Concepcion Holy Cross College, Inc.

Juan Luna St., Minane Concepcion, Tarlac

Tel No. 045-923-0747
E-Mail Address: [email protected]
https://www.chcc.edu.ph
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MC3 – MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

FINAL TERM QUIZ #2

Name: __________________________ Score: _______

Date: ___________

Instruction: Write the letter of correct answer on the space provided before the number. No erasures are allowed.

______ 1. What is the infectious dose of Salmonella bacteria?

A. 100 to 10,000 bacilli C. 1000 to 100,000 bacilli
B. 100 to 1,000 bacilli D. 1000 to 1,000,000 bacilli

______ 2. Which statement is accurate regarding Peyer's patches and Salmonella typhi?
A. Peyer's patches protect the body from Salmonella typhi by releasing antibodies.
B. Peyer's patches are the sites where Salmonella typhi bacteria multiply and spread.
C. Salmonella typhi cannot infect Peyer's patches as they are immune to bacterial infection.
D. Salmonella typhi increases the production of Peyer's patches in the body.

______ 3. Which of the following best describes the primary mode of transmission of Salmonella typhi?
A. It is primarily transmitted through direct contact with an infected person.
B. It is primarily transmitted via airborne particles.
C. It is primarily transmitted through insect bites.
D. It is primarily transmitted through contaminated food or water.

______ 4. Which of the following statements best describes the characteristic rose spots associated with Typhoid fever?
A. They are bluish-purplish raised bumps that appear all over the body.
B. They are small, flat, white spots that only appear on the face and neck.
C. They are bright red, rash-like spots localized to the feet and hands.
D. They are small, red, flat spots that appear on the abdomen and chest.

______ 5. The Widal test is significant in the diagnosis of typhoid fever because it:
A. Searches for H and O antibodies in the patient's blood sample
B. Searches for H and O antigens in the patient's blood sample
C. Searches for H and O enzymes in the patient's blood sample
D. Searches for H and O proteins in the patient's blood sample

______ 6. What is the most effective method for the prevention of Typhoid Fever?
A. Regularly consuming raw vegetables without washing
B. Regular handwashing and consumption of safe food and water
C. Drinking water directly from lakes or rivers
D. Prioritizing outdoor activities without bug repellent

______ 7. Which of the following statements correctly describes the impact of chlorination on Shigella bacterium?
A. Shigella bacterium is stimulated by chlorination. C. Shigella bacterium are preserved by
B. Shigella bacterium are immune to chlorination. chlorination.
D. Shigella bacterium are killed by chlorination.

______ 8. How is the Shigella bacterium primarily transmitted?

A. Through airborne particles from coughing or sneezing
B. Via direct contact with the skin or bodily fluids
C. By mechanical vectors such as flies that can transmit microorganisms from feces to food
D. Due to improper sterilization of surgical equipment

______ 9. What is a key symptom associated with Shigella dysenteriae infection?

A. High-grade fever with normal stool C. High-grade fever with bloody stool
B. Low-grade fever with bloody stool D. Low-grade fever with normal stool

______ 10. Which specimen is typically collected to detect the presence of Shigella dysenteriae bacteria in the human
body?
A. Blood sample C. Saliva sample
B. Hair sample D. Stool sample

______ 11. Which of the following statements about Shigella dysenteriae is true?
A. Proper cooking of food can prevent infection.
B. Proper cooking of food can increase the risk of infection.
C. Proper cooking of food does not affect the chance of infection.
 D. Proper cooking of food promotes the proliferation of the bacteria.
______ 12. What is the primary mode of transmission for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A. Through sexual contact C. Through inhaling airborne particles
B. Through sharing needles or syringes D. Through mosquito bites

______ 13. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the viability of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can't survive outside the human body
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can survive for weeks in a dry state
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis dies immediately on contact with air
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can only live in water

______ 14. What is the characteristic feature of the primary complex in Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection?
A. Formation of granulomas in the lungs and regional lymph nodes
B. Formation of granulomas in the liver and kidney
C. Presence of bacteria in the heart muscle
D. Presence of bacteria in the brain tissues

______ 15. Which of the following statements accurately describes Secondary Tuberculosis caused by Mycobacterium
tuberculosis?
A. It occurs when an initial tuberculosis infection reactivates after being dormant.
B. It is characterized by the first-ever exposure and infection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C. It is less severe than the primary tuberculosis infection.
D. It is a condition whereby tuberculosis spreads to non-lung parts of the body after the initial infection.

