MCQ’S ON TROPICAL DISEASES

1. Pertussis is caused by which of the following bacteria?

A) Bordetella bronchiseptica.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Bordetella pertussis.
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Bordetella pertussis

2. If an infectious disease can be transmitted directly from one person to another, it is:

A) A susceptible host.
B) A communicable disease.
C) A portal of entry to a host.
D) A portal of exit from the reservoir.

If an infectious disease is transmitted directly from one person to another, it is a communicable

disease. Portals of entry and exit are the mechanisms of disease transmission. A susceptible host is a
person who can acquire an infection.

3. Which of the following best describes the method used by the WHO to control dengue outbreaks?

A) Providing antibiotics to all suspected cases.

B) Large-scale mosquito control programs.
C) Quarantining infected individuals.
D) Vaccination of all citizens in affected areas.

Large-scale mosquito control programs

4. What is the most important indicator of severity in dengue shock syndrome?

A) Persistent fever.
B) Low blood pressure.
C) Nausea.
D) Loss of appetite.

Low blood pressure

5. Which of the following is true regarding secondary dengue infection?

A) It is always milder than the first infection.
B) It can lead to a higher risk of severe disease, such as dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF).
C) It does not affect the individual at all.
D) It is prevented by antibiotics.

It can lead to a higher risk of severe disease, such as dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF).

6. A client is isolated because the client has pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse notes that the client
seems angry but knows this is a normal response to isolation. The best intervention is to:

A) Provide a dark, quiet room to calm the client.

B) Explain the isolation procedures and provide meaningful stimulation.
C) Reduce the level of precautions to keep the client from becoming angry.
D) Limit family and other caregiver visits to reduce the risk of spreading the infection.

The nurse should explain the isolation procedures and take measures to improve the client's
stimulation.

7. The most effective way to break the chain of infection is by:

A) Practicing good hand hygiene.

B) Wearing gloves.
C) Placing clients in isolation.
D) Providing private rooms for clients.
E) Not following infection control policies.

Good hand hygiene is the most effective way to break the chain of infection. Wearing gloves can help
decrease disease transmission, but clean hands are required for it to be truly effective.

8. A gown should be worn when:

A) The client's hygiene is poor.

B) The client has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or hepatitis.
C) The nurse is assisting with medication administration.
D) Blood or body fluids may get on the nurse's clothing from a task the nurse plans to perform.

Gowns should be worn when there is a possibility of blood or body fluids getting on the nurse's
clothes.
9. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of dengue fever?

A) Severe abdominal pain.

B) Persistent vomiting.
C) Rapid weight gain.
D) Runny nose.

Runny nose

10. What is the primary treatment for managing dengue fever?

A) Antibiotics.
B) Antiviral drugs.
C) Supportive care and fluids.
D) Steroids.

Supportive care and fluids

11. Which of the following measures is most effective in preventing tetanus after a deep wound
injury?

A) Cleaning the wound with soap and water.

B) Applying a bandage immediately.
C) Getting a tetanus shot or booster.
D) Using antibiotics only.

Getting a tetanus shot or booster

12. Which of the following is true regarding the oral polio vaccine (OPV)?

A) It contains a killed virus.

B) It is administered by injection.
C) It provides both individual and community immunity.
D) It is given only to adults.

It provides both individual and community immunity.

13-Which is the infective form of the malaria parasite?

A. Oocyst.
B. Sporozoite.
C. Bradyzoite.
D. Tachyzoite.
E. Plasmodium.
Sporozoites are the stage of the malaria parasite that is transmitted to humans through the bite of an
infected female Anopheles mosquito. Once in the bloodstream, they travel to the liver to continue
their life cycle.

14. The cytomegalovirus (CMV) can be spread by sexual contact and also by:

A. Kissing.
B. Sharing an office with an infected person.
C. Changing a child's wet diapers.
D. A and C.

CMV is a member of the herpesvirus family. It is spread not only by sexual contact, but also by other
forms of contact. The virus is found in saliva, urine, and other bodily fluids. Because the virus is also
often found in semen, as well as in secretions from the cervix, it can be spread by sexual contact.
People in a day-care setting who care for children 3 and younger are at higher risk of getting CMV. The
virus doesn't spread easily. Casual contact with an infected person doesn't usually pass on the
infection. Like other herpesviruses, CMV has no cure. But the virus usually stays inactive in the body.

