
(A) Only Statement 1 is correct.
(B) Only Statement 2 is correct.
(C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
(D) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct.
Answer: C
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. The Karnataka Budget 2024-25 proposes the creation

of the Agriculture Development Authority under the chairmanship of the Chief
Minister to implement policies related to agriculture and allied sectors
effectively.
 Statement 2: Correct. The Authority will work towards better coordination
between various departments, including Agriculture, Horticulture, Sericulture,
Fisheries, Cooperation, and Animal Husbandry.
67. Consider the following statements regarding the "Café Sanjeevini" initiative
as per the Karnataka Budget 2024-25:
1. The Karnataka government will launch 50 women-run Café Sanjeevini outlets
across the state during this year at a cost of Rs. 7.50 crore.
2. These canteens are aimed at addressing the demand and supply gap in rural
areas for healthy, hygienic, and affordable cooked food, including traditional
local cuisine.
Correct Answer: C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. As per the Karnataka Budget 2024-25, 50 women-run

Café Sanjeevini outlets will be launched at a cost of Rs. 7.50 crore.
 Statement 2: Correct. These canteens will focus on providing healthy,
hygienic, and affordable cooked food, particularly in rural areas, while
promoting traditional local cuisine.
68. Which of the following programmes, as per the Karnataka Budget 2024-25,
aims to provide vocational skill training in 100 select Gram Panchayats to
align with women's aspirations and interests?
(A) Shakti Scheme
(B) Savitribai Phule Women Empowerment Programme
(C) Udyogini Scheme
(D) Mahila Samarthya Yojana
Correct Answer: B) Savitribai Phule Women Empowerment Programme
69. As per the Karnataka Budget 2024-25, what will the State Institute for
Transformation of Karnataka (SITK) be renamed as?
(A) Karnataka State Policy and Development Commission
(B) Karnataka Economic and Strategic Development Council
(C) Karnataka State Policy and Planning Commission
(D) Karnataka Institute for Sustainable Growth
Correct Answer: B) Karnataka State Policy and Planning Commission
70. Consider the following statements regarding the Seva Sindhu Project:
1. Seva Sindhu is an initiative of the Government of Karnataka to provide
government services in a cashless, contactless, and paperless manner through
online platforms and various service centres.
2. The project aims to reduce office visits by citizens and deliver services through
centres like Grama One, Janasevaka, and Karnataka One.
(A) Only Statement 1 is correct
(B) Only Statement 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Correct Answer: C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. Seva Sindhu is an initiative of the Government of

Karnataka that provides government services to citizens in a cashless,
contactless, and paperless manner. This project leverages technology to
improve efficiency and transparency in the delivery of public services.
 Statement 2: Correct. The project reduces the need for citizens to visit
government offices and delivers services through multiple platforms, including
Grama One, Janasevaka, Bangalore One, and Karnataka One centres,
enhancing accessibility for all citizens.
71. Consider the following statements regarding the Grama One Project:
1. Grama one aims to provide single-point assistance for all citizen-centric
activities at the village level, including Seva Sindhu services, RTI queries, and
applications for the Chief Minister's Relief Fund.
2. Grama one centres are set up to offer various government services under one
roof for rural citizens, eliminating the need to visit Taluk-level offices.
3. The Grama One Project was launched in the budget speech for the financial
year 2022-2023 by the Honourable Chief Minister of Karnataka.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. Grama One is designed to be a single-point assistance

centre for citizen-centric activities at the village level, including services like
Seva Sindhu, RTI queries, and applications for the Chief Minister Relief
Fund.
 Statement 2: Correct. The project aims to bring multiple government services
under one roof, making it easier for rural citizens to access services without
having to visit Taluk-level offices, thus improving convenience and efficiency.
 Statement 3: Incorrect. Grama One Yojana was announced by the Hon'ble
Chief Minister in his budget speech for the financial year 2020-2021, not
2022-2023.
Thus, the correct answer is A) 1 and 2 only, as both statements 1 and 2 are true, while
statement 3 is inaccurate.
72. Consider the following statements regarding the Janasevaka Project:

1. The Janasevaka initiative was launched to provide doorstep delivery of
government services to citizens, allowing them to avail services at their
convenience.
2. The project was initially launched on a pilot basis in the T. Dasarahalli
assembly constituency in 2019.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C) both 1 and 2
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. The Janasevaka Project was introduced to offer

doorstep delivery of various government services, making it convenient for
citizens to access these services without leaving their homes.
 Statement 2: Correct. The project was first launched on a pilot basis in the T.
Dasarahalli assembly constituency on 02.03.2019.
Thus, the correct answer is C) Both 1 and 2, as both statements are accurate.
73. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the development
initiatives in North Karnataka?
1. A Central University has been established at Kalaburagi.
2. A High Court Bench has been implemented at Dharwad and Kalaburagi.
3. A Women s University has been established at Vijayapura.
4. IT parks have been established in Kalaburagi and Hubli.
5. A Food Park has been established in Kalaburagi.
6. A Textile Park has been established in Kalaburagi.
(A) 1, 2, and 3 only
(B) 2, 3, and 5 only
(C) 1, 3, and 6 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. A Central University has been established at
Kalaburagi as part of the state's higher education initiatives.
 Statement 2: Correct. A High Court Bench has been set up and is operational
in both Dharwad and Kalaburagi, improving access to justice in the northern
regions of Karnataka.
 Statement 3: Correct. A Women s University has been established in
Vijayapura, contributing to the promotion of women's education.
 Statement 4: Correct. IT parks have been developed in Kalaburagi and
Hubli, fostering the growth of technology-based industries in these regions.
 Statement 5: Correct. A Food Park has been set up in Kalaburagi to boost
the food processing industry and agricultural development.
 Statement 6: Incorrect. There is no confirmed establishment of a Textile Park
in Kalaburagi as part of this set of initiatives.
Thus, the correct statements are 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5, making Option D the correct
answer.
74. Consider the following statements regarding development initiatives in

Karnataka:
1. The Malnad Area Development Board, established in 1991, was created to
oversee the overall development of the Malnad region, characterized by its
hilly terrain and unique developmental needs.
2. The Bayaluseeme Area Development Board, established in 1994, focuses on
addressing the challenges of a drought-prone region, with efforts directed
towards sustainable agriculture and resource conservation.
3. The Karavali Development Authority, established in 2008, plays a crucial role
in enhancing infrastructure and promoting tourism in Karnataka's coastal
regions.
4. The Karnataka Legislators' Local Area Development Scheme (KLLADS),
initiated in 2001-02, is designed to empower local constituencies by providing
funding for infrastructure development and community welfare projects.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 3, and 4 only
Correct Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation:
 Statement 1: The Malnad Area Development Board was established in 1991
to focus on the development of the hilly Malnad region, addressing its specific
challenges.
 Statement 2: The Bayaluseeme Area Development Board, set up in 1994,
works to improve conditions in drought-prone areas, emphasizing agriculture
and water conservation.
 Statement 3: The Karavali Development Authority, established in 2008,
concentrates on infrastructure, tourism, and development in Karnataka s
coastal areas.
 Statement 4: The KLLADS, initiated in 2001-02, provides funding to
constituencies for local infrastructure and development projects, empowering
legislators to meet local needs.
75. Consider the following statements regarding health indicators in India for the
year 2020 as per the Sample Registration System (SRS) 2020:
1. The Birth Rate for every 1000 population was 16.5.
2. The Maternal Mortality Rate (for every 100,000 live births) stood at 69.
3. The Infant Mortality Rate per 1000 live births was 19.
4. The Average Life Expectancy for females was 67.9 years.
(A) 1, 2, and 3 only

(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Correct Answer: A) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. The Birth Rate for 2020 was 16.5 per 1000 population.
 Statement 2: Correct. The Maternal Mortality Rate for 2020 was 69 per
100,000 live births.
 Statement 3: Correct. The Infant Mortality Rate was 19 per 1000 live births
in 2020.
 Statement 4: Incorrect. The Average Life Expectancy for females in 2020
was 70.9 years, not 67.9 years.
Thus, Option A is the correct answer.