______ 16. Which of the following statements is true about Mycobacterium tuberculosis and hemoptysis?
A. Hemoptysis is the scientific name for Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes hemoptysis, the coughing up of blood or blood-stained mucus.
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis cannot cause hemoptysis.
D. Hemoptysis is a symptom that cannot occur in tuberculosis patients.

______ 17. Dr. Stevens is giving a seminar about Mycobacterium tuberculosis prevention in high-risk areas. What method
would he likely recommend as the most effective way to prevent the spread of this disease?
A. Regular exposure to sunshine and fresh air
B. Avoiding direct contact with anyone who has a cough
C. Prescription of strong antibiotics to all community members
D. Vaccination and ensuring early detection through regular health checks

______ 18. Joanna, a nurse, is administering a Mantoux test to a patient suspected of having tuberculosis. After 48-72
hours, she checks the injection site and observes an induration of about 10 mm. What does the result indicate?
A. The result is negative for tuberculosis
B. The result is not conclusive and the test needs to be repeated
C. The result is positive for tuberculosis
D. The result indicates the presence of another infection, not tuberculosis

______ 19. A 25-year-old woman travels to Southeast Asia and is worried about being exposed to tuberculosis. She
consults with her doctor and learns about the BCG vaccine. Considering BCG vaccine type, what should the doctor
explain to her about this vaccine?
A. The BCG vaccine contains a live, fully virulent strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which can cause serious
infections.
B. The BCG vaccine is a synthetic vaccine that contains no live bacteria and therefore can't cause any infections.
C. The BCG vaccine is a subunit vaccine that contains only parts of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D. The BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine, containing a weakened form of the bacteria which helps
stimulate an immune response.

______ 20. What is the unique characteristic of Mycobacterium leprae which is also known as Hansen's disease?
A. It causes upper respiratory infections C. It regulates the digestive system
B. It is a bacterium that causes leprosy D. It is a virus that causes influenza

______ 21. What does a positive lepromin test indicate in a patient?

A. The patient has latent tuberculosis.
B. The patient has an advanced stage of tuberculosis.
C. The patient has a strong immune response to leprosy.
D. The patient has Hepatitis C.

______ 22. Melissa works in a leprosy-endemic area as a healthcare worker. She knows that prevention of
Mycobacterium leprae infection is critical to her and her community's health. Which of the following practices should
Melissa initially perform to minimize the risk of transmission?
A. Avoiding any physical contact with individuals infected with Mycobacterium leprae
B. Wearing masks and gloves when in contact with infected individuals
C. Providing early diagnosis and treatment for infected individuals
D. Administering antibiotics to all members of the community as a proactive measure
______ 23. Which statement accurately describes Lepromatous Leprosy?
A. It's caused by the least virulent bacilli and usually affects the lower respiratory tract.
B. It is the most virulent bacilli that primarily affects the digestive system.
C. It's the most virulent bacilli that affects the upper respiratory tract.
D. This type of leprosy is caused by a virus and affects the nervous system.

______ 24. How is the bacterium Vibrio cholerae primarily transmitted to humans?
A. Through the bite of an infected mosquito
B. Through direct skin contact with an infected person
C. Through inhalation of infected air droplets
D. Through consumption of contaminated water or food

______ 25. A patient has recently returned from a trip to a developing country and presents with symptoms of
profuse, painless, watery diarrhea. After a stool culture, Vibrio cholerae is identified. Which of the following is
the most appropriate treatment intervention?
A. Fluid rehydration only
B. Fluid rehydration and broad-spectrum antibiotics
C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics only
D. Food restriction and fluid rehydration

______ 26. A 45-year-old marathon runner was brought into the emergency room unresponsive. Medical
history revealed that he was participating in a race and had not consumed any fluids throughout the event,
which lasted several hours amidst high temperatures. Laboratory tests were ordered and results came back
showing the patient's Hematocrit (percent of blood volume that is red blood cells) and Hemoglobin (protein in
red blood cells that carries oxygen) levels were significantly higher than the normal range. Based on this
scenario, what could be the potential cause of the elevated Hematocrit and Hemoglobin levels?
A. The patient's body produced more red blood cells during the race.
B. The patient lost a significant amount of blood during the race.
C. The patient consumed a high-iron diet before the marathon.
D. The patient suffered severe dehydration leading to hemoconcentration.