15. Which vaccine is used to prevent pertussis?

A) BCG vaccine.
B) DTP vaccine.
C) MMR vaccine.
D) Hepatitis B vaccine.

Answer: B) DTP vaccine (Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis)

16. Which of the following statements about Vibrio Cholerae is true?

A. It forms spores that are resistant to heat.

B. It is a gram-positive bacterium.
C. It primarily causes skin infections.
D. It is sensitive to stomach acid and requires high infectious doses.
E. It is a gram-negative bacterium.

17. The paramyxovirus family employ what strategy at virus entry?

A. Mediated by Fusion protein F.

B. Has fusion from within a cytoplasmic vacuole at low pH.
C. Viruses can puncture plasma membranes at entry.
D. A fusion mediated by M protein.
 E. A fusion mediated by R Protein.

18. Which of the following structures travel through the substance of the parotid gland?

A. The maxillary artery.

B. The maxillary artery and retromandibular vein.
C. The maxillary artery, retromandibular vein and facial artery.
D. The maxillary artery, retromandibular vein, facial artery and buccal branch of the mandibular
nerve.

The maxillary artery and retromandibular vein. Both the maxillary artery and the retromandibular vein
travel through the substance of the parotid gland. The facial nerve (CN VII) also traverses the parotid
gland but does not travel through its substance in the same way. The buccal branch of the mandibular
nerve (V3) branches off from the facial nerve within the gland but is not considered a primary
structure traveling through it.

19. Polio can be eradicated by which of the following?

A. Attention to sewage control and hygiene.

B. Killed polio vaccine.
C. Live polio vaccine.
D. Combination of the killed and live vaccines.

Combination of the killed and live vaccines. The eradication of polio is best achieved through a
combination of both the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV, killed vaccine) and the oral polio vaccine (OPV,
live attenuated vaccine). This approach helps provide immunity and control the spread of the virus,
particularly in areas where polio is still endemic. Additionally, improving sanitation and hygiene is
crucial in reducing transmission, but vaccination is key to eradication efforts.

20. If a disease jumps from a non-human animal to a human, then it is termed as

A. Zoonotic disease.
B. Infectious disease.
C. Congenital disease.
D. Iatrogenic disease.

Disease Transmitted from Animals to Humans. A zoonosis (zoonotic disease or zoonoses -plural) is an
infectious disease that is transmitted between species from animals to humans (or from humans to
animals).

21. Perinatal transmission is said to occur when a pathogen is transmitted from

A. Non-human to human.
 B. Infected to uninfected.
C. Mother to infant.
D. All of the above.

Transmission of a disease-causing agent (a pathogen) from mother to baby during the perinatal
period, the period immediately before and after birth.

22. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) can be contracted only if _______

A. Consume nerve tissues (brain and spine) of cattle infected with Mad cow disease.
B. Consume shrimp infected with E.coli.
C. Consume water tainted with E.coli.
D. None of the above.

Consume nerve tissues (brain and spine) of cattle infected with Mad cow disease. vCJD is linked to the
consumption of beef products from cattle affected by bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE),
commonly known as Mad Cow Disease.

23. Which of the following is true for the tetanus vaccine?

A. Every traveler should be up to date.

B. No one should have more than 6 shots in their lifetime.
C. Reactions are less likely to occur the more you have.
D. A tetanus vaccine should only be given to highly contaminated wounds regardless or vaccine status.

Reactions are more likely to occur the more you have.

24. What is the key component of oral rehydration solutions used to manage cholera?

A. Antibiotics.
B. Electrolytes and glucose.
C. Antiviral drugs.
D. Antipyretics.
E. Antidiuretics.

Electrolytes and glucose. Oral rehydration solutions (ORS) typically contain a balance of electrolytes
(such as sodium and potassium) and glucose, which help replenish lost fluids and restore electrolyte
balance in patients suffering from dehydration due to cholera.

25. What is the main genetic characteristic of the herpes virus family?

A. Large linear DNA genome.

B. Small ssDNA genome.
 C. Segmented DNA genome.
D. Circular dsDNA genome.
E. Small Linear DNA Genome.

Large linear DNA genome. Herpesviruses have a large double-stranded DNA genome that is linear in
structure.