76. Which of the following is/are true about the 'Naavu Manujaru' programme?
1. It was announced by Chief Minister Siddaramaiah in the 2024-25 State Budget.
2. The programme involves adding an extra period of value education to the
school curriculum.
3. Special grant will be given for the implementation of the programme.
How many statement are correct
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All the statement
Answer: B) Only two
 Naavu Manujaru Announced in the Karnataka State Budget 2024-25 by Chief

Minister Siddaramaiah.
 Objective: To transform educational institutions into centres of social harmony,
tolerance, and scientific temper.
 Implemented through weekly discussions and dialogues for two hours (three
periods of 40 minutes).
 Applicable to government, aided, and unaided primary and high schools in
Karnataka.
 Value education and Socially Useful Productive Work (SUPW) periods
adjusted for this programme.
 A nodal officer is appointed at the district level, and reports are submitted to
the Department of State Educational Research and Training (DSERT).
 No special grants allocated for the programme s implementation.
 Discussions on social harmony, based on local and national festivals, folk
games, and sports.
 Exploration of social reformers' thoughts.
 Focus on eliminating inequality and promoting constitutional values like
equality, liberty, and fraternity.
 Raising awareness about scientific temper and environmental consciousness.
 Addressing superstitions and reconciling them with science.
 Group activities promoting co-existence, such as the importance of midday
meals and community lunch (sahabhojana).
 Developing students' ability to think independently, rationally, and evaluate the
pros and cons of issues.
77. Which of the following statements about K-RIDE is/are incorrect?
1. K-RIDE is a joint venture between the Government of Karnataka and the
Ministry of Railways, created to boost rail infrastructure projects in Karnataka.
2. K-RIDE is responsible for executing the Bengaluru Suburban Rail Project
(BSRP) and two large doubling projects.
Choose the correct option:
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D) neither 1 nor 2
 K-RIDE is a joint venture between the Government of Karnataka and the

Ministry of Railways.
 Established to enhance rail infrastructure projects in Karnataka, following the
principle of cooperative federalism.
 Currently tasked with executing the Bengaluru Suburban Rail Project (BSRP)
and two major doubling projects.
 Headquarters: Bangalore.
 K-RIDE aims to set a standard for rail infrastructure projects through agile,
innovative, and high-quality execution.
 Vision:
o Deliver world-class rail infrastructure with agility and innovation.
o Enhance rural-urban connectivity.
o Integrate multiple modes of public transport for seamless mobility
solutions.
o Promote transit-oriented development with a focus on sustainability.
78. What is the primary objective of the Vyajya-mukta Grama initiative in

Karnataka?
(A) To promote Chemical free agricultural productivity
(B) To improve village Cleanliness
(C) To resolve disputes at the village level through mediation and negotiation
(D) To promote Plastic free villages
Answer: c) To resolve disputes at the village level through mediation and
negotiation
 Vyajya-mukta Grama (litigation-free villages) is an initiative in Karnataka

aimed at resolving disputes at the village level through mediation and
negotiation.
 It reduces the burden on courts and promotes communal harmony.
 The program encourages resolving conflicts amicably without litigation,
fostering a culture of dialogue and mutual understanding.
 The initiative seeks to bring together the government, judicial system, lawyers,
society, and local bodies to ensure its success.
 Karnataka already has Lok Adalat, a free legal aid system, and legal clinics in
law schools, which can support this initiative.
 The success of the program depends on the cohesion of all these mechanisms
working together.
79. Which of the following is/are true about the Jeevasarthakathe organization?
1. The Jeevasarthakathe has been constituted by the Government of Karnataka for
a sustained deceased donor (Cadaver) transplantation programme in the state of
Karnataka.
2. It is the body appointed to oversee the implementation of the Transplantation of
Human Organs Act of 1994.
3. The organization aims to coordinate the deceased donor transplantation
activities and also educate the public on organ donation.
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 Only
(D) 1 and 3
Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3
 Jeevasarthakathe is a body constituted by the Government of Karnataka for a

sustained deceased donor (cadaver) transplantation program.
 It oversees the implementation of the Transplantation of Human Organs Act,
1994 in Karnataka.
 The organization coordinates deceased donor transplantation activities and
educates the public on organ donation.
 Functions include involving hospitals in the deceased donor program through
promotional activities, seminars, workshops, and educational programs.
 Public awareness programs are conducted through hospitals, educational
institutions, corporates, and NGOs.
 Jeevasarthakathe manages the Karnataka State Organ and Tissue Sharing
System and other tasks assigned by the Health and Family Welfare
Department.
80. Which of the following statements is/are true about the 'Anywhere
Registration' system?
1. It allows individuals to register property documents at any sub-registrar office
within their district.
2. The system was launched in 2002 in Mysuru.
3. Initially, the system was introduced in sub-registrar offices in specific districts
of Bengaluru.
Select the correct Options using given codes below
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 1 and 3
Answer: D) 1 and 3
 The Anywhere Registration system allows individuals to register their