______ 27. Which of the following statements is true about Treponema pallidum and Syphilis?
A. Syphilis can be caused by a bacteria called Treponema pallidum and it is a sexually transmitted
infection.
B. Treponema pallidum can only be transmitted through blood transfusions.
C. Syphilis is a bacterial infection that cannot be sexually transmitted.
D. Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, is a viral sexually transmitted infection.

______ 28. Which of the following is a characteristic of primary syphilis?

A. Multiple painful sores in the mouth area
B. A painful rash over the entire body
C. Increase in body temperature and severe fatigue
D. A painless sore or chancre at the site of infection

______ 29. A 25-year-old male presents in your clinical office for check-up. He is sexually active with multiple
partners and does not use protection consistently. He seeks advice about preventing sexually transmitted
diseases, particularly syphilis. What advice would you give to this patient to effectively prevent the contraction
and spread of syphilis?
A. Continue your current sexual behavior, syphilis is not a severe disease
B. Only get vaccinated for syphilis as it offers full protection from the disease
C. Always use condoms during sex and limit the number of your sexual partners
D. Use abstinence as the only foolproof method for preventing all STDs, including syphilis

______ 30. What is the mode of transmission for the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, which is responsible for
Lyme disease?
A. Sexual contact C. Ingestion of contaminated food or water
B. Direct contact with infected animals D. Bite of an infected tick

______ 31. What is the primary mode of transmission for Leptospira?

A. Through direct contact with infected animals
B. Through inhalation of airborne pathogens
C. Through ingestion of contaminated food
D. Through sexual transmission

______ 32. What is the primary portal of entry for Leptospira into the human body?
A. Respiratory tract C. Skin and mucous membranes
B. Gastrointestinal tract D. Cardiovascular system
______ 33. Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between icteric and non-
icteric leptospirosis?
A. Icteric leptospirosis refers to the absence of jaundice symptoms, while non-icteric leptospirosis involves
jaundice.
B. Icteric leptospirosis involves symptoms of jaundice, while non-icteric leptospirosis does not
involve jaundice symptoms.
C. Both icteric and non-icteric leptospirosis present the same symptoms and are just different names for
the same disease.
D. Non-icteric leptospirosis is a more severe version of the disease compared to icteric leptospirosis.

______ 34. A 35-year-old patient came to the hospital with complaints of sudden weight loss, night sweats,
and enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. He also mentioned having a persisting cough that produces yellowish
phlegm. Based on the given conditions, what bacterial infection could the patient be suffering from?
A. Tuberculosis C. Common cold
B. HIV D. Influenza

______ 35. A nurse is educating the community about the prevention of leptospirosis infection. Which of the
following advice would be appropriate for her to discuss to the residents?
A. Encourage residents to have numerous cats that are natural rat predators.
B. Suggest residents to leave open garbage bins to attract rats out of their homes.
C. Inform residents to clean their house regularly and seal possible rats’ entry points.
D. Advise residents to scatter food items around

______ 36. Dr. Allen, gets a new patient named Jamal who has a dark skin complexion. Jamal has been
experiencing a strange feeling of fatigue and abdominal discomfort. He has to assess the possible presence of
jaundice. Knowing that the evaluation of jaundice in people with darker skin color can be challenging, where
should Dr. Allen focus his examination?
A. On the soles of Jamal's feet C. On the palm of Jamal's hands
B. On the scalp of Jamal's head D. On the sclera of Jamal's eyes

______ 37. You are a volunteer during a flood relief operation in a small town. You've been informed that
there is a risk of leptospirosis infection in the floodwaters. The night before the operation, you start packing
your gear. Which one of these footwear options would be most suitable to protect against possible infection?
A. Simple flip-flops
B. Regular running shoes
C. Leather boots without any waterproofing treatment
D. High-quality waterproof boots