26. To lower your risk of getting an STI:

A. Use a male condom.

B. Don't have multiple sex partners.
C. As a young person, delay having sexual relations as long as possible.
D. All of the above.

All of the above. Using male condoms, avoiding multiple sex partners, and delaying sexual relations as
long as possible are all effective strategies to reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections.

27. What is the most successful and most widely used 'travel' vaccine for international visitors?

A. Influenza.
B. MMR.
C. Yellow Fever.
D. Rabies.

Yellow Fever. The Yellow Fever vaccine is particularly important for travelers going to areas where the
disease is endemic, and proof of vaccination is often required for entry into certain countries.

28. Patients with organ transplants are most frequently infected with:

A. Hepatis A.
B. Hepatitis B.
C. CMV.
D. EMV.
E. CBV.

CMV (Cytomegalovirus). Cytomegalovirus is a common infection in organ transplant recipients due to

their immunocompromised state, making them more susceptible to viral infections.
29. Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by:

A. IgM antibodies in serum.

B. Isolation from stool.
C. Culture from blood.
D. Isolation from bile.
E. Culture from Saliva.

IgM antibodies in serum. The presence of IgM antibodies to hepatitis A virus (anti-HAV IgM) indicates
a recent infection and is the primary serological marker used for diagnosis.

30. In infectious diseases such as hepatitis B and C, a reservoir for pathogens is:

A) The blood.
B) The urinary tract.
C) The oral tract.
D) The reproductive tract.
E) Saliva.

The blood is a reservoir for pathogens in hepatitis B and C. Neither organism can survive in the urinary,
reproductive, or respiratory tract.

31. A nurse is assigned to care for a client with a deep wound infection. Which of the following actions
would result in the contamination of sterile gloves?

A) The nurse grasps a sterile cotton-tipped swab to clean wound edges.

B) The nurse takes a gauze pad in hand and places it in the wound.
C) The nurse picks up a gauze pad soaked in sterile saline to cleanse the wound.
D) The nurse pulls up the sheet over the client's perineum for better draping.
E) The nurse picks up the sheet under the client’s Gluteal area for betterment of Skin.

If the nurse touches a sheet (nonsterile) with sterile gloves, the gloves are contaminated.

32. A gown should be worn when:

A) The client's hygiene is poor.
B) The client has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) or hepatitis.
C) The nurse is assisting with medication administration.
D) Blood or body fluids may get on the nurse's clothing from a task the nurse plans to perform.
Gowns should be worn when there is a possibility that blood or body fluids could get on the nurse's
clothes or when the client is on contact isolation status. The other options are not appropriate uses of
gowns.

33. When a nurse is performing surgical hand hygiene, the nurse must keep the hands:

A) Above the elbows.

B) Below the elbows.
C) At a 45-degree angle.
D) In a comfortable position.

When surgical hand hygiene is performed, the hands should always be kept above the elbows so that
the water runs from the hands to the elbows.

34. To remove a glove that is contaminated, what should the nurse do first?

A) Rinse the glove before removing it to minimize contamination.

B) Pull the glove off the back of the hand until it slides off the entire hand and discard it.
C) Grasp the outside of the cuff or palm of the glove and pull it away from the hand without touching
the wrist or fingers.
D) Put the thumb inside the wrist to slide the glove over the hand with minimal touching of the hand
by the other gloved hand.

When the outside of the cuff is grasped with the contaminated gloved hand, then dirty to dirty
remains intact. Pulling the glove away from the hand entirely without touching the wrist or fingers
further minimizes the contamination by the gloved hand. If the nurse puts the gloved thumb inside
the glove, the nurse has contaminated the bare hand with a contaminated thumb. Pulling the glove off
by holding it at the back sounds good and could minimize contamination, but it is very difficulty to
remove a glove this way without the risk of tearing the glove and creating contamination through the
tear. If excessive secretions are present on gloves, then a towel or the drape could be used to wipe off
excessive secretions before an attempt is made to remove the gloves.