property documents at any sub-registrar office within the district, even if it is
not the jurisdictional office.
 Launched in 2011 in Bengaluru.
 Citizens can register property documents at any sub-registrar office within the
jurisdiction, as per the Registration Act, 1908.
 This system gives people the flexibility to choose a less crowded sub-registrar
office within their district for document registration.
 Initially introduced in sub-registrar offices under the Gandhinagar,
Basavanagudi, Jayanagar, Shivajinagar, and Rajajinagar districts in Bengaluru.
81. What is the primary focus of the Sarojini Mahishi report?
(A) Environmental conservation through ESZ
(B) Job quotas for locals in government and private sectors
(C) Two languages system for primary education
(D) Healthcare improvements in Kalyana Karnataka region
Answer: B).Job quotas for locals in government and private sectors
 Kannada organizations have recently held rallies advocating for the immediate
implementation of the Sarojini Mahishi report.
 The report recommends job quotas for locals in both government and private
sectors.
 Sarojini Mahishi, a former Union Minister, submitted the report in 1984.
 The report includes 58 recommendations, with key proposals like 100%
reservation for locals in group C and D jobs in Union government departments
and public sector undertakings operating in Karnataka.
82. What is the name of the person from Karnataka who became India s first
Miss Universal Petite?
(A) Ananya Rai
(B) Shruti Hegde
(C) Priya Sharma
(D) Neha Shetty
Answer: B) Shruti Hegde
 Shruti Hegde is a doctor and beauty queen from Hubli, Karnataka.

 She became India s first Miss Universal Petite.
 She is currently pursuing an MD in dermatology in Tumakuru, about 70 km
from Bengaluru.
 The Miss Universal Petite pageant is held annually in Tampa, Florida, USA.
 Shruti Hegde was the second runner-up of Miss Asia International India 2023.
83. Which of the following statements about Nagarhole National Park is/are
correct?
1. The park was renamed as Rajiv Gandhi National Park.
2. It is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and lies in the Western Ghats.
3. The Suvarna Rekha River, which forms a boundary with Bandipur National
Park, also flows through Nagarhole.
How many statement are correct
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All the statement
Answer: B) Only two
Nagarhole National Park:

 It is also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park.
 Established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1955.
 Upgraded to a national park in 1988.
 Declared the 37th Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 1999.
 Located in the Western Ghats and part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
 The Nagarhole River flows through the park and joins the Kabini River.
 The Kabini River serves as a boundary between Nagarhole and Bandipur
National Park.
84. Which of the following statements about the C-band Doppler weather radar
installation is/are true?
1. C-band Doppler weather radar with a 250 km operational range will be
installed at Bengaluru by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) this year,
a top the Nandi Hills.
2. The radar will consist of a dome atop a 25-metre tower, weighing 6.5 tonnes,
and will be installed on a 20x20 metres site.
3. The primary purpose of the radar is to enhance the accuracy of weather
forecasts and provide early warnings of severe weather conditions, while also
protecting infrastructure during natural disasters.
Select the correct Options
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
 Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology announced
the installation of a C-band Doppler weather radar in Bengaluru this year.
 The C-band Doppler weather radar, with an operational range of 250 km, will
be installed by the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
 It will be placed atop Nandi Hills, 62 km from Bengaluru.
 The radar consists of a dome atop a tower weighing 6.5 tonnes, with a tower
height of 25 meters on a 20x20 meters site.
 The radar aims to strengthen the early warning system for the benefit of various
stakeholders and the public.
 It will not only protect infrastructure during natural disasters but also
significantly improve the accuracy of weather forecasts and provide early
warnings of severe weather conditions.
85. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Gruha
Lakshmi Scheme?
1. The Gruha Lakshmi Scheme is implemented by the Women & Child
Development Department.
2. The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to women who are the heads
of their households.
3. Under the scheme, women heads of households will receive Rs. 2,000 per
month as financial support.
(C) Only Statement 3 is correct.
Correct Answer: D) All statements are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. The Gruha Lakshmi Scheme is indeed implemented by

the Women & Child Development Department.
 Statement 2: Correct. The scheme specifically aims to provide financial
assistance to women who are the heads of their households.
 Statement 3: Correct. Eligible women will receive Rs. 2,000 per month as
financial support under the scheme.
86. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Anna Bhagya
Scheme?
1. The Anna Bhagya Scheme is implemented by the Food & Civil Supplies
Department.
2. Under the scheme, beneficiaries receive a total of 10 KGs of food grains per
month.
3. The additional 5 KGs of food grains provided by the State Government is in
addition to the 5 KGs provided by the Government of India (GoI).
(B) Only Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
(C) All statements are correct.
(D) Only Statement 3 is correct.
Correct Answer: C) All statements are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. The Anna Bhagya Scheme is implemented by the Food

& Civil Supplies Department.
 Statement 2: Correct. Beneficiaries receive a total of 10 KGs of food grains
each month under this scheme.
 Statement 3: Correct. The additional 5 KGs provided by the State Government
is indeed on top of the 5 KGs provided by the Government of India.
87. Consider the following statements regarding INS Sandhyak:

1. INS Sandhyak is the first Survey Vessel Large (SVL) ship commissioned into
the Indian Navy and is the first in a series of four SVL ships.
2. INS Sandhyak is equipped with advanced hydrographic equipment, including
Deep & Shallow Water Multi-Beam Echo-Sounders and can also serve as a
hospital ship during wartime or emergencies.
Correct Answer: C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. INS Sandhyak is indeed the first Survey Vessel Large
(SVL) ship commissioned into the Indian Navy and is the first in a series of
four SVL ships.
 Statement 2: Correct. INS Sandhyak is equipped with state-of-the-art
hydrographic equipment, including Deep & Shallow Water Multi-Beam Echo-
Sounders, and can also function as a hospital ship during wartime or
emergencies.
88. Consider the following statements regarding the INSAT-3DS weather

forecasting satellite:
1. The INSAT-3DS satellite was successfully launched by ISRO using the GSLV-
F14 rocket.
2. INSAT-3DS is funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and is
designed for weather forecasting.
3. The satellite was launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in
Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
(A) Only Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
(B) Only Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct.
(C) Only Statement 1 and Statement 3 are correct.
(D) All of the above statements are correct.
Correct Answer: D) All of the above statements are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. The INSAT-3DS was successfully launched by ISRO

using the GSLV-F14 rocket.
 Statement 2: Correct. The satellite is funded by the Ministry of Earth
Sciences (MoES) and is specifically designed for weather forecasting.
 Statement 3: Correct. The satellite was indeed launched from the Satish
Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
89. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Hasiru
Karnataka Programme?
1. The Hasiru Karnataka Programme was launched in the 2018-19 financial year.
2. The motto of the programme is "A tree to each house, a groove to each village,
a small forest to each taluk, a forest to each district."
3. The programme focuses solely on urban areas and does not involve
participation from educational institutions.
(B) Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(C) Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Correct Answer: B) Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct. The Hasiru Karnataka Programme was launched in the

financial year 2018-19.
Statement 2: Correct. The motto of the programme emphasizes afforestation goals at

various levels (household, village, taluk, and district).
Statement 3: Incorrect. The programme actively involves students from schools and
colleges, as well as environmental organizations, highlighting its inclusive approach
towards afforestation in both urban and rural areas.
90. Consider the following statements regarding the GSAT-20 satellite:

1. GSAT-20 will be launched by New Space India Limited (NSIL) using a
SpaceX Falcon-9 rocket, indicating a partnership with a private aerospace
company for satellite launches.
2. GSAT-20 is designed to cater to the communication needs of remote and
underserved regions, emphasizing its role in enhancing connectivity.
3. The weight of GSAT-20 exceeds the capacity of ISRO s most powerful
rocket, which raises questions about the mission planning and satellite design.
4. GSAT-20 is part of a trend where satellites are developed based on demand,
following previous successful missions aimed at meeting specific market
needs.
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C) 1, 2, and 4 only
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct. This statement highlights the collaboration between Indian and
international aerospace sectors for satellite launches.
Statement 2: Correct. It emphasizes the importance of the satellite in improving
connectivity for underserved regions.
Statement 3: Incorrect. This statement implies a logistical challenge, as exceeding