35. Incubation period of poliomyelitis

A. 7-23 days.
B. 7-22 days.
C. 7-21 days.
D. 7-24 days.
7-21 days. This range can vary depending on the individual and the specific strain of the poliovirus, but
generally falls within this time frame

36. The earliest recorded pandemic the Black Death was speculated to be

A. Bubonic Plague.
B. Rabie.
C. Leprosy.
D. None of the above.

Bubonic Plague. Genetic evidence of the Yersinia pestis bacterium, which causes bubonic plague, has
confirmed that the Black Death was primarily due to this disease. Genetic evidence of the Yersinia
pestis bacterium in several plague burial grounds from 1348–1590, has also confirmed that the Black
Death was, in most cases, bubonic plague.

37. Measles has been controlled in many countries by which of the following?

A. By hygiene.
B. By MMR vaccine.
C. By new molecular peptide vaccines.
D. By humanized monoclonal antibodies to F protein.
E. By Health education.

By MMR vaccine. The MMR vaccine (measles, mumps, and rubella) has been highly effective in
controlling measles outbreaks in many countries. Vaccination programs have significantly reduced the
incidence of measles globally.

38. What is the primary symptom of infections caused by Vibrio cholerae?

A. High fever.
B. Jaundice.
C. Bloody diarrhea.
D. Profuse watery diarrhea.
E. Low grade fever.

Profuse watery diarrhea. Cholera is characterized by sudden onset of severe, watery diarrhea, often
described as "rice-water stools," which can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

39. What disease do herpes viruses not cause?

 A. Infantile paralysis.
B. Encephalitis.
C. Sexually transmitted disease.
D. Cancer.
E. Gingivostomatitis.

Infantile paralysis. Herpes viruses are not associated with causing infantile paralysis, which is primarily
caused by the poliovirus.

40. When was smallpox eradicated from the world?

A. In 1977 following a WHO campaign.

B. In 2000.
C. Is not yet eradicated.
D. In 1796 after Jenner's first vaccine.

In 1977 following a WHO campaign. The World Health Organization (WHO) declared smallpox
eradicated in 1980, but the last naturally occurring case was reported in 1977.

41. How many cases of smallpox were there in the world in 1966?

A. 131,000.
B. 1000.
C. 1 million.
D. Unknown.

131,000 cases of smallpox reported worldwide. This was part of the global efforts to eradicate the
disease, which eventually succeeded in the late 1970s.

42. Who observed the infection of the CNS due to mumps virus?

A. Hippocrates.
B. Hamilton.
C. Johnson.
D. Goodpasture.

Hamilton Hamilton was the first to observe cases of central nervous system (CNS) infection due to
the mumps virus in 1790. Hamilton in the year 1790, first noted some cases of infection of the
 central nervous system (CNS) and meninges due to mumps virus. Hippocrates noted the swelling of
testes or orchitis as a common complication of mumps.

43. Which of the following is a very rare medical condition of mumps virus infection?

A. Swelling of salivary glands.

B. Permanent deafness.
C. Depression of sperm production.
D. CMI response in the absence of humoral response.

Explanation: Permanent deafness is a very rare medical condition of mumps virus infection and the
frequency of deafness is less than 3%. The swelling of salivary glands, depression of sperm production,
CMI response in absence of humoral response are common or frequently occurring conditions due to
mumps virus infection.

44. A lesion causing compression of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen will cause ipsilateral

A. paralysis of the facial muscles.

B. paralysis of the facial muscles and loss of taste.
C. paralysis of the facial muscles, loss of taste and lacrimation.
D. paralysis of the facial muscles, loss of taste, lacrimation and decreased
salivation.

Paralysis of the facial muscles, loss of taste, lacrimation, and decreased salivation. Compression of the
facial nerve at this location affects its motor branches, which control facial expression, and also
impacts parasympathetic fibers that innervate lacrimal and salivary glands, leading to the symptoms
described.

45. Influenza vaccine is targeted towards 'at risk' groups. Which of the following are classified as 'at
risk'?

A. Age above 7 Years.

B. Age below 45 Years.
C. Athletes.
D. Teenagers.
E. Children 6 months to 59 months.

Children 6 months to 59 months. Children in this age group are classified as 'at risk' for complications
from influenza, and vaccination is strongly recommended for them, along with other high-risk
populations such as the elderly, pregnant women, and individuals with chronic health conditions.
46. Which of these is a health problem that can be caused by STIs in women?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

B. Diabetes.
C. Hypertension.
D. Dementia.
E. Depression.

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is a serious complication of sexually transmitted infections
(STIs) such as chlamydia and gonorrhea, and it can lead to chronic pain, infertility, and other
reproductive health issues

47. Which is the most common STI caused by bacteria

A. Gonorrhea.
B. Syphilis.
C. Chlamydia.
D. Genital warts.

Chlamydia. Chlamydia is the most frequently reported bacterial STI worldwide.

48. Which of the following sets represents disease communicated through contaminated food and
water?

A. Anaemia, Scurvy, Diarrhoea, Cholera.

B. Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia, Swine flu.
C. Typhoid, Malaria, Polio, Swine flu.
D. Typhoid, Malaria, Diabetes, Anaemia.
E. Typhoid, Pertussis, Malaria, Swine flu.

However, it's important to clarify that while cholera is a well-known disease transmitted through
contaminated food and water, anemia and scurvy are nutritional deficiencies rather than infectious
diseases. The most appropriate choice for diseases communicated through contaminated food and
water would be: Typhoid and Cholera specifically. But from the provided options, if focusing on
infectious diseases related to food and water contamination, A and B are partially correct, with A
having cholera as a direct link to water contamination. If you meant to only include infectious
diseases, none of the provided options fully captures that. The best answer among the provided
options that includes at least one food or water-borne illness would still be A.

49. The first person who discovered Mycobacterium tuberculosis was

 A. Louis Pasteur.
B. (b) Robert Koch.
C. (c) Edward Jenner.
D. (d) None of the above.
E. (e) Goodpasture.

Robert Koch. Robert Koch identified the bacterium that causes tuberculosis in 1882, which was a
significant milestone in the field of microbiology and disease prevention.

50. Which of these is the culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A. Wilson blair medium.

B. Löwenstein–Jensen medium.
C. Mac Conkey’s medium.
D. Joseph Lister Medium.
E. None of the above.

Löwenstein–Jensen medium. This medium is commonly used for the isolation and growth of
Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the laboratory.

51. The causative of Tuberculosis produces Tuberculin, it is a/an

A. Enzyme.
B. Hormone.
C. Endotoxin.
D. Exotoxin.
E. Protein.

Protein Tuberculin is a protein derivative produced by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is used in the

tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test) to detect latent or active tuberculosis infection.

52. How is dengue fever transmitted?

A. Bite of an infected mosquito.

B. Bite of an infected male Aedes mosquito.

C. Bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.

D. Bite of an infected female Aedes mosquito.

E. Bite of West Nile mosquito.

Bite of an infected female Aedes mosquito. The primary species responsible are Aedes aegypti and
Aedes albopictus.

53. The following are signs and symptoms manifested by a patient in the febrile phase of Dengue
fever, except:

A. High fever.
B. Rash.
C. Petechiae.
D. Severe GI bleeding.
E. Facial Flushing.

Severe GI bleeding is not typically seen in the febrile phase of dengue fever. It may occur in more
severe cases, such as dengue hemorrhagic fever, during the critical phase. The febrile phase of dengue
usually presents with high fever, rash, petechiae, and sometimes facial flushing.

54. Dengue fever incubation period ranges from:

A. A.1-12 days.
B. B.3-14 days.
C. C.14-28 days.
D. D.28-32 days.
E. 12-16 days.

3-14 days. After being bitten by an infected mosquito, symptoms of dengue usually appear within this
time frame.

55. Another name for Pertussis is:

A. Dry cough
B. Wet cough
C. Whooping cough
D. Productive cough
E. Non-Productive cough

Whooping cough. Pertussis is commonly known as whooping cough due to the characteristic
"whooping" sound made when the person breathes in after a fit of coughing.
56. In a sample of blood, doctors look for which of these elevated levels to confirm Hepatitis?

A. Interferons.
B. Calcium.
C. Liver enzymes.
D. White blood cells.
E. Red Blood cells.

Liver enzymes. Elevated levels of liver enzymes, such as alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate
transaminase (AST), are commonly used to help diagnose hepatitis. These enzymes are released into
the bloodstream when the liver is inflamed or damaged.