the rocket s capacity would require alternative planning strategies.
Statement 4: Correct. This reflects a growing trend in the satellite industry where
developments are driven by specific market demands.
91. Where has the Union government approved the establishment of a Cheetah
Breeding Centre?
(A) Banni grasslands of Gujarat’s Kutch district
(B) Kaziranga National Park
(C) Jim Corbett National Park
(D) Sundarbans of West Bengal
Answer: A
 The Union government has approved the establishment of a Cheetah Breeding

Centre in the Banni grasslands located in Gujarat’s Kutch district. This region
was selected for its suitable environment, including a prey base and the absence
of apex predators like leopards, making it ideal for the reintroduction and
breeding of cheetahs.
92. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Agni-1 ballistic
missile?
1. The Agni-1 ballistic missile was successfully launched by the Strategic Forces
Command from APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha.
2. The missile has a range of 700 900 km and is classified as a medium-range
ballistic missile.
3. Agni-1 is a multi-stage, liquid-fuel missile capable of carrying a nuclear
warhead.
Choose the correct codes given below

(A) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(C) All statements are correct.
(D) Only Statement 1 is correct.
Correct Answer: A) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1: Correct. The Agni-1 ballistic missile was indeed successfully
launched from APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha, by the Strategic Forces
Command.
 Statement 2: Correct. Agni-1 is a medium-range ballistic missile with a range
of 700 900 km.
 Statement 3: Incorrect. Agni-1 is a single-stage, solid-fuel missile, not a multi-
stage, liquid-fuel missile. It is capable of carrying a nuclear warhead with an
estimated payload of 1,500 kg.
93. Consider the following statements about the Best Tourism Village of India
2023:
1. Nawanpind Sardaran village in Gurdaspur, Punjab was awarded the title of
Best Tourism Village of India 2023 by the Union Ministry of Tourism.
2. The recognition was given for the village's efforts in promoting sustainable
tourism and preserving its ancestral homes, including the Kothi and Pipal
Haveli.
3. The award was a direct initiative of the UNESCO World Heritage Centre to
promote cultural tourism in Indian villages.
(C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
(D) All Statements are correct
Correct answer: C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Nawanpind Sardaran village in Gurdaspur, Punjab

won the Best Tourism Village of India 2023 title from the Union Ministry of
Tourism.
 Statement 2 is correct: The village was recognized for its promotion of
sustainable tourism and preservation of ancestral homes like Kothi and Pipal
Haveli.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The award was given by the Union Ministry of
Tourism, not the UNESCO World Heritage Centre.
94. Consider the following statements regarding the One District, One Skill
program in Karnataka:
1. The One District, One Skill program is an initiative by the Karnataka Skill
Development Corporation aimed at training 100 artisans per district in modern
techniques and equipment for their traditional skills.
2. The program covers 25 districts across Karnataka to promote self-employment
and entrepreneurship among artisans.
Options:
(D) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Correct answer: A) Only Statement 1 is correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Karnataka Skill Development Corporation

initiated the One District, One Skill program to train 100 artisans per district
in modern techniques.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The program covers 31 districts, not 25, to promote
self-employment and entrepreneurship.
95. Which of the following statements is/are true about the Kissan Malls
proposed in the budget 2024-25?
1. Kissan Malls will be opened in select districts to provide farmers with
horticulture-related technical guidance.
2. Kissan Malls will offer market connectivity, farming implements, and agro-
products under one roof.
Choose the correct codes given below:
(A) Only statement 1 is true.
(B) Only statement 2 is true.
(C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(D) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is true.
Answer: (C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.