57. Which of the following confer(s) passive immunity?

A. Hepatitis B vaccine.
B. MMR vaccine.
C. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin.
D. Infection with measles virus.
E. Cross placental transfer of maternal antibodies.

The correct answers are:

C. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin
E. Cross placental transfer of maternal antibodies

Passive immunity involves the transfer of antibodies from one individual to another, rather than the
body generating its own immune response. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin provides immediate, short-
term protection by delivering antibodies. Similarly, maternal antibodies are passed to the fetus
through the placenta, providing passive immunity to newborns.

58. Which of the following are NOT the common symptoms of flu caused by the influenza virus in
adults?

A. Fever.
B. Cough.
C. Rashes.
D. Headache.
E. Runny Nose.

The symptoms that are NOT common in flu caused by the influenza virus in adults is:
Rashes. While influenza typically presents with fever, cough, headache, and runny nose, rashes are not
a common symptom of the flu in adults.
59. A 16-year-old girl came to the clinic with a sore throat, fever, and headache, the symptoms
resembled seasonal influenza flu. Which of the following primary samples/specimen is collected for
the laboratory diagnosis of the influenza virus?

A. Blood.
B. Sputum.
C. Urine.
D. Nasopharyngeal.
E. Stool.

Nasopharyngeal.
A nasopharyngeal swab is commonly used for testing influenza, as it allows for the detection of the virus
through methods like PCR (polymerase chain reaction) or viral culture.

60. Blackwater fever is a special manifestation of malaria caused by;

A. P. falciparum.
B. P. malariae.
C. P. ovale.
D. P. vivax.
E. D-Vivax.

P. falciparum. It is characterized by the presence of dark-colored urine due to the hemoglobinuria

resulting from the lysis of red blood cells. This condition is associated with severe cases of malaria
caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

61. A clinical situation in which the immune system or a therapy failed to eliminate all
the Plasmodium spp infected erythrocytes and numbers of Plasmodium spp in RBCs begin to increase
again with subsequent clinical symptoms is called;

A. Latency.
B. Re-infection.
C. Relapse.
D. Recrudescence.

Recrudescence refers to the return of symptoms due to the resurgence of the malaria parasite after a
period of improvement, often because the immune system or treatment did not completely eliminate
all the Plasmodium infected red blood cells (RBCs).
62. The first ever instance of AIDS was reported in

A. USA.
B. France.
C. Russia.
D. Congo.
E. None of the above.

USA. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) reported the first cases of what would later
be identified as AIDS in the United States in June 1981.

63. What is the hallmark symptom of pertussis in the paroxysmal stage?

A) High fever.
B) Severe dry cough with whooping sound.
C) Sore throat.
D) Nasal congestion.

Severe dry cough with whooping sound

64. Which age group is most at risk for severe complications from pertussis?

A) Adolescents.
B) Adults.
C) Infants.
D) Elderly.

Infants

65. What is the first stage of pertussis infection called?

A) Paroxysmal stage.
B) Catarrhal stage.
C) Recovery stage.
D) Chronic stage.

Catarrhal stage

66. What is the primary method of prevention for pertussis?

A) Antibiotic treatment.
B) Hand hygiene.
C) Vaccination.
D) Use of face masks.

Vaccination

67. During which stage of pertussis is the disease most contagious?

A) Paroxysmal stage.
B) Recovery stage.
C) Catarrhal stage.
D) Latent stage.

Catarrhal stage

68. Which of the following is a potential complication of pertussis in infants?

A) Ear infections.
B) Pneumonia.
C) Seizures.
D) All of the above.

All of the above

69. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pertussis?

A) Coughing fits.
B) Runny nose.
C) Shortness of breath.
D) Joint pain.

Joint pain

70. How long can the paroxysmal stage of pertussis last?

A) 1-2 days.
B) 1-2 weeks.
C) 2-8 weeks.
D) 8-12 weeks.

2-8 weeks

71. Tetanus is caused by which bacterium?

A) Clostridium botulinum.
B) Clostridium tetani.
C) Bacillus anthracis.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.

Clostridium tetani

72. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of tetanus?

A) Skin rash.
B) Muscle stiffness and spasms.
C) Fever and chills.
D) Headache and nausea.

Muscle stiffness and spasms

73. What is the primary toxin responsible for tetanus symptoms?

A) Botulinum toxin.
B) Tetanolysin.
C) Tetanospasmin.
D) Enterotoxin.

Tetanospasmin

74. Which of the following wounds is most likely to lead to tetanus infection?

A) Superficial skin abrasion.

B) Deep puncture wound from a rusty nail.
C) Minor cut on the hand.
D) Insect bite.

Deep puncture wound from a rusty nail

75. What is the first muscle group typically affected by tetanus?

A) Neck muscles.
B) Abdominal muscles.
C) Jaw muscles.
D) Leg muscles.

Jaw muscles (leading to "lockjaw")

76. Which vaccine is used to prevent tetanus?

A) BCG vaccine.
B) DTP or Tdap vaccine.
C) MMR vaccine.
D) Hepatitis B vaccine.

DTP or Tdap vaccine (Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis)

77. How often should adults receive a tetanus booster shot?

A) Every 2 years.
B) Every 5 years.
C) Every 10 years.
D) Once in a lifetime.

Every 10 years

78. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of tetanus?

A) Muscle spasms.
B) Difficulty swallowing.
C) Uncontrolled bowel movements.
D) Sweating.

Uncontrolled bowel movements.

79. What is the incubation period for tetanus, typically?

A) 1-3 days.
B) 3-21 days.
C) 21-40 days.
D) 40-60 days.

3-21 days

80. Enteric fever is primarily caused by which bacteria?

A) Escherichia coli.
B) Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi.
C) Vibrio cholerae.
D) Clostridium difficile.

Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi

81. What is the most common mode of transmission for enteric fever?

A) Airborne transmission.
B) Vector-borne transmission.
C) Faeco-oral route (contaminated food and water).
D) Direct contact with infected animals.

Faeco-oral route (contaminated food and water)

82. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of enteric fever?

A) High fever.
B) Abdominal pain.
C) Rash (rose spots).
D) Joint swelling.

Joint swelling

83. What is the gold standard for diagnosing enteric fever?

A) Stool culture.
B) Blood culture.
C) Urine culture.
D) Chest X-ray.

Blood culture

84. Which vaccine is used to prevent enteric fever?

A) BCG vaccine.
B) Typhoid vaccine.
C) Hepatitis B vaccine.
D) Rabies vaccine.

Typhoid vaccine

85. Poliomyelitis is caused by which of the following?

A) Escherichia coli.
B) Poliovirus.
C) Clostridium tetani.
D) Salmonella typhi.

Poliovirus
86. Poliovirus primarily affects which part of the body?

A) Heart.
B) Liver.
C) Central nervous system.
D) Kidneys.

Central nervous system

87. How is poliovirus most commonly transmitted?

A) Airborne droplets.
B) Faeco-oral route.
C) Vector-borne.
D) Blood contact.

Faeco-oral route

88. Which form of polio causes paralysis?

A) Non-paralytic polio.
B) Paralytic polio.
C) Subclinical polio.
D) Asymptomatic polio.

Paralytic polio

89. What is the incubation period for poliomyelitis?

A) 1-3 days.
B) 7-21 days.
C) 30-60 days.
D) 90-120 days.

7-21 days

90. Which part of the nervous system is most affected by poliovirus?

A) Cerebellum.
B) Brainstem.
C) Spinal cord.
D) Hypothalamus.

Spinal cord
91. Which of the following vaccines is used to prevent poliomyelitis?

A) BCG vaccine.
B) DTP vaccine.
C) IPV and OPV vaccines.
D) MMR vaccine.

IPV and OPV vaccines (Inactivated and Oral Polio Vaccines)

92. What is the most serious complication of poliomyelitis?

A) Hearing loss.
B) Paralysis.
C) Vision impairment.
D) Joint pain.

Paralysis

93. Which age group is most at risk for severe polio complications?

A) Adults.
B) Infants and young children.
C) Elderly.
D) Adolescents.

Infants and young children

94. Poliovirus primarily replicates in which part of the body after initial infection?

A) Bloodstream.
B) Lymph nodes.
C) Intestinal mucosa.
D) Lungs.

Intestinal mucosa

95. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of non-paralytic polio?

A) Fever.
B) Neck stiffness.
C) Abdominal pain.
D) Persistent cough.
Persistent cough

96. Which part of the world was declared polio-free by the WHO in 2020?

A) Africa.
B) Europe.
C) South America.
D) Southeast Asia.

Africa

97. Which test is commonly used to confirm a polio diagnosis?

A) Blood test.
B) Stool culture.
C) X-ray.
D) Ultrasound.

Stool culture

98. Which of the following statements is true regarding post-polio syndrome?

A) It affects individuals who have never had polio.

B) It develops years after recovery from polio.
C) It is caused by re-infection with the poliovirus.
D) It only affects young children.

It develops years after recovery from polio.

99. Which of the following countries still reports cases of polio?

A) USA.
B) India.
C) Pakistan.
D) Japan.

Pakistan

100. What type of virus is poliovirus?

A) DNA virus.
B) RNA virus.
C) Retrovirus.
D) Prion.

RNA virus

101. What is the preferred method of polio prevention in endemic areas?

A) Antibiotics.
B) Vaccination campaigns.
C) Isolation of patients.
D) Handwashing.

Vaccination campaigns

102. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of paralytic polio?

A) Sudden onset of weakness.

B) High fever.
C) Difficulty breathing.
D) Progressive hearing loss.

Progressive hearing loss

103. Poliovirus belongs to which viral family?

A) Flaviviridae.
B) Picornaviridae.
C) Paramyxoviridae.
D) Retroviridae.

Picornaviridae

104. Dengue fever is caused by which type of pathogen?

A) Bacteria.
B) Virus.
C) Fungus.
D) Protozoa.

Virus

105. Which mosquito species is the primary vector for dengue fever?

A) Anopheles.
B) Aedes aegypti.
C) Culex.
D) Tsetse fly.

Aedes aegypti

106. Which of the following is a common symptom of dengue fever?

A) High fever.
B) Cough.
C) Rash.
D) Both A and C.

Both A and C

107. What is the primary mode of transmission for dengue fever?

A) Airborne droplets.
B) Contaminated food.
C) Mosquito bite.
D) Direct contact with blood.

Mosquito bite

108. How many serotypes of the dengue virus are there?

A) 2.
B) 3.
C) 4.
D) 5.

109. Which of the following is a severe complication of dengue fever?

A) Dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF).

B) Dengue shock syndrome (DSS).
C) Encephalitis.
D) Both A and B.

Both A and B

110. Which phase of dengue fever is most associated with the risk of hemorrhage?
A) Febrile phase.
B) Critical phase.
C) Recovery phase.
D) Incubation phase.

Critical phase

111. What is the typical incubation period for dengue fever?

A) 1-3 days.
B) 3-14 days.
C) 14-21 days.
D) 30-45 days.

3-14 days

112. Which of the following lab tests is commonly used to diagnose dengue fever?

A) Liver function test.

B) Blood culture.
C) PCR test or NS1 antigen test.
D) Urine test.

PCR test or NS1 antigen test

113. A key sign of dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF) is:

A) Joint pain.
B) Dehydration.
C) Low platelet count.
D) Rash.

Low platelet count

114. Which symptom is often referred to as "breakbone fever" in dengue?

A) Severe headache.
B) Joint and muscle pain.
C) Fever.
D) Nausea.

Joint and muscle pain

115. Which vaccine has been developed to prevent dengue fever?

A) Dengvaxia.
B) BCG.
C) MMR.
D) Yellow Fever vaccine.

Dengvaxia

116. What type of rash is common in dengue fever?

A) Papular rash.
B) Petechial rash.
C) Vesicular rash.
D) Pustular rash.

Petechial rash

117. Dengue fever is most commonly found in which climates?

A) Desert climates.
B) Temperate climates.
C) Tropical and subtropical climates.
D) Polar climates.

Tropical and subtropical climates

118. Which of the following can help reduce the risk of contracting dengue fever?

A) Avoiding crowded places.

B) Wearing long sleeves and using mosquito repellent.
C) Taking antibiotics.
D) Consuming only cooked food.

Wearing long sleeves and using mosquito repellent