96. What is the primary objective of the Marusinchana Programme proposed in
Karnataka budget 2024-25?
(A) To provide financial aid to students in higher education
(B) To build new school infrastructure
(C) To improve the learning ability of 6th and 7th standard students who are
lagging behind
(D) To introduce new sports facilities in schools
Answer: C) To improve the learning ability of 6th and 7th standard students who are
lagging behind
97. Which of the following statements is/are true about the 'Bhoo-Suraksha'
scheme?
1. The 'Bhoo-Suraksha' scheme will be rolled out on a pilot basis.
2. The scheme aims to provide citizens with computerized records by scanning
land, survey, and registration records of the Revenue Department.
Choose the correct codes given below:
(A) Only statement 1 is true.
(B) Only statement 2 is true.
(C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
(D) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is true.
Answer: C
98. Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Price Index (CPI)
- Combined released by the Central Statistical Office (CSO):
1. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is commonly regarded as a barometer of
inflation and is used as a tool to monitor price stability.
2. The government employees and wage contracts between labour and employer
Dearness Allowance (DA) are determined based on this index.
(D) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Correct answer: C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The CPI (Combined) is widely seen as a reliable
measure of inflation, tracking changes in prices of a basket of goods and
services consumed by households. It helps monitor price stability in the
economy.
 Statement 2 is also correct: The CPI is crucial in determining the Dearness
Allowance (DA) for government employees and in wage contracts between
labourers and employers, ensuring wages keep up with inflation.
99. Who publishes the important publications "Karnataka at a Glance" and

"District at a Glance" every year?
(A) Karnataka State Planning Board
(B) Directorate of Economics and Statistics
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Karnataka Revenue Department
Correct Answer: B) Directorate of Economics and Statistics
100. Who recently received Bhutan's highest civilian award, the 'Order of the
Druk Gyalpo'?
(A) Joe Biden
(B) Angela Merkel
(C) Narendra Modi
(D) Emmanuel Macron
Correct answer: (C) Narendra Modi.
Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi was awarded Bhutan's highest civilian honour,
the 'Order of the Druk Gyalpo', in December 2021. This prestigious award
recognizes his contributions to strengthening the relationship between India and
Bhutan.

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Spardha Lines State Wide Test Series – 2024

Laqshya – KAS Prelims Test Series

Hence Option C is the correct Answer.

2. Consider the following statements:

5. Consider the following statements about the ecology and behaviour of

6. When is the international day of zero waste celebrated?

India’s initiatives in Waste management:

7. Which of the following is NOT considered an air pollutant?

Secondary Air Pollutants:

Other Notable Pollutants:

Hence Option D is the correct Answer.

8. Regarding plastic pollution, consider the following statements:

Hence Option C is the correct Answer.

9. Consider the following statements about the impact of urbanisation on

Hence Option C is the correct Answer.

10. With reference to greenhouse gas emissions, consider the following

11. Regarding the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), consider the

Hence Option A is the correct Answer.

Hence Option A is the correct Answer.

Hence Option C is the correct Answer.

14. Regarding the pyramid of numbers, consider the following statements:

Hence Option C is the correct Answer.

15. What is the main goal of Google’s Project Navlekha?

17. In the context of Big Data, 'Veracity' refers to:

Hence Option A is the correct Answer.

Key focus areas include:

Hence Option B is the correct Answer.

Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) is crucial for secure communication as it

● Launched with a focus on quantum computing, quantum communication,

Hence Option C is the correct Answer.

Hence Option B is the correct Answer.

21. Consider the following statements regarding nuclear fusion:

22. Consider the following statements about Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD)

Hence Option B is the correct Answer.

Hence Option D is the correct Answer.

25. What does the pH scale measure?

26. Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis Program:

Hence Option C is the correct Answer.

Hence Option A is the correct Answer.

Hence Option A is the correct Answer.

34. Revamping of the text material was the main focus in

Education always plays a prominent role in national development, its role in

36. In an examination, 52% candidates failed in English and 42% failed in

Total number of candidates = 100%

There are two married couples in a family of six person’s A, B, C, D, E and F.

37. How is E related to the accountant?

Let number of girls = x and the number of boys = y

190 games, where both the players were boys.

Task 1 cannot be assigned to either person 1 or 2 i.e.

40. Which of the following persons is neither hardworking nor ambitious?

Hari is neither hardworking nor ambitious.

Suppose the vessel initially contains 11 L of liquid.

Quantity of water in new mixture =

Quantity of syrup in new mixture =

So, part of the mixture replaced =

Let the cost price of an article = ₹ x

% of students failed in paper I = 100 70 = 30%

Let, total number of students be x.

Now, 45% of x = 270

45. The author's discussion would be greatly influenced if he agreed to